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(CLJ 3) CRIMINAL LAW BOOK 1
Contributed by: Ninge
  • 1. The Revised Penal Code took effect on:
A) January 1, 1930
B) January 1, 1932
C) January 1, 1933
D) July 1, 1932
  • 2. Criminal Law in the Philippines is:
A) Generally prospective but may be retroactive if favorable to the accused
B) Retrospective
C) Always retroactive
D) Prospective
  • 3. The fundamental principle of nullum crimen, nulla poena sine lege means:
A) Law excuses ignorance
B) Every act is punishable
C) Criminal law is moral law
D) There is no crime when there is no law punishing it
  • 4. The purpose of penal laws is primarily:
A) To protect society and maintain order
B) To compensate victims
C) To enrich the state
D) To provide civil remedies
  • 5. A crime that affects the public interest is known as:
A) A moral wrong
B) A public crime
C) A quasi-crime
D) A private crime
  • 6. The Revised Penal Code is mainly based on:
A) American Common Law
B) Spanish Penal Code
C) German Criminal Code
D) French Code Napoleon
  • 7. Acts mala in se are punished because:
A) They offend administrative rules
B) They are inherently wrong
C) They are civil wrongs
D) They are prohibited by law
  • 8. Acts mala prohibita are punished because:
A) They are immoral
B) They are crimes against nature
C) They are prohibited by law
D) They are torts
  • 9. The sources of criminal law include:
A) Civil Code
B) The Revised Penal Code and special penal laws
C) Custom
D) Local ordinances only
  • 10. The principle that penal laws shall be construed strictly against the State is:
A) Rule of lenity
B) Doctrine of finality
C) Rule of conduct
D) Rule of equity
  • 11. Ignorance of the law excuses no one because:
A) It is a privilege
B) It is an absolute defense
C) Law is optional
D) Everyone is presumed to know the law
  • 12. The civil liability arising from crime is known as:
A) Civil contract
B) Civil liability ex delicto
C) Civil liability quasi-delicto
D) Restitution only
  • 13. Territoriality principle means:
A) Only to foreigners
B) Philippine criminal laws apply within its territory
C) To all Filipinos abroad
D) Only to land territory
  • 14. The concept that certain crimes are punishable even if committed abroad is:
A) Nationality
B) Universality
C) Global jurisdiction
D) Extraterritoriality principle
  • 15. When a penal law is favorable to the accused, it shall be given:
A) Retroactive effect
B) Prospective effect only
C) Temporary application
D) No effect
  • 16. The general rule that penal laws are prospective means:
A) They apply to foreigners only
B) They are always retroactive
C) They apply only to acts committed after their effectivity
D) They apply to all acts anytime
  • 17. The main object of punishment is:
A) Intimidation only
B) Compensation
C) Prevention and reformation
D) Revenge
  • 18. Criminal Law is binding on all persons who:
A) Are Filipinos only
B) Are foreigners only
C) Are minors
D) Live or sojourn in Philippine territory
  • 19. The term “felony” refers to:
A) An act or omission punishable under the Revised Penal Code
B) A violation of ordinance
C) A civil wrong
D) A sin
  • 20. Felonies may be committed by:
A) Dolo (intent) or culpa (fault)
B) Contract
C) Agreement
D) Necessity
  • 21. Intentional felonies require:
A) Negligence
B) Freedom, intelligence, intent
C) Force, coercion, mistake
D) Consent
  • 22. Negligent felonies are committed through:
A) Fraud
B) Premeditation
C) Malice
D) Imprudence or negligence
  • 23. The three stages of execution of a felony are:
A) Planning, execution, completion
B) Partial, full, final
C) Attempted, frustrated, consummated
D) Begun, ended, finished
  • 24. When all acts of execution are performed but the crime is not produced by reason independent of the will of the offender, it is:
A) Consummated
B) Impossible
C) Frustrated felony
D) Attempted
  • 25. When the crime is produced by the acts of execution:
A) Frustrated
B) Consummated felony
C) Attempted
D) Impossible
  • 26. Impossible crime is committed when:
A) The result is achieved
B) The act is accidental
C) The act performed would be an offense but for its impossibility of accomplishment
D) The act is lawful
  • 27. An example of an impossible crime:
A) Killing an animal
B) Breaking a vase
C) Stealing your own property
D) Shooting a corpse believing it alive
  • 28. Criminal intent is presumed when:
A) The victim dies
B) There is motive
C) The act is proven unlawful
D) The accused is a first offender
  • 29. Motive is important only when:
A) The crime is heinous
B) The identity of the offender is in doubt
C) The act is admitted
D) There is evidence of guilt
  • 30. When the offender performs acts of execution but does not perform all that would produce the felony:
A) Consummated
B) Impossible
C) Frustrated
D) Attempted felony
  • 31. The result of a negligent act is punishable because:
A) It is immoral
B) The law punishes carelessness resulting in injury
C) There is intent
D) There is motive
  • 32. Aberratio ictus means:
A) Mistake in identity
B) Accidental harm
C) Mistake in the blow
D) Impossible crime
  • 33. Error in personae means:
A) Mistake in blow
B) Lack of intent
C) Mistake in the identity of the victim
D) Impossible crime
  • 34. Praeter intentionem means:
A) Negligence
B) The result is graver than intended
C) No crime committed
D) The act is lawful
  • 35. When a person is forced by irresistible force to commit a crime, he is:
A) Liable
B) Mitigated
C) Exempt from criminal liability
D) Aggravated
  • 36. Uncontrollable fear exempts from liability if:
A) It is lawful fear
B) The fear is real and imminent
C) The fear is imaginary
D) It is voluntary
  • 37. Accident without fault exempts when:
A) The act was unlawful
B) There was negligence
C) The act was intentional
D) The act was lawful and injury was purely accidental
  • 38. Voluntary surrender is a:
A) Ordinary
B) Exempting
C) Mitigating circumstance
D) Aggravating
  • 39. Aggravating circumstance increases:
A) The liability only
B) The penalty
C) The damages
D) The motive
  • 40. Mitigating circumstance decreases:
A) The fine
B) The gravity of crime
C) The penalty
D) The number of victims
  • 41. Self-defense is a/an:
A) Aggravating
B) Justifying circumstance
C) Mitigating
D) Exempting
  • 42. The requisites of self-defense are:
A) Provocation and necessity
B) Unlawful aggression, reasonable necessity, lack of sufficient provocation
C) Unlawful aggression and retaliation only
D) Retaliation, anger, revenge
  • 43. Unlawful aggression means:
A) Mere threat
B) Actual or imminent attack giving rise to danger to life or limb
C) Use of insulting words
D) Verbal abuse
  • 44. Defense of relatives includes defending:
A) Friends
B) Co-workers
C) Spouse, ascendants, descendants, brothers, sisters, relatives by affinity within the same degree
D) Strangers
  • 45. Defense of a stranger is justified if:
A) The stranger requests
B) The aggression is verbal
C) It benefits the accused
D) There is no participation in the aggression and there is a lawful reason to defend
  • 46. Obedience to an order of a superior exempts from liability if:
A) The superior is a friend
B) The order is lawful and the subordinate had no duty to refuse
C) The act is immoral
D) The order is unjust
  • 47. Insanity exempts from liability if:
A) The accused completely lost intelligence at the time of the act
B) He was emotional
C) He was partially insane
D) He was merely drunk
  • 48. Minority exempts from liability when:
A) The offender is under 15 years of age
B) Over 21 years old
C) 18 years old
D) Under 20 years old
  • 49. Drunkenness is mitigating only if:
A) It is not habitual and not subsequent to the plan to commit crime
B) It is planned
C) It is habitual
D) It is voluntary
  • 50. Passion or obfuscation is mitigating when:
A) It arises from lawful sentiments
B) It is premeditated
C) It is caused by greed
D) It is done for revenge
  • 51. Voluntary confession before trial is:
A) Aggravating
B) Mitigating
C) Exempting
D) Justifying
  • 52. Sufficient provocation is:
A) Aggravating
B) Justifying
C) Exempting
D) Mitigating
  • 53. Reiteracion (recidivism) is:
A) Mitigating
B) Ordinary
C) Exempting
D) Aggravating circumstance
  • 54. Evident premeditation is:
A) Aggravating circumstance
B) Special aggravating
C) Justifying
D) Mitigating
  • 55. Nighttime is aggravating when:
A) It occurs by chance
B) It is purposely sought to facilitate the crime
C) It is daytime
D) It is accidental
  • 56. Abuse of superior strength means:
A) Acting alone
B) Being armed
C) Attacking a stranger
D) Taking advantage of strength to weaken the defense of victim
  • 57. Ignominy is:
A) Torturing oneself
B) Killing in anger
C) Adding moral suffering to the victim
D) Robbing in group
  • 58. Treachery requires:
A) Motive of revenge
B) Means, methods, or forms that insure execution without risk to the offender
C) Abuse of power only
D) Surprise attack only
  • 59. When an aggravating circumstance is offset by a mitigating one:
A) The penalty increases
B) The penalty remains in its medium period
C) The penalty decreases
D) The crime is extinguished
  • 60. Alternative circumstances depend on:
A) The result only
B) The motive only
C) The nature and relationship of the parties
D) The method of attack
  • 61. Relationship is mitigating when:
A) They are strangers
B) The victim is an enemy
C) None of the above
D) The offended party is a relative of the offender and the law so provides
  • 62. Relationship is aggravating when:
A) The relationship is friendly
B) The offender abuses the respect due to the offended party
C) The crime is minor
D) The act is accidental
  • 63. Incomplete self-defense is:
A) Justifying
B) A privileged mitigating circumstance
C) Ordinary mitigating
D) Exempting
  • 64. Attempt to commit suicide is:
A) Mitigating
B) Punishable
C) Exempting only
D) Not punishable
  • 65. Conspiracy exists when:
A) They argue only
B) They merely discuss
C) Two or more persons agree and decide to commit a felony
D) One suggests but others refuse
  • 66. Conspiracy makes all conspirators:
A) Principals
B) Accomplices
C) Accessories
D) Witnesses
  • 67. When a person helps in the commission of a crime by cooperation, he is:
A) An accessory
B) A principal
C) An instigator
D) An accomplice
  • 68. When a person participates after the commission of a crime, he is:
A) An accessory
B) An accomplice
C) A conspirator
D) A principal
  • 69. A principal by inducement is one who:
A) Merely assists
B) Directly induces another to commit the crime
C) Aids in concealment
D) Provides information only
  • 70. Accessories are exempt from criminal liability when:
A) They are relatives of the principal (spouse, ascendant, descendant, sibling)
B) They are co-workers
C) They are neighbors
D) They are friends
  • 71. The three classes of principals are:
A) By direct participation, by inducement, by indispensable cooperation
B) By order only
C) By negligence
D) By attempt only
  • 72. The penalty is the punishment:
A) Imposed by the court upon conviction
B) Desired by the victim
C) Optional
D) Recommended by police
  • 73. The penalties under the Revised Penal Code are divided into:
A) Major and minor
B) Primary and secondary
C) Principal and accessory penalties
D) Ordinary and special
  • 74. Reclusion perpetua has a duration of:
A) 20 years and 1 day to 40 years
B) 12 years and 1 day to 20 years
C) 6 years to 12 years
D) Life imprisonment
  • 75. Arresto menor has a duration of:
A) 1 day to 30 days
B) 6 months to 1 year
C) 1 month to 6 months
D) 30 days to 2 years
  • 76. Prision correccional is:
A) 12 years and 1 day to 20 years
B) 6 months and 1 day to 6 years
C) 6 years and 1 day to 12 years
D) 1 day to 30 days
  • 77. Prision mayor is:
A) 6 years and 1 day to 12 years
B) 1 month to 6 years
C) 12 years and 1 day to 20 years
D) 20 years to 40 years
  • 78. Reclusion temporal is:
A) 20 years to 40 years
B) 1 year to 10 years
C) 6 months to 6 years
D) 12 years and 1 day to 20 years
  • 79. Life imprisonment is:
A) Lighter than arresto mayor
B) Always 30 years
C) A penalty under special laws without fixed duration
D) Same as reclusion perpetua
  • 80. The death penalty is:
A) Abolished under present laws (R.A. 9346)
B) Optional
C) Still enforced
D) Applied to heinous crimes
  • 81. Civil interdiction is an:
A) Principal penalty
B) Special measure
C) Ordinary penalty
D) Accessory penalty
  • 82. Confiscation of instruments and proceeds of the crime is:
A) Accessory penalty
B) Civil liability
C) Mitigating
D) Aggravating
  • 83. Subsidiary imprisonment applies when:
A) The convict cannot pay the fine
B) The convict is acquitted
C) The convict escapes
D) The convict is foreign
  • 84. The penalty next lower in degree is applied when:
A) There is none mitigating
B) None above
C) There is aggravation
D) There is a privileged mitigating circumstance
  • 85. Destierro means:
A) Suspension
B) Imprisonment
C) Banishment from a place for a specified time
D) Hard labor
  • 86. Perpetual absolute disqualification means:
A) Temporary dismissal
B) Loss of public office and right to vote or be voted for
C) Civil interdiction only
D) Suspension
  • 87. Penalties are divided into degrees and periods to:
A) Shorten imprisonment
B) Increase punishment
C) Make computation easier
D) Adjust punishment according to circumstances
  • 88. A light felony is punishable by:
A) Reclusion perpetua
B) Life imprisonment
C) Arresto menor or fine not exceeding ₱40,000
D) Prision correccional
  • 89. Grave felonies are those punishable by:
A) Capital punishment or afflictive penalties
B) Simple penalties
C) Light penalties
D) Fines only
  • 90. Less grave felonies are punishable by:
A) Civil penalties
B) Accessory penalties
C) Light penalties
D) Correctional penalties
  • 91. Criminal liability is totally extinguished by:
A) Bail
B) Probation only
C) Parole only
D) Death, service of sentence, amnesty, absolute pardon, prescription, marriage (in cases provided by law)
  • 92. Criminal liability is partially extinguished by:
A) Death
B) Prescription
C) Conditional pardon, commutation, parole, good conduct
D) Amnesty
  • 93. Amnesty is granted by:
A) The Supreme Court
B) The President with concurrence of Congress
C) The Senate only
D) The Secretary of Justice
  • 94. Pardon is an act of:
A) The offended party
B) The court
C) Congress
D) Executive clemency granted by the President
  • 95. Probation is granted by:
A) The court after conviction
B) The offended party
C) The prosecutor
D) The President
  • 96. Prescription of crimes means:
A) Loss of evidence
B) Loss of right of the State to prosecute after lapse of time
C) The case is closed
D) The crime is pardoned
  • 97. Prescription of penalty means:
A) Loss of right to enforce sentence after lapse of time
B) Death of offender
C) Crime no longer punishable
D) Conviction is void
  • 98. Conditional pardon is revoked when:
A) The conditions are violated
B) The convict behaves well
C) The convict dies
D) The term ends
  • 99. Extinction of civil liability does not extinguish:
A) The evidence
B) Criminal liability
C) The punishment
D) The crime
  • 100. Civil liability is extinguished by:
A) Pardon
B) Amnesty
C) Payment, loss of thing, remission, prescription, or merger
D) Probation
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