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ISMANA (Finals) CABS
Contributed by: CABAS
(Original author: Delos Reyes)
  • 1. Which of the following would most likely result in covert compromise of classified data without leaving physical evidence
A) Sabotage
B) Subversion
C) Espionage
D) Pilferage
  • 2. What distinguishes a systematic pilferer from a casual one?
A) Only steals small, easily hidden items
B) Level of Education
C) Intent and premeditation in theft
D) Number of times they were caught
  • 3. A security manager chooses to invest heavily in surveillance, alarm systems, and intrusion detection. This application is best classified as:
A) Risk Transfer
B) Risk Avoidance
C) Risk Reduction
D) Risk Self-Assumption
  • 4. What is the first step when a visitor enters a secure facility
A) Issue of weapons
B) Allow free access
C) Identification and Verification of purpose
D) Body Frisking
  • 5. What is the primary distinction between espionage and subversion
A) Espionage focuses on information theft, Subversion seeks to weaken authority or cause disruption
B) Espionage is legally protected: Subversion is Criminal
C) Espionage targets morale: Subversion targets information
D) Subversion is done by governments only
  • 6. A company decides to decentralize it's data storage across multiple sites to minimize the impact of a cyber attack. This is the example of?
A) Risk Transfer
B) Risk Reduction
C) Risk Self Assumption
D) Risk Spreading
  • 7. Which of the following scenario best exemplifies risk self Assumption?
A) Hiring a private contractor to manage physical security
B) Ignoring risk completely due to lack of budget
C) Spreading the risk by outsourcing critical operations
D) A company opting not to ensure a low-value asset but setting aside funds in case of loss
  • 8. What human hazard involves international damage to physical assets without stealing or spying
A) Pilferage
B) Vandalism
C) Subversion
D) Espionage
  • 9. An adversary is best described as:
A) A legal owner of an asset
B) An environmental condition causing damage
C) A security measure in place to protect assets
D) An entity with both intent and capability to harm another
  • 10. In risk analysis, "critically" is best assessed through:
A) The number of people using the asset
B) The financial or survival of losing the assets
C) The frequency of threat attempts
D) The visibility of the asset
  • 11. Conducts area cleaning operations ahead of the VIP's arrival
A) Advance Security
B) Mental attitude
C) Ambush attack
D) Driver Rule
  • 12. Tactic where attackers force the vehicle to stop while in move
A) Ambush attack
B) Novice Criminal
C) Moving Attack
D) Close in Security
  • 13. The tactic of blocking the vehicle in a predefined kill zoned
A) Moving Attack
B) Ambush attack
C) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
D) Prophylactic Operations
  • 14. Individuals tasked with directly accompanying and protect
A) Close in Security
B) Ambush attack
C) Mental Attitude
D) Advance Security
  • 15. Always planning 2-3 blocks ahead, alert for unusual obstract
A) Driver Rule
B) Moving Attack
C) Modus Operandi
D) Ambush attack
  • 16. Stability, quick judgement, and calmness under stress are
A) Novice Criminal
B) Mental attitude
C) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
D) Driver Rule
  • 17. The method or procedure used to carry out a crime
A) Mental Attitude
B) Advance Security
C) Novice Criminal
D) Module Operandi
  • 18. Poorly planned kidnapper's lacking skill or strategy
A) Prophylactic Operations
B) Modus Operandi
C) Novice Criminals
D) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
  • 19. Those who are willing to die or kill to spread a cause
A) Modus Operandi
B) Advance Security
C) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
D) Novice Criminals
  • 20. Includes setting up checkpoints and area patrolling
A) Mental attitude
B) Advance Security
C) Prophylactic Operations
D) Moving Attack
  • 21. Which is not requisite for voice transmission (modulation)?
A) Slang usage
B) Expressiveness
C) Alertness
D) Pleasantness
  • 22. What is the duty cycle rule when transmitting via PTT?
A) Wait for confirmation before speaking
B) Transmit 3 to 5 words at a time
C) Use codes for every sentence
D) Speak continuously without pause
  • 23. According to the text, what mate man "supreme and progressive"?
A) Establishment if civilization
B) Transfer of thoughts and ideas
C) Hunting and gathering
D) Creation of laws
  • 24. Which of the following is a proper approach to adhere to the duty cycle of PTT communication?
A) Avoid using any code's
B) Speak as fast as possible
C) Use of long sentences and complete grammar
D) Use of phonetic alphabet and numerals
  • 25. What ironic problem is identified with modern communication despite technological advancement?
A) There are not enough languages
B) People still fail to understand one another
C) People are talking too much
D) Communication channels are too expensive
  • 26. What is naturalness in voice modulation aiming to eliminate?
A) All codes and acronyms
B) Long pauses
C) Slang and unnatural language
D) High-pitched voices
  • 27. What modern communication element aims to secure messages from unauthorized listeners and attacks like spam or malware?
A) Walkie-talkies
B) Telephone
C) Audio hailer
D) Messaging security
  • 28. What does APCO 10-9 mean in radio communication?
A) Radio check
B) Repeat message
C) Location
D) Receiving poorly
  • 29. What is considered the earliest form of communication that enabled ancient humans to survive the stone Age?
A) Oral language
B) Use of Signs
C) Written language
D) Symbolic Art
  • 30. What does the term "medium of communication" refer to?
A) The tone of a person's voice
B) A device for broadcasting messages
C) A common language shared by people exchanging ideas
D) The tool used to write
  • 31. Which of the following is not a specific objective of a security survey listed in the material?
A) Determine employee productivity
B) Identify vulnerabilities from natural causes
C) Assess criminal activity from outside the organization
D) Review the state of physical security
  • 32. What is the focus of a security service?
A) Boosting sales
B) Training new recruits
C) Designing building architecture
D) Analyzing and improving a facility's security practices
  • 33. What kind of internal threat is assessed during a security survey?
A) Criminal activity within the organization
B) Competitor activity
C) External cyber attacks
D) Supplier delays
  • 34. Which of the following best describes a security survey?
A) A routine fire drill
B) A critical on site examination of a facility's security status
C) A list of employee duties
D) A financial audit of company assets
  • 35. In planning a security survey, what is the first step listed in the material?
A) Develop alternatives
B) Prepare Schedule
C) Verify the need
D) Determine how data will be gathered
  • 36. Why is obtaining organizational support important in planning a survey?
A) It ensures cooperation and resources
B) It guarantees fast results
C) It allows skipping certain steps
D) It helps save money
  • 37. A security survey is a general term that often includes which of the following?
A) Legal compliance checks only
B) Staff scheduling
C) Background checks
D) Checklists, audits, or inventories of security conditions
  • 38. A thorough analysis of security conditions at a facility to recommend improvements refers to:
A) Fire inspection
B) Security survey
C) Security briefing
D) Emergency drill
  • 39. What is the primary purpose of a security survey?
A) To evaluate marketing strategies
B) To hire new security staff
C) To identify security vulnerabilities and recommend improvements
D) To monitor employee performance
  • 40. Which of the following best describes the relationship between security survey and inspection
A) Inspection complements the survey to maintain security integrity
B) Survey is done after inspection
C) Only inspection is required for long term planning
D) They are unrelated processes
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