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ISMANA (Finals) CABS
Contributed by: CABAS
(Original author: Delos Reyes)
  • 1. Which of the following would most likely result in covert compromise of classified data without leaving physical evidence
A) Sabotage
B) Espionage
C) Subversion
D) Pilferage
  • 2. What distinguishes a systematic pilferer from a casual one?
A) Level of Education
B) Only steals small, easily hidden items
C) Intent and premeditation in theft
D) Number of times they were caught
  • 3. A security manager chooses to invest heavily in surveillance, alarm systems, and intrusion detection. This application is best classified as:
A) Risk Transfer
B) Risk Reduction
C) Risk Self-Assumption
D) Risk Avoidance
  • 4. What is the first step when a visitor enters a secure facility
A) Identification and Verification of purpose
B) Body Frisking
C) Allow free access
D) Issue of weapons
  • 5. What is the primary distinction between espionage and subversion
A) Subversion is done by governments only
B) Espionage focuses on information theft, Subversion seeks to weaken authority or cause disruption
C) Espionage targets morale: Subversion targets information
D) Espionage is legally protected: Subversion is Criminal
  • 6. A company decides to decentralize it's data storage across multiple sites to minimize the impact of a cyber attack. This is the example of?
A) Risk Transfer
B) Risk Spreading
C) Risk Reduction
D) Risk Self Assumption
  • 7. Which of the following scenario best exemplifies risk self Assumption?
A) Ignoring risk completely due to lack of budget
B) Spreading the risk by outsourcing critical operations
C) A company opting not to ensure a low-value asset but setting aside funds in case of loss
D) Hiring a private contractor to manage physical security
  • 8. What human hazard involves international damage to physical assets without stealing or spying
A) Subversion
B) Espionage
C) Vandalism
D) Pilferage
  • 9. An adversary is best described as:
A) A legal owner of an asset
B) An entity with both intent and capability to harm another
C) An environmental condition causing damage
D) A security measure in place to protect assets
  • 10. In risk analysis, "critically" is best assessed through:
A) The financial or survival of losing the assets
B) The visibility of the asset
C) The number of people using the asset
D) The frequency of threat attempts
  • 11. Conducts area cleaning operations ahead of the VIP's arrival
A) Advance Security
B) Mental attitude
C) Ambush attack
D) Driver Rule
  • 12. Tactic where attackers force the vehicle to stop while in move
A) Moving Attack
B) Ambush attack
C) Novice Criminal
D) Close in Security
  • 13. The tactic of blocking the vehicle in a predefined kill zoned
A) Moving Attack
B) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
C) Ambush attack
D) Prophylactic Operations
  • 14. Individuals tasked with directly accompanying and protect
A) Advance Security
B) Mental Attitude
C) Close in Security
D) Ambush attack
  • 15. Always planning 2-3 blocks ahead, alert for unusual obstract
A) Modus Operandi
B) Moving Attack
C) Ambush attack
D) Driver Rule
  • 16. Stability, quick judgement, and calmness under stress are
A) Driver Rule
B) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
C) Mental attitude
D) Novice Criminal
  • 17. The method or procedure used to carry out a crime
A) Module Operandi
B) Advance Security
C) Mental Attitude
D) Novice Criminal
  • 18. Poorly planned kidnapper's lacking skill or strategy
A) Prophylactic Operations
B) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
C) Novice Criminals
D) Modus Operandi
  • 19. Those who are willing to die or kill to spread a cause
A) Modus Operandi
B) Novice Criminals
C) Advance Security
D) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
  • 20. Includes setting up checkpoints and area patrolling
A) Advance Security
B) Mental attitude
C) Prophylactic Operations
D) Moving Attack
  • 21. Which is not requisite for voice transmission (modulation)?
A) Expressiveness
B) Pleasantness
C) Slang usage
D) Alertness
  • 22. What is the duty cycle rule when transmitting via PTT?
A) Transmit 3 to 5 words at a time
B) Speak continuously without pause
C) Wait for confirmation before speaking
D) Use codes for every sentence
  • 23. According to the text, what mate man "supreme and progressive"?
A) Establishment if civilization
B) Creation of laws
C) Hunting and gathering
D) Transfer of thoughts and ideas
  • 24. Which of the following is a proper approach to adhere to the duty cycle of PTT communication?
A) Use of long sentences and complete grammar
B) Use of phonetic alphabet and numerals
C) Avoid using any code's
D) Speak as fast as possible
  • 25. What ironic problem is identified with modern communication despite technological advancement?
A) People still fail to understand one another
B) Communication channels are too expensive
C) People are talking too much
D) There are not enough languages
  • 26. What is naturalness in voice modulation aiming to eliminate?
A) Slang and unnatural language
B) Long pauses
C) All codes and acronyms
D) High-pitched voices
  • 27. What modern communication element aims to secure messages from unauthorized listeners and attacks like spam or malware?
A) Audio hailer
B) Telephone
C) Messaging security
D) Walkie-talkies
  • 28. What does APCO 10-9 mean in radio communication?
A) Location
B) Receiving poorly
C) Radio check
D) Repeat message
  • 29. What is considered the earliest form of communication that enabled ancient humans to survive the stone Age?
A) Use of Signs
B) Oral language
C) Symbolic Art
D) Written language
  • 30. What does the term "medium of communication" refer to?
A) The tool used to write
B) The tone of a person's voice
C) A common language shared by people exchanging ideas
D) A device for broadcasting messages
  • 31. Which of the following is not a specific objective of a security survey listed in the material?
A) Review the state of physical security
B) Identify vulnerabilities from natural causes
C) Assess criminal activity from outside the organization
D) Determine employee productivity
  • 32. What is the focus of a security service?
A) Boosting sales
B) Designing building architecture
C) Analyzing and improving a facility's security practices
D) Training new recruits
  • 33. What kind of internal threat is assessed during a security survey?
A) Supplier delays
B) Competitor activity
C) Criminal activity within the organization
D) External cyber attacks
  • 34. Which of the following best describes a security survey?
A) A financial audit of company assets
B) A routine fire drill
C) A list of employee duties
D) A critical on site examination of a facility's security status
  • 35. In planning a security survey, what is the first step listed in the material?
A) Prepare Schedule
B) Determine how data will be gathered
C) Develop alternatives
D) Verify the need
  • 36. Why is obtaining organizational support important in planning a survey?
A) It guarantees fast results
B) It ensures cooperation and resources
C) It allows skipping certain steps
D) It helps save money
  • 37. A security survey is a general term that often includes which of the following?
A) Staff scheduling
B) Checklists, audits, or inventories of security conditions
C) Background checks
D) Legal compliance checks only
  • 38. A thorough analysis of security conditions at a facility to recommend improvements refers to:
A) Security survey
B) Fire inspection
C) Emergency drill
D) Security briefing
  • 39. What is the primary purpose of a security survey?
A) To evaluate marketing strategies
B) To identify security vulnerabilities and recommend improvements
C) To hire new security staff
D) To monitor employee performance
  • 40. Which of the following best describes the relationship between security survey and inspection
A) Only inspection is required for long term planning
B) Survey is done after inspection
C) They are unrelated processes
D) Inspection complements the survey to maintain security integrity
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