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ISMANA (Finals) CABS - Quiz
Contributed by: CABAS
(Original author: Delos Reyes)
  • 1. Which of the following would most likely result in covert compromise of classified data without leaving physical evidence
A) Pilferage
B) Subversion
C) Espionage
D) Sabotage
  • 2. What distinguishes a systematic pilferer from a casual one?
A) Number of times they were caught
B) Intent and premeditation in theft
C) Level of Education
D) Only steals small, easily hidden items
  • 3. A security manager chooses to invest heavily in surveillance, alarm systems, and intrusion detection. This application is best classified as:
A) Risk Avoidance
B) Risk Reduction
C) Risk Transfer
D) Risk Self-Assumption
  • 4. What is the first step when a visitor enters a secure facility
A) Issue of weapons
B) Body Frisking
C) Allow free access
D) Identification and Verification of purpose
  • 5. What is the primary distinction between espionage and subversion
A) Espionage is legally protected: Subversion is Criminal
B) Subversion is done by governments only
C) Espionage targets morale: Subversion targets information
D) Espionage focuses on information theft, Subversion seeks to weaken authority or cause disruption
  • 6. A company decides to decentralize it's data storage across multiple sites to minimize the impact of a cyber attack. This is the example of?
A) Risk Reduction
B) Risk Transfer
C) Risk Spreading
D) Risk Self Assumption
  • 7. Which of the following scenario best exemplifies risk self Assumption?
A) Spreading the risk by outsourcing critical operations
B) A company opting not to ensure a low-value asset but setting aside funds in case of loss
C) Hiring a private contractor to manage physical security
D) Ignoring risk completely due to lack of budget
  • 8. What human hazard involves international damage to physical assets without stealing or spying
A) Subversion
B) Espionage
C) Pilferage
D) Vandalism
  • 9. An adversary is best described as:
A) An entity with both intent and capability to harm another
B) An environmental condition causing damage
C) A legal owner of an asset
D) A security measure in place to protect assets
  • 10. In risk analysis, "critically" is best assessed through:
A) The number of people using the asset
B) The visibility of the asset
C) The financial or survival of losing the assets
D) The frequency of threat attempts
  • 11. Conducts area cleaning operations ahead of the VIP's arrival
A) Driver Rule
B) Advance Security
C) Mental attitude
D) Ambush attack
  • 12. Tactic where attackers force the vehicle to stop while in move
A) Novice Criminal
B) Close in Security
C) Moving Attack
D) Ambush attack
  • 13. The tactic of blocking the vehicle in a predefined kill zoned
A) Moving Attack
B) Prophylactic Operations
C) Ambush attack
D) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
  • 14. Individuals tasked with directly accompanying and protect
A) Ambush attack
B) Mental Attitude
C) Advance Security
D) Close in Security
  • 15. Always planning 2-3 blocks ahead, alert for unusual obstract
A) Driver Rule
B) Ambush attack
C) Modus Operandi
D) Moving Attack
  • 16. Stability, quick judgement, and calmness under stress are
A) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
B) Novice Criminal
C) Mental attitude
D) Driver Rule
  • 17. The method or procedure used to carry out a crime
A) Module Operandi
B) Advance Security
C) Novice Criminal
D) Mental Attitude
  • 18. Poorly planned kidnapper's lacking skill or strategy
A) Prophylactic Operations
B) Novice Criminals
C) Modus Operandi
D) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
  • 19. Those who are willing to die or kill to spread a cause
A) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
B) Advance Security
C) Modus Operandi
D) Novice Criminals
  • 20. Includes setting up checkpoints and area patrolling
A) Moving Attack
B) Advance Security
C) Prophylactic Operations
D) Mental attitude
  • 21. Which is not requisite for voice transmission (modulation)?
A) Slang usage
B) Pleasantness
C) Expressiveness
D) Alertness
  • 22. What is the duty cycle rule when transmitting via PTT?
A) Wait for confirmation before speaking
B) Speak continuously without pause
C) Transmit 3 to 5 words at a time
D) Use codes for every sentence
  • 23. According to the text, what mate man "supreme and progressive"?
A) Creation of laws
B) Hunting and gathering
C) Transfer of thoughts and ideas
D) Establishment if civilization
  • 24. Which of the following is a proper approach to adhere to the duty cycle of PTT communication?
A) Speak as fast as possible
B) Avoid using any code's
C) Use of long sentences and complete grammar
D) Use of phonetic alphabet and numerals
  • 25. What ironic problem is identified with modern communication despite technological advancement?
A) People are talking too much
B) There are not enough languages
C) People still fail to understand one another
D) Communication channels are too expensive
  • 26. What is naturalness in voice modulation aiming to eliminate?
A) Slang and unnatural language
B) High-pitched voices
C) Long pauses
D) All codes and acronyms
  • 27. What modern communication element aims to secure messages from unauthorized listeners and attacks like spam or malware?
A) Audio hailer
B) Walkie-talkies
C) Messaging security
D) Telephone
  • 28. What does APCO 10-9 mean in radio communication?
A) Repeat message
B) Location
C) Receiving poorly
D) Radio check
  • 29. What is considered the earliest form of communication that enabled ancient humans to survive the stone Age?
A) Use of Signs
B) Written language
C) Oral language
D) Symbolic Art
  • 30. What does the term "medium of communication" refer to?
A) The tool used to write
B) A device for broadcasting messages
C) The tone of a person's voice
D) A common language shared by people exchanging ideas
  • 31. Which of the following is not a specific objective of a security survey listed in the material?
A) Assess criminal activity from outside the organization
B) Review the state of physical security
C) Identify vulnerabilities from natural causes
D) Determine employee productivity
  • 32. What is the focus of a security service?
A) Boosting sales
B) Designing building architecture
C) Training new recruits
D) Analyzing and improving a facility's security practices
  • 33. What kind of internal threat is assessed during a security survey?
A) External cyber attacks
B) Competitor activity
C) Supplier delays
D) Criminal activity within the organization
  • 34. Which of the following best describes a security survey?
A) A routine fire drill
B) A critical on site examination of a facility's security status
C) A financial audit of company assets
D) A list of employee duties
  • 35. In planning a security survey, what is the first step listed in the material?
A) Determine how data will be gathered
B) Verify the need
C) Develop alternatives
D) Prepare Schedule
  • 36. Why is obtaining organizational support important in planning a survey?
A) It allows skipping certain steps
B) It ensures cooperation and resources
C) It guarantees fast results
D) It helps save money
  • 37. A security survey is a general term that often includes which of the following?
A) Background checks
B) Legal compliance checks only
C) Checklists, audits, or inventories of security conditions
D) Staff scheduling
  • 38. A thorough analysis of security conditions at a facility to recommend improvements refers to:
A) Security survey
B) Emergency drill
C) Security briefing
D) Fire inspection
  • 39. What is the primary purpose of a security survey?
A) To monitor employee performance
B) To identify security vulnerabilities and recommend improvements
C) To hire new security staff
D) To evaluate marketing strategies
  • 40. Which of the following best describes the relationship between security survey and inspection
A) Inspection complements the survey to maintain security integrity
B) Only inspection is required for long term planning
C) Survey is done after inspection
D) They are unrelated processes
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