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ISMANA (Finals) CABS
Contributed by: CABAS
(Original author: Delos Reyes)
  • 1. Which of the following would most likely result in covert compromise of classified data without leaving physical evidence
A) Subversion
B) Sabotage
C) Pilferage
D) Espionage
  • 2. What distinguishes a systematic pilferer from a casual one?
A) Level of Education
B) Number of times they were caught
C) Intent and premeditation in theft
D) Only steals small, easily hidden items
  • 3. A security manager chooses to invest heavily in surveillance, alarm systems, and intrusion detection. This application is best classified as:
A) Risk Reduction
B) Risk Self-Assumption
C) Risk Avoidance
D) Risk Transfer
  • 4. What is the first step when a visitor enters a secure facility
A) Allow free access
B) Issue of weapons
C) Body Frisking
D) Identification and Verification of purpose
  • 5. What is the primary distinction between espionage and subversion
A) Espionage is legally protected: Subversion is Criminal
B) Espionage targets morale: Subversion targets information
C) Espionage focuses on information theft, Subversion seeks to weaken authority or cause disruption
D) Subversion is done by governments only
  • 6. A company decides to decentralize it's data storage across multiple sites to minimize the impact of a cyber attack. This is the example of?
A) Risk Spreading
B) Risk Transfer
C) Risk Reduction
D) Risk Self Assumption
  • 7. Which of the following scenario best exemplifies risk self Assumption?
A) A company opting not to ensure a low-value asset but setting aside funds in case of loss
B) Ignoring risk completely due to lack of budget
C) Spreading the risk by outsourcing critical operations
D) Hiring a private contractor to manage physical security
  • 8. What human hazard involves international damage to physical assets without stealing or spying
A) Pilferage
B) Espionage
C) Vandalism
D) Subversion
  • 9. An adversary is best described as:
A) A legal owner of an asset
B) An environmental condition causing damage
C) A security measure in place to protect assets
D) An entity with both intent and capability to harm another
  • 10. In risk analysis, "critically" is best assessed through:
A) The visibility of the asset
B) The financial or survival of losing the assets
C) The number of people using the asset
D) The frequency of threat attempts
  • 11. Conducts area cleaning operations ahead of the VIP's arrival
A) Ambush attack
B) Advance Security
C) Driver Rule
D) Mental attitude
  • 12. Tactic where attackers force the vehicle to stop while in move
A) Moving Attack
B) Novice Criminal
C) Ambush attack
D) Close in Security
  • 13. The tactic of blocking the vehicle in a predefined kill zoned
A) Prophylactic Operations
B) Moving Attack
C) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
D) Ambush attack
  • 14. Individuals tasked with directly accompanying and protect
A) Advance Security
B) Ambush attack
C) Mental Attitude
D) Close in Security
  • 15. Always planning 2-3 blocks ahead, alert for unusual obstract
A) Driver Rule
B) Ambush attack
C) Modus Operandi
D) Moving Attack
  • 16. Stability, quick judgement, and calmness under stress are
A) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
B) Mental attitude
C) Novice Criminal
D) Driver Rule
  • 17. The method or procedure used to carry out a crime
A) Novice Criminal
B) Advance Security
C) Module Operandi
D) Mental Attitude
  • 18. Poorly planned kidnapper's lacking skill or strategy
A) Modus Operandi
B) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
C) Novice Criminals
D) Prophylactic Operations
  • 19. Those who are willing to die or kill to spread a cause
A) Novice Criminals
B) Modus Operandi
C) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
D) Advance Security
  • 20. Includes setting up checkpoints and area patrolling
A) Mental attitude
B) Advance Security
C) Moving Attack
D) Prophylactic Operations
  • 21. Which is not requisite for voice transmission (modulation)?
A) Slang usage
B) Alertness
C) Expressiveness
D) Pleasantness
  • 22. What is the duty cycle rule when transmitting via PTT?
A) Wait for confirmation before speaking
B) Use codes for every sentence
C) Transmit 3 to 5 words at a time
D) Speak continuously without pause
  • 23. According to the text, what mate man "supreme and progressive"?
A) Creation of laws
B) Transfer of thoughts and ideas
C) Hunting and gathering
D) Establishment if civilization
  • 24. Which of the following is a proper approach to adhere to the duty cycle of PTT communication?
A) Use of phonetic alphabet and numerals
B) Speak as fast as possible
C) Use of long sentences and complete grammar
D) Avoid using any code's
  • 25. What ironic problem is identified with modern communication despite technological advancement?
A) Communication channels are too expensive
B) There are not enough languages
C) People still fail to understand one another
D) People are talking too much
  • 26. What is naturalness in voice modulation aiming to eliminate?
A) Long pauses
B) Slang and unnatural language
C) High-pitched voices
D) All codes and acronyms
  • 27. What modern communication element aims to secure messages from unauthorized listeners and attacks like spam or malware?
A) Walkie-talkies
B) Telephone
C) Audio hailer
D) Messaging security
  • 28. What does APCO 10-9 mean in radio communication?
A) Receiving poorly
B) Location
C) Repeat message
D) Radio check
  • 29. What is considered the earliest form of communication that enabled ancient humans to survive the stone Age?
A) Symbolic Art
B) Written language
C) Oral language
D) Use of Signs
  • 30. What does the term "medium of communication" refer to?
A) A device for broadcasting messages
B) A common language shared by people exchanging ideas
C) The tone of a person's voice
D) The tool used to write
  • 31. Which of the following is not a specific objective of a security survey listed in the material?
A) Review the state of physical security
B) Assess criminal activity from outside the organization
C) Determine employee productivity
D) Identify vulnerabilities from natural causes
  • 32. What is the focus of a security service?
A) Analyzing and improving a facility's security practices
B) Training new recruits
C) Designing building architecture
D) Boosting sales
  • 33. What kind of internal threat is assessed during a security survey?
A) Criminal activity within the organization
B) External cyber attacks
C) Supplier delays
D) Competitor activity
  • 34. Which of the following best describes a security survey?
A) A list of employee duties
B) A routine fire drill
C) A financial audit of company assets
D) A critical on site examination of a facility's security status
  • 35. In planning a security survey, what is the first step listed in the material?
A) Prepare Schedule
B) Verify the need
C) Determine how data will be gathered
D) Develop alternatives
  • 36. Why is obtaining organizational support important in planning a survey?
A) It helps save money
B) It ensures cooperation and resources
C) It guarantees fast results
D) It allows skipping certain steps
  • 37. A security survey is a general term that often includes which of the following?
A) Checklists, audits, or inventories of security conditions
B) Legal compliance checks only
C) Background checks
D) Staff scheduling
  • 38. A thorough analysis of security conditions at a facility to recommend improvements refers to:
A) Fire inspection
B) Security briefing
C) Security survey
D) Emergency drill
  • 39. What is the primary purpose of a security survey?
A) To hire new security staff
B) To monitor employee performance
C) To identify security vulnerabilities and recommend improvements
D) To evaluate marketing strategies
  • 40. Which of the following best describes the relationship between security survey and inspection
A) Only inspection is required for long term planning
B) Inspection complements the survey to maintain security integrity
C) They are unrelated processes
D) Survey is done after inspection
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