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ISMANA (Finals) CABS
Contributed by: CABAS
(Original author: Delos Reyes)
  • 1. Which of the following would most likely result in covert compromise of classified data without leaving physical evidence
A) Subversion
B) Pilferage
C) Espionage
D) Sabotage
  • 2. What distinguishes a systematic pilferer from a casual one?
A) Intent and premeditation in theft
B) Only steals small, easily hidden items
C) Number of times they were caught
D) Level of Education
  • 3. A security manager chooses to invest heavily in surveillance, alarm systems, and intrusion detection. This application is best classified as:
A) Risk Transfer
B) Risk Avoidance
C) Risk Reduction
D) Risk Self-Assumption
  • 4. What is the first step when a visitor enters a secure facility
A) Allow free access
B) Issue of weapons
C) Identification and Verification of purpose
D) Body Frisking
  • 5. What is the primary distinction between espionage and subversion
A) Espionage is legally protected: Subversion is Criminal
B) Subversion is done by governments only
C) Espionage targets morale: Subversion targets information
D) Espionage focuses on information theft, Subversion seeks to weaken authority or cause disruption
  • 6. A company decides to decentralize it's data storage across multiple sites to minimize the impact of a cyber attack. This is the example of?
A) Risk Self Assumption
B) Risk Spreading
C) Risk Transfer
D) Risk Reduction
  • 7. Which of the following scenario best exemplifies risk self Assumption?
A) Spreading the risk by outsourcing critical operations
B) A company opting not to ensure a low-value asset but setting aside funds in case of loss
C) Ignoring risk completely due to lack of budget
D) Hiring a private contractor to manage physical security
  • 8. What human hazard involves international damage to physical assets without stealing or spying
A) Espionage
B) Pilferage
C) Vandalism
D) Subversion
  • 9. An adversary is best described as:
A) A security measure in place to protect assets
B) An entity with both intent and capability to harm another
C) An environmental condition causing damage
D) A legal owner of an asset
  • 10. In risk analysis, "critically" is best assessed through:
A) The frequency of threat attempts
B) The financial or survival of losing the assets
C) The number of people using the asset
D) The visibility of the asset
  • 11. Conducts area cleaning operations ahead of the VIP's arrival
A) Driver Rule
B) Mental attitude
C) Advance Security
D) Ambush attack
  • 12. Tactic where attackers force the vehicle to stop while in move
A) Close in Security
B) Novice Criminal
C) Moving Attack
D) Ambush attack
  • 13. The tactic of blocking the vehicle in a predefined kill zoned
A) Moving Attack
B) Ambush attack
C) Prophylactic Operations
D) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
  • 14. Individuals tasked with directly accompanying and protect
A) Ambush attack
B) Mental Attitude
C) Advance Security
D) Close in Security
  • 15. Always planning 2-3 blocks ahead, alert for unusual obstract
A) Moving Attack
B) Modus Operandi
C) Ambush attack
D) Driver Rule
  • 16. Stability, quick judgement, and calmness under stress are
A) Driver Rule
B) Novice Criminal
C) Mental attitude
D) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
  • 17. The method or procedure used to carry out a crime
A) Novice Criminal
B) Advance Security
C) Module Operandi
D) Mental Attitude
  • 18. Poorly planned kidnapper's lacking skill or strategy
A) Modus Operandi
B) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
C) Prophylactic Operations
D) Novice Criminals
  • 19. Those who are willing to die or kill to spread a cause
A) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
B) Modus Operandi
C) Novice Criminals
D) Advance Security
  • 20. Includes setting up checkpoints and area patrolling
A) Mental attitude
B) Prophylactic Operations
C) Moving Attack
D) Advance Security
  • 21. Which is not requisite for voice transmission (modulation)?
A) Pleasantness
B) Alertness
C) Expressiveness
D) Slang usage
  • 22. What is the duty cycle rule when transmitting via PTT?
A) Use codes for every sentence
B) Speak continuously without pause
C) Wait for confirmation before speaking
D) Transmit 3 to 5 words at a time
  • 23. According to the text, what mate man "supreme and progressive"?
A) Creation of laws
B) Transfer of thoughts and ideas
C) Hunting and gathering
D) Establishment if civilization
  • 24. Which of the following is a proper approach to adhere to the duty cycle of PTT communication?
A) Use of long sentences and complete grammar
B) Avoid using any code's
C) Use of phonetic alphabet and numerals
D) Speak as fast as possible
  • 25. What ironic problem is identified with modern communication despite technological advancement?
A) People are talking too much
B) Communication channels are too expensive
C) People still fail to understand one another
D) There are not enough languages
  • 26. What is naturalness in voice modulation aiming to eliminate?
A) All codes and acronyms
B) Slang and unnatural language
C) Long pauses
D) High-pitched voices
  • 27. What modern communication element aims to secure messages from unauthorized listeners and attacks like spam or malware?
A) Audio hailer
B) Walkie-talkies
C) Telephone
D) Messaging security
  • 28. What does APCO 10-9 mean in radio communication?
A) Repeat message
B) Location
C) Receiving poorly
D) Radio check
  • 29. What is considered the earliest form of communication that enabled ancient humans to survive the stone Age?
A) Written language
B) Use of Signs
C) Oral language
D) Symbolic Art
  • 30. What does the term "medium of communication" refer to?
A) The tone of a person's voice
B) The tool used to write
C) A device for broadcasting messages
D) A common language shared by people exchanging ideas
  • 31. Which of the following is not a specific objective of a security survey listed in the material?
A) Identify vulnerabilities from natural causes
B) Assess criminal activity from outside the organization
C) Review the state of physical security
D) Determine employee productivity
  • 32. What is the focus of a security service?
A) Designing building architecture
B) Training new recruits
C) Analyzing and improving a facility's security practices
D) Boosting sales
  • 33. What kind of internal threat is assessed during a security survey?
A) Supplier delays
B) Criminal activity within the organization
C) Competitor activity
D) External cyber attacks
  • 34. Which of the following best describes a security survey?
A) A financial audit of company assets
B) A routine fire drill
C) A list of employee duties
D) A critical on site examination of a facility's security status
  • 35. In planning a security survey, what is the first step listed in the material?
A) Prepare Schedule
B) Develop alternatives
C) Verify the need
D) Determine how data will be gathered
  • 36. Why is obtaining organizational support important in planning a survey?
A) It ensures cooperation and resources
B) It allows skipping certain steps
C) It guarantees fast results
D) It helps save money
  • 37. A security survey is a general term that often includes which of the following?
A) Legal compliance checks only
B) Staff scheduling
C) Background checks
D) Checklists, audits, or inventories of security conditions
  • 38. A thorough analysis of security conditions at a facility to recommend improvements refers to:
A) Fire inspection
B) Security survey
C) Security briefing
D) Emergency drill
  • 39. What is the primary purpose of a security survey?
A) To monitor employee performance
B) To identify security vulnerabilities and recommend improvements
C) To evaluate marketing strategies
D) To hire new security staff
  • 40. Which of the following best describes the relationship between security survey and inspection
A) They are unrelated processes
B) Survey is done after inspection
C) Only inspection is required for long term planning
D) Inspection complements the survey to maintain security integrity
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