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ISMANA (Finals) CABS
Contributed by: CABAS
(Original author: Delos Reyes)
  • 1. Which of the following would most likely result in covert compromise of classified data without leaving physical evidence
A) Espionage
B) Pilferage
C) Sabotage
D) Subversion
  • 2. What distinguishes a systematic pilferer from a casual one?
A) Only steals small, easily hidden items
B) Number of times they were caught
C) Intent and premeditation in theft
D) Level of Education
  • 3. A security manager chooses to invest heavily in surveillance, alarm systems, and intrusion detection. This application is best classified as:
A) Risk Self-Assumption
B) Risk Avoidance
C) Risk Transfer
D) Risk Reduction
  • 4. What is the first step when a visitor enters a secure facility
A) Body Frisking
B) Identification and Verification of purpose
C) Issue of weapons
D) Allow free access
  • 5. What is the primary distinction between espionage and subversion
A) Subversion is done by governments only
B) Espionage is legally protected: Subversion is Criminal
C) Espionage focuses on information theft, Subversion seeks to weaken authority or cause disruption
D) Espionage targets morale: Subversion targets information
  • 6. A company decides to decentralize it's data storage across multiple sites to minimize the impact of a cyber attack. This is the example of?
A) Risk Spreading
B) Risk Reduction
C) Risk Transfer
D) Risk Self Assumption
  • 7. Which of the following scenario best exemplifies risk self Assumption?
A) Ignoring risk completely due to lack of budget
B) Hiring a private contractor to manage physical security
C) Spreading the risk by outsourcing critical operations
D) A company opting not to ensure a low-value asset but setting aside funds in case of loss
  • 8. What human hazard involves international damage to physical assets without stealing or spying
A) Espionage
B) Pilferage
C) Vandalism
D) Subversion
  • 9. An adversary is best described as:
A) A security measure in place to protect assets
B) An environmental condition causing damage
C) A legal owner of an asset
D) An entity with both intent and capability to harm another
  • 10. In risk analysis, "critically" is best assessed through:
A) The number of people using the asset
B) The frequency of threat attempts
C) The visibility of the asset
D) The financial or survival of losing the assets
  • 11. Conducts area cleaning operations ahead of the VIP's arrival
A) Advance Security
B) Ambush attack
C) Driver Rule
D) Mental attitude
  • 12. Tactic where attackers force the vehicle to stop while in move
A) Novice Criminal
B) Close in Security
C) Ambush attack
D) Moving Attack
  • 13. The tactic of blocking the vehicle in a predefined kill zoned
A) Prophylactic Operations
B) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
C) Ambush attack
D) Moving Attack
  • 14. Individuals tasked with directly accompanying and protect
A) Ambush attack
B) Mental Attitude
C) Advance Security
D) Close in Security
  • 15. Always planning 2-3 blocks ahead, alert for unusual obstract
A) Modus Operandi
B) Driver Rule
C) Moving Attack
D) Ambush attack
  • 16. Stability, quick judgement, and calmness under stress are
A) Driver Rule
B) Novice Criminal
C) Mental attitude
D) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
  • 17. The method or procedure used to carry out a crime
A) Mental Attitude
B) Module Operandi
C) Advance Security
D) Novice Criminal
  • 18. Poorly planned kidnapper's lacking skill or strategy
A) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
B) Novice Criminals
C) Prophylactic Operations
D) Modus Operandi
  • 19. Those who are willing to die or kill to spread a cause
A) Advance Security
B) Modus Operandi
C) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
D) Novice Criminals
  • 20. Includes setting up checkpoints and area patrolling
A) Advance Security
B) Prophylactic Operations
C) Mental attitude
D) Moving Attack
  • 21. Which is not requisite for voice transmission (modulation)?
A) Alertness
B) Pleasantness
C) Slang usage
D) Expressiveness
  • 22. What is the duty cycle rule when transmitting via PTT?
A) Transmit 3 to 5 words at a time
B) Use codes for every sentence
C) Speak continuously without pause
D) Wait for confirmation before speaking
  • 23. According to the text, what mate man "supreme and progressive"?
A) Hunting and gathering
B) Transfer of thoughts and ideas
C) Creation of laws
D) Establishment if civilization
  • 24. Which of the following is a proper approach to adhere to the duty cycle of PTT communication?
A) Use of long sentences and complete grammar
B) Avoid using any code's
C) Use of phonetic alphabet and numerals
D) Speak as fast as possible
  • 25. What ironic problem is identified with modern communication despite technological advancement?
A) There are not enough languages
B) People still fail to understand one another
C) Communication channels are too expensive
D) People are talking too much
  • 26. What is naturalness in voice modulation aiming to eliminate?
A) All codes and acronyms
B) Long pauses
C) Slang and unnatural language
D) High-pitched voices
  • 27. What modern communication element aims to secure messages from unauthorized listeners and attacks like spam or malware?
A) Audio hailer
B) Messaging security
C) Walkie-talkies
D) Telephone
  • 28. What does APCO 10-9 mean in radio communication?
A) Receiving poorly
B) Repeat message
C) Radio check
D) Location
  • 29. What is considered the earliest form of communication that enabled ancient humans to survive the stone Age?
A) Oral language
B) Symbolic Art
C) Written language
D) Use of Signs
  • 30. What does the term "medium of communication" refer to?
A) A device for broadcasting messages
B) A common language shared by people exchanging ideas
C) The tool used to write
D) The tone of a person's voice
  • 31. Which of the following is not a specific objective of a security survey listed in the material?
A) Review the state of physical security
B) Assess criminal activity from outside the organization
C) Determine employee productivity
D) Identify vulnerabilities from natural causes
  • 32. What is the focus of a security service?
A) Analyzing and improving a facility's security practices
B) Designing building architecture
C) Boosting sales
D) Training new recruits
  • 33. What kind of internal threat is assessed during a security survey?
A) Competitor activity
B) External cyber attacks
C) Supplier delays
D) Criminal activity within the organization
  • 34. Which of the following best describes a security survey?
A) A critical on site examination of a facility's security status
B) A financial audit of company assets
C) A routine fire drill
D) A list of employee duties
  • 35. In planning a security survey, what is the first step listed in the material?
A) Prepare Schedule
B) Determine how data will be gathered
C) Verify the need
D) Develop alternatives
  • 36. Why is obtaining organizational support important in planning a survey?
A) It ensures cooperation and resources
B) It allows skipping certain steps
C) It guarantees fast results
D) It helps save money
  • 37. A security survey is a general term that often includes which of the following?
A) Background checks
B) Legal compliance checks only
C) Checklists, audits, or inventories of security conditions
D) Staff scheduling
  • 38. A thorough analysis of security conditions at a facility to recommend improvements refers to:
A) Fire inspection
B) Emergency drill
C) Security survey
D) Security briefing
  • 39. What is the primary purpose of a security survey?
A) To monitor employee performance
B) To hire new security staff
C) To evaluate marketing strategies
D) To identify security vulnerabilities and recommend improvements
  • 40. Which of the following best describes the relationship between security survey and inspection
A) They are unrelated processes
B) Survey is done after inspection
C) Only inspection is required for long term planning
D) Inspection complements the survey to maintain security integrity
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