ThatQuiz Test Library Take this test now
ISMANA (Finals) CABS
Contributed by: CABAS
(Original author: Delos Reyes)
  • 1. Which of the following would most likely result in covert compromise of classified data without leaving physical evidence
A) Subversion
B) Sabotage
C) Pilferage
D) Espionage
  • 2. What distinguishes a systematic pilferer from a casual one?
A) Intent and premeditation in theft
B) Number of times they were caught
C) Only steals small, easily hidden items
D) Level of Education
  • 3. A security manager chooses to invest heavily in surveillance, alarm systems, and intrusion detection. This application is best classified as:
A) Risk Avoidance
B) Risk Transfer
C) Risk Self-Assumption
D) Risk Reduction
  • 4. What is the first step when a visitor enters a secure facility
A) Body Frisking
B) Issue of weapons
C) Identification and Verification of purpose
D) Allow free access
  • 5. What is the primary distinction between espionage and subversion
A) Espionage targets morale: Subversion targets information
B) Subversion is done by governments only
C) Espionage focuses on information theft, Subversion seeks to weaken authority or cause disruption
D) Espionage is legally protected: Subversion is Criminal
  • 6. A company decides to decentralize it's data storage across multiple sites to minimize the impact of a cyber attack. This is the example of?
A) Risk Self Assumption
B) Risk Reduction
C) Risk Transfer
D) Risk Spreading
  • 7. Which of the following scenario best exemplifies risk self Assumption?
A) A company opting not to ensure a low-value asset but setting aside funds in case of loss
B) Ignoring risk completely due to lack of budget
C) Spreading the risk by outsourcing critical operations
D) Hiring a private contractor to manage physical security
  • 8. What human hazard involves international damage to physical assets without stealing or spying
A) Pilferage
B) Espionage
C) Subversion
D) Vandalism
  • 9. An adversary is best described as:
A) A security measure in place to protect assets
B) An environmental condition causing damage
C) A legal owner of an asset
D) An entity with both intent and capability to harm another
  • 10. In risk analysis, "critically" is best assessed through:
A) The frequency of threat attempts
B) The financial or survival of losing the assets
C) The visibility of the asset
D) The number of people using the asset
  • 11. Conducts area cleaning operations ahead of the VIP's arrival
A) Mental attitude
B) Ambush attack
C) Driver Rule
D) Advance Security
  • 12. Tactic where attackers force the vehicle to stop while in move
A) Moving Attack
B) Ambush attack
C) Close in Security
D) Novice Criminal
  • 13. The tactic of blocking the vehicle in a predefined kill zoned
A) Ambush attack
B) Prophylactic Operations
C) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
D) Moving Attack
  • 14. Individuals tasked with directly accompanying and protect
A) Ambush attack
B) Close in Security
C) Mental Attitude
D) Advance Security
  • 15. Always planning 2-3 blocks ahead, alert for unusual obstract
A) Driver Rule
B) Modus Operandi
C) Moving Attack
D) Ambush attack
  • 16. Stability, quick judgement, and calmness under stress are
A) Driver Rule
B) Novice Criminal
C) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
D) Mental attitude
  • 17. The method or procedure used to carry out a crime
A) Advance Security
B) Module Operandi
C) Mental Attitude
D) Novice Criminal
  • 18. Poorly planned kidnapper's lacking skill or strategy
A) Prophylactic Operations
B) Modus Operandi
C) Novice Criminals
D) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
  • 19. Those who are willing to die or kill to spread a cause
A) Advance Security
B) Modus Operandi
C) Novice Criminals
D) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
  • 20. Includes setting up checkpoints and area patrolling
A) Advance Security
B) Mental attitude
C) Prophylactic Operations
D) Moving Attack
  • 21. Which is not requisite for voice transmission (modulation)?
A) Pleasantness
B) Expressiveness
C) Alertness
D) Slang usage
  • 22. What is the duty cycle rule when transmitting via PTT?
A) Wait for confirmation before speaking
B) Transmit 3 to 5 words at a time
C) Use codes for every sentence
D) Speak continuously without pause
  • 23. According to the text, what mate man "supreme and progressive"?
A) Transfer of thoughts and ideas
B) Establishment if civilization
C) Creation of laws
D) Hunting and gathering
  • 24. Which of the following is a proper approach to adhere to the duty cycle of PTT communication?
A) Avoid using any code's
B) Use of long sentences and complete grammar
C) Use of phonetic alphabet and numerals
D) Speak as fast as possible
  • 25. What ironic problem is identified with modern communication despite technological advancement?
A) There are not enough languages
B) People still fail to understand one another
C) Communication channels are too expensive
D) People are talking too much
  • 26. What is naturalness in voice modulation aiming to eliminate?
A) Slang and unnatural language
B) All codes and acronyms
C) Long pauses
D) High-pitched voices
  • 27. What modern communication element aims to secure messages from unauthorized listeners and attacks like spam or malware?
A) Messaging security
B) Audio hailer
C) Telephone
D) Walkie-talkies
  • 28. What does APCO 10-9 mean in radio communication?
A) Receiving poorly
B) Location
C) Repeat message
D) Radio check
  • 29. What is considered the earliest form of communication that enabled ancient humans to survive the stone Age?
A) Written language
B) Use of Signs
C) Oral language
D) Symbolic Art
  • 30. What does the term "medium of communication" refer to?
A) The tone of a person's voice
B) A common language shared by people exchanging ideas
C) A device for broadcasting messages
D) The tool used to write
  • 31. Which of the following is not a specific objective of a security survey listed in the material?
A) Determine employee productivity
B) Review the state of physical security
C) Identify vulnerabilities from natural causes
D) Assess criminal activity from outside the organization
  • 32. What is the focus of a security service?
A) Analyzing and improving a facility's security practices
B) Boosting sales
C) Designing building architecture
D) Training new recruits
  • 33. What kind of internal threat is assessed during a security survey?
A) Supplier delays
B) Criminal activity within the organization
C) External cyber attacks
D) Competitor activity
  • 34. Which of the following best describes a security survey?
A) A routine fire drill
B) A list of employee duties
C) A critical on site examination of a facility's security status
D) A financial audit of company assets
  • 35. In planning a security survey, what is the first step listed in the material?
A) Prepare Schedule
B) Verify the need
C) Develop alternatives
D) Determine how data will be gathered
  • 36. Why is obtaining organizational support important in planning a survey?
A) It ensures cooperation and resources
B) It helps save money
C) It allows skipping certain steps
D) It guarantees fast results
  • 37. A security survey is a general term that often includes which of the following?
A) Legal compliance checks only
B) Checklists, audits, or inventories of security conditions
C) Staff scheduling
D) Background checks
  • 38. A thorough analysis of security conditions at a facility to recommend improvements refers to:
A) Security survey
B) Fire inspection
C) Emergency drill
D) Security briefing
  • 39. What is the primary purpose of a security survey?
A) To evaluate marketing strategies
B) To monitor employee performance
C) To hire new security staff
D) To identify security vulnerabilities and recommend improvements
  • 40. Which of the following best describes the relationship between security survey and inspection
A) Only inspection is required for long term planning
B) Inspection complements the survey to maintain security integrity
C) They are unrelated processes
D) Survey is done after inspection
Students who took this test also took :

Created with That Quiz — the math test generation site with resources for other subject areas.