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Introduction to Philippines criminal system
Contributed by: Angelica
  • 1. 1. While on patrol, a PNP officer witnesses a man breaking into a store at night. Without a warrant, he arrests the suspect. Under which rule is this arrest justified?
A) In flagrante delicto rule
B) Probable cause rule
C) Citizen’s arrest rule
D) In flagrante delicto rule
  • 2. 2. During a checkpoint, police officers open car trunks without probable cause or consent. Which constitutional right is violated?
A) Right against unreasonable search
B) Right to privacy
C) Right to travel
D) Right against unreasonable search
E) Right to due process
  • 3. 3.A prosecutor dismisses a complaint despite strong evidence. What is the proper legal remedy for the complainant?
A) Appeal to the DOJ
B) Appeal to the DOJ
C) File a case with the Ombudsman
D) Seek mandamus from RTC
E) File a new complaint
  • 4. 4.A respondent claims he was not subpoenaed during preliminary investigation. What due process violation occurred?
A) Right to counsel
B) Plea bargaining
C) Right to confrontation
D) Plea bargaining
E) Right to presumption of innocence
  • 5. 5.An accused pleads guilty to a lesser offense during arraignment. What judicial process allows this negotiation?
A) Plea bargaining
B) Plea bargaining
C) Conditional pardon
D) Plea in abeyance
E) Pre-trial agreement
  • 6. 6. A judge renders a decision finding the accused guilty but fails to state factual basis. What judicial requirement is violated?
A) Rule on double jeopardy
B) Requisite of written judgment
C) Doctrine of finality
D) Requirement of promulgation
E) Requisite of written judgment
  • 7. 7. A prisoner who has shown good conduct is allowed to serve the rest of his sentence outside prison under supervision. This refers to:
A) Commutation
B) Parole
C) Correct Answer: C
D) Pardon
E) Probation
  • 8. 8.Under PD 968, what is the primary purpose of probation?
A) Rehabilitation
B) Retribution
C) Isolation
D) Rehabilitation
E) Punishment
  • 9. 9.A barangay forms a group assisting police in patrolling their area. This reflects which principle of community involvement?
A) Social control
B) Citizen’s initiative
C) Community policing
D) Community policing
E) Restorative justice
  • 10. 10.After serving his sentence, an ex-convict is welcomed by his community and given livelihood assistance. This demonstrates:
A) Reintegration
B) Reintegration
C) Reconciliation
D) Rehabilitation
E) Reformation
  • 11. 11. While on patrol, an officer witnesses a man forcibly opening a parked vehicle. He immediately arrests the suspect without a warrant.
A) In flagrante delicto arrest
B) Arbitrary arrest
C) In flagrante delicto arrest
D) Hot pursuit arrest
E) Citizen’s arrest
  • 12. 12. a checkpoint, police open all car trunks without probable cause. Which right is violated?
A) Right against unreasonable search
B) Right to privacy
C) Due process
D) Right to counsel
E) Right against unreasonable search
  • 13. 13. An officer receives reliable info that a wanted fugitive is inside a house. Without a warrant, he enters and arrests the man.
A) Valid as hot-pursuit arrest
B) Valid as hot-pursuit arrest
C) Valid if with barangay clearance
D) Invalid; no warrant
E) Valid under plain view doctrine
  • 14. 14. A police investigator includes a suspect’s confession obtained without counsel. What happens to the confession?
A) Inadmissible in evidence
B) Needs corroboration only
C) Inadmissible in evidence
D) Admissible if voluntary
E) Admissible if signed
  • 15. 15. A robbery suspect offers ₱50 000 to a police officer to drop the case. The officer reports the incident. What principle is shown?
A) Professional integrity
B) Chain of custody
C) Professional integrity
D) Discretionary authority
E) Command responsibility
  • 16. 16. Police see a man fleeing from a store with a bloody knife. They chase and arrest him.
A) Illegal arrest
B) Preventive detention
C) Warrantless hot pursuit
D) Citizen’s arrest
E) Warrantless hot pursuit
  • 17. 17. A patrolman discovers illegal drugs on a table while serving a lawful search warrant for firearms.
A) Secure new warrant
B) Ignore; not in warrant
C) Confiscate under plain-view doctrine
D) Confiscate under plain-view doctrine
E) Report but leave items
  • 18. 18. Police use torture to extract a confession. The suspect later files a case. What crime applies?
A) Physical injuries
B) . Grave coercion
C) Arbitrary detention
D) Violation of RA 9745
E) Violation of RA 9745
  • 19. 19. During a buy-bust, officers forget to photograph seized drugs. What may happen?
A) Case dismissed for chain-of-custody defect
B) Drugs returned to PDEA
C) Evidence still valid
D) Officer disciplined only
E) Case dismissed for chain-of-custody defect
  • 20. 20. An officer uses deadly force on an unarmed fleeing suspect in a minor theft. The act is:
A) Lawful arrest procedure
B) Abuse of authority
C) Abuse of authority
D) Instinctive reaction
E) Justified self-defense
  • 21. 21.Evidence was seized by an officer who lacked a search warrant and probable cause. It is:
A) Inadmissible; illegal search
B) Valid; fruits of crime
C) Inadmissible; illegal search
D) Valid if authenticated
E) Admissible after consent
  • 22. 22. A police officer fails to inform a detainee of the reason for arrest. Consequence?
A) Arrest void
B) Arrest void
C) Grounds for demotion only
D) Valid if crime serious
E) Simple irregularity
  • 23. 23. When evidence shows another suspect actually committed the crime, the officer must:
A) Amend complaint accordingly
B) Suppress new evidence
C) Amend complaint accordingly
D) Wait for prosecutor’s instruction
E) Continue filing against original suspect
  • 24. 24. Community members volunteer to patrol with police. This practice is called:
A) Community policing
B) Peace negotiation
C) Private security
D) Community policing
E) Civil defense
  • 25. 25. The prosecutor files a case for murder, but the court later finds the act is homicide. Effect?
A) Conviction for homicide still valid
B) Case remanded to DOJ
C) Case dismissed
D) Accused acquitted
E) Conviction for homicide still valid
  • 26. 26.A prosecutor dismisses a complaint despite strong evidence of homicide. The complainant feels aggrieved. What should they do?
A) Due process
B) Sub judice rule
C) Res judicata
D) Professional secrecy
E) Professional secrecy
  • 27. 27.A complaint was filed directly in court without preliminary investigation. The accused objects. Remedy?
A) Suspension of arraignment
B) Dismissal outright
C) Court orders reinvestigation
D) Waiver of objection
E) Suspension of arraignment
  • 28. 28.A prosecutor leaks confidential evidence to media. This violates:
A) Professional secrecy
B) Due process
C) Professional secrecy
D) Sub judice rule
E) Res judicata
  • 29. 29.An arrest was made without warrant, and the suspect was not delivered to the prosecutor within 36 hours.
A) Require explanation from police
B) Prosecutor must file case anyway
C) Dismiss case for arbitrary detention
D) Refer to higher DOJ authority
E) Require explanation from police
  • 30. 30.A prosecutor finds no probable cause but the complainant has new affidavits.
A) File case immediately
B) Deny for being repetitive
C) mAllow reinvestigation
D) Endorse to Ombudsman
E) Allow reinvestigation
  • 31. 31. The accused claims the investigating fiscal was biased due to family ties with complainant. Remedy?
A) Appeal to Secretary of Justice
B) Move for inhibition
C) Move for inhibition
D) File administrative case
E) Ignore unless proven
  • 32. 32.Probable cause for filing a case means:
A) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
B) Absolute proof of guilt
C) Mere hunch of crime
D) Strong suspicion based on evidence
E) Strong suspicion based on evidence
  • 33. 33.Prosecutor receives evidence obtained through illegal search. What should he do?
A) Keep it confidential
B) File case based on it
C) Use it if it proves guilt
D) Return to police and disregard
E) Return to police and disregard
  • 34. 34. During inquest, the suspect demands preliminary investigation. What is required?
A) Written waiver of Art. 125 rights
B) Written waiver of Art. 125 rights
C) Verbal consent only
D) None; automatic right
E) Prosecutor approval
  • 35. 35.The prosecutor files multiple cases for a single act. The accused can invoke:
A) Res judicata
B) Rule on multiplicity
C) Double jeopardy
D) Forum shopping
E) Rule on multiplicity
  • 36. 36. When the prosecutor withdraws an information before arraignment, it requires:
A) Police approval
B) Approval of the Secretary of Justice
C) Court’s approval
D) Court’s approval
E) Automatic effect
  • 37. 37.The complainant files a falsified medical certificate. The prosecutor discovers this. Action?
A) Request police correction
B) File case still
C) Dismiss and refer falsification charge
D) Ignore since unrelated
  • 38. 38. If during reinvestigation the accused presents alibi and affidavits contradicting earlier ones, prosecutor should:
A) Send to court for trial
B) Automatically dismiss
C) Evaluate credibility and resolve conflicts
D) File immediately for delay
E) Evaluate credibility and resolve conflicts
  • 39. 39. A prosecutor is bribed to drop a case. The crime committed is:
A) Dereliction of duty
B) Bribery under RPC
C) Grave misconduct
D) Malfeasance
E) Bribery under RPC
  • 40. 40. Prosecutor insists on prosecuting a clearly innocent accused to gain publicity. This violates:
A) Prosecution’s ethical standard
B) Prosecution’s ethical standard
C) Procedural regularity
D) Burden of proof
E) Judicial courtesy
  • 41. 41. The accused pleads guilty to a lesser offense after plea bargaining. What must the judge ensure before approving the plea?
A) That the accused has a lawyer and understands the consequences
B) That the prosecution agrees
C) That the accused has a lawyer and understands the consequences
D) That the victim is absent
E) That the police concur
  • 42. 42. During trial, the judge personally questions a witness extensively to clarify facts. This act is:
A) Valid judicial discretion
B) Usurpation of prosecution’s role
C) Evidence tampering
D) Valid judicial discretion
E) Improper intervention
  • 43. 43. An accused is acquitted but the prosecution appeals, arguing the court erred. The appeal should be:
A) Dismissed due to double jeopardy
B) Elevated to DOJ
C) Dismissed due to double jeopardy
D) Remanded for reinvestigation
E) Allowed since the court erred
  • 44. 44. The court issues a judgment but fails to state factual findings. The judgment is:
A) Void for lack of basis
B) Void for lack of basis
C) Final after notice
D) Effective if promulgated
E) Valid if signed
  • 45. 45. The accused fails to appear at arraignment despite proper notice. The court should:
A) lIssue bench warrant for arrest
B) Acquit for non-appearance
C) Issue bench warrant for arrest
D) Dismiss case for delay
E) Proceed to trial
  • 46. 46. The court finds the evidence insufficient for murder but adequate for homicide. The proper ruling is:
A) Dismiss case
B) Order reinvestigation
C) Acquittal
D) Convict for homicide
E) Convict for homicide
  • 47. 47. During trial, the judge learns the accused was tortured to confess. What should the court do?
A) Exclude confession from evidence
B) Admit confession if corroborated
C) Ignore since confession signed
D) Suspend trial
E) Exclude confession from evidence
  • 48. 48. The judge publicly comments on the guilt of the accused before the decision. This constitutes:
A) Grave misconduct or bias
B) Exercise of discretion
C) Judicial transparency
D) Sub judice exception
E) Grave misconduct or bias
  • 49. 49. The court forgets to include civil liability in a conviction judgment. What should it do?
A) Refer to prosecutor
B) Modify judgment to include it
C) Modify judgment to include it
D) Ignore unless appealed
E) Nothing; penalty already imposed
  • 50. 50. The accused was tried in absentia after escaping custody. The judgment of conviction is:
A) Suspended
B) Valid
C) Void
D) Discretionary
E) Valid
  • 51. 51. A judge refuses to inhibit despite being a close friend of the victim’s family. This violates:
A) Administrative rules
B) Judicial discipline only
C) Judicial impartiality
D) Judicial impartiality
E) Judicial restraint
  • 52. 52. The accused appeals his conviction, but while the appeal is pending, he escapes. Effect on appeal?
A) Automatically dismissed
B) Continues
C) Converted to probation
D) Deferred until recapture
E) Automatically dismissed
  • 53. 53. Evidence presented in trial was obtained illegally. The court should:
A) Allow if relevant
B) Reopen preliminary investigation
C) Exclude it from consideration
D) Defer ruling
E) Exclude it from consideration
  • 54. 54. The defense files a motion for new trial based on newly discovered evidence before judgment becomes final. Court’s proper action:
A) Deny automatically
B) Evaluate materiality and grant if justified
C) Refer to DOJ
D) Require police reinvestigation
E) Evaluate materiality and grant if justified
  • 55. 55. Judge delays decision for over one year without valid reason. This is:
A) Judicial discretion
B) Civil liability
C) Administrative negligence
D) Denial of speedy disposition
E) Denial of speedy disposition
  • 56. 56. The Supreme Court reverses an acquittal after finding gross error. Is this valid?
A) Yes, if through certiorari for grave abuse of discretion
B) Yes, if through certiorari for grave abuse of discretion
C) No, double jeopardy always applies
D) Only if accused consents
E) Only in civil cases
  • 57. 57. The RTC judge conducts plea bargaining for a drug case without prosecutor consent. Effect?
A) Valid if court-approved
B) Invalid; needs prosecution approval
C) Allowed under RA 9165
D) Valid if voluntary
E) Invalid; needs prosecution approval
  • 58. 58. The court convicts accused based solely on uncorroborated testimony of a hostile witness. The judgment is:
A) Automatically final
B) Voidable; lacks sufficient evidence
C) B. Voidable; lacks sufficient evidence
D) Valid
E) Discretionary
  • 59. 59. The accused files a motion to inhibit a judge, alleging bias without proof. Court should:
A) Forward to Supreme Court
B) Automatically inhibit
C) Deny for lack of factual basis
D) Deny for lack of factual basis
E) Suspend proceedings
  • 60. 60. A judge receives gifts from a litigant during the case. This act constitutes:
A) Bribery or corruption
B) Bribery or corruption
C) Administrative oversight
D) Courtesy
E) Ethical irregularity only
  • 61. 61. A convicted offender is released under supervision after serving part of his sentence. This is called:
A) Parole
B) Probation
C) Conditional pardon
D) Parole
E) Commutation
  • 62. 62. What is the main goal of the correctional system?
A) Incapacitation
B) Rehabilitation
C) Deterrence
D) Rehabilitation
E) Retribution
  • 63. 63. Under PD 968, probation is granted to:
    A. First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
A) First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
B) First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
C) Escapees
D) Habitual delinquents
E) Persons sentenced to death
  • 64. 64. A parolee violates one of his conditions. The Board of Pardons and Parole may:
A) Terminate case
B) Extend parole
C) Revoke parole and order re-arrest
D) Grant commutation
E) Revoke parole and order re-arrest
  • 65. 65. A prisoner’s sentence is reduced by presidential action without pardon. This is:
A) Probation
B) Parole
C) Commutation of sentence
D) Commutation of sentence
E) Amnesty
  • 66. 66. A newly admitted prisoner is classified based on background and risk. This process is:
A) Reception and diagnostic process
B) Penological screening
C) Custodial supervision
D) Rehabilitation planning
E) Reception and diagnostic process
  • 67. 67. Inmates are taught vocational and livelihood skills. This supports which correctional philosophy?
A) Punitive discipline
B) Restorative rehabilitation
C) Restorative rehabilitation
D) Retributive justice
E) Deterrence
  • 68. 68. The principal agency in charge of national prisoners serving sentences of over three years is:
A) Bureau of Parole and Probation Administration (BPPA)
B) PNP Custodial Center
C) Bureau of Jail Management and Penology (BJMP)
D) Bureau of Corrections (BuCor)
E) Bureau of Corrections (BuCor)
  • 69. 69. A probationer fails to report to his probation officer for two months. The officer should:
A) Issue bench warrant
B) Extend reporting period
C) Recommend revocation of probation
D) Recommend revocation of probation
E) Ignore for minor lapse
  • 70. 70. The purpose of the indeterminate sentence law (ISL) is to:
A) Replace probation
B) Impose harsher penalties
C) Encourage rehabilitation through parole
D) Encourage rehabilitation through parole
E) Shorten imprisonment for all
  • 71. 71. A prisoner completes his minimum sentence and shows good conduct. He applies for parole. What agency acts on it?
A) BuCor
B) DOJ
C) Board of Pardons and Parole
D) BJMP
E) Board of Pardons and Parole
  • 72. 72. When a probationer successfully completes probation, his case is:
A) Suspended for life
B) Converted to parole
C) Dismissed and civil rights restored
D) Refiled for sentencing
E) Dismissed and civil rights restored
  • 73. 73. A convicted minor offender is sent to a youth rehabilitation center instead of prison. This shows what principle?
A) Equal punishment
B) Correctional segregation
C) Restorative justice
D) Juvenile protection
E) Restorative justice
  • 74. 74. An offender sentenced to six months imprisonment applies for probation. The court should:
A) Evaluate report of Probation Officer first
B) Refer to DOJ
C) Evaluate report of Probation Officer first
D) Deny; sentence too short
E) Grant probation automatically
  • 75. 75. A parolee who committed another offense while under parole loses what privilege?
A) Commutation
B) Credit of time served
C) Benefit of parole
D) Clemency
E) Benefit of parole
  • 76. 76. Inmates assigned to perform kitchen and maintenance work in prison are under:
A) Custodial punishment
B) Voluntary work detail
C) Institutional employment program
D) Institutional employment program
E) Administrative segregation
  • 77. 77. A prisoner granted good conduct time allowance (GCTA) is released early. The basis law is:
A) RA 10592
B) RA 6975
C) RA 10575
D) RA 10592
E) RA 9165
  • 78. 78. A prisoner released through amnesty benefits because his offense was political. Amnesty’s effect is:
A) Total extinguishment of offense
B) Reduction of penalty
C) Total extinguishment of offense
D) Temporary release
E) Conditional pardon
  • 79. 79. Which of the following shows effective correctional administration?
A) Limited recreation
B) Overcrowded facilities
C) Proper classification and rehabilitation programs
D) Proper classification and rehabilitation programs
E) Lack of parole supervision
  • 80. 80. A probationer requests to transfer residence to another city. The probation officer must:
A) Recommend to the court for approval
B) Approve immediately
C) Recommend to the court for approval
D) Request police clearance
E) Deny automatically
  • 81. 81. After serving his sentence, a former inmate is welcomed by his barangay and given a livelihood grant. This illustrates:
A) Rehabilitation
B) Reintegration
C) Restitution
D) Reintegration
E) Correction
  • 82. 82. The concept that crime prevention is a shared responsibility between police and citizens is known as:
A) Social control
B) Participatory security
C) Community policing
D) Community policing
E) Citizen’s watch
  • 83. 83. The Barangay Justice System (Katarungang Pambarangay) primarily aims to:
A) Prosecute offenders
B) Collect barangay taxes
C) Settle disputes amicably
D) Settle disputes amicably
E) Impose imprisonment
  • 84. 84. Restorative justice focuses mainly on:
A) Punishment of the offender
B) Repairing harm and restoring relationships
C) Avoiding accountability
D) Repairing harm and restoring relationships
E) Retribution
  • 85. 85. A former offender voluntarily helps mentor youth at risk in his community. This demonstrates:
A) Social reintegration
B) Social reintegration
C) Community service
D) Restorative leadership
E) Civil participation
  • 86. 86. Barangay tanods assist police in maintaining order. This is an example of:
A) Volunteer citizen participation
B) Informal policing
C) Auxiliary law enforcement
D) Civil defense
E) Auxiliary law enforcement
  • 87. 87. The community pillar’s main responsibility in the criminal justice system is:
A) Crime prevention and reintegration
B) Prosecution of cases
C) Imposing penalties
D) Crime detection
E) Crime prevention and reintegration
  • 88. 88. Which of the following is a form of restorative justice program?
A) Death penalty
B) Victim-offender mediation
C) Preventive detention
D) Life imprisonment
E) Victim-offender mediation
  • 89. 89. When the public refuses to cooperate with law enforcement due to distrust, it results in:
A) Weak community pillar
B) Increased clearance rate
C) Strengthened judiciary
D) Weak community pillar
E) Effective policing
  • 90. 90. A local NGO provides counseling and job training for released inmates. This supports which pillar?
A) Corrections
B) Community
C) Court
D) Prosecution
E) Community
  • 91. 91. A community leader initiates dialogue between rival gangs to reduce violence. This reflects:
A) Restorative justice
B) Social defense
C) Conflict resolution
D) Restorative justice
E) Crime suppression
  • 92. 92. Which measures best enhances trust between police and citizens?
A) Transparency and accountability
B) Transparency and accountability
C) Increased penalties
D) Political campaigns
E) Frequent arrests
  • 93. 93. The success of community-based corrections largely depends on:
A) Length of sentence
B) Community acceptance and support
C) Community acceptance and support
D) Strict surveillance
E) Prison budget
  • 94. 94. The principle that prevention is better than cure in criminology refers to:
A) Deterrence principle
B) Preventive justice
C) Rehabilitation
D) Preventive justice
E) Social defense theory
  • 95. 95. Which illustrates active community participation in justice?
A) Withholding evidence
B) Joining barangay peace councils
C) Refusing to testify
D) Joining barangay peace councils
E) Ignoring crimes
  • 96. 96. A released inmate is stigmatized by neighbors, causing him to reoffend. What criminological concept is demonstrated?
A) Differential association
B) Social disorganization
C) Labeling theory
D) Control theory
E) Labeling theory
  • 97. 97. A community-based drug rehabilitation center partners with local police and families. This collaboration exemplifies:
A) Restorative intervention
B) Restorative intervention
C) Social development approach
D) Community policing
E) Inter-agency coordination
  • 98. 98. A barangay sets curfew for minors to prevent juvenile delinquency. This is an example of:
A) Restorative sanction
B) Legal punishment
C) Social control measure
D) Social control measure
E) Arbitrary detention
  • 99. 99. Which reflects the concept of social defense?
A) Protecting society through prevention and reformation
B) Isolating criminals permanently
C) Relying solely on police power
D) Increasing penalties for all crimes
E) Protecting society through prevention and reformation
  • 100. 100. In the criminal justice system, the community’s cooperation with law enforcement symbolizes:
A) Partnership in justice
B) Political influence
C) Partnership in justice
D) Civil dependency
E) Mutual distrust
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