ThatQuiz Test Library Take this test now
Introduction to Philippines criminal system
Contributed by: Angelica
  • 1. 1. While on patrol, a PNP officer witnesses a man breaking into a store at night. Without a warrant, he arrests the suspect. Under which rule is this arrest justified?
A) In flagrante delicto rule
B) In flagrante delicto rule
C) Probable cause rule
D) Citizen’s arrest rule
  • 2. 2. During a checkpoint, police officers open car trunks without probable cause or consent. Which constitutional right is violated?
A) Right to travel
B) Right to due process
C) Right to privacy
D) Right against unreasonable search
E) Right against unreasonable search
  • 3. 3.A prosecutor dismisses a complaint despite strong evidence. What is the proper legal remedy for the complainant?
A) Appeal to the DOJ
B) Appeal to the DOJ
C) File a new complaint
D) File a case with the Ombudsman
E) Seek mandamus from RTC
  • 4. 4.A respondent claims he was not subpoenaed during preliminary investigation. What due process violation occurred?
A) Right to counsel
B) Plea bargaining
C) Plea bargaining
D) Right to confrontation
E) Right to presumption of innocence
  • 5. 5.An accused pleads guilty to a lesser offense during arraignment. What judicial process allows this negotiation?
A) Plea bargaining
B) Plea bargaining
C) Plea in abeyance
D) Pre-trial agreement
E) Conditional pardon
  • 6. 6. A judge renders a decision finding the accused guilty but fails to state factual basis. What judicial requirement is violated?
A) Doctrine of finality
B) Requisite of written judgment
C) Requisite of written judgment
D) Rule on double jeopardy
E) Requirement of promulgation
  • 7. 7. A prisoner who has shown good conduct is allowed to serve the rest of his sentence outside prison under supervision. This refers to:
A) Commutation
B) Correct Answer: C
C) Probation
D) Parole
E) Pardon
  • 8. 8.Under PD 968, what is the primary purpose of probation?
A) Rehabilitation
B) Isolation
C) Punishment
D) Retribution
E) Rehabilitation
  • 9. 9.A barangay forms a group assisting police in patrolling their area. This reflects which principle of community involvement?
A) Community policing
B) Social control
C) Community policing
D) Citizen’s initiative
E) Restorative justice
  • 10. 10.After serving his sentence, an ex-convict is welcomed by his community and given livelihood assistance. This demonstrates:
A) Rehabilitation
B) Reformation
C) Reconciliation
D) Reintegration
E) Reintegration
  • 11. 11. While on patrol, an officer witnesses a man forcibly opening a parked vehicle. He immediately arrests the suspect without a warrant.
A) Hot pursuit arrest
B) Arbitrary arrest
C) In flagrante delicto arrest
D) Citizen’s arrest
E) In flagrante delicto arrest
  • 12. 12. a checkpoint, police open all car trunks without probable cause. Which right is violated?
A) Right to counsel
B) Due process
C) Right against unreasonable search
D) Right against unreasonable search
E) Right to privacy
  • 13. 13. An officer receives reliable info that a wanted fugitive is inside a house. Without a warrant, he enters and arrests the man.
A) Invalid; no warrant
B) Valid if with barangay clearance
C) Valid under plain view doctrine
D) Valid as hot-pursuit arrest
E) Valid as hot-pursuit arrest
  • 14. 14. A police investigator includes a suspect’s confession obtained without counsel. What happens to the confession?
A) Inadmissible in evidence
B) Admissible if voluntary
C) Inadmissible in evidence
D) Admissible if signed
E) Needs corroboration only
  • 15. 15. A robbery suspect offers ₱50 000 to a police officer to drop the case. The officer reports the incident. What principle is shown?
A) Professional integrity
B) Discretionary authority
C) Command responsibility
D) Professional integrity
E) Chain of custody
  • 16. 16. Police see a man fleeing from a store with a bloody knife. They chase and arrest him.
A) Warrantless hot pursuit
B) Preventive detention
C) Citizen’s arrest
D) Illegal arrest
E) Warrantless hot pursuit
  • 17. 17. A patrolman discovers illegal drugs on a table while serving a lawful search warrant for firearms.
A) Report but leave items
B) Confiscate under plain-view doctrine
C) Confiscate under plain-view doctrine
D) Ignore; not in warrant
E) Secure new warrant
  • 18. 18. Police use torture to extract a confession. The suspect later files a case. What crime applies?
A) Physical injuries
B) Arbitrary detention
C) . Grave coercion
D) Violation of RA 9745
E) Violation of RA 9745
  • 19. 19. During a buy-bust, officers forget to photograph seized drugs. What may happen?
A) Evidence still valid
B) Case dismissed for chain-of-custody defect
C) Case dismissed for chain-of-custody defect
D) Officer disciplined only
E) Drugs returned to PDEA
  • 20. 20. An officer uses deadly force on an unarmed fleeing suspect in a minor theft. The act is:
A) Instinctive reaction
B) Lawful arrest procedure
C) Abuse of authority
D) Abuse of authority
E) Justified self-defense
  • 21. 21.Evidence was seized by an officer who lacked a search warrant and probable cause. It is:
A) Admissible after consent
B) Inadmissible; illegal search
C) Valid; fruits of crime
D) Inadmissible; illegal search
E) Valid if authenticated
  • 22. 22. A police officer fails to inform a detainee of the reason for arrest. Consequence?
A) Arrest void
B) Simple irregularity
C) Arrest void
D) Grounds for demotion only
E) Valid if crime serious
  • 23. 23. When evidence shows another suspect actually committed the crime, the officer must:
A) Suppress new evidence
B) Continue filing against original suspect
C) Amend complaint accordingly
D) Wait for prosecutor’s instruction
E) Amend complaint accordingly
  • 24. 24. Community members volunteer to patrol with police. This practice is called:
A) Community policing
B) Civil defense
C) Peace negotiation
D) Private security
E) Community policing
  • 25. 25. The prosecutor files a case for murder, but the court later finds the act is homicide. Effect?
A) Case remanded to DOJ
B) Case dismissed
C) Conviction for homicide still valid
D) Accused acquitted
E) Conviction for homicide still valid
  • 26. 26.A prosecutor dismisses a complaint despite strong evidence of homicide. The complainant feels aggrieved. What should they do?
A) Due process
B) Sub judice rule
C) Professional secrecy
D) Professional secrecy
E) Res judicata
  • 27. 27.A complaint was filed directly in court without preliminary investigation. The accused objects. Remedy?
A) Dismissal outright
B) Court orders reinvestigation
C) Suspension of arraignment
D) Waiver of objection
E) Suspension of arraignment
  • 28. 28.A prosecutor leaks confidential evidence to media. This violates:
A) Sub judice rule
B) Due process
C) Professional secrecy
D) Professional secrecy
E) Res judicata
  • 29. 29.An arrest was made without warrant, and the suspect was not delivered to the prosecutor within 36 hours.
A) Require explanation from police
B) Require explanation from police
C) Refer to higher DOJ authority
D) Prosecutor must file case anyway
E) Dismiss case for arbitrary detention
  • 30. 30.A prosecutor finds no probable cause but the complainant has new affidavits.
A) Deny for being repetitive
B) Endorse to Ombudsman
C) Allow reinvestigation
D) mAllow reinvestigation
E) File case immediately
  • 31. 31. The accused claims the investigating fiscal was biased due to family ties with complainant. Remedy?
A) Move for inhibition
B) File administrative case
C) Move for inhibition
D) Ignore unless proven
E) Appeal to Secretary of Justice
  • 32. 32.Probable cause for filing a case means:
A) Strong suspicion based on evidence
B) Mere hunch of crime
C) Absolute proof of guilt
D) Strong suspicion based on evidence
E) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
  • 33. 33.Prosecutor receives evidence obtained through illegal search. What should he do?
A) Return to police and disregard
B) File case based on it
C) Keep it confidential
D) Use it if it proves guilt
E) Return to police and disregard
  • 34. 34. During inquest, the suspect demands preliminary investigation. What is required?
A) None; automatic right
B) Verbal consent only
C) Prosecutor approval
D) Written waiver of Art. 125 rights
E) Written waiver of Art. 125 rights
  • 35. 35.The prosecutor files multiple cases for a single act. The accused can invoke:
A) Rule on multiplicity
B) Double jeopardy
C) Rule on multiplicity
D) Res judicata
E) Forum shopping
  • 36. 36. When the prosecutor withdraws an information before arraignment, it requires:
A) Approval of the Secretary of Justice
B) Police approval
C) Court’s approval
D) Court’s approval
E) Automatic effect
  • 37. 37.The complainant files a falsified medical certificate. The prosecutor discovers this. Action?
A) File case still
B) Request police correction
C) Ignore since unrelated
D) Dismiss and refer falsification charge
  • 38. 38. If during reinvestigation the accused presents alibi and affidavits contradicting earlier ones, prosecutor should:
A) Send to court for trial
B) Evaluate credibility and resolve conflicts
C) Automatically dismiss
D) Evaluate credibility and resolve conflicts
E) File immediately for delay
  • 39. 39. A prosecutor is bribed to drop a case. The crime committed is:
A) Bribery under RPC
B) Dereliction of duty
C) Grave misconduct
D) Bribery under RPC
E) Malfeasance
  • 40. 40. Prosecutor insists on prosecuting a clearly innocent accused to gain publicity. This violates:
A) Judicial courtesy
B) Procedural regularity
C) Prosecution’s ethical standard
D) Prosecution’s ethical standard
E) Burden of proof
  • 41. 41. The accused pleads guilty to a lesser offense after plea bargaining. What must the judge ensure before approving the plea?
A) That the prosecution agrees
B) That the police concur
C) That the accused has a lawyer and understands the consequences
D) That the accused has a lawyer and understands the consequences
E) That the victim is absent
  • 42. 42. During trial, the judge personally questions a witness extensively to clarify facts. This act is:
A) Valid judicial discretion
B) Valid judicial discretion
C) Usurpation of prosecution’s role
D) Improper intervention
E) Evidence tampering
  • 43. 43. An accused is acquitted but the prosecution appeals, arguing the court erred. The appeal should be:
A) Elevated to DOJ
B) Remanded for reinvestigation
C) Dismissed due to double jeopardy
D) Allowed since the court erred
E) Dismissed due to double jeopardy
  • 44. 44. The court issues a judgment but fails to state factual findings. The judgment is:
A) Final after notice
B) Void for lack of basis
C) Valid if signed
D) Void for lack of basis
E) Effective if promulgated
  • 45. 45. The accused fails to appear at arraignment despite proper notice. The court should:
A) Acquit for non-appearance
B) Proceed to trial
C) Issue bench warrant for arrest
D) lIssue bench warrant for arrest
E) Dismiss case for delay
  • 46. 46. The court finds the evidence insufficient for murder but adequate for homicide. The proper ruling is:
A) Acquittal
B) Convict for homicide
C) Order reinvestigation
D) Convict for homicide
E) Dismiss case
  • 47. 47. During trial, the judge learns the accused was tortured to confess. What should the court do?
A) Admit confession if corroborated
B) Suspend trial
C) Exclude confession from evidence
D) Exclude confession from evidence
E) Ignore since confession signed
  • 48. 48. The judge publicly comments on the guilt of the accused before the decision. This constitutes:
A) Grave misconduct or bias
B) Judicial transparency
C) Sub judice exception
D) Exercise of discretion
E) Grave misconduct or bias
  • 49. 49. The court forgets to include civil liability in a conviction judgment. What should it do?
A) Refer to prosecutor
B) Ignore unless appealed
C) Modify judgment to include it
D) Nothing; penalty already imposed
E) Modify judgment to include it
  • 50. 50. The accused was tried in absentia after escaping custody. The judgment of conviction is:
A) Suspended
B) Void
C) Valid
D) Discretionary
E) Valid
  • 51. 51. A judge refuses to inhibit despite being a close friend of the victim’s family. This violates:
A) Judicial impartiality
B) Administrative rules
C) Judicial restraint
D) Judicial discipline only
E) Judicial impartiality
  • 52. 52. The accused appeals his conviction, but while the appeal is pending, he escapes. Effect on appeal?
A) Automatically dismissed
B) Converted to probation
C) Automatically dismissed
D) Continues
E) Deferred until recapture
  • 53. 53. Evidence presented in trial was obtained illegally. The court should:
A) Reopen preliminary investigation
B) Exclude it from consideration
C) Exclude it from consideration
D) Defer ruling
E) Allow if relevant
  • 54. 54. The defense files a motion for new trial based on newly discovered evidence before judgment becomes final. Court’s proper action:
A) Refer to DOJ
B) Require police reinvestigation
C) Evaluate materiality and grant if justified
D) Deny automatically
E) Evaluate materiality and grant if justified
  • 55. 55. Judge delays decision for over one year without valid reason. This is:
A) Civil liability
B) Denial of speedy disposition
C) Administrative negligence
D) Denial of speedy disposition
E) Judicial discretion
  • 56. 56. The Supreme Court reverses an acquittal after finding gross error. Is this valid?
A) Only if accused consents
B) Yes, if through certiorari for grave abuse of discretion
C) No, double jeopardy always applies
D) Yes, if through certiorari for grave abuse of discretion
E) Only in civil cases
  • 57. 57. The RTC judge conducts plea bargaining for a drug case without prosecutor consent. Effect?
A) Allowed under RA 9165
B) Valid if voluntary
C) Invalid; needs prosecution approval
D) Invalid; needs prosecution approval
E) Valid if court-approved
  • 58. 58. The court convicts accused based solely on uncorroborated testimony of a hostile witness. The judgment is:
A) Valid
B) Voidable; lacks sufficient evidence
C) Automatically final
D) Discretionary
E) B. Voidable; lacks sufficient evidence
  • 59. 59. The accused files a motion to inhibit a judge, alleging bias without proof. Court should:
A) Deny for lack of factual basis
B) Suspend proceedings
C) Forward to Supreme Court
D) Deny for lack of factual basis
E) Automatically inhibit
  • 60. 60. A judge receives gifts from a litigant during the case. This act constitutes:
A) Bribery or corruption
B) Courtesy
C) Bribery or corruption
D) Ethical irregularity only
E) Administrative oversight
  • 61. 61. A convicted offender is released under supervision after serving part of his sentence. This is called:
A) Parole
B) Commutation
C) Conditional pardon
D) Parole
E) Probation
  • 62. 62. What is the main goal of the correctional system?
A) Retribution
B) Rehabilitation
C) Deterrence
D) Rehabilitation
E) Incapacitation
  • 63. 63. Under PD 968, probation is granted to:
    A. First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
A) First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
B) First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
C) Habitual delinquents
D) Escapees
E) Persons sentenced to death
  • 64. 64. A parolee violates one of his conditions. The Board of Pardons and Parole may:
A) Revoke parole and order re-arrest
B) Terminate case
C) Extend parole
D) Revoke parole and order re-arrest
E) Grant commutation
  • 65. 65. A prisoner’s sentence is reduced by presidential action without pardon. This is:
A) Amnesty
B) Commutation of sentence
C) Commutation of sentence
D) Parole
E) Probation
  • 66. 66. A newly admitted prisoner is classified based on background and risk. This process is:
A) Reception and diagnostic process
B) Penological screening
C) Custodial supervision
D) Reception and diagnostic process
E) Rehabilitation planning
  • 67. 67. Inmates are taught vocational and livelihood skills. This supports which correctional philosophy?
A) Restorative rehabilitation
B) Deterrence
C) Restorative rehabilitation
D) Punitive discipline
E) Retributive justice
  • 68. 68. The principal agency in charge of national prisoners serving sentences of over three years is:
A) Bureau of Corrections (BuCor)
B) Bureau of Corrections (BuCor)
C) Bureau of Parole and Probation Administration (BPPA)
D) Bureau of Jail Management and Penology (BJMP)
E) PNP Custodial Center
  • 69. 69. A probationer fails to report to his probation officer for two months. The officer should:
A) Extend reporting period
B) Recommend revocation of probation
C) Issue bench warrant
D) Recommend revocation of probation
E) Ignore for minor lapse
  • 70. 70. The purpose of the indeterminate sentence law (ISL) is to:
A) Replace probation
B) Encourage rehabilitation through parole
C) Shorten imprisonment for all
D) Encourage rehabilitation through parole
E) Impose harsher penalties
  • 71. 71. A prisoner completes his minimum sentence and shows good conduct. He applies for parole. What agency acts on it?
A) BuCor
B) Board of Pardons and Parole
C) BJMP
D) Board of Pardons and Parole
E) DOJ
  • 72. 72. When a probationer successfully completes probation, his case is:
A) Refiled for sentencing
B) Suspended for life
C) Converted to parole
D) Dismissed and civil rights restored
E) Dismissed and civil rights restored
  • 73. 73. A convicted minor offender is sent to a youth rehabilitation center instead of prison. This shows what principle?
A) Restorative justice
B) Equal punishment
C) Juvenile protection
D) Restorative justice
E) Correctional segregation
  • 74. 74. An offender sentenced to six months imprisonment applies for probation. The court should:
A) Refer to DOJ
B) Evaluate report of Probation Officer first
C) Grant probation automatically
D) Evaluate report of Probation Officer first
E) Deny; sentence too short
  • 75. 75. A parolee who committed another offense while under parole loses what privilege?
A) Benefit of parole
B) Credit of time served
C) Benefit of parole
D) Clemency
E) Commutation
  • 76. 76. Inmates assigned to perform kitchen and maintenance work in prison are under:
A) Institutional employment program
B) Administrative segregation
C) Institutional employment program
D) Custodial punishment
E) Voluntary work detail
  • 77. 77. A prisoner granted good conduct time allowance (GCTA) is released early. The basis law is:
A) RA 10592
B) RA 10575
C) RA 9165
D) RA 10592
E) RA 6975
  • 78. 78. A prisoner released through amnesty benefits because his offense was political. Amnesty’s effect is:
A) Temporary release
B) Total extinguishment of offense
C) Conditional pardon
D) Reduction of penalty
E) Total extinguishment of offense
  • 79. 79. Which of the following shows effective correctional administration?
A) Lack of parole supervision
B) Proper classification and rehabilitation programs
C) Overcrowded facilities
D) Proper classification and rehabilitation programs
E) Limited recreation
  • 80. 80. A probationer requests to transfer residence to another city. The probation officer must:
A) Request police clearance
B) Recommend to the court for approval
C) Deny automatically
D) Approve immediately
E) Recommend to the court for approval
  • 81. 81. After serving his sentence, a former inmate is welcomed by his barangay and given a livelihood grant. This illustrates:
A) Correction
B) Rehabilitation
C) Restitution
D) Reintegration
E) Reintegration
  • 82. 82. The concept that crime prevention is a shared responsibility between police and citizens is known as:
A) Citizen’s watch
B) Community policing
C) Participatory security
D) Community policing
E) Social control
  • 83. 83. The Barangay Justice System (Katarungang Pambarangay) primarily aims to:
A) Settle disputes amicably
B) Prosecute offenders
C) Impose imprisonment
D) Collect barangay taxes
E) Settle disputes amicably
  • 84. 84. Restorative justice focuses mainly on:
A) Avoiding accountability
B) Retribution
C) Repairing harm and restoring relationships
D) Punishment of the offender
E) Repairing harm and restoring relationships
  • 85. 85. A former offender voluntarily helps mentor youth at risk in his community. This demonstrates:
A) Community service
B) Social reintegration
C) Social reintegration
D) Restorative leadership
E) Civil participation
  • 86. 86. Barangay tanods assist police in maintaining order. This is an example of:
A) Auxiliary law enforcement
B) Civil defense
C) Auxiliary law enforcement
D) Volunteer citizen participation
E) Informal policing
  • 87. 87. The community pillar’s main responsibility in the criminal justice system is:
A) Crime detection
B) Crime prevention and reintegration
C) Prosecution of cases
D) Imposing penalties
E) Crime prevention and reintegration
  • 88. 88. Which of the following is a form of restorative justice program?
A) Victim-offender mediation
B) Life imprisonment
C) Victim-offender mediation
D) Death penalty
E) Preventive detention
  • 89. 89. When the public refuses to cooperate with law enforcement due to distrust, it results in:
A) Strengthened judiciary
B) Effective policing
C) Increased clearance rate
D) Weak community pillar
E) Weak community pillar
  • 90. 90. A local NGO provides counseling and job training for released inmates. This supports which pillar?
A) Court
B) Community
C) Prosecution
D) Community
E) Corrections
  • 91. 91. A community leader initiates dialogue between rival gangs to reduce violence. This reflects:
A) Conflict resolution
B) Restorative justice
C) Crime suppression
D) Restorative justice
E) Social defense
  • 92. 92. Which measures best enhances trust between police and citizens?
A) Political campaigns
B) Transparency and accountability
C) Frequent arrests
D) Increased penalties
E) Transparency and accountability
  • 93. 93. The success of community-based corrections largely depends on:
A) Community acceptance and support
B) Strict surveillance
C) Prison budget
D) Length of sentence
E) Community acceptance and support
  • 94. 94. The principle that prevention is better than cure in criminology refers to:
A) Preventive justice
B) Preventive justice
C) Social defense theory
D) Rehabilitation
E) Deterrence principle
  • 95. 95. Which illustrates active community participation in justice?
A) Withholding evidence
B) Joining barangay peace councils
C) Joining barangay peace councils
D) Refusing to testify
E) Ignoring crimes
  • 96. 96. A released inmate is stigmatized by neighbors, causing him to reoffend. What criminological concept is demonstrated?
A) Control theory
B) Social disorganization
C) Labeling theory
D) Differential association
E) Labeling theory
  • 97. 97. A community-based drug rehabilitation center partners with local police and families. This collaboration exemplifies:
A) Inter-agency coordination
B) Restorative intervention
C) Social development approach
D) Restorative intervention
E) Community policing
  • 98. 98. A barangay sets curfew for minors to prevent juvenile delinquency. This is an example of:
A) Restorative sanction
B) Legal punishment
C) Social control measure
D) Social control measure
E) Arbitrary detention
  • 99. 99. Which reflects the concept of social defense?
A) Isolating criminals permanently
B) Protecting society through prevention and reformation
C) Relying solely on police power
D) Protecting society through prevention and reformation
E) Increasing penalties for all crimes
  • 100. 100. In the criminal justice system, the community’s cooperation with law enforcement symbolizes:
A) Political influence
B) Partnership in justice
C) Partnership in justice
D) Mutual distrust
E) Civil dependency
Created with That Quiz — where a math practice test is always one click away.