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Introduction to Philippines criminal system - Quiz
Contributed by: Angelica
  • 1. 1. While on patrol, a PNP officer witnesses a man breaking into a store at night. Without a warrant, he arrests the suspect. Under which rule is this arrest justified?
A) Probable cause rule
B) In flagrante delicto rule
C) Citizen’s arrest rule
D) In flagrante delicto rule
  • 2. 2. During a checkpoint, police officers open car trunks without probable cause or consent. Which constitutional right is violated?
A) Right to travel
B) Right to due process
C) Right against unreasonable search
D) Right against unreasonable search
E) Right to privacy
  • 3. 3.A prosecutor dismisses a complaint despite strong evidence. What is the proper legal remedy for the complainant?
A) Appeal to the DOJ
B) File a case with the Ombudsman
C) File a new complaint
D) Seek mandamus from RTC
E) Appeal to the DOJ
  • 4. 4.A respondent claims he was not subpoenaed during preliminary investigation. What due process violation occurred?
A) Plea bargaining
B) Right to counsel
C) Right to confrontation
D) Right to presumption of innocence
E) Plea bargaining
  • 5. 5.An accused pleads guilty to a lesser offense during arraignment. What judicial process allows this negotiation?
A) Plea in abeyance
B) Plea bargaining
C) Pre-trial agreement
D) Conditional pardon
E) Plea bargaining
  • 6. 6. A judge renders a decision finding the accused guilty but fails to state factual basis. What judicial requirement is violated?
A) Doctrine of finality
B) Rule on double jeopardy
C) Requirement of promulgation
D) Requisite of written judgment
E) Requisite of written judgment
  • 7. 7. A prisoner who has shown good conduct is allowed to serve the rest of his sentence outside prison under supervision. This refers to:
A) Probation
B) Pardon
C) Commutation
D) Parole
E) Correct Answer: C
  • 8. 8.Under PD 968, what is the primary purpose of probation?
A) Retribution
B) Isolation
C) Rehabilitation
D) Punishment
E) Rehabilitation
  • 9. 9.A barangay forms a group assisting police in patrolling their area. This reflects which principle of community involvement?
A) Citizen’s initiative
B) Community policing
C) Social control
D) Community policing
E) Restorative justice
  • 10. 10.After serving his sentence, an ex-convict is welcomed by his community and given livelihood assistance. This demonstrates:
A) Reconciliation
B) Reintegration
C) Rehabilitation
D) Reintegration
E) Reformation
  • 11. 11. While on patrol, an officer witnesses a man forcibly opening a parked vehicle. He immediately arrests the suspect without a warrant.
A) Citizen’s arrest
B) Arbitrary arrest
C) In flagrante delicto arrest
D) In flagrante delicto arrest
E) Hot pursuit arrest
  • 12. 12. a checkpoint, police open all car trunks without probable cause. Which right is violated?
A) Right to privacy
B) Right against unreasonable search
C) Right to counsel
D) Due process
E) Right against unreasonable search
  • 13. 13. An officer receives reliable info that a wanted fugitive is inside a house. Without a warrant, he enters and arrests the man.
A) Valid as hot-pursuit arrest
B) Invalid; no warrant
C) Valid under plain view doctrine
D) Valid as hot-pursuit arrest
E) Valid if with barangay clearance
  • 14. 14. A police investigator includes a suspect’s confession obtained without counsel. What happens to the confession?
A) Admissible if voluntary
B) Needs corroboration only
C) Admissible if signed
D) Inadmissible in evidence
E) Inadmissible in evidence
  • 15. 15. A robbery suspect offers ₱50 000 to a police officer to drop the case. The officer reports the incident. What principle is shown?
A) Professional integrity
B) Command responsibility
C) Professional integrity
D) Discretionary authority
E) Chain of custody
  • 16. 16. Police see a man fleeing from a store with a bloody knife. They chase and arrest him.
A) Citizen’s arrest
B) Preventive detention
C) Illegal arrest
D) Warrantless hot pursuit
E) Warrantless hot pursuit
  • 17. 17. A patrolman discovers illegal drugs on a table while serving a lawful search warrant for firearms.
A) Confiscate under plain-view doctrine
B) Secure new warrant
C) Confiscate under plain-view doctrine
D) Ignore; not in warrant
E) Report but leave items
  • 18. 18. Police use torture to extract a confession. The suspect later files a case. What crime applies?
A) Physical injuries
B) Violation of RA 9745
C) Violation of RA 9745
D) Arbitrary detention
E) . Grave coercion
  • 19. 19. During a buy-bust, officers forget to photograph seized drugs. What may happen?
A) Case dismissed for chain-of-custody defect
B) Evidence still valid
C) Drugs returned to PDEA
D) Case dismissed for chain-of-custody defect
E) Officer disciplined only
  • 20. 20. An officer uses deadly force on an unarmed fleeing suspect in a minor theft. The act is:
A) Instinctive reaction
B) Abuse of authority
C) Justified self-defense
D) Abuse of authority
E) Lawful arrest procedure
  • 21. 21.Evidence was seized by an officer who lacked a search warrant and probable cause. It is:
A) Inadmissible; illegal search
B) Valid if authenticated
C) Admissible after consent
D) Inadmissible; illegal search
E) Valid; fruits of crime
  • 22. 22. A police officer fails to inform a detainee of the reason for arrest. Consequence?
A) Arrest void
B) Arrest void
C) Valid if crime serious
D) Simple irregularity
E) Grounds for demotion only
  • 23. 23. When evidence shows another suspect actually committed the crime, the officer must:
A) Amend complaint accordingly
B) Wait for prosecutor’s instruction
C) Suppress new evidence
D) Amend complaint accordingly
E) Continue filing against original suspect
  • 24. 24. Community members volunteer to patrol with police. This practice is called:
A) Community policing
B) Private security
C) Peace negotiation
D) Community policing
E) Civil defense
  • 25. 25. The prosecutor files a case for murder, but the court later finds the act is homicide. Effect?
A) Conviction for homicide still valid
B) Case dismissed
C) Accused acquitted
D) Conviction for homicide still valid
E) Case remanded to DOJ
  • 26. 26.A prosecutor dismisses a complaint despite strong evidence of homicide. The complainant feels aggrieved. What should they do?
A) Professional secrecy
B) Professional secrecy
C) Sub judice rule
D) Due process
E) Res judicata
  • 27. 27.A complaint was filed directly in court without preliminary investigation. The accused objects. Remedy?
A) Suspension of arraignment
B) Suspension of arraignment
C) Dismissal outright
D) Court orders reinvestigation
E) Waiver of objection
  • 28. 28.A prosecutor leaks confidential evidence to media. This violates:
A) Professional secrecy
B) Professional secrecy
C) Due process
D) Res judicata
E) Sub judice rule
  • 29. 29.An arrest was made without warrant, and the suspect was not delivered to the prosecutor within 36 hours.
A) Dismiss case for arbitrary detention
B) Refer to higher DOJ authority
C) Require explanation from police
D) Require explanation from police
E) Prosecutor must file case anyway
  • 30. 30.A prosecutor finds no probable cause but the complainant has new affidavits.
A) mAllow reinvestigation
B) File case immediately
C) Allow reinvestigation
D) Endorse to Ombudsman
E) Deny for being repetitive
  • 31. 31. The accused claims the investigating fiscal was biased due to family ties with complainant. Remedy?
A) File administrative case
B) Move for inhibition
C) Move for inhibition
D) Ignore unless proven
E) Appeal to Secretary of Justice
  • 32. 32.Probable cause for filing a case means:
A) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
B) Strong suspicion based on evidence
C) Strong suspicion based on evidence
D) Mere hunch of crime
E) Absolute proof of guilt
  • 33. 33.Prosecutor receives evidence obtained through illegal search. What should he do?
A) File case based on it
B) Keep it confidential
C) Return to police and disregard
D) Return to police and disregard
E) Use it if it proves guilt
  • 34. 34. During inquest, the suspect demands preliminary investigation. What is required?
A) None; automatic right
B) Verbal consent only
C) Written waiver of Art. 125 rights
D) Written waiver of Art. 125 rights
E) Prosecutor approval
  • 35. 35.The prosecutor files multiple cases for a single act. The accused can invoke:
A) Double jeopardy
B) Forum shopping
C) Res judicata
D) Rule on multiplicity
E) Rule on multiplicity
  • 36. 36. When the prosecutor withdraws an information before arraignment, it requires:
A) Court’s approval
B) Court’s approval
C) Police approval
D) Automatic effect
E) Approval of the Secretary of Justice
  • 37. 37.The complainant files a falsified medical certificate. The prosecutor discovers this. Action?
A) Ignore since unrelated
B) Request police correction
C) File case still
D) Dismiss and refer falsification charge
  • 38. 38. If during reinvestigation the accused presents alibi and affidavits contradicting earlier ones, prosecutor should:
A) Automatically dismiss
B) Send to court for trial
C) Evaluate credibility and resolve conflicts
D) Evaluate credibility and resolve conflicts
E) File immediately for delay
  • 39. 39. A prosecutor is bribed to drop a case. The crime committed is:
A) Bribery under RPC
B) Malfeasance
C) Dereliction of duty
D) Bribery under RPC
E) Grave misconduct
  • 40. 40. Prosecutor insists on prosecuting a clearly innocent accused to gain publicity. This violates:
A) Procedural regularity
B) Prosecution’s ethical standard
C) Judicial courtesy
D) Burden of proof
E) Prosecution’s ethical standard
  • 41. 41. The accused pleads guilty to a lesser offense after plea bargaining. What must the judge ensure before approving the plea?
A) That the prosecution agrees
B) That the victim is absent
C) That the police concur
D) That the accused has a lawyer and understands the consequences
E) That the accused has a lawyer and understands the consequences
  • 42. 42. During trial, the judge personally questions a witness extensively to clarify facts. This act is:
A) Valid judicial discretion
B) Valid judicial discretion
C) Improper intervention
D) Usurpation of prosecution’s role
E) Evidence tampering
  • 43. 43. An accused is acquitted but the prosecution appeals, arguing the court erred. The appeal should be:
A) Elevated to DOJ
B) Allowed since the court erred
C) Dismissed due to double jeopardy
D) Dismissed due to double jeopardy
E) Remanded for reinvestigation
  • 44. 44. The court issues a judgment but fails to state factual findings. The judgment is:
A) Valid if signed
B) Void for lack of basis
C) Final after notice
D) Void for lack of basis
E) Effective if promulgated
  • 45. 45. The accused fails to appear at arraignment despite proper notice. The court should:
A) Proceed to trial
B) Acquit for non-appearance
C) Dismiss case for delay
D) lIssue bench warrant for arrest
E) Issue bench warrant for arrest
  • 46. 46. The court finds the evidence insufficient for murder but adequate for homicide. The proper ruling is:
A) Acquittal
B) Dismiss case
C) Convict for homicide
D) Convict for homicide
E) Order reinvestigation
  • 47. 47. During trial, the judge learns the accused was tortured to confess. What should the court do?
A) Exclude confession from evidence
B) Ignore since confession signed
C) Admit confession if corroborated
D) Exclude confession from evidence
E) Suspend trial
  • 48. 48. The judge publicly comments on the guilt of the accused before the decision. This constitutes:
A) Sub judice exception
B) Grave misconduct or bias
C) Judicial transparency
D) Exercise of discretion
E) Grave misconduct or bias
  • 49. 49. The court forgets to include civil liability in a conviction judgment. What should it do?
A) Nothing; penalty already imposed
B) Modify judgment to include it
C) Ignore unless appealed
D) Refer to prosecutor
E) Modify judgment to include it
  • 50. 50. The accused was tried in absentia after escaping custody. The judgment of conviction is:
A) Void
B) Discretionary
C) Valid
D) Suspended
E) Valid
  • 51. 51. A judge refuses to inhibit despite being a close friend of the victim’s family. This violates:
A) Judicial restraint
B) Judicial discipline only
C) Administrative rules
D) Judicial impartiality
E) Judicial impartiality
  • 52. 52. The accused appeals his conviction, but while the appeal is pending, he escapes. Effect on appeal?
A) Continues
B) Automatically dismissed
C) Converted to probation
D) Automatically dismissed
E) Deferred until recapture
  • 53. 53. Evidence presented in trial was obtained illegally. The court should:
A) Defer ruling
B) Exclude it from consideration
C) Reopen preliminary investigation
D) Allow if relevant
E) Exclude it from consideration
  • 54. 54. The defense files a motion for new trial based on newly discovered evidence before judgment becomes final. Court’s proper action:
A) Require police reinvestigation
B) Deny automatically
C) Evaluate materiality and grant if justified
D) Evaluate materiality and grant if justified
E) Refer to DOJ
  • 55. 55. Judge delays decision for over one year without valid reason. This is:
A) Administrative negligence
B) Denial of speedy disposition
C) Denial of speedy disposition
D) Civil liability
E) Judicial discretion
  • 56. 56. The Supreme Court reverses an acquittal after finding gross error. Is this valid?
A) Yes, if through certiorari for grave abuse of discretion
B) Only if accused consents
C) Only in civil cases
D) Yes, if through certiorari for grave abuse of discretion
E) No, double jeopardy always applies
  • 57. 57. The RTC judge conducts plea bargaining for a drug case without prosecutor consent. Effect?
A) Valid if court-approved
B) Valid if voluntary
C) Invalid; needs prosecution approval
D) Invalid; needs prosecution approval
E) Allowed under RA 9165
  • 58. 58. The court convicts accused based solely on uncorroborated testimony of a hostile witness. The judgment is:
A) Automatically final
B) Discretionary
C) B. Voidable; lacks sufficient evidence
D) Valid
E) Voidable; lacks sufficient evidence
  • 59. 59. The accused files a motion to inhibit a judge, alleging bias without proof. Court should:
A) Deny for lack of factual basis
B) Automatically inhibit
C) Deny for lack of factual basis
D) Forward to Supreme Court
E) Suspend proceedings
  • 60. 60. A judge receives gifts from a litigant during the case. This act constitutes:
A) Ethical irregularity only
B) Administrative oversight
C) Courtesy
D) Bribery or corruption
E) Bribery or corruption
  • 61. 61. A convicted offender is released under supervision after serving part of his sentence. This is called:
A) Conditional pardon
B) Commutation
C) Parole
D) Parole
E) Probation
  • 62. 62. What is the main goal of the correctional system?
A) Incapacitation
B) Deterrence
C) Rehabilitation
D) Retribution
E) Rehabilitation
  • 63. 63. Under PD 968, probation is granted to:
    A. First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
A) Escapees
B) Habitual delinquents
C) Persons sentenced to death
D) First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
E) First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
  • 64. 64. A parolee violates one of his conditions. The Board of Pardons and Parole may:
A) Extend parole
B) Terminate case
C) Revoke parole and order re-arrest
D) Grant commutation
E) Revoke parole and order re-arrest
  • 65. 65. A prisoner’s sentence is reduced by presidential action without pardon. This is:
A) Commutation of sentence
B) Probation
C) Amnesty
D) Commutation of sentence
E) Parole
  • 66. 66. A newly admitted prisoner is classified based on background and risk. This process is:
A) Custodial supervision
B) Reception and diagnostic process
C) Reception and diagnostic process
D) Penological screening
E) Rehabilitation planning
  • 67. 67. Inmates are taught vocational and livelihood skills. This supports which correctional philosophy?
A) Punitive discipline
B) Deterrence
C) Retributive justice
D) Restorative rehabilitation
E) Restorative rehabilitation
  • 68. 68. The principal agency in charge of national prisoners serving sentences of over three years is:
A) Bureau of Corrections (BuCor)
B) Bureau of Corrections (BuCor)
C) PNP Custodial Center
D) Bureau of Jail Management and Penology (BJMP)
E) Bureau of Parole and Probation Administration (BPPA)
  • 69. 69. A probationer fails to report to his probation officer for two months. The officer should:
A) Recommend revocation of probation
B) Ignore for minor lapse
C) Recommend revocation of probation
D) Issue bench warrant
E) Extend reporting period
  • 70. 70. The purpose of the indeterminate sentence law (ISL) is to:
A) Impose harsher penalties
B) Shorten imprisonment for all
C) Encourage rehabilitation through parole
D) Replace probation
E) Encourage rehabilitation through parole
  • 71. 71. A prisoner completes his minimum sentence and shows good conduct. He applies for parole. What agency acts on it?
A) Board of Pardons and Parole
B) BuCor
C) Board of Pardons and Parole
D) DOJ
E) BJMP
  • 72. 72. When a probationer successfully completes probation, his case is:
A) Dismissed and civil rights restored
B) Suspended for life
C) Converted to parole
D) Refiled for sentencing
E) Dismissed and civil rights restored
  • 73. 73. A convicted minor offender is sent to a youth rehabilitation center instead of prison. This shows what principle?
A) Correctional segregation
B) Restorative justice
C) Restorative justice
D) Juvenile protection
E) Equal punishment
  • 74. 74. An offender sentenced to six months imprisonment applies for probation. The court should:
A) Grant probation automatically
B) Evaluate report of Probation Officer first
C) Refer to DOJ
D) Evaluate report of Probation Officer first
E) Deny; sentence too short
  • 75. 75. A parolee who committed another offense while under parole loses what privilege?
A) Clemency
B) Benefit of parole
C) Credit of time served
D) Benefit of parole
E) Commutation
  • 76. 76. Inmates assigned to perform kitchen and maintenance work in prison are under:
A) Institutional employment program
B) Institutional employment program
C) Custodial punishment
D) Administrative segregation
E) Voluntary work detail
  • 77. 77. A prisoner granted good conduct time allowance (GCTA) is released early. The basis law is:
A) RA 10592
B) RA 9165
C) RA 6975
D) RA 10575
E) RA 10592
  • 78. 78. A prisoner released through amnesty benefits because his offense was political. Amnesty’s effect is:
A) Reduction of penalty
B) Conditional pardon
C) Total extinguishment of offense
D) Temporary release
E) Total extinguishment of offense
  • 79. 79. Which of the following shows effective correctional administration?
A) Overcrowded facilities
B) Lack of parole supervision
C) Proper classification and rehabilitation programs
D) Proper classification and rehabilitation programs
E) Limited recreation
  • 80. 80. A probationer requests to transfer residence to another city. The probation officer must:
A) Deny automatically
B) Recommend to the court for approval
C) Request police clearance
D) Recommend to the court for approval
E) Approve immediately
  • 81. 81. After serving his sentence, a former inmate is welcomed by his barangay and given a livelihood grant. This illustrates:
A) Reintegration
B) Reintegration
C) Correction
D) Rehabilitation
E) Restitution
  • 82. 82. The concept that crime prevention is a shared responsibility between police and citizens is known as:
A) Community policing
B) Community policing
C) Citizen’s watch
D) Social control
E) Participatory security
  • 83. 83. The Barangay Justice System (Katarungang Pambarangay) primarily aims to:
A) Prosecute offenders
B) Settle disputes amicably
C) Impose imprisonment
D) Collect barangay taxes
E) Settle disputes amicably
  • 84. 84. Restorative justice focuses mainly on:
A) Punishment of the offender
B) Repairing harm and restoring relationships
C) Repairing harm and restoring relationships
D) Retribution
E) Avoiding accountability
  • 85. 85. A former offender voluntarily helps mentor youth at risk in his community. This demonstrates:
A) Social reintegration
B) Social reintegration
C) Restorative leadership
D) Civil participation
E) Community service
  • 86. 86. Barangay tanods assist police in maintaining order. This is an example of:
A) Civil defense
B) Volunteer citizen participation
C) Auxiliary law enforcement
D) Informal policing
E) Auxiliary law enforcement
  • 87. 87. The community pillar’s main responsibility in the criminal justice system is:
A) Crime prevention and reintegration
B) Imposing penalties
C) Prosecution of cases
D) Crime detection
E) Crime prevention and reintegration
  • 88. 88. Which of the following is a form of restorative justice program?
A) Victim-offender mediation
B) Preventive detention
C) Victim-offender mediation
D) Death penalty
E) Life imprisonment
  • 89. 89. When the public refuses to cooperate with law enforcement due to distrust, it results in:
A) Weak community pillar
B) Strengthened judiciary
C) Effective policing
D) Weak community pillar
E) Increased clearance rate
  • 90. 90. A local NGO provides counseling and job training for released inmates. This supports which pillar?
A) Community
B) Prosecution
C) Community
D) Corrections
E) Court
  • 91. 91. A community leader initiates dialogue between rival gangs to reduce violence. This reflects:
A) Crime suppression
B) Conflict resolution
C) Social defense
D) Restorative justice
E) Restorative justice
  • 92. 92. Which measures best enhances trust between police and citizens?
A) Transparency and accountability
B) Political campaigns
C) Increased penalties
D) Transparency and accountability
E) Frequent arrests
  • 93. 93. The success of community-based corrections largely depends on:
A) Length of sentence
B) Strict surveillance
C) Community acceptance and support
D) Prison budget
E) Community acceptance and support
  • 94. 94. The principle that prevention is better than cure in criminology refers to:
A) Preventive justice
B) Rehabilitation
C) Preventive justice
D) Social defense theory
E) Deterrence principle
  • 95. 95. Which illustrates active community participation in justice?
A) Refusing to testify
B) Joining barangay peace councils
C) Joining barangay peace councils
D) Withholding evidence
E) Ignoring crimes
  • 96. 96. A released inmate is stigmatized by neighbors, causing him to reoffend. What criminological concept is demonstrated?
A) Differential association
B) Labeling theory
C) Control theory
D) Labeling theory
E) Social disorganization
  • 97. 97. A community-based drug rehabilitation center partners with local police and families. This collaboration exemplifies:
A) Social development approach
B) Restorative intervention
C) Community policing
D) Inter-agency coordination
E) Restorative intervention
  • 98. 98. A barangay sets curfew for minors to prevent juvenile delinquency. This is an example of:
A) Arbitrary detention
B) Legal punishment
C) Social control measure
D) Social control measure
E) Restorative sanction
  • 99. 99. Which reflects the concept of social defense?
A) Isolating criminals permanently
B) Increasing penalties for all crimes
C) Relying solely on police power
D) Protecting society through prevention and reformation
E) Protecting society through prevention and reformation
  • 100. 100. In the criminal justice system, the community’s cooperation with law enforcement symbolizes:
A) Partnership in justice
B) Mutual distrust
C) Partnership in justice
D) Political influence
E) Civil dependency
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