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Introduction to Philippines criminal system
Contributed by: Angelica
  • 1. 1. While on patrol, a PNP officer witnesses a man breaking into a store at night. Without a warrant, he arrests the suspect. Under which rule is this arrest justified?
A) Probable cause rule
B) In flagrante delicto rule
C) In flagrante delicto rule
D) Citizen’s arrest rule
  • 2. 2. During a checkpoint, police officers open car trunks without probable cause or consent. Which constitutional right is violated?
A) Right to due process
B) Right against unreasonable search
C) Right to travel
D) Right against unreasonable search
E) Right to privacy
  • 3. 3.A prosecutor dismisses a complaint despite strong evidence. What is the proper legal remedy for the complainant?
A) File a new complaint
B) Seek mandamus from RTC
C) Appeal to the DOJ
D) File a case with the Ombudsman
E) Appeal to the DOJ
  • 4. 4.A respondent claims he was not subpoenaed during preliminary investigation. What due process violation occurred?
A) Right to presumption of innocence
B) Plea bargaining
C) Right to counsel
D) Right to confrontation
E) Plea bargaining
  • 5. 5.An accused pleads guilty to a lesser offense during arraignment. What judicial process allows this negotiation?
A) Pre-trial agreement
B) Plea in abeyance
C) Plea bargaining
D) Conditional pardon
E) Plea bargaining
  • 6. 6. A judge renders a decision finding the accused guilty but fails to state factual basis. What judicial requirement is violated?
A) Requirement of promulgation
B) Requisite of written judgment
C) Requisite of written judgment
D) Rule on double jeopardy
E) Doctrine of finality
  • 7. 7. A prisoner who has shown good conduct is allowed to serve the rest of his sentence outside prison under supervision. This refers to:
A) Commutation
B) Pardon
C) Probation
D) Parole
E) Correct Answer: C
  • 8. 8.Under PD 968, what is the primary purpose of probation?
A) Retribution
B) Punishment
C) Isolation
D) Rehabilitation
E) Rehabilitation
  • 9. 9.A barangay forms a group assisting police in patrolling their area. This reflects which principle of community involvement?
A) Community policing
B) Community policing
C) Citizen’s initiative
D) Restorative justice
E) Social control
  • 10. 10.After serving his sentence, an ex-convict is welcomed by his community and given livelihood assistance. This demonstrates:
A) Reconciliation
B) Rehabilitation
C) Reformation
D) Reintegration
E) Reintegration
  • 11. 11. While on patrol, an officer witnesses a man forcibly opening a parked vehicle. He immediately arrests the suspect without a warrant.
A) Citizen’s arrest
B) Arbitrary arrest
C) In flagrante delicto arrest
D) Hot pursuit arrest
E) In flagrante delicto arrest
  • 12. 12. a checkpoint, police open all car trunks without probable cause. Which right is violated?
A) Right to privacy
B) Due process
C) Right to counsel
D) Right against unreasonable search
E) Right against unreasonable search
  • 13. 13. An officer receives reliable info that a wanted fugitive is inside a house. Without a warrant, he enters and arrests the man.
A) Valid under plain view doctrine
B) Valid as hot-pursuit arrest
C) Invalid; no warrant
D) Valid as hot-pursuit arrest
E) Valid if with barangay clearance
  • 14. 14. A police investigator includes a suspect’s confession obtained without counsel. What happens to the confession?
A) Needs corroboration only
B) Admissible if voluntary
C) Admissible if signed
D) Inadmissible in evidence
E) Inadmissible in evidence
  • 15. 15. A robbery suspect offers ₱50 000 to a police officer to drop the case. The officer reports the incident. What principle is shown?
A) Professional integrity
B) Command responsibility
C) Chain of custody
D) Discretionary authority
E) Professional integrity
  • 16. 16. Police see a man fleeing from a store with a bloody knife. They chase and arrest him.
A) Warrantless hot pursuit
B) Warrantless hot pursuit
C) Citizen’s arrest
D) Illegal arrest
E) Preventive detention
  • 17. 17. A patrolman discovers illegal drugs on a table while serving a lawful search warrant for firearms.
A) Ignore; not in warrant
B) Confiscate under plain-view doctrine
C) Secure new warrant
D) Report but leave items
E) Confiscate under plain-view doctrine
  • 18. 18. Police use torture to extract a confession. The suspect later files a case. What crime applies?
A) Arbitrary detention
B) . Grave coercion
C) Violation of RA 9745
D) Violation of RA 9745
E) Physical injuries
  • 19. 19. During a buy-bust, officers forget to photograph seized drugs. What may happen?
A) Drugs returned to PDEA
B) Officer disciplined only
C) Evidence still valid
D) Case dismissed for chain-of-custody defect
E) Case dismissed for chain-of-custody defect
  • 20. 20. An officer uses deadly force on an unarmed fleeing suspect in a minor theft. The act is:
A) Abuse of authority
B) Instinctive reaction
C) Abuse of authority
D) Justified self-defense
E) Lawful arrest procedure
  • 21. 21.Evidence was seized by an officer who lacked a search warrant and probable cause. It is:
A) Admissible after consent
B) Valid if authenticated
C) Inadmissible; illegal search
D) Inadmissible; illegal search
E) Valid; fruits of crime
  • 22. 22. A police officer fails to inform a detainee of the reason for arrest. Consequence?
A) Valid if crime serious
B) Arrest void
C) Arrest void
D) Grounds for demotion only
E) Simple irregularity
  • 23. 23. When evidence shows another suspect actually committed the crime, the officer must:
A) Suppress new evidence
B) Amend complaint accordingly
C) Continue filing against original suspect
D) Amend complaint accordingly
E) Wait for prosecutor’s instruction
  • 24. 24. Community members volunteer to patrol with police. This practice is called:
A) Community policing
B) Peace negotiation
C) Civil defense
D) Private security
E) Community policing
  • 25. 25. The prosecutor files a case for murder, but the court later finds the act is homicide. Effect?
A) Conviction for homicide still valid
B) Conviction for homicide still valid
C) Case dismissed
D) Accused acquitted
E) Case remanded to DOJ
  • 26. 26.A prosecutor dismisses a complaint despite strong evidence of homicide. The complainant feels aggrieved. What should they do?
A) Professional secrecy
B) Res judicata
C) Professional secrecy
D) Due process
E) Sub judice rule
  • 27. 27.A complaint was filed directly in court without preliminary investigation. The accused objects. Remedy?
A) Suspension of arraignment
B) Waiver of objection
C) Dismissal outright
D) Suspension of arraignment
E) Court orders reinvestigation
  • 28. 28.A prosecutor leaks confidential evidence to media. This violates:
A) Professional secrecy
B) Res judicata
C) Due process
D) Professional secrecy
E) Sub judice rule
  • 29. 29.An arrest was made without warrant, and the suspect was not delivered to the prosecutor within 36 hours.
A) Require explanation from police
B) Prosecutor must file case anyway
C) Dismiss case for arbitrary detention
D) Refer to higher DOJ authority
E) Require explanation from police
  • 30. 30.A prosecutor finds no probable cause but the complainant has new affidavits.
A) Deny for being repetitive
B) File case immediately
C) mAllow reinvestigation
D) Endorse to Ombudsman
E) Allow reinvestigation
  • 31. 31. The accused claims the investigating fiscal was biased due to family ties with complainant. Remedy?
A) File administrative case
B) Appeal to Secretary of Justice
C) Ignore unless proven
D) Move for inhibition
E) Move for inhibition
  • 32. 32.Probable cause for filing a case means:
A) Strong suspicion based on evidence
B) Absolute proof of guilt
C) Mere hunch of crime
D) Strong suspicion based on evidence
E) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
  • 33. 33.Prosecutor receives evidence obtained through illegal search. What should he do?
A) File case based on it
B) Return to police and disregard
C) Return to police and disregard
D) Use it if it proves guilt
E) Keep it confidential
  • 34. 34. During inquest, the suspect demands preliminary investigation. What is required?
A) Verbal consent only
B) Written waiver of Art. 125 rights
C) Prosecutor approval
D) Written waiver of Art. 125 rights
E) None; automatic right
  • 35. 35.The prosecutor files multiple cases for a single act. The accused can invoke:
A) Double jeopardy
B) Forum shopping
C) Rule on multiplicity
D) Res judicata
E) Rule on multiplicity
  • 36. 36. When the prosecutor withdraws an information before arraignment, it requires:
A) Automatic effect
B) Court’s approval
C) Court’s approval
D) Police approval
E) Approval of the Secretary of Justice
  • 37. 37.The complainant files a falsified medical certificate. The prosecutor discovers this. Action?
A) Dismiss and refer falsification charge
B) Request police correction
C) Ignore since unrelated
D) File case still
  • 38. 38. If during reinvestigation the accused presents alibi and affidavits contradicting earlier ones, prosecutor should:
A) Evaluate credibility and resolve conflicts
B) File immediately for delay
C) Send to court for trial
D) Evaluate credibility and resolve conflicts
E) Automatically dismiss
  • 39. 39. A prosecutor is bribed to drop a case. The crime committed is:
A) Malfeasance
B) Bribery under RPC
C) Dereliction of duty
D) Grave misconduct
E) Bribery under RPC
  • 40. 40. Prosecutor insists on prosecuting a clearly innocent accused to gain publicity. This violates:
A) Procedural regularity
B) Judicial courtesy
C) Prosecution’s ethical standard
D) Burden of proof
E) Prosecution’s ethical standard
  • 41. 41. The accused pleads guilty to a lesser offense after plea bargaining. What must the judge ensure before approving the plea?
A) That the prosecution agrees
B) That the accused has a lawyer and understands the consequences
C) That the victim is absent
D) That the police concur
E) That the accused has a lawyer and understands the consequences
  • 42. 42. During trial, the judge personally questions a witness extensively to clarify facts. This act is:
A) Valid judicial discretion
B) Usurpation of prosecution’s role
C) Evidence tampering
D) Valid judicial discretion
E) Improper intervention
  • 43. 43. An accused is acquitted but the prosecution appeals, arguing the court erred. The appeal should be:
A) Allowed since the court erred
B) Dismissed due to double jeopardy
C) Elevated to DOJ
D) Remanded for reinvestigation
E) Dismissed due to double jeopardy
  • 44. 44. The court issues a judgment but fails to state factual findings. The judgment is:
A) Void for lack of basis
B) Valid if signed
C) Effective if promulgated
D) Void for lack of basis
E) Final after notice
  • 45. 45. The accused fails to appear at arraignment despite proper notice. The court should:
A) Dismiss case for delay
B) Proceed to trial
C) Issue bench warrant for arrest
D) Acquit for non-appearance
E) lIssue bench warrant for arrest
  • 46. 46. The court finds the evidence insufficient for murder but adequate for homicide. The proper ruling is:
A) Order reinvestigation
B) Acquittal
C) Convict for homicide
D) Convict for homicide
E) Dismiss case
  • 47. 47. During trial, the judge learns the accused was tortured to confess. What should the court do?
A) Suspend trial
B) Exclude confession from evidence
C) Exclude confession from evidence
D) Admit confession if corroborated
E) Ignore since confession signed
  • 48. 48. The judge publicly comments on the guilt of the accused before the decision. This constitutes:
A) Judicial transparency
B) Sub judice exception
C) Exercise of discretion
D) Grave misconduct or bias
E) Grave misconduct or bias
  • 49. 49. The court forgets to include civil liability in a conviction judgment. What should it do?
A) Refer to prosecutor
B) Ignore unless appealed
C) Modify judgment to include it
D) Nothing; penalty already imposed
E) Modify judgment to include it
  • 50. 50. The accused was tried in absentia after escaping custody. The judgment of conviction is:
A) Void
B) Discretionary
C) Valid
D) Suspended
E) Valid
  • 51. 51. A judge refuses to inhibit despite being a close friend of the victim’s family. This violates:
A) Judicial impartiality
B) Administrative rules
C) Judicial discipline only
D) Judicial restraint
E) Judicial impartiality
  • 52. 52. The accused appeals his conviction, but while the appeal is pending, he escapes. Effect on appeal?
A) Automatically dismissed
B) Deferred until recapture
C) Automatically dismissed
D) Continues
E) Converted to probation
  • 53. 53. Evidence presented in trial was obtained illegally. The court should:
A) Reopen preliminary investigation
B) Exclude it from consideration
C) Exclude it from consideration
D) Defer ruling
E) Allow if relevant
  • 54. 54. The defense files a motion for new trial based on newly discovered evidence before judgment becomes final. Court’s proper action:
A) Deny automatically
B) Evaluate materiality and grant if justified
C) Refer to DOJ
D) Require police reinvestigation
E) Evaluate materiality and grant if justified
  • 55. 55. Judge delays decision for over one year without valid reason. This is:
A) Civil liability
B) Denial of speedy disposition
C) Administrative negligence
D) Denial of speedy disposition
E) Judicial discretion
  • 56. 56. The Supreme Court reverses an acquittal after finding gross error. Is this valid?
A) No, double jeopardy always applies
B) Yes, if through certiorari for grave abuse of discretion
C) Yes, if through certiorari for grave abuse of discretion
D) Only in civil cases
E) Only if accused consents
  • 57. 57. The RTC judge conducts plea bargaining for a drug case without prosecutor consent. Effect?
A) Allowed under RA 9165
B) Valid if voluntary
C) Invalid; needs prosecution approval
D) Invalid; needs prosecution approval
E) Valid if court-approved
  • 58. 58. The court convicts accused based solely on uncorroborated testimony of a hostile witness. The judgment is:
A) Valid
B) B. Voidable; lacks sufficient evidence
C) Voidable; lacks sufficient evidence
D) Discretionary
E) Automatically final
  • 59. 59. The accused files a motion to inhibit a judge, alleging bias without proof. Court should:
A) Deny for lack of factual basis
B) Automatically inhibit
C) Deny for lack of factual basis
D) Suspend proceedings
E) Forward to Supreme Court
  • 60. 60. A judge receives gifts from a litigant during the case. This act constitutes:
A) Ethical irregularity only
B) Administrative oversight
C) Courtesy
D) Bribery or corruption
E) Bribery or corruption
  • 61. 61. A convicted offender is released under supervision after serving part of his sentence. This is called:
A) Conditional pardon
B) Parole
C) Probation
D) Parole
E) Commutation
  • 62. 62. What is the main goal of the correctional system?
A) Deterrence
B) Rehabilitation
C) Rehabilitation
D) Retribution
E) Incapacitation
  • 63. 63. Under PD 968, probation is granted to:
    A. First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
A) Persons sentenced to death
B) First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
C) Escapees
D) First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
E) Habitual delinquents
  • 64. 64. A parolee violates one of his conditions. The Board of Pardons and Parole may:
A) Terminate case
B) Revoke parole and order re-arrest
C) Revoke parole and order re-arrest
D) Grant commutation
E) Extend parole
  • 65. 65. A prisoner’s sentence is reduced by presidential action without pardon. This is:
A) Parole
B) Probation
C) Commutation of sentence
D) Commutation of sentence
E) Amnesty
  • 66. 66. A newly admitted prisoner is classified based on background and risk. This process is:
A) Custodial supervision
B) Reception and diagnostic process
C) Rehabilitation planning
D) Reception and diagnostic process
E) Penological screening
  • 67. 67. Inmates are taught vocational and livelihood skills. This supports which correctional philosophy?
A) Punitive discipline
B) Deterrence
C) Restorative rehabilitation
D) Restorative rehabilitation
E) Retributive justice
  • 68. 68. The principal agency in charge of national prisoners serving sentences of over three years is:
A) Bureau of Corrections (BuCor)
B) PNP Custodial Center
C) Bureau of Parole and Probation Administration (BPPA)
D) Bureau of Corrections (BuCor)
E) Bureau of Jail Management and Penology (BJMP)
  • 69. 69. A probationer fails to report to his probation officer for two months. The officer should:
A) Ignore for minor lapse
B) Recommend revocation of probation
C) Issue bench warrant
D) Recommend revocation of probation
E) Extend reporting period
  • 70. 70. The purpose of the indeterminate sentence law (ISL) is to:
A) Shorten imprisonment for all
B) Replace probation
C) Impose harsher penalties
D) Encourage rehabilitation through parole
E) Encourage rehabilitation through parole
  • 71. 71. A prisoner completes his minimum sentence and shows good conduct. He applies for parole. What agency acts on it?
A) BJMP
B) Board of Pardons and Parole
C) DOJ
D) Board of Pardons and Parole
E) BuCor
  • 72. 72. When a probationer successfully completes probation, his case is:
A) Dismissed and civil rights restored
B) Converted to parole
C) Refiled for sentencing
D) Dismissed and civil rights restored
E) Suspended for life
  • 73. 73. A convicted minor offender is sent to a youth rehabilitation center instead of prison. This shows what principle?
A) Correctional segregation
B) Juvenile protection
C) Equal punishment
D) Restorative justice
E) Restorative justice
  • 74. 74. An offender sentenced to six months imprisonment applies for probation. The court should:
A) Evaluate report of Probation Officer first
B) Grant probation automatically
C) Evaluate report of Probation Officer first
D) Refer to DOJ
E) Deny; sentence too short
  • 75. 75. A parolee who committed another offense while under parole loses what privilege?
A) Credit of time served
B) Clemency
C) Benefit of parole
D) Commutation
E) Benefit of parole
  • 76. 76. Inmates assigned to perform kitchen and maintenance work in prison are under:
A) Custodial punishment
B) Voluntary work detail
C) Administrative segregation
D) Institutional employment program
E) Institutional employment program
  • 77. 77. A prisoner granted good conduct time allowance (GCTA) is released early. The basis law is:
A) RA 10592
B) RA 10592
C) RA 6975
D) RA 10575
E) RA 9165
  • 78. 78. A prisoner released through amnesty benefits because his offense was political. Amnesty’s effect is:
A) Total extinguishment of offense
B) Temporary release
C) Reduction of penalty
D) Total extinguishment of offense
E) Conditional pardon
  • 79. 79. Which of the following shows effective correctional administration?
A) Lack of parole supervision
B) Limited recreation
C) Overcrowded facilities
D) Proper classification and rehabilitation programs
E) Proper classification and rehabilitation programs
  • 80. 80. A probationer requests to transfer residence to another city. The probation officer must:
A) Approve immediately
B) Request police clearance
C) Recommend to the court for approval
D) Deny automatically
E) Recommend to the court for approval
  • 81. 81. After serving his sentence, a former inmate is welcomed by his barangay and given a livelihood grant. This illustrates:
A) Rehabilitation
B) Restitution
C) Correction
D) Reintegration
E) Reintegration
  • 82. 82. The concept that crime prevention is a shared responsibility between police and citizens is known as:
A) Social control
B) Citizen’s watch
C) Community policing
D) Community policing
E) Participatory security
  • 83. 83. The Barangay Justice System (Katarungang Pambarangay) primarily aims to:
A) Collect barangay taxes
B) Settle disputes amicably
C) Impose imprisonment
D) Prosecute offenders
E) Settle disputes amicably
  • 84. 84. Restorative justice focuses mainly on:
A) Retribution
B) Punishment of the offender
C) Repairing harm and restoring relationships
D) Avoiding accountability
E) Repairing harm and restoring relationships
  • 85. 85. A former offender voluntarily helps mentor youth at risk in his community. This demonstrates:
A) Social reintegration
B) Civil participation
C) Social reintegration
D) Restorative leadership
E) Community service
  • 86. 86. Barangay tanods assist police in maintaining order. This is an example of:
A) Volunteer citizen participation
B) Civil defense
C) Auxiliary law enforcement
D) Auxiliary law enforcement
E) Informal policing
  • 87. 87. The community pillar’s main responsibility in the criminal justice system is:
A) Crime prevention and reintegration
B) Prosecution of cases
C) Imposing penalties
D) Crime detection
E) Crime prevention and reintegration
  • 88. 88. Which of the following is a form of restorative justice program?
A) Victim-offender mediation
B) Life imprisonment
C) Victim-offender mediation
D) Preventive detention
E) Death penalty
  • 89. 89. When the public refuses to cooperate with law enforcement due to distrust, it results in:
A) Effective policing
B) Weak community pillar
C) Weak community pillar
D) Strengthened judiciary
E) Increased clearance rate
  • 90. 90. A local NGO provides counseling and job training for released inmates. This supports which pillar?
A) Court
B) Community
C) Prosecution
D) Corrections
E) Community
  • 91. 91. A community leader initiates dialogue between rival gangs to reduce violence. This reflects:
A) Restorative justice
B) Crime suppression
C) Conflict resolution
D) Restorative justice
E) Social defense
  • 92. 92. Which measures best enhances trust between police and citizens?
A) Transparency and accountability
B) Transparency and accountability
C) Frequent arrests
D) Increased penalties
E) Political campaigns
  • 93. 93. The success of community-based corrections largely depends on:
A) Prison budget
B) Length of sentence
C) Strict surveillance
D) Community acceptance and support
E) Community acceptance and support
  • 94. 94. The principle that prevention is better than cure in criminology refers to:
A) Deterrence principle
B) Preventive justice
C) Social defense theory
D) Rehabilitation
E) Preventive justice
  • 95. 95. Which illustrates active community participation in justice?
A) Ignoring crimes
B) Joining barangay peace councils
C) Withholding evidence
D) Joining barangay peace councils
E) Refusing to testify
  • 96. 96. A released inmate is stigmatized by neighbors, causing him to reoffend. What criminological concept is demonstrated?
A) Differential association
B) Labeling theory
C) Labeling theory
D) Social disorganization
E) Control theory
  • 97. 97. A community-based drug rehabilitation center partners with local police and families. This collaboration exemplifies:
A) Restorative intervention
B) Inter-agency coordination
C) Restorative intervention
D) Social development approach
E) Community policing
  • 98. 98. A barangay sets curfew for minors to prevent juvenile delinquency. This is an example of:
A) Arbitrary detention
B) Social control measure
C) Social control measure
D) Legal punishment
E) Restorative sanction
  • 99. 99. Which reflects the concept of social defense?
A) Isolating criminals permanently
B) Protecting society through prevention and reformation
C) Protecting society through prevention and reformation
D) Relying solely on police power
E) Increasing penalties for all crimes
  • 100. 100. In the criminal justice system, the community’s cooperation with law enforcement symbolizes:
A) Political influence
B) Mutual distrust
C) Partnership in justice
D) Civil dependency
E) Partnership in justice
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