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Introduction to Philippines criminal system
Contributed by: Angelica
  • 1. 1. While on patrol, a PNP officer witnesses a man breaking into a store at night. Without a warrant, he arrests the suspect. Under which rule is this arrest justified?
A) In flagrante delicto rule
B) In flagrante delicto rule
C) Citizen’s arrest rule
D) Probable cause rule
  • 2. 2. During a checkpoint, police officers open car trunks without probable cause or consent. Which constitutional right is violated?
A) Right to privacy
B) Right to due process
C) Right against unreasonable search
D) Right to travel
E) Right against unreasonable search
  • 3. 3.A prosecutor dismisses a complaint despite strong evidence. What is the proper legal remedy for the complainant?
A) File a case with the Ombudsman
B) File a new complaint
C) Appeal to the DOJ
D) Appeal to the DOJ
E) Seek mandamus from RTC
  • 4. 4.A respondent claims he was not subpoenaed during preliminary investigation. What due process violation occurred?
A) Plea bargaining
B) Right to presumption of innocence
C) Plea bargaining
D) Right to confrontation
E) Right to counsel
  • 5. 5.An accused pleads guilty to a lesser offense during arraignment. What judicial process allows this negotiation?
A) Plea in abeyance
B) Plea bargaining
C) Plea bargaining
D) Pre-trial agreement
E) Conditional pardon
  • 6. 6. A judge renders a decision finding the accused guilty but fails to state factual basis. What judicial requirement is violated?
A) Requisite of written judgment
B) Rule on double jeopardy
C) Requisite of written judgment
D) Requirement of promulgation
E) Doctrine of finality
  • 7. 7. A prisoner who has shown good conduct is allowed to serve the rest of his sentence outside prison under supervision. This refers to:
A) Parole
B) Pardon
C) Commutation
D) Correct Answer: C
E) Probation
  • 8. 8.Under PD 968, what is the primary purpose of probation?
A) Rehabilitation
B) Rehabilitation
C) Isolation
D) Punishment
E) Retribution
  • 9. 9.A barangay forms a group assisting police in patrolling their area. This reflects which principle of community involvement?
A) Community policing
B) Restorative justice
C) Social control
D) Citizen’s initiative
E) Community policing
  • 10. 10.After serving his sentence, an ex-convict is welcomed by his community and given livelihood assistance. This demonstrates:
A) Reintegration
B) Rehabilitation
C) Reformation
D) Reintegration
E) Reconciliation
  • 11. 11. While on patrol, an officer witnesses a man forcibly opening a parked vehicle. He immediately arrests the suspect without a warrant.
A) In flagrante delicto arrest
B) Arbitrary arrest
C) Citizen’s arrest
D) Hot pursuit arrest
E) In flagrante delicto arrest
  • 12. 12. a checkpoint, police open all car trunks without probable cause. Which right is violated?
A) Due process
B) Right to privacy
C) Right against unreasonable search
D) Right against unreasonable search
E) Right to counsel
  • 13. 13. An officer receives reliable info that a wanted fugitive is inside a house. Without a warrant, he enters and arrests the man.
A) Valid as hot-pursuit arrest
B) Valid under plain view doctrine
C) Invalid; no warrant
D) Valid as hot-pursuit arrest
E) Valid if with barangay clearance
  • 14. 14. A police investigator includes a suspect’s confession obtained without counsel. What happens to the confession?
A) Admissible if voluntary
B) Admissible if signed
C) Inadmissible in evidence
D) Needs corroboration only
E) Inadmissible in evidence
  • 15. 15. A robbery suspect offers ₱50 000 to a police officer to drop the case. The officer reports the incident. What principle is shown?
A) Command responsibility
B) Discretionary authority
C) Professional integrity
D) Professional integrity
E) Chain of custody
  • 16. 16. Police see a man fleeing from a store with a bloody knife. They chase and arrest him.
A) Citizen’s arrest
B) Warrantless hot pursuit
C) Warrantless hot pursuit
D) Preventive detention
E) Illegal arrest
  • 17. 17. A patrolman discovers illegal drugs on a table while serving a lawful search warrant for firearms.
A) Report but leave items
B) Confiscate under plain-view doctrine
C) Secure new warrant
D) Confiscate under plain-view doctrine
E) Ignore; not in warrant
  • 18. 18. Police use torture to extract a confession. The suspect later files a case. What crime applies?
A) Violation of RA 9745
B) Violation of RA 9745
C) . Grave coercion
D) Arbitrary detention
E) Physical injuries
  • 19. 19. During a buy-bust, officers forget to photograph seized drugs. What may happen?
A) Evidence still valid
B) Drugs returned to PDEA
C) Officer disciplined only
D) Case dismissed for chain-of-custody defect
E) Case dismissed for chain-of-custody defect
  • 20. 20. An officer uses deadly force on an unarmed fleeing suspect in a minor theft. The act is:
A) Lawful arrest procedure
B) Abuse of authority
C) Instinctive reaction
D) Justified self-defense
E) Abuse of authority
  • 21. 21.Evidence was seized by an officer who lacked a search warrant and probable cause. It is:
A) Valid; fruits of crime
B) Inadmissible; illegal search
C) Admissible after consent
D) Inadmissible; illegal search
E) Valid if authenticated
  • 22. 22. A police officer fails to inform a detainee of the reason for arrest. Consequence?
A) Grounds for demotion only
B) Simple irregularity
C) Arrest void
D) Arrest void
E) Valid if crime serious
  • 23. 23. When evidence shows another suspect actually committed the crime, the officer must:
A) Suppress new evidence
B) Amend complaint accordingly
C) Continue filing against original suspect
D) Amend complaint accordingly
E) Wait for prosecutor’s instruction
  • 24. 24. Community members volunteer to patrol with police. This practice is called:
A) Peace negotiation
B) Private security
C) Civil defense
D) Community policing
E) Community policing
  • 25. 25. The prosecutor files a case for murder, but the court later finds the act is homicide. Effect?
A) Conviction for homicide still valid
B) Case remanded to DOJ
C) Case dismissed
D) Conviction for homicide still valid
E) Accused acquitted
  • 26. 26.A prosecutor dismisses a complaint despite strong evidence of homicide. The complainant feels aggrieved. What should they do?
A) Res judicata
B) Sub judice rule
C) Professional secrecy
D) Professional secrecy
E) Due process
  • 27. 27.A complaint was filed directly in court without preliminary investigation. The accused objects. Remedy?
A) Waiver of objection
B) Suspension of arraignment
C) Court orders reinvestigation
D) Dismissal outright
E) Suspension of arraignment
  • 28. 28.A prosecutor leaks confidential evidence to media. This violates:
A) Due process
B) Professional secrecy
C) Sub judice rule
D) Professional secrecy
E) Res judicata
  • 29. 29.An arrest was made without warrant, and the suspect was not delivered to the prosecutor within 36 hours.
A) Require explanation from police
B) Refer to higher DOJ authority
C) Require explanation from police
D) Dismiss case for arbitrary detention
E) Prosecutor must file case anyway
  • 30. 30.A prosecutor finds no probable cause but the complainant has new affidavits.
A) File case immediately
B) mAllow reinvestigation
C) Allow reinvestigation
D) Endorse to Ombudsman
E) Deny for being repetitive
  • 31. 31. The accused claims the investigating fiscal was biased due to family ties with complainant. Remedy?
A) Move for inhibition
B) Move for inhibition
C) File administrative case
D) Ignore unless proven
E) Appeal to Secretary of Justice
  • 32. 32.Probable cause for filing a case means:
A) Strong suspicion based on evidence
B) Strong suspicion based on evidence
C) Absolute proof of guilt
D) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
E) Mere hunch of crime
  • 33. 33.Prosecutor receives evidence obtained through illegal search. What should he do?
A) Use it if it proves guilt
B) Return to police and disregard
C) File case based on it
D) Keep it confidential
E) Return to police and disregard
  • 34. 34. During inquest, the suspect demands preliminary investigation. What is required?
A) Written waiver of Art. 125 rights
B) Prosecutor approval
C) Verbal consent only
D) Written waiver of Art. 125 rights
E) None; automatic right
  • 35. 35.The prosecutor files multiple cases for a single act. The accused can invoke:
A) Res judicata
B) Double jeopardy
C) Rule on multiplicity
D) Rule on multiplicity
E) Forum shopping
  • 36. 36. When the prosecutor withdraws an information before arraignment, it requires:
A) Court’s approval
B) Approval of the Secretary of Justice
C) Automatic effect
D) Court’s approval
E) Police approval
  • 37. 37.The complainant files a falsified medical certificate. The prosecutor discovers this. Action?
A) Request police correction
B) File case still
C) Dismiss and refer falsification charge
D) Ignore since unrelated
  • 38. 38. If during reinvestigation the accused presents alibi and affidavits contradicting earlier ones, prosecutor should:
A) Send to court for trial
B) Automatically dismiss
C) Evaluate credibility and resolve conflicts
D) File immediately for delay
E) Evaluate credibility and resolve conflicts
  • 39. 39. A prosecutor is bribed to drop a case. The crime committed is:
A) Dereliction of duty
B) Bribery under RPC
C) Malfeasance
D) Grave misconduct
E) Bribery under RPC
  • 40. 40. Prosecutor insists on prosecuting a clearly innocent accused to gain publicity. This violates:
A) Prosecution’s ethical standard
B) Burden of proof
C) Judicial courtesy
D) Procedural regularity
E) Prosecution’s ethical standard
  • 41. 41. The accused pleads guilty to a lesser offense after plea bargaining. What must the judge ensure before approving the plea?
A) That the police concur
B) That the accused has a lawyer and understands the consequences
C) That the prosecution agrees
D) That the victim is absent
E) That the accused has a lawyer and understands the consequences
  • 42. 42. During trial, the judge personally questions a witness extensively to clarify facts. This act is:
A) Valid judicial discretion
B) Improper intervention
C) Valid judicial discretion
D) Usurpation of prosecution’s role
E) Evidence tampering
  • 43. 43. An accused is acquitted but the prosecution appeals, arguing the court erred. The appeal should be:
A) Remanded for reinvestigation
B) Dismissed due to double jeopardy
C) Elevated to DOJ
D) Allowed since the court erred
E) Dismissed due to double jeopardy
  • 44. 44. The court issues a judgment but fails to state factual findings. The judgment is:
A) Void for lack of basis
B) Effective if promulgated
C) Void for lack of basis
D) Final after notice
E) Valid if signed
  • 45. 45. The accused fails to appear at arraignment despite proper notice. The court should:
A) Dismiss case for delay
B) Acquit for non-appearance
C) lIssue bench warrant for arrest
D) Proceed to trial
E) Issue bench warrant for arrest
  • 46. 46. The court finds the evidence insufficient for murder but adequate for homicide. The proper ruling is:
A) Order reinvestigation
B) Acquittal
C) Dismiss case
D) Convict for homicide
E) Convict for homicide
  • 47. 47. During trial, the judge learns the accused was tortured to confess. What should the court do?
A) Exclude confession from evidence
B) Suspend trial
C) Exclude confession from evidence
D) Ignore since confession signed
E) Admit confession if corroborated
  • 48. 48. The judge publicly comments on the guilt of the accused before the decision. This constitutes:
A) Exercise of discretion
B) Grave misconduct or bias
C) Sub judice exception
D) Grave misconduct or bias
E) Judicial transparency
  • 49. 49. The court forgets to include civil liability in a conviction judgment. What should it do?
A) Ignore unless appealed
B) Refer to prosecutor
C) Nothing; penalty already imposed
D) Modify judgment to include it
E) Modify judgment to include it
  • 50. 50. The accused was tried in absentia after escaping custody. The judgment of conviction is:
A) Discretionary
B) Void
C) Valid
D) Suspended
E) Valid
  • 51. 51. A judge refuses to inhibit despite being a close friend of the victim’s family. This violates:
A) Judicial restraint
B) Judicial discipline only
C) Judicial impartiality
D) Judicial impartiality
E) Administrative rules
  • 52. 52. The accused appeals his conviction, but while the appeal is pending, he escapes. Effect on appeal?
A) Converted to probation
B) Automatically dismissed
C) Continues
D) Deferred until recapture
E) Automatically dismissed
  • 53. 53. Evidence presented in trial was obtained illegally. The court should:
A) Allow if relevant
B) Exclude it from consideration
C) Exclude it from consideration
D) Reopen preliminary investigation
E) Defer ruling
  • 54. 54. The defense files a motion for new trial based on newly discovered evidence before judgment becomes final. Court’s proper action:
A) Deny automatically
B) Require police reinvestigation
C) Evaluate materiality and grant if justified
D) Refer to DOJ
E) Evaluate materiality and grant if justified
  • 55. 55. Judge delays decision for over one year without valid reason. This is:
A) Judicial discretion
B) Denial of speedy disposition
C) Civil liability
D) Denial of speedy disposition
E) Administrative negligence
  • 56. 56. The Supreme Court reverses an acquittal after finding gross error. Is this valid?
A) Only in civil cases
B) No, double jeopardy always applies
C) Yes, if through certiorari for grave abuse of discretion
D) Yes, if through certiorari for grave abuse of discretion
E) Only if accused consents
  • 57. 57. The RTC judge conducts plea bargaining for a drug case without prosecutor consent. Effect?
A) Valid if voluntary
B) Valid if court-approved
C) Invalid; needs prosecution approval
D) Allowed under RA 9165
E) Invalid; needs prosecution approval
  • 58. 58. The court convicts accused based solely on uncorroborated testimony of a hostile witness. The judgment is:
A) Automatically final
B) B. Voidable; lacks sufficient evidence
C) Valid
D) Discretionary
E) Voidable; lacks sufficient evidence
  • 59. 59. The accused files a motion to inhibit a judge, alleging bias without proof. Court should:
A) Suspend proceedings
B) Automatically inhibit
C) Deny for lack of factual basis
D) Forward to Supreme Court
E) Deny for lack of factual basis
  • 60. 60. A judge receives gifts from a litigant during the case. This act constitutes:
A) Bribery or corruption
B) Courtesy
C) Ethical irregularity only
D) Bribery or corruption
E) Administrative oversight
  • 61. 61. A convicted offender is released under supervision after serving part of his sentence. This is called:
A) Conditional pardon
B) Probation
C) Parole
D) Commutation
E) Parole
  • 62. 62. What is the main goal of the correctional system?
A) Deterrence
B) Retribution
C) Rehabilitation
D) Incapacitation
E) Rehabilitation
  • 63. 63. Under PD 968, probation is granted to:
    A. First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
A) Escapees
B) First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
C) First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
D) Persons sentenced to death
E) Habitual delinquents
  • 64. 64. A parolee violates one of his conditions. The Board of Pardons and Parole may:
A) Revoke parole and order re-arrest
B) Extend parole
C) Terminate case
D) Revoke parole and order re-arrest
E) Grant commutation
  • 65. 65. A prisoner’s sentence is reduced by presidential action without pardon. This is:
A) Parole
B) Probation
C) Amnesty
D) Commutation of sentence
E) Commutation of sentence
  • 66. 66. A newly admitted prisoner is classified based on background and risk. This process is:
A) Custodial supervision
B) Reception and diagnostic process
C) Rehabilitation planning
D) Penological screening
E) Reception and diagnostic process
  • 67. 67. Inmates are taught vocational and livelihood skills. This supports which correctional philosophy?
A) Deterrence
B) Restorative rehabilitation
C) Restorative rehabilitation
D) Punitive discipline
E) Retributive justice
  • 68. 68. The principal agency in charge of national prisoners serving sentences of over three years is:
A) Bureau of Corrections (BuCor)
B) Bureau of Parole and Probation Administration (BPPA)
C) PNP Custodial Center
D) Bureau of Corrections (BuCor)
E) Bureau of Jail Management and Penology (BJMP)
  • 69. 69. A probationer fails to report to his probation officer for two months. The officer should:
A) Recommend revocation of probation
B) Issue bench warrant
C) Recommend revocation of probation
D) Ignore for minor lapse
E) Extend reporting period
  • 70. 70. The purpose of the indeterminate sentence law (ISL) is to:
A) Shorten imprisonment for all
B) Impose harsher penalties
C) Replace probation
D) Encourage rehabilitation through parole
E) Encourage rehabilitation through parole
  • 71. 71. A prisoner completes his minimum sentence and shows good conduct. He applies for parole. What agency acts on it?
A) BJMP
B) Board of Pardons and Parole
C) Board of Pardons and Parole
D) DOJ
E) BuCor
  • 72. 72. When a probationer successfully completes probation, his case is:
A) Converted to parole
B) Refiled for sentencing
C) Dismissed and civil rights restored
D) Dismissed and civil rights restored
E) Suspended for life
  • 73. 73. A convicted minor offender is sent to a youth rehabilitation center instead of prison. This shows what principle?
A) Correctional segregation
B) Restorative justice
C) Equal punishment
D) Juvenile protection
E) Restorative justice
  • 74. 74. An offender sentenced to six months imprisonment applies for probation. The court should:
A) Grant probation automatically
B) Refer to DOJ
C) Evaluate report of Probation Officer first
D) Deny; sentence too short
E) Evaluate report of Probation Officer first
  • 75. 75. A parolee who committed another offense while under parole loses what privilege?
A) Benefit of parole
B) Credit of time served
C) Benefit of parole
D) Commutation
E) Clemency
  • 76. 76. Inmates assigned to perform kitchen and maintenance work in prison are under:
A) Institutional employment program
B) Custodial punishment
C) Administrative segregation
D) Voluntary work detail
E) Institutional employment program
  • 77. 77. A prisoner granted good conduct time allowance (GCTA) is released early. The basis law is:
A) RA 6975
B) RA 10575
C) RA 10592
D) RA 9165
E) RA 10592
  • 78. 78. A prisoner released through amnesty benefits because his offense was political. Amnesty’s effect is:
A) Total extinguishment of offense
B) Temporary release
C) Conditional pardon
D) Reduction of penalty
E) Total extinguishment of offense
  • 79. 79. Which of the following shows effective correctional administration?
A) Limited recreation
B) Overcrowded facilities
C) Proper classification and rehabilitation programs
D) Proper classification and rehabilitation programs
E) Lack of parole supervision
  • 80. 80. A probationer requests to transfer residence to another city. The probation officer must:
A) Deny automatically
B) Request police clearance
C) Recommend to the court for approval
D) Approve immediately
E) Recommend to the court for approval
  • 81. 81. After serving his sentence, a former inmate is welcomed by his barangay and given a livelihood grant. This illustrates:
A) Reintegration
B) Restitution
C) Rehabilitation
D) Reintegration
E) Correction
  • 82. 82. The concept that crime prevention is a shared responsibility between police and citizens is known as:
A) Citizen’s watch
B) Community policing
C) Participatory security
D) Community policing
E) Social control
  • 83. 83. The Barangay Justice System (Katarungang Pambarangay) primarily aims to:
A) Settle disputes amicably
B) Settle disputes amicably
C) Prosecute offenders
D) Collect barangay taxes
E) Impose imprisonment
  • 84. 84. Restorative justice focuses mainly on:
A) Repairing harm and restoring relationships
B) Avoiding accountability
C) Punishment of the offender
D) Repairing harm and restoring relationships
E) Retribution
  • 85. 85. A former offender voluntarily helps mentor youth at risk in his community. This demonstrates:
A) Social reintegration
B) Community service
C) Social reintegration
D) Restorative leadership
E) Civil participation
  • 86. 86. Barangay tanods assist police in maintaining order. This is an example of:
A) Auxiliary law enforcement
B) Civil defense
C) Auxiliary law enforcement
D) Volunteer citizen participation
E) Informal policing
  • 87. 87. The community pillar’s main responsibility in the criminal justice system is:
A) Imposing penalties
B) Crime prevention and reintegration
C) Crime detection
D) Crime prevention and reintegration
E) Prosecution of cases
  • 88. 88. Which of the following is a form of restorative justice program?
A) Death penalty
B) Life imprisonment
C) Victim-offender mediation
D) Preventive detention
E) Victim-offender mediation
  • 89. 89. When the public refuses to cooperate with law enforcement due to distrust, it results in:
A) Weak community pillar
B) Effective policing
C) Weak community pillar
D) Increased clearance rate
E) Strengthened judiciary
  • 90. 90. A local NGO provides counseling and job training for released inmates. This supports which pillar?
A) Court
B) Community
C) Corrections
D) Prosecution
E) Community
  • 91. 91. A community leader initiates dialogue between rival gangs to reduce violence. This reflects:
A) Restorative justice
B) Crime suppression
C) Restorative justice
D) Conflict resolution
E) Social defense
  • 92. 92. Which measures best enhances trust between police and citizens?
A) Increased penalties
B) Political campaigns
C) Frequent arrests
D) Transparency and accountability
E) Transparency and accountability
  • 93. 93. The success of community-based corrections largely depends on:
A) Community acceptance and support
B) Length of sentence
C) Community acceptance and support
D) Prison budget
E) Strict surveillance
  • 94. 94. The principle that prevention is better than cure in criminology refers to:
A) Rehabilitation
B) Social defense theory
C) Preventive justice
D) Deterrence principle
E) Preventive justice
  • 95. 95. Which illustrates active community participation in justice?
A) Withholding evidence
B) Joining barangay peace councils
C) Refusing to testify
D) Ignoring crimes
E) Joining barangay peace councils
  • 96. 96. A released inmate is stigmatized by neighbors, causing him to reoffend. What criminological concept is demonstrated?
A) Labeling theory
B) Differential association
C) Labeling theory
D) Social disorganization
E) Control theory
  • 97. 97. A community-based drug rehabilitation center partners with local police and families. This collaboration exemplifies:
A) Community policing
B) Social development approach
C) Restorative intervention
D) Inter-agency coordination
E) Restorative intervention
  • 98. 98. A barangay sets curfew for minors to prevent juvenile delinquency. This is an example of:
A) Legal punishment
B) Social control measure
C) Arbitrary detention
D) Restorative sanction
E) Social control measure
  • 99. 99. Which reflects the concept of social defense?
A) Relying solely on police power
B) Protecting society through prevention and reformation
C) Protecting society through prevention and reformation
D) Increasing penalties for all crimes
E) Isolating criminals permanently
  • 100. 100. In the criminal justice system, the community’s cooperation with law enforcement symbolizes:
A) Civil dependency
B) Mutual distrust
C) Partnership in justice
D) Political influence
E) Partnership in justice
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