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Introduction to Philippines criminal system
Contributed by: Angelica
  • 1. 1. While on patrol, a PNP officer witnesses a man breaking into a store at night. Without a warrant, he arrests the suspect. Under which rule is this arrest justified?
A) Probable cause rule
B) Citizen’s arrest rule
C) In flagrante delicto rule
D) In flagrante delicto rule
  • 2. 2. During a checkpoint, police officers open car trunks without probable cause or consent. Which constitutional right is violated?
A) Right to privacy
B) Right to travel
C) Right to due process
D) Right against unreasonable search
E) Right against unreasonable search
  • 3. 3.A prosecutor dismisses a complaint despite strong evidence. What is the proper legal remedy for the complainant?
A) File a case with the Ombudsman
B) Seek mandamus from RTC
C) File a new complaint
D) Appeal to the DOJ
E) Appeal to the DOJ
  • 4. 4.A respondent claims he was not subpoenaed during preliminary investigation. What due process violation occurred?
A) Right to confrontation
B) Plea bargaining
C) Right to presumption of innocence
D) Plea bargaining
E) Right to counsel
  • 5. 5.An accused pleads guilty to a lesser offense during arraignment. What judicial process allows this negotiation?
A) Plea bargaining
B) Conditional pardon
C) Pre-trial agreement
D) Plea in abeyance
E) Plea bargaining
  • 6. 6. A judge renders a decision finding the accused guilty but fails to state factual basis. What judicial requirement is violated?
A) Requisite of written judgment
B) Doctrine of finality
C) Requirement of promulgation
D) Rule on double jeopardy
E) Requisite of written judgment
  • 7. 7. A prisoner who has shown good conduct is allowed to serve the rest of his sentence outside prison under supervision. This refers to:
A) Commutation
B) Parole
C) Probation
D) Correct Answer: C
E) Pardon
  • 8. 8.Under PD 968, what is the primary purpose of probation?
A) Rehabilitation
B) Rehabilitation
C) Punishment
D) Retribution
E) Isolation
  • 9. 9.A barangay forms a group assisting police in patrolling their area. This reflects which principle of community involvement?
A) Restorative justice
B) Social control
C) Community policing
D) Citizen’s initiative
E) Community policing
  • 10. 10.After serving his sentence, an ex-convict is welcomed by his community and given livelihood assistance. This demonstrates:
A) Reintegration
B) Reconciliation
C) Reformation
D) Rehabilitation
E) Reintegration
  • 11. 11. While on patrol, an officer witnesses a man forcibly opening a parked vehicle. He immediately arrests the suspect without a warrant.
A) Arbitrary arrest
B) In flagrante delicto arrest
C) Hot pursuit arrest
D) In flagrante delicto arrest
E) Citizen’s arrest
  • 12. 12. a checkpoint, police open all car trunks without probable cause. Which right is violated?
A) Due process
B) Right against unreasonable search
C) Right to counsel
D) Right to privacy
E) Right against unreasonable search
  • 13. 13. An officer receives reliable info that a wanted fugitive is inside a house. Without a warrant, he enters and arrests the man.
A) Valid as hot-pursuit arrest
B) Valid under plain view doctrine
C) Valid if with barangay clearance
D) Invalid; no warrant
E) Valid as hot-pursuit arrest
  • 14. 14. A police investigator includes a suspect’s confession obtained without counsel. What happens to the confession?
A) Admissible if voluntary
B) Inadmissible in evidence
C) Admissible if signed
D) Needs corroboration only
E) Inadmissible in evidence
  • 15. 15. A robbery suspect offers ₱50 000 to a police officer to drop the case. The officer reports the incident. What principle is shown?
A) Professional integrity
B) Professional integrity
C) Discretionary authority
D) Command responsibility
E) Chain of custody
  • 16. 16. Police see a man fleeing from a store with a bloody knife. They chase and arrest him.
A) Preventive detention
B) Citizen’s arrest
C) Illegal arrest
D) Warrantless hot pursuit
E) Warrantless hot pursuit
  • 17. 17. A patrolman discovers illegal drugs on a table while serving a lawful search warrant for firearms.
A) Report but leave items
B) Confiscate under plain-view doctrine
C) Secure new warrant
D) Confiscate under plain-view doctrine
E) Ignore; not in warrant
  • 18. 18. Police use torture to extract a confession. The suspect later files a case. What crime applies?
A) Arbitrary detention
B) . Grave coercion
C) Violation of RA 9745
D) Physical injuries
E) Violation of RA 9745
  • 19. 19. During a buy-bust, officers forget to photograph seized drugs. What may happen?
A) Case dismissed for chain-of-custody defect
B) Case dismissed for chain-of-custody defect
C) Officer disciplined only
D) Evidence still valid
E) Drugs returned to PDEA
  • 20. 20. An officer uses deadly force on an unarmed fleeing suspect in a minor theft. The act is:
A) Justified self-defense
B) Abuse of authority
C) Abuse of authority
D) Instinctive reaction
E) Lawful arrest procedure
  • 21. 21.Evidence was seized by an officer who lacked a search warrant and probable cause. It is:
A) Inadmissible; illegal search
B) Admissible after consent
C) Valid if authenticated
D) Inadmissible; illegal search
E) Valid; fruits of crime
  • 22. 22. A police officer fails to inform a detainee of the reason for arrest. Consequence?
A) Simple irregularity
B) Grounds for demotion only
C) Valid if crime serious
D) Arrest void
E) Arrest void
  • 23. 23. When evidence shows another suspect actually committed the crime, the officer must:
A) Amend complaint accordingly
B) Continue filing against original suspect
C) Wait for prosecutor’s instruction
D) Suppress new evidence
E) Amend complaint accordingly
  • 24. 24. Community members volunteer to patrol with police. This practice is called:
A) Community policing
B) Private security
C) Civil defense
D) Peace negotiation
E) Community policing
  • 25. 25. The prosecutor files a case for murder, but the court later finds the act is homicide. Effect?
A) Case dismissed
B) Case remanded to DOJ
C) Conviction for homicide still valid
D) Conviction for homicide still valid
E) Accused acquitted
  • 26. 26.A prosecutor dismisses a complaint despite strong evidence of homicide. The complainant feels aggrieved. What should they do?
A) Professional secrecy
B) Professional secrecy
C) Due process
D) Res judicata
E) Sub judice rule
  • 27. 27.A complaint was filed directly in court without preliminary investigation. The accused objects. Remedy?
A) Suspension of arraignment
B) Suspension of arraignment
C) Dismissal outright
D) Court orders reinvestigation
E) Waiver of objection
  • 28. 28.A prosecutor leaks confidential evidence to media. This violates:
A) Professional secrecy
B) Due process
C) Sub judice rule
D) Professional secrecy
E) Res judicata
  • 29. 29.An arrest was made without warrant, and the suspect was not delivered to the prosecutor within 36 hours.
A) Require explanation from police
B) Require explanation from police
C) Prosecutor must file case anyway
D) Dismiss case for arbitrary detention
E) Refer to higher DOJ authority
  • 30. 30.A prosecutor finds no probable cause but the complainant has new affidavits.
A) Endorse to Ombudsman
B) Deny for being repetitive
C) Allow reinvestigation
D) mAllow reinvestigation
E) File case immediately
  • 31. 31. The accused claims the investigating fiscal was biased due to family ties with complainant. Remedy?
A) Move for inhibition
B) Move for inhibition
C) File administrative case
D) Ignore unless proven
E) Appeal to Secretary of Justice
  • 32. 32.Probable cause for filing a case means:
A) Strong suspicion based on evidence
B) Strong suspicion based on evidence
C) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
D) Absolute proof of guilt
E) Mere hunch of crime
  • 33. 33.Prosecutor receives evidence obtained through illegal search. What should he do?
A) Use it if it proves guilt
B) Keep it confidential
C) Return to police and disregard
D) Return to police and disregard
E) File case based on it
  • 34. 34. During inquest, the suspect demands preliminary investigation. What is required?
A) Written waiver of Art. 125 rights
B) Prosecutor approval
C) Written waiver of Art. 125 rights
D) None; automatic right
E) Verbal consent only
  • 35. 35.The prosecutor files multiple cases for a single act. The accused can invoke:
A) Forum shopping
B) Double jeopardy
C) Res judicata
D) Rule on multiplicity
E) Rule on multiplicity
  • 36. 36. When the prosecutor withdraws an information before arraignment, it requires:
A) Automatic effect
B) Court’s approval
C) Court’s approval
D) Approval of the Secretary of Justice
E) Police approval
  • 37. 37.The complainant files a falsified medical certificate. The prosecutor discovers this. Action?
A) Dismiss and refer falsification charge
B) Request police correction
C) Ignore since unrelated
D) File case still
  • 38. 38. If during reinvestigation the accused presents alibi and affidavits contradicting earlier ones, prosecutor should:
A) Send to court for trial
B) Evaluate credibility and resolve conflicts
C) Automatically dismiss
D) File immediately for delay
E) Evaluate credibility and resolve conflicts
  • 39. 39. A prosecutor is bribed to drop a case. The crime committed is:
A) Bribery under RPC
B) Malfeasance
C) Bribery under RPC
D) Dereliction of duty
E) Grave misconduct
  • 40. 40. Prosecutor insists on prosecuting a clearly innocent accused to gain publicity. This violates:
A) Judicial courtesy
B) Prosecution’s ethical standard
C) Prosecution’s ethical standard
D) Procedural regularity
E) Burden of proof
  • 41. 41. The accused pleads guilty to a lesser offense after plea bargaining. What must the judge ensure before approving the plea?
A) That the accused has a lawyer and understands the consequences
B) That the accused has a lawyer and understands the consequences
C) That the victim is absent
D) That the police concur
E) That the prosecution agrees
  • 42. 42. During trial, the judge personally questions a witness extensively to clarify facts. This act is:
A) Valid judicial discretion
B) Usurpation of prosecution’s role
C) Valid judicial discretion
D) Evidence tampering
E) Improper intervention
  • 43. 43. An accused is acquitted but the prosecution appeals, arguing the court erred. The appeal should be:
A) Remanded for reinvestigation
B) Elevated to DOJ
C) Allowed since the court erred
D) Dismissed due to double jeopardy
E) Dismissed due to double jeopardy
  • 44. 44. The court issues a judgment but fails to state factual findings. The judgment is:
A) Void for lack of basis
B) Final after notice
C) Void for lack of basis
D) Valid if signed
E) Effective if promulgated
  • 45. 45. The accused fails to appear at arraignment despite proper notice. The court should:
A) lIssue bench warrant for arrest
B) Acquit for non-appearance
C) Issue bench warrant for arrest
D) Proceed to trial
E) Dismiss case for delay
  • 46. 46. The court finds the evidence insufficient for murder but adequate for homicide. The proper ruling is:
A) Acquittal
B) Order reinvestigation
C) Convict for homicide
D) Convict for homicide
E) Dismiss case
  • 47. 47. During trial, the judge learns the accused was tortured to confess. What should the court do?
A) Exclude confession from evidence
B) Exclude confession from evidence
C) Suspend trial
D) Ignore since confession signed
E) Admit confession if corroborated
  • 48. 48. The judge publicly comments on the guilt of the accused before the decision. This constitutes:
A) Grave misconduct or bias
B) Judicial transparency
C) Sub judice exception
D) Grave misconduct or bias
E) Exercise of discretion
  • 49. 49. The court forgets to include civil liability in a conviction judgment. What should it do?
A) Modify judgment to include it
B) Ignore unless appealed
C) Refer to prosecutor
D) Modify judgment to include it
E) Nothing; penalty already imposed
  • 50. 50. The accused was tried in absentia after escaping custody. The judgment of conviction is:
A) Suspended
B) Valid
C) Void
D) Discretionary
E) Valid
  • 51. 51. A judge refuses to inhibit despite being a close friend of the victim’s family. This violates:
A) Judicial impartiality
B) Judicial impartiality
C) Administrative rules
D) Judicial restraint
E) Judicial discipline only
  • 52. 52. The accused appeals his conviction, but while the appeal is pending, he escapes. Effect on appeal?
A) Converted to probation
B) Automatically dismissed
C) Continues
D) Automatically dismissed
E) Deferred until recapture
  • 53. 53. Evidence presented in trial was obtained illegally. The court should:
A) Exclude it from consideration
B) Defer ruling
C) Reopen preliminary investigation
D) Exclude it from consideration
E) Allow if relevant
  • 54. 54. The defense files a motion for new trial based on newly discovered evidence before judgment becomes final. Court’s proper action:
A) Evaluate materiality and grant if justified
B) Refer to DOJ
C) Require police reinvestigation
D) Evaluate materiality and grant if justified
E) Deny automatically
  • 55. 55. Judge delays decision for over one year without valid reason. This is:
A) Civil liability
B) Denial of speedy disposition
C) Denial of speedy disposition
D) Judicial discretion
E) Administrative negligence
  • 56. 56. The Supreme Court reverses an acquittal after finding gross error. Is this valid?
A) Yes, if through certiorari for grave abuse of discretion
B) No, double jeopardy always applies
C) Only in civil cases
D) Yes, if through certiorari for grave abuse of discretion
E) Only if accused consents
  • 57. 57. The RTC judge conducts plea bargaining for a drug case without prosecutor consent. Effect?
A) Valid if voluntary
B) Invalid; needs prosecution approval
C) Valid if court-approved
D) Invalid; needs prosecution approval
E) Allowed under RA 9165
  • 58. 58. The court convicts accused based solely on uncorroborated testimony of a hostile witness. The judgment is:
A) B. Voidable; lacks sufficient evidence
B) Discretionary
C) Automatically final
D) Voidable; lacks sufficient evidence
E) Valid
  • 59. 59. The accused files a motion to inhibit a judge, alleging bias without proof. Court should:
A) Automatically inhibit
B) Deny for lack of factual basis
C) Deny for lack of factual basis
D) Suspend proceedings
E) Forward to Supreme Court
  • 60. 60. A judge receives gifts from a litigant during the case. This act constitutes:
A) Bribery or corruption
B) Ethical irregularity only
C) Administrative oversight
D) Courtesy
E) Bribery or corruption
  • 61. 61. A convicted offender is released under supervision after serving part of his sentence. This is called:
A) Commutation
B) Conditional pardon
C) Parole
D) Parole
E) Probation
  • 62. 62. What is the main goal of the correctional system?
A) Rehabilitation
B) Rehabilitation
C) Retribution
D) Incapacitation
E) Deterrence
  • 63. 63. Under PD 968, probation is granted to:
    A. First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
A) First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
B) Escapees
C) Habitual delinquents
D) First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
E) Persons sentenced to death
  • 64. 64. A parolee violates one of his conditions. The Board of Pardons and Parole may:
A) Revoke parole and order re-arrest
B) Revoke parole and order re-arrest
C) Extend parole
D) Terminate case
E) Grant commutation
  • 65. 65. A prisoner’s sentence is reduced by presidential action without pardon. This is:
A) Commutation of sentence
B) Commutation of sentence
C) Probation
D) Amnesty
E) Parole
  • 66. 66. A newly admitted prisoner is classified based on background and risk. This process is:
A) Penological screening
B) Reception and diagnostic process
C) Reception and diagnostic process
D) Custodial supervision
E) Rehabilitation planning
  • 67. 67. Inmates are taught vocational and livelihood skills. This supports which correctional philosophy?
A) Deterrence
B) Restorative rehabilitation
C) Restorative rehabilitation
D) Retributive justice
E) Punitive discipline
  • 68. 68. The principal agency in charge of national prisoners serving sentences of over three years is:
A) Bureau of Jail Management and Penology (BJMP)
B) Bureau of Parole and Probation Administration (BPPA)
C) Bureau of Corrections (BuCor)
D) Bureau of Corrections (BuCor)
E) PNP Custodial Center
  • 69. 69. A probationer fails to report to his probation officer for two months. The officer should:
A) Issue bench warrant
B) Recommend revocation of probation
C) Ignore for minor lapse
D) Recommend revocation of probation
E) Extend reporting period
  • 70. 70. The purpose of the indeterminate sentence law (ISL) is to:
A) Replace probation
B) Impose harsher penalties
C) Shorten imprisonment for all
D) Encourage rehabilitation through parole
E) Encourage rehabilitation through parole
  • 71. 71. A prisoner completes his minimum sentence and shows good conduct. He applies for parole. What agency acts on it?
A) BuCor
B) Board of Pardons and Parole
C) DOJ
D) BJMP
E) Board of Pardons and Parole
  • 72. 72. When a probationer successfully completes probation, his case is:
A) Suspended for life
B) Converted to parole
C) Dismissed and civil rights restored
D) Refiled for sentencing
E) Dismissed and civil rights restored
  • 73. 73. A convicted minor offender is sent to a youth rehabilitation center instead of prison. This shows what principle?
A) Restorative justice
B) Juvenile protection
C) Equal punishment
D) Correctional segregation
E) Restorative justice
  • 74. 74. An offender sentenced to six months imprisonment applies for probation. The court should:
A) Grant probation automatically
B) Evaluate report of Probation Officer first
C) Evaluate report of Probation Officer first
D) Deny; sentence too short
E) Refer to DOJ
  • 75. 75. A parolee who committed another offense while under parole loses what privilege?
A) Benefit of parole
B) Clemency
C) Commutation
D) Benefit of parole
E) Credit of time served
  • 76. 76. Inmates assigned to perform kitchen and maintenance work in prison are under:
A) Institutional employment program
B) Custodial punishment
C) Administrative segregation
D) Voluntary work detail
E) Institutional employment program
  • 77. 77. A prisoner granted good conduct time allowance (GCTA) is released early. The basis law is:
A) RA 9165
B) RA 10575
C) RA 6975
D) RA 10592
E) RA 10592
  • 78. 78. A prisoner released through amnesty benefits because his offense was political. Amnesty’s effect is:
A) Temporary release
B) Total extinguishment of offense
C) Total extinguishment of offense
D) Conditional pardon
E) Reduction of penalty
  • 79. 79. Which of the following shows effective correctional administration?
A) Overcrowded facilities
B) Proper classification and rehabilitation programs
C) Lack of parole supervision
D) Proper classification and rehabilitation programs
E) Limited recreation
  • 80. 80. A probationer requests to transfer residence to another city. The probation officer must:
A) Deny automatically
B) Recommend to the court for approval
C) Approve immediately
D) Request police clearance
E) Recommend to the court for approval
  • 81. 81. After serving his sentence, a former inmate is welcomed by his barangay and given a livelihood grant. This illustrates:
A) Rehabilitation
B) Reintegration
C) Correction
D) Reintegration
E) Restitution
  • 82. 82. The concept that crime prevention is a shared responsibility between police and citizens is known as:
A) Social control
B) Participatory security
C) Citizen’s watch
D) Community policing
E) Community policing
  • 83. 83. The Barangay Justice System (Katarungang Pambarangay) primarily aims to:
A) Settle disputes amicably
B) Settle disputes amicably
C) Impose imprisonment
D) Prosecute offenders
E) Collect barangay taxes
  • 84. 84. Restorative justice focuses mainly on:
A) Avoiding accountability
B) Repairing harm and restoring relationships
C) Repairing harm and restoring relationships
D) Retribution
E) Punishment of the offender
  • 85. 85. A former offender voluntarily helps mentor youth at risk in his community. This demonstrates:
A) Community service
B) Civil participation
C) Social reintegration
D) Restorative leadership
E) Social reintegration
  • 86. 86. Barangay tanods assist police in maintaining order. This is an example of:
A) Informal policing
B) Auxiliary law enforcement
C) Auxiliary law enforcement
D) Civil defense
E) Volunteer citizen participation
  • 87. 87. The community pillar’s main responsibility in the criminal justice system is:
A) Crime prevention and reintegration
B) Prosecution of cases
C) Crime detection
D) Imposing penalties
E) Crime prevention and reintegration
  • 88. 88. Which of the following is a form of restorative justice program?
A) Preventive detention
B) Death penalty
C) Victim-offender mediation
D) Victim-offender mediation
E) Life imprisonment
  • 89. 89. When the public refuses to cooperate with law enforcement due to distrust, it results in:
A) Effective policing
B) Weak community pillar
C) Increased clearance rate
D) Strengthened judiciary
E) Weak community pillar
  • 90. 90. A local NGO provides counseling and job training for released inmates. This supports which pillar?
A) Community
B) Court
C) Corrections
D) Prosecution
E) Community
  • 91. 91. A community leader initiates dialogue between rival gangs to reduce violence. This reflects:
A) Conflict resolution
B) Restorative justice
C) Social defense
D) Restorative justice
E) Crime suppression
  • 92. 92. Which measures best enhances trust between police and citizens?
A) Political campaigns
B) Increased penalties
C) Frequent arrests
D) Transparency and accountability
E) Transparency and accountability
  • 93. 93. The success of community-based corrections largely depends on:
A) Prison budget
B) Length of sentence
C) Community acceptance and support
D) Community acceptance and support
E) Strict surveillance
  • 94. 94. The principle that prevention is better than cure in criminology refers to:
A) Rehabilitation
B) Social defense theory
C) Preventive justice
D) Preventive justice
E) Deterrence principle
  • 95. 95. Which illustrates active community participation in justice?
A) Joining barangay peace councils
B) Refusing to testify
C) Ignoring crimes
D) Joining barangay peace councils
E) Withholding evidence
  • 96. 96. A released inmate is stigmatized by neighbors, causing him to reoffend. What criminological concept is demonstrated?
A) Social disorganization
B) Control theory
C) Differential association
D) Labeling theory
E) Labeling theory
  • 97. 97. A community-based drug rehabilitation center partners with local police and families. This collaboration exemplifies:
A) Social development approach
B) Community policing
C) Inter-agency coordination
D) Restorative intervention
E) Restorative intervention
  • 98. 98. A barangay sets curfew for minors to prevent juvenile delinquency. This is an example of:
A) Social control measure
B) Legal punishment
C) Social control measure
D) Restorative sanction
E) Arbitrary detention
  • 99. 99. Which reflects the concept of social defense?
A) Increasing penalties for all crimes
B) Isolating criminals permanently
C) Protecting society through prevention and reformation
D) Relying solely on police power
E) Protecting society through prevention and reformation
  • 100. 100. In the criminal justice system, the community’s cooperation with law enforcement symbolizes:
A) Partnership in justice
B) Partnership in justice
C) Civil dependency
D) Mutual distrust
E) Political influence
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