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Introduction to Philippines criminal system
Contributed by: Angelica
  • 1. 1. While on patrol, a PNP officer witnesses a man breaking into a store at night. Without a warrant, he arrests the suspect. Under which rule is this arrest justified?
A) In flagrante delicto rule
B) In flagrante delicto rule
C) Citizen’s arrest rule
D) Probable cause rule
  • 2. 2. During a checkpoint, police officers open car trunks without probable cause or consent. Which constitutional right is violated?
A) Right to privacy
B) Right against unreasonable search
C) Right to due process
D) Right to travel
E) Right against unreasonable search
  • 3. 3.A prosecutor dismisses a complaint despite strong evidence. What is the proper legal remedy for the complainant?
A) File a case with the Ombudsman
B) Appeal to the DOJ
C) Appeal to the DOJ
D) File a new complaint
E) Seek mandamus from RTC
  • 4. 4.A respondent claims he was not subpoenaed during preliminary investigation. What due process violation occurred?
A) Right to confrontation
B) Right to counsel
C) Plea bargaining
D) Right to presumption of innocence
E) Plea bargaining
  • 5. 5.An accused pleads guilty to a lesser offense during arraignment. What judicial process allows this negotiation?
A) Plea in abeyance
B) Pre-trial agreement
C) Plea bargaining
D) Conditional pardon
E) Plea bargaining
  • 6. 6. A judge renders a decision finding the accused guilty but fails to state factual basis. What judicial requirement is violated?
A) Requisite of written judgment
B) Requisite of written judgment
C) Requirement of promulgation
D) Rule on double jeopardy
E) Doctrine of finality
  • 7. 7. A prisoner who has shown good conduct is allowed to serve the rest of his sentence outside prison under supervision. This refers to:
A) Parole
B) Commutation
C) Correct Answer: C
D) Pardon
E) Probation
  • 8. 8.Under PD 968, what is the primary purpose of probation?
A) Punishment
B) Retribution
C) Isolation
D) Rehabilitation
E) Rehabilitation
  • 9. 9.A barangay forms a group assisting police in patrolling their area. This reflects which principle of community involvement?
A) Restorative justice
B) Social control
C) Community policing
D) Citizen’s initiative
E) Community policing
  • 10. 10.After serving his sentence, an ex-convict is welcomed by his community and given livelihood assistance. This demonstrates:
A) Reintegration
B) Reconciliation
C) Rehabilitation
D) Reintegration
E) Reformation
  • 11. 11. While on patrol, an officer witnesses a man forcibly opening a parked vehicle. He immediately arrests the suspect without a warrant.
A) In flagrante delicto arrest
B) Hot pursuit arrest
C) In flagrante delicto arrest
D) Arbitrary arrest
E) Citizen’s arrest
  • 12. 12. a checkpoint, police open all car trunks without probable cause. Which right is violated?
A) Right to privacy
B) Due process
C) Right against unreasonable search
D) Right against unreasonable search
E) Right to counsel
  • 13. 13. An officer receives reliable info that a wanted fugitive is inside a house. Without a warrant, he enters and arrests the man.
A) Valid as hot-pursuit arrest
B) Invalid; no warrant
C) Valid as hot-pursuit arrest
D) Valid under plain view doctrine
E) Valid if with barangay clearance
  • 14. 14. A police investigator includes a suspect’s confession obtained without counsel. What happens to the confession?
A) Admissible if signed
B) Admissible if voluntary
C) Needs corroboration only
D) Inadmissible in evidence
E) Inadmissible in evidence
  • 15. 15. A robbery suspect offers ₱50 000 to a police officer to drop the case. The officer reports the incident. What principle is shown?
A) Professional integrity
B) Professional integrity
C) Chain of custody
D) Discretionary authority
E) Command responsibility
  • 16. 16. Police see a man fleeing from a store with a bloody knife. They chase and arrest him.
A) Warrantless hot pursuit
B) Illegal arrest
C) Citizen’s arrest
D) Preventive detention
E) Warrantless hot pursuit
  • 17. 17. A patrolman discovers illegal drugs on a table while serving a lawful search warrant for firearms.
A) Secure new warrant
B) Confiscate under plain-view doctrine
C) Report but leave items
D) Confiscate under plain-view doctrine
E) Ignore; not in warrant
  • 18. 18. Police use torture to extract a confession. The suspect later files a case. What crime applies?
A) Arbitrary detention
B) Physical injuries
C) Violation of RA 9745
D) Violation of RA 9745
E) . Grave coercion
  • 19. 19. During a buy-bust, officers forget to photograph seized drugs. What may happen?
A) Officer disciplined only
B) Drugs returned to PDEA
C) Case dismissed for chain-of-custody defect
D) Case dismissed for chain-of-custody defect
E) Evidence still valid
  • 20. 20. An officer uses deadly force on an unarmed fleeing suspect in a minor theft. The act is:
A) Abuse of authority
B) Abuse of authority
C) Justified self-defense
D) Instinctive reaction
E) Lawful arrest procedure
  • 21. 21.Evidence was seized by an officer who lacked a search warrant and probable cause. It is:
A) Valid if authenticated
B) Inadmissible; illegal search
C) Admissible after consent
D) Valid; fruits of crime
E) Inadmissible; illegal search
  • 22. 22. A police officer fails to inform a detainee of the reason for arrest. Consequence?
A) Arrest void
B) Simple irregularity
C) Arrest void
D) Valid if crime serious
E) Grounds for demotion only
  • 23. 23. When evidence shows another suspect actually committed the crime, the officer must:
A) Continue filing against original suspect
B) Wait for prosecutor’s instruction
C) Amend complaint accordingly
D) Amend complaint accordingly
E) Suppress new evidence
  • 24. 24. Community members volunteer to patrol with police. This practice is called:
A) Civil defense
B) Peace negotiation
C) Community policing
D) Community policing
E) Private security
  • 25. 25. The prosecutor files a case for murder, but the court later finds the act is homicide. Effect?
A) Accused acquitted
B) Case remanded to DOJ
C) Conviction for homicide still valid
D) Case dismissed
E) Conviction for homicide still valid
  • 26. 26.A prosecutor dismisses a complaint despite strong evidence of homicide. The complainant feels aggrieved. What should they do?
A) Professional secrecy
B) Due process
C) Sub judice rule
D) Professional secrecy
E) Res judicata
  • 27. 27.A complaint was filed directly in court without preliminary investigation. The accused objects. Remedy?
A) Court orders reinvestigation
B) Dismissal outright
C) Waiver of objection
D) Suspension of arraignment
E) Suspension of arraignment
  • 28. 28.A prosecutor leaks confidential evidence to media. This violates:
A) Professional secrecy
B) Res judicata
C) Professional secrecy
D) Due process
E) Sub judice rule
  • 29. 29.An arrest was made without warrant, and the suspect was not delivered to the prosecutor within 36 hours.
A) Prosecutor must file case anyway
B) Require explanation from police
C) Require explanation from police
D) Refer to higher DOJ authority
E) Dismiss case for arbitrary detention
  • 30. 30.A prosecutor finds no probable cause but the complainant has new affidavits.
A) Allow reinvestigation
B) File case immediately
C) Deny for being repetitive
D) Endorse to Ombudsman
E) mAllow reinvestigation
  • 31. 31. The accused claims the investigating fiscal was biased due to family ties with complainant. Remedy?
A) Ignore unless proven
B) Move for inhibition
C) Appeal to Secretary of Justice
D) Move for inhibition
E) File administrative case
  • 32. 32.Probable cause for filing a case means:
A) Absolute proof of guilt
B) Strong suspicion based on evidence
C) Mere hunch of crime
D) Strong suspicion based on evidence
E) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
  • 33. 33.Prosecutor receives evidence obtained through illegal search. What should he do?
A) Return to police and disregard
B) Use it if it proves guilt
C) Return to police and disregard
D) Keep it confidential
E) File case based on it
  • 34. 34. During inquest, the suspect demands preliminary investigation. What is required?
A) Written waiver of Art. 125 rights
B) Written waiver of Art. 125 rights
C) Verbal consent only
D) Prosecutor approval
E) None; automatic right
  • 35. 35.The prosecutor files multiple cases for a single act. The accused can invoke:
A) Res judicata
B) Rule on multiplicity
C) Forum shopping
D) Rule on multiplicity
E) Double jeopardy
  • 36. 36. When the prosecutor withdraws an information before arraignment, it requires:
A) Automatic effect
B) Court’s approval
C) Approval of the Secretary of Justice
D) Court’s approval
E) Police approval
  • 37. 37.The complainant files a falsified medical certificate. The prosecutor discovers this. Action?
A) Ignore since unrelated
B) Dismiss and refer falsification charge
C) Request police correction
D) File case still
  • 38. 38. If during reinvestigation the accused presents alibi and affidavits contradicting earlier ones, prosecutor should:
A) Evaluate credibility and resolve conflicts
B) Evaluate credibility and resolve conflicts
C) Automatically dismiss
D) File immediately for delay
E) Send to court for trial
  • 39. 39. A prosecutor is bribed to drop a case. The crime committed is:
A) Malfeasance
B) Bribery under RPC
C) Bribery under RPC
D) Dereliction of duty
E) Grave misconduct
  • 40. 40. Prosecutor insists on prosecuting a clearly innocent accused to gain publicity. This violates:
A) Prosecution’s ethical standard
B) Prosecution’s ethical standard
C) Burden of proof
D) Judicial courtesy
E) Procedural regularity
  • 41. 41. The accused pleads guilty to a lesser offense after plea bargaining. What must the judge ensure before approving the plea?
A) That the prosecution agrees
B) That the victim is absent
C) That the police concur
D) That the accused has a lawyer and understands the consequences
E) That the accused has a lawyer and understands the consequences
  • 42. 42. During trial, the judge personally questions a witness extensively to clarify facts. This act is:
A) Valid judicial discretion
B) Valid judicial discretion
C) Improper intervention
D) Usurpation of prosecution’s role
E) Evidence tampering
  • 43. 43. An accused is acquitted but the prosecution appeals, arguing the court erred. The appeal should be:
A) Dismissed due to double jeopardy
B) Allowed since the court erred
C) Remanded for reinvestigation
D) Elevated to DOJ
E) Dismissed due to double jeopardy
  • 44. 44. The court issues a judgment but fails to state factual findings. The judgment is:
A) Void for lack of basis
B) Void for lack of basis
C) Effective if promulgated
D) Valid if signed
E) Final after notice
  • 45. 45. The accused fails to appear at arraignment despite proper notice. The court should:
A) Issue bench warrant for arrest
B) lIssue bench warrant for arrest
C) Proceed to trial
D) Dismiss case for delay
E) Acquit for non-appearance
  • 46. 46. The court finds the evidence insufficient for murder but adequate for homicide. The proper ruling is:
A) Order reinvestigation
B) Acquittal
C) Convict for homicide
D) Dismiss case
E) Convict for homicide
  • 47. 47. During trial, the judge learns the accused was tortured to confess. What should the court do?
A) Exclude confession from evidence
B) Exclude confession from evidence
C) Ignore since confession signed
D) Suspend trial
E) Admit confession if corroborated
  • 48. 48. The judge publicly comments on the guilt of the accused before the decision. This constitutes:
A) Grave misconduct or bias
B) Judicial transparency
C) Grave misconduct or bias
D) Exercise of discretion
E) Sub judice exception
  • 49. 49. The court forgets to include civil liability in a conviction judgment. What should it do?
A) Nothing; penalty already imposed
B) Refer to prosecutor
C) Modify judgment to include it
D) Modify judgment to include it
E) Ignore unless appealed
  • 50. 50. The accused was tried in absentia after escaping custody. The judgment of conviction is:
A) Void
B) Valid
C) Discretionary
D) Suspended
E) Valid
  • 51. 51. A judge refuses to inhibit despite being a close friend of the victim’s family. This violates:
A) Judicial impartiality
B) Judicial impartiality
C) Judicial restraint
D) Administrative rules
E) Judicial discipline only
  • 52. 52. The accused appeals his conviction, but while the appeal is pending, he escapes. Effect on appeal?
A) Continues
B) Automatically dismissed
C) Deferred until recapture
D) Automatically dismissed
E) Converted to probation
  • 53. 53. Evidence presented in trial was obtained illegally. The court should:
A) Exclude it from consideration
B) Exclude it from consideration
C) Reopen preliminary investigation
D) Defer ruling
E) Allow if relevant
  • 54. 54. The defense files a motion for new trial based on newly discovered evidence before judgment becomes final. Court’s proper action:
A) Require police reinvestigation
B) Evaluate materiality and grant if justified
C) Refer to DOJ
D) Evaluate materiality and grant if justified
E) Deny automatically
  • 55. 55. Judge delays decision for over one year without valid reason. This is:
A) Administrative negligence
B) Denial of speedy disposition
C) Civil liability
D) Denial of speedy disposition
E) Judicial discretion
  • 56. 56. The Supreme Court reverses an acquittal after finding gross error. Is this valid?
A) Yes, if through certiorari for grave abuse of discretion
B) Yes, if through certiorari for grave abuse of discretion
C) Only if accused consents
D) Only in civil cases
E) No, double jeopardy always applies
  • 57. 57. The RTC judge conducts plea bargaining for a drug case without prosecutor consent. Effect?
A) Valid if court-approved
B) Invalid; needs prosecution approval
C) Valid if voluntary
D) Invalid; needs prosecution approval
E) Allowed under RA 9165
  • 58. 58. The court convicts accused based solely on uncorroborated testimony of a hostile witness. The judgment is:
A) Automatically final
B) Voidable; lacks sufficient evidence
C) Discretionary
D) B. Voidable; lacks sufficient evidence
E) Valid
  • 59. 59. The accused files a motion to inhibit a judge, alleging bias without proof. Court should:
A) Forward to Supreme Court
B) Suspend proceedings
C) Automatically inhibit
D) Deny for lack of factual basis
E) Deny for lack of factual basis
  • 60. 60. A judge receives gifts from a litigant during the case. This act constitutes:
A) Courtesy
B) Bribery or corruption
C) Ethical irregularity only
D) Bribery or corruption
E) Administrative oversight
  • 61. 61. A convicted offender is released under supervision after serving part of his sentence. This is called:
A) Probation
B) Conditional pardon
C) Commutation
D) Parole
E) Parole
  • 62. 62. What is the main goal of the correctional system?
A) Rehabilitation
B) Rehabilitation
C) Deterrence
D) Retribution
E) Incapacitation
  • 63. 63. Under PD 968, probation is granted to:
    A. First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
A) First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
B) Habitual delinquents
C) Persons sentenced to death
D) Escapees
E) First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
  • 64. 64. A parolee violates one of his conditions. The Board of Pardons and Parole may:
A) Revoke parole and order re-arrest
B) Grant commutation
C) Extend parole
D) Terminate case
E) Revoke parole and order re-arrest
  • 65. 65. A prisoner’s sentence is reduced by presidential action without pardon. This is:
A) Parole
B) Probation
C) Commutation of sentence
D) Commutation of sentence
E) Amnesty
  • 66. 66. A newly admitted prisoner is classified based on background and risk. This process is:
A) Rehabilitation planning
B) Reception and diagnostic process
C) Custodial supervision
D) Penological screening
E) Reception and diagnostic process
  • 67. 67. Inmates are taught vocational and livelihood skills. This supports which correctional philosophy?
A) Deterrence
B) Punitive discipline
C) Restorative rehabilitation
D) Retributive justice
E) Restorative rehabilitation
  • 68. 68. The principal agency in charge of national prisoners serving sentences of over three years is:
A) PNP Custodial Center
B) Bureau of Parole and Probation Administration (BPPA)
C) Bureau of Corrections (BuCor)
D) Bureau of Jail Management and Penology (BJMP)
E) Bureau of Corrections (BuCor)
  • 69. 69. A probationer fails to report to his probation officer for two months. The officer should:
A) Recommend revocation of probation
B) Extend reporting period
C) Ignore for minor lapse
D) Recommend revocation of probation
E) Issue bench warrant
  • 70. 70. The purpose of the indeterminate sentence law (ISL) is to:
A) Encourage rehabilitation through parole
B) Impose harsher penalties
C) Shorten imprisonment for all
D) Encourage rehabilitation through parole
E) Replace probation
  • 71. 71. A prisoner completes his minimum sentence and shows good conduct. He applies for parole. What agency acts on it?
A) BJMP
B) Board of Pardons and Parole
C) DOJ
D) BuCor
E) Board of Pardons and Parole
  • 72. 72. When a probationer successfully completes probation, his case is:
A) Dismissed and civil rights restored
B) Suspended for life
C) Converted to parole
D) Refiled for sentencing
E) Dismissed and civil rights restored
  • 73. 73. A convicted minor offender is sent to a youth rehabilitation center instead of prison. This shows what principle?
A) Correctional segregation
B) Juvenile protection
C) Equal punishment
D) Restorative justice
E) Restorative justice
  • 74. 74. An offender sentenced to six months imprisonment applies for probation. The court should:
A) Evaluate report of Probation Officer first
B) Refer to DOJ
C) Grant probation automatically
D) Evaluate report of Probation Officer first
E) Deny; sentence too short
  • 75. 75. A parolee who committed another offense while under parole loses what privilege?
A) Commutation
B) Benefit of parole
C) Credit of time served
D) Clemency
E) Benefit of parole
  • 76. 76. Inmates assigned to perform kitchen and maintenance work in prison are under:
A) Administrative segregation
B) Institutional employment program
C) Voluntary work detail
D) Custodial punishment
E) Institutional employment program
  • 77. 77. A prisoner granted good conduct time allowance (GCTA) is released early. The basis law is:
A) RA 10592
B) RA 9165
C) RA 10575
D) RA 6975
E) RA 10592
  • 78. 78. A prisoner released through amnesty benefits because his offense was political. Amnesty’s effect is:
A) Total extinguishment of offense
B) Temporary release
C) Reduction of penalty
D) Conditional pardon
E) Total extinguishment of offense
  • 79. 79. Which of the following shows effective correctional administration?
A) Proper classification and rehabilitation programs
B) Limited recreation
C) Proper classification and rehabilitation programs
D) Overcrowded facilities
E) Lack of parole supervision
  • 80. 80. A probationer requests to transfer residence to another city. The probation officer must:
A) Recommend to the court for approval
B) Recommend to the court for approval
C) Approve immediately
D) Request police clearance
E) Deny automatically
  • 81. 81. After serving his sentence, a former inmate is welcomed by his barangay and given a livelihood grant. This illustrates:
A) Correction
B) Reintegration
C) Rehabilitation
D) Restitution
E) Reintegration
  • 82. 82. The concept that crime prevention is a shared responsibility between police and citizens is known as:
A) Community policing
B) Participatory security
C) Social control
D) Citizen’s watch
E) Community policing
  • 83. 83. The Barangay Justice System (Katarungang Pambarangay) primarily aims to:
A) Impose imprisonment
B) Prosecute offenders
C) Settle disputes amicably
D) Settle disputes amicably
E) Collect barangay taxes
  • 84. 84. Restorative justice focuses mainly on:
A) Punishment of the offender
B) Repairing harm and restoring relationships
C) Repairing harm and restoring relationships
D) Retribution
E) Avoiding accountability
  • 85. 85. A former offender voluntarily helps mentor youth at risk in his community. This demonstrates:
A) Civil participation
B) Community service
C) Restorative leadership
D) Social reintegration
E) Social reintegration
  • 86. 86. Barangay tanods assist police in maintaining order. This is an example of:
A) Civil defense
B) Volunteer citizen participation
C) Auxiliary law enforcement
D) Auxiliary law enforcement
E) Informal policing
  • 87. 87. The community pillar’s main responsibility in the criminal justice system is:
A) Crime detection
B) Prosecution of cases
C) Imposing penalties
D) Crime prevention and reintegration
E) Crime prevention and reintegration
  • 88. 88. Which of the following is a form of restorative justice program?
A) Preventive detention
B) Death penalty
C) Victim-offender mediation
D) Life imprisonment
E) Victim-offender mediation
  • 89. 89. When the public refuses to cooperate with law enforcement due to distrust, it results in:
A) Effective policing
B) Weak community pillar
C) Strengthened judiciary
D) Weak community pillar
E) Increased clearance rate
  • 90. 90. A local NGO provides counseling and job training for released inmates. This supports which pillar?
A) Corrections
B) Community
C) Court
D) Prosecution
E) Community
  • 91. 91. A community leader initiates dialogue between rival gangs to reduce violence. This reflects:
A) Conflict resolution
B) Restorative justice
C) Social defense
D) Crime suppression
E) Restorative justice
  • 92. 92. Which measures best enhances trust between police and citizens?
A) Transparency and accountability
B) Transparency and accountability
C) Increased penalties
D) Frequent arrests
E) Political campaigns
  • 93. 93. The success of community-based corrections largely depends on:
A) Length of sentence
B) Community acceptance and support
C) Community acceptance and support
D) Strict surveillance
E) Prison budget
  • 94. 94. The principle that prevention is better than cure in criminology refers to:
A) Deterrence principle
B) Preventive justice
C) Social defense theory
D) Preventive justice
E) Rehabilitation
  • 95. 95. Which illustrates active community participation in justice?
A) Withholding evidence
B) Joining barangay peace councils
C) Ignoring crimes
D) Joining barangay peace councils
E) Refusing to testify
  • 96. 96. A released inmate is stigmatized by neighbors, causing him to reoffend. What criminological concept is demonstrated?
A) Labeling theory
B) Differential association
C) Control theory
D) Labeling theory
E) Social disorganization
  • 97. 97. A community-based drug rehabilitation center partners with local police and families. This collaboration exemplifies:
A) Inter-agency coordination
B) Community policing
C) Restorative intervention
D) Social development approach
E) Restorative intervention
  • 98. 98. A barangay sets curfew for minors to prevent juvenile delinquency. This is an example of:
A) Restorative sanction
B) Social control measure
C) Legal punishment
D) Social control measure
E) Arbitrary detention
  • 99. 99. Which reflects the concept of social defense?
A) Isolating criminals permanently
B) Increasing penalties for all crimes
C) Relying solely on police power
D) Protecting society through prevention and reformation
E) Protecting society through prevention and reformation
  • 100. 100. In the criminal justice system, the community’s cooperation with law enforcement symbolizes:
A) Partnership in justice
B) Mutual distrust
C) Civil dependency
D) Political influence
E) Partnership in justice
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