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SOCPRO REVIEWER PRELIM: QUESTIONABLY REFINED EDITION ¯\_(ツ)_/¯
Contributed by: Fernandez
  • 1. The trolley problem is a classic example used to illustrate which ethical theory?
A) Relativism
B) Utilitarianism
C) Deontology
D) Egoism
E) Virtue Ethics
  • 2. Ano ang tingin mo, papasa ka ba sa exam na ito tungkol sa software ethics?
A) Oo, sigurado ako!
B) Baka, kung mag-aaral pa ako.
C) Siguro, depende sa swerte.
D) Ayoko pang isipin.
E) Hindi, kinakabahan ako.
  • 3. What does 'PLUS' stand for in the ethical decision-making model?
A) Performance, Leadership, Unity, Success
B) People, Logic, Understanding, Standards
C) Principles, Laws, Unity, Systems
D) Policies, Legal, Universal, Self
E) Planning, Logic, Understanding, Solutions
  • 4. What does the 'P' in PLUS stand for?
A) Policies
B) Performance
C) People
D) Principles
E) Procedures
  • 5. What does the 'L' in PLUS evaluate whether an action is?
A) Limited
B) Logical
C) Lucrative
D) Legitimate
E) Legal
  • 6. What does the 'U' in PLUS ask if an action would be acceptable if?
A) Management agreed
B) It became profitable
C) Everyone did it
D) It was temporary
E) Only experts approved
  • 7. What does the 'S' in PLUS involve?
A) Software standards
B) System requirements
C) Security protocols
D) Stakeholder interests
E) Personal integrity and accountability
  • 8. What does stakeholder analysis examine?
A) Just technical requirements
B) Who is affected and how
C) Exclusively legal aspects
D) Only financial impacts
E) Limited to management
  • 9. What does stakeholder analysis focus on?
A) Intent rather than impact
B) Short-term rather than long-term
C) Impact rather than intent
D) Financial rather than ethical
E) Technical rather than social
  • 10. Who are typical stakeholders in software projects?
A) Just investors
B) Limited to regulators
C) End users, developers, clients, and society
D) Only management
E) Exclusively competitors
  • 11. What is the process of stakeholder analysis?
A) Identify stakeholders, assess benefits/risks, evaluate fairness
B) Only technical evaluation
C) Limited to profit calculation
D) Just budget analysis
E) Exclusively timeline planning
  • 12. What occurs when two or more ethical principles conflict?
A) A moral dilemma
B) Technical problems arise
C) Requirements change
D) Budget constraints exist
E) Deadlines are missed
  • 13. What are common causes of moral dilemmas?
A) Clear guidelines
B) Time pressure, budget constraints, management demands
C) Resource abundance
D) Proper planning
E) Technical limitations
  • 14. What should be evaluated first when considering software release with known bugs?
A) Last
B) Based on cost
C) After management approval
D) The severity of the bug
E) Only if profitable
  • 15. What must critical bugs affecting safety or security be?
A) Should be documented only
B) Must not be ignored
C) May be acceptable with warnings
D) Can always be patched
E) Can be fixed later
  • 16. What are common shortcuts in development?
A) Version control
B) Skipping testing, ignoring documentation, copying unlicensed code
C) Proper planning
D) Following standards
E) Code reviews
  • 17. What do legal requirements focus on?
A) What the law allows or prohibits
B) What meets deadlines
C) What maximizes profits
D) What is technically efficient
E) What follows standards
  • 18. What do ethical considerations focus on?
A) What the law allows or prohibits
B) What is technically efficient
C) What meets deadlines
D) What maximizes profits
E) What is morally right or responsible
  • 19. What can be legal and technically correct but ethically questionable?
A) Everything
B) A system
C) Just technical performance
D) Nothing
E) Only financial aspects
  • 20. What helps avoid decisions based on personal bias, authority pressure, and convenience?
A) Technical requirements
B) Team preferences
C) Industry trends
D) Ethical decision frameworks
E) Budget constraints
  • 21. What are common ethical decision frameworks?
A) Exclusively Professional codes
B) Only PLUS Model
C) PLUS Model, Stakeholder Analysis, Professional codes
D) Just Stakeholder Analysis
E) Limited to PLUS Model
  • 22. How is ethics described as a professional skill?
A) Limited to experts
B) Abstract and optional
C) Only for large projects
D) Separate from technical work
E) Not abstract, not optional, not separate from technical work
  • 23. What is ethics defined as?
A) Technical problem-solving
B) Social relationships
C) A branch of philosophy dealing with morality, right and wrong
D) Economic decision-making
E) Legal compliance
  • 24. What is technology described as?
A) Mathematical concepts
B) Natural phenomena
C) Scientific theories
D) Cultural traditions
E) Tools, systems, and devices created by humans to solve problems
  • 25. What has technology become embedded in?
A) Exclusively entertainment
B) Only scientific fields
C) Limited areas
D) Just business applications
E) Every aspect of daily life
  • 26. Why does technology create new ethical challenges?
A) It evolves rapidly and affects privacy, security, equality
B) It remains static
C) Focuses solely on efficiency
D) Eliminates moral issues
E) Only affects experts
  • 27. What can unethical technological practices lead to?
A) Better privacy
B) Improved equality
C) Discrimination, loss of privacy, job displacement
D) Enhanced security
E) Job creation
  • 28. What are examples of potential consequences of unethical technology?
A) Benefits of technology
B) Social improvements
C) Data breaches, AI bias, autonomous weapons, digital addiction
D) Economic gains
E) Technical achievements
  • 29. What do privacy and data security concerns focus on?
A) Just data transmission
B) Exclusively data processing
C) Limited to data display
D) Who owns data and how it's protected
E) Only data storage
  • 30. What do AI and automation raise ethical issues about?
A) Job impact and decision fairness
B) Only technical efficiency
C) Limited to user experience
D) Exclusively speed improvement
E) Just cost reduction
  • 31. What does the digital divide refer to?
A) Software version changes
B) Unequal access to technology
C) Technology quality differences
D) Internet speed variations
E) Device type diversity
  • 32. What do social media raise ethical concerns about?
A) Content moderation and misinformation spread
B) Limited to user interface
C) Only user engagement
D) Exclusively platform design
E) Just advertising
  • 33. In what can AI bias disadvantage minority groups?
A) Exclusively image analysis
B) Just speech processing
C) Limited to data storage
D) Predictive policing and hiring algorithms
E) Only facial recognition
  • 34. What did the Cambridge Analytica scandal highlight issues with?
A) Only social connections
B) Limited to content sharing
C) Exclusively user engagement
D) Just advertising
E) Data collection and privacy rights
  • 35. What is crucial in AI development?
A) Hardware manufacturing
B) Database design
C) Software testing
D) Ensuring fairness, transparency, and accountability
E) Network infrastructure
  • 36. What does utilitarianism in technology aim to?
A) Develop character
B) Consider only individuals
C) Focus on traditions
D) Follow strict rules
E) Maximize positive outcomes
  • 37. What does deontological ethics emphasize?
A) Relationship building
B) Outcome maximization
C) Duty and moral rules
D) Character development
E) Personal happiness
  • 38. What does virtue ethics promote?
A) Technical efficiency
B) Honesty and integrity
C) Speed of delivery
D) Profit optimization
E) Cost reduction
  • 39. What does care ethics consider the impact on?
A) System performance
B) Marginalized communities
C) Development timelines
D) Financial returns
E) Technical specifications
  • 40. When must technologists be aware of ethical implications?
A) Never during development
B) Exclusively in planning
C) Just during testing
D) While creating technologies
E) Only after deployment
  • 41. What do the decisions made during technology development shape?
A) Innovation
B) Future society
C) Technical progress
D) Only current users
E) Costs
  • 42. What do Google's AI Principles guide?
A) Database management
B) Responsible AI development
C) Network security
D) Software sales
E) Hardware production
  • 43. Utilitarianism is classified as a:
A) Culture-based theory
B) Consequentialist theory
C) Character-based theory
D) Non-consequentialist theory
E) Situation-based theory
  • 44. Utilitarianism suggests actions are right if they promote:
A) Respecting individual rights
B) Maximizing personal gain
C) The greatest happiness for the greatest number
D) Following moral rules
E) Developing virtuous character
  • 45. Jeremy Bentham and John Stuart Mill are associated with:
A) Social Contract Theory
B) Relativism
C) Deontology
D) Virtue Ethics
E) Utilitarianism
  • 46. Utilitarianism focuses on the:
A) Character and virtues
B) Rules and duties
C) Outcomes or consequences of actions
D) Social norms
E) Intentions and motivations
  • 47. The greatest happiness principle states actions are morally right if they result in:
A) Respecting individual rights
B) The most happiness for the most people
C) Maximizing personal gain
D) Developing virtuous character
E) Following universal rules
  • 48. Hedonism in utilitarianism refers to the pursuit of:
A) Power and influence
B) Fame and recognition
C) Wealth and status
D) Knowledge and wisdom
E) Pleasure and avoidance of pain
  • 49. According to utilitarianism, everyone's happiness:
A) Varies by wealth
B) Counts equally
C) Depends on social status
D) Differs by gender
E) Changes with age
  • 50. The trolley problem illustrates:
A) Virtue ethics
B) Utilitarian decision-making
C) Deontological principles
D) Cultural relativism
E) Social contract theory
  • 51. In the trolley problem, utilitarianism recommends:
A) Leaving it to fate
B) Pulling the lever to save more lives
C) Finding another solution
D) Not pulling to avoid responsibility
E) Consulting others
  • 52. Utilitarianism can justify actions that maximize happiness but:
A) Respect traditions
B) Consider relationships
C) Ignore individual rights
D) Develop character
E) Follow moral rules
  • 53. Utilitarianism is difficult to apply because of challenges in:
A) Developing character
B) Following clear rules
C) Predicting and measuring outcomes
D) Respecting traditions
E) Maintaining impartiality
  • 54. Deontology is founded by:
A) Jeremy Bentham
B) Plato
C) John Stuart Mill
D) Aristotle
E) Immanuel Kant
  • 55. Deontology argues actions are morally right if they follow a:
A) Set of rules regardless of consequences
B) Relationship building
C) Outcome-based calculation
D) Character development
E) Cultural norms
  • 56. The categorical imperative requires acting according to maxims that can be:
A) Approved by authorities
B) Universalized without contradiction
C) Maximized for happiness
D) Accepted by society
E) Developed through practice
  • 57. In deontology, treating others as ends in themselves means:
A) Controlling their actions
B) Using them for personal benefit
C) Exploiting their weaknesses
D) Respecting their dignity and autonomy
E) Ignoring their needs
  • 58. Deontology emphasizes that moral actions are obligatory if they fulfill a:
A) Economic benefit
B) Social expectation
C) Cultural norm
D) Personal desire
E) Moral duty
  • 59. Deontology creates conflicts when duties:
A) Follow traditions
B) Develop character
C) Contradict each other
D) Maximize happiness
E) Serve society
  • 60. Virtue ethics focuses on the:
A) Cultural traditions
B) Following moral rules
C) Outcomes of actions
D) Character and virtues of the individual
E) Social contracts
  • 61. Virtue ethics was developed primarily by:
A) Plato
B) Aristotle
C) Jeremy Bentham
D) John Stuart Mill
E) Immanuel Kant
  • 62. The mean in virtue ethics refers to:
A) Personal gain
B) Balance between deficiency and excess
C) Social approval
D) Maximum happiness
E) Strict rule following
  • 63. Eudaimonia in virtue ethics refers to:
A) Gaining power
B) Avoiding pain
C) Flourishing or human happiness
D) Maximizing pleasure
E) Following rules
  • 64. Virtue ethics emphasizes cultivating virtues like:
A) Courage, honesty, compassion
B) Management abilities
C) Marketing expertise
D) Financial acumen
E) Technical skills
  • 65. A professional code of conduct is a set of:
A) Marketing strategies
B) Guidelines and principles governing professional behavior
C) Financial requirements
D) Legal contracts
E) Technical specifications
  • 66. Professional codes of conduct ensure:
A) Low costs
B) Fast delivery
C) Maximum profits
D) Technical excellence
E) Ethical practices, integrity, and accountability
  • 67. Professional codes help establish:
A) Trust with clients, colleagues, and the public
B) Better marketing
C) Faster development
D) Lower costs
E) Technical superiority
  • 68. The primary purpose of professional codes is to:
A) Reduce risks
B) Minimize time
C) Maximize profits
D) Guide decision making in challenging situations
E) Achieve perfection
  • 69. Professional codes ensure:
A) Fewer challenges
B) More profits
C) No mistakes
D) Accountability for actions
E) Guaranteed success
  • 70. Professional codes promote trust and respect by:
A) Minimizing competition
B) Building credibility
C) Ensuring superiority
D) Limiting innovation
E) Guaranteeing profits
  • 71. Professional codes help organizations avoid:
A) Resource issues
B) Timeline delays
C) Legal issues and reputation damage
D) Technical problems
E) Budget overruns
  • 72. Integrity and honesty in codes means:
A) Achieving goals
B) Following procedures
C) Truthful and transparent dealings
D) Meeting deadlines
E) Maximizing profits
  • 73. Confidentiality requires:
A) Sharing information
B) Disclosing secrets
C) Respecting privacy and safeguarding information
D) Ignoring privacy
E) Publicizing details
  • 74. Fairness and equality means treating individuals:
A) Based on performance
B) Depending on wealth
C) With respect without bias
D) Based on education
E) According to position
  • 75. Compliance with laws requires adherence to:
A) Team decisions
B) Industry norms
C) Company policies only
D) Legal and regulatory requirements
E) Personal preferences
  • 76. Accountability means taking responsibility for:
A) Company failures
B) Others' mistakes
C) Market conditions
D) Actions and outcomes
E) External factors
  • 77. Professional competence requires:
A) Continuous learning and development
B) Technical shortcuts
C) Quick solutions
D) Minimal effort
E) Maximum profits
  • 78. Obligations to clients include:
A) Low prices
B) Fast delivery
C) Technical perfection
D) Maximum discounts
E) Honest and competent services
  • 79. Maintaining confidentiality protects:
A) Limited aspects
B) Personal information
C) Client interests
D) Company secrets
E) All data
  • 80. Obligations to employers include being:
A) Sales driven
B) Financially focused
C) Marketing oriented
D) Punctual, reliable, dedicated
E) Technically skilled
  • 81. Contributing to workplace culture means:
A) Minimizing collaboration
B) Focusing on competition
C) Avoiding teamwork
D) Supporting ethical practices
E) Maximizing performance
  • 82. Obligations to colleagues include:
A) Superiority
B) Achievement
C) Financial success
D) Collaboration and respect
E) Competition
  • 83. Avoiding conflicts of interest means:
A) Focusing on self
B) Supporting ethical practices
C) Maximizing gain
D) Ignoring needs
E) Limiting cooperation
  • 84. Obligations to society require:
A) Reducing costs
B) Meeting deadlines
C) Benefiting society and community
D) Achieving goals
E) Maximizing profits
  • 85. Violating codes can lead to:
A) Career advancement
B) Increased trust
C) Financial gains
D) Technical improvements
E) Legal ramifications
  • 86. Damage to reputation results in:
A) Technical expertise
B) Financial success
C) Professional advancement
D) Loss of trust
E) Increased credibility
  • 87. Disciplinary action may include:
A) Additional duties
B) Promotions
C) Suspension or termination
D) Salary increases
E) Bonuses
  • 88. Internal issues from violations include:
A) Decreased morale
B) Enhanced creativity
C) Increased motivation
D) Improved collaboration
E) Better performance
  • 89. IT/CS professionals design systems affecting:
A) Privacy, security, safety, economic outcomes
B) Technical performance
C) User convenience
D) Financial results
E) Organizational goals
  • 90. Ethical failures in IT/CS can lead to:
A) Data breaches, financial loss, public harm
B) Better experience
C) Technical improvements
D) Increased efficiency
E) Enhanced security
  • 91. ACM code focuses on:
A) Technical perfection
B) Avoiding harm, honesty, fairness, privacy
C) Low costs
D) Maximum profits
E) Fast delivery
  • 92. IEEE code emphasizes:
A) Market dominance
B) Public safety, honest claims, accountability
C) Technical superiority
D) Competitive advantage
E) Financial success
  • 93. Core ethical themes across roles include:
A) Financial management
B) Quality assurance
C) Technical skills
D) Public welfare, honesty, transparency, accountability
E) Project delivery
  • 94. Ethical risks in IT/CS roles include:
A) Management pressure, deadlines, incentives
B) Communication issues
C) Resource limitations
D) Team conflicts
E) Technical challenges
  • 95. Software developers have primary responsibility to:
A) Reduce costs
B) Minimize time
C) Design secure systems, conduct testing
D) Maximize profits
E) Increase complexity
  • 96. Network administrators must:
A) Apply patches, protect logs, avoid abuse
B) Maximize speed
C) Minimize bandwidth
D) Ignore monitoring
E) Reduce measures
  • 97. Data analysts ensure:
A) Accuracy, avoid bias, protect information
B) Unlimited access
C) Fast processing
D) Low storage
E) Maximum collection
  • 98. Computer scientists maintain:
A) Gain prestige
B) Publish quickly
C) Research integrity, consider impact
D) Maximize publications
E) Secure funding
  • 99. Systems architects anticipate:
A) Reduce complexity
B) Minimize costs
C) Maximize performance
D) Ignore scalability
E) Failure modes, embed security
  • 100. Database specialists protect:
A) Sensitive information, enforce control
B) Maximize performance
C) Reduce backups
D) Minimize storage
E) Increase access
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