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SOCPRO REVIEWER PRELIM: QUESTIONABLY REFINED EDITION ¯\_(ツ)_/¯
Contributed by: Fernandez
  • 1. The trolley problem is a classic example used to illustrate which ethical theory?
A) Relativism
B) Virtue Ethics
C) Egoism
D) Deontology
E) Utilitarianism
  • 2. Ano ang tingin mo, papasa ka ba sa exam na ito tungkol sa software ethics?
A) Ayoko pang isipin.
B) Siguro, depende sa swerte.
C) Hindi, kinakabahan ako.
D) Oo, sigurado ako!
E) Baka, kung mag-aaral pa ako.
  • 3. What does 'PLUS' stand for in the ethical decision-making model?
A) Principles, Laws, Unity, Systems
B) Planning, Logic, Understanding, Solutions
C) Policies, Legal, Universal, Self
D) People, Logic, Understanding, Standards
E) Performance, Leadership, Unity, Success
  • 4. What does the 'P' in PLUS stand for?
A) People
B) Procedures
C) Performance
D) Policies
E) Principles
  • 5. What does the 'L' in PLUS evaluate whether an action is?
A) Limited
B) Logical
C) Legitimate
D) Legal
E) Lucrative
  • 6. What does the 'U' in PLUS ask if an action would be acceptable if?
A) Management agreed
B) Everyone did it
C) It was temporary
D) It became profitable
E) Only experts approved
  • 7. What does the 'S' in PLUS involve?
A) Personal integrity and accountability
B) Software standards
C) Security protocols
D) Stakeholder interests
E) System requirements
  • 8. What does stakeholder analysis examine?
A) Who is affected and how
B) Just technical requirements
C) Exclusively legal aspects
D) Limited to management
E) Only financial impacts
  • 9. What does stakeholder analysis focus on?
A) Technical rather than social
B) Financial rather than ethical
C) Intent rather than impact
D) Short-term rather than long-term
E) Impact rather than intent
  • 10. Who are typical stakeholders in software projects?
A) Just investors
B) End users, developers, clients, and society
C) Limited to regulators
D) Exclusively competitors
E) Only management
  • 11. What is the process of stakeholder analysis?
A) Identify stakeholders, assess benefits/risks, evaluate fairness
B) Limited to profit calculation
C) Just budget analysis
D) Only technical evaluation
E) Exclusively timeline planning
  • 12. What occurs when two or more ethical principles conflict?
A) Requirements change
B) Budget constraints exist
C) Technical problems arise
D) Deadlines are missed
E) A moral dilemma
  • 13. What are common causes of moral dilemmas?
A) Time pressure, budget constraints, management demands
B) Proper planning
C) Clear guidelines
D) Technical limitations
E) Resource abundance
  • 14. What should be evaluated first when considering software release with known bugs?
A) Last
B) The severity of the bug
C) Based on cost
D) Only if profitable
E) After management approval
  • 15. What must critical bugs affecting safety or security be?
A) May be acceptable with warnings
B) Can be fixed later
C) Must not be ignored
D) Can always be patched
E) Should be documented only
  • 16. What are common shortcuts in development?
A) Skipping testing, ignoring documentation, copying unlicensed code
B) Code reviews
C) Proper planning
D) Following standards
E) Version control
  • 17. What do legal requirements focus on?
A) What maximizes profits
B) What the law allows or prohibits
C) What meets deadlines
D) What is technically efficient
E) What follows standards
  • 18. What do ethical considerations focus on?
A) What maximizes profits
B) What meets deadlines
C) What is morally right or responsible
D) What is technically efficient
E) What the law allows or prohibits
  • 19. What can be legal and technically correct but ethically questionable?
A) Just technical performance
B) Only financial aspects
C) A system
D) Everything
E) Nothing
  • 20. What helps avoid decisions based on personal bias, authority pressure, and convenience?
A) Team preferences
B) Technical requirements
C) Industry trends
D) Budget constraints
E) Ethical decision frameworks
  • 21. What are common ethical decision frameworks?
A) Only PLUS Model
B) Limited to PLUS Model
C) Exclusively Professional codes
D) PLUS Model, Stakeholder Analysis, Professional codes
E) Just Stakeholder Analysis
  • 22. How is ethics described as a professional skill?
A) Abstract and optional
B) Not abstract, not optional, not separate from technical work
C) Separate from technical work
D) Only for large projects
E) Limited to experts
  • 23. What is ethics defined as?
A) Economic decision-making
B) Social relationships
C) Technical problem-solving
D) A branch of philosophy dealing with morality, right and wrong
E) Legal compliance
  • 24. What is technology described as?
A) Mathematical concepts
B) Natural phenomena
C) Tools, systems, and devices created by humans to solve problems
D) Cultural traditions
E) Scientific theories
  • 25. What has technology become embedded in?
A) Limited areas
B) Just business applications
C) Only scientific fields
D) Exclusively entertainment
E) Every aspect of daily life
  • 26. Why does technology create new ethical challenges?
A) Only affects experts
B) Eliminates moral issues
C) Focuses solely on efficiency
D) It remains static
E) It evolves rapidly and affects privacy, security, equality
  • 27. What can unethical technological practices lead to?
A) Discrimination, loss of privacy, job displacement
B) Enhanced security
C) Better privacy
D) Improved equality
E) Job creation
  • 28. What are examples of potential consequences of unethical technology?
A) Data breaches, AI bias, autonomous weapons, digital addiction
B) Technical achievements
C) Economic gains
D) Social improvements
E) Benefits of technology
  • 29. What do privacy and data security concerns focus on?
A) Only data storage
B) Limited to data display
C) Just data transmission
D) Who owns data and how it's protected
E) Exclusively data processing
  • 30. What do AI and automation raise ethical issues about?
A) Job impact and decision fairness
B) Only technical efficiency
C) Exclusively speed improvement
D) Limited to user experience
E) Just cost reduction
  • 31. What does the digital divide refer to?
A) Unequal access to technology
B) Software version changes
C) Technology quality differences
D) Internet speed variations
E) Device type diversity
  • 32. What do social media raise ethical concerns about?
A) Just advertising
B) Content moderation and misinformation spread
C) Exclusively platform design
D) Only user engagement
E) Limited to user interface
  • 33. In what can AI bias disadvantage minority groups?
A) Just speech processing
B) Predictive policing and hiring algorithms
C) Limited to data storage
D) Exclusively image analysis
E) Only facial recognition
  • 34. What did the Cambridge Analytica scandal highlight issues with?
A) Only social connections
B) Just advertising
C) Data collection and privacy rights
D) Limited to content sharing
E) Exclusively user engagement
  • 35. What is crucial in AI development?
A) Hardware manufacturing
B) Network infrastructure
C) Ensuring fairness, transparency, and accountability
D) Software testing
E) Database design
  • 36. What does utilitarianism in technology aim to?
A) Follow strict rules
B) Consider only individuals
C) Maximize positive outcomes
D) Focus on traditions
E) Develop character
  • 37. What does deontological ethics emphasize?
A) Character development
B) Duty and moral rules
C) Relationship building
D) Outcome maximization
E) Personal happiness
  • 38. What does virtue ethics promote?
A) Profit optimization
B) Honesty and integrity
C) Speed of delivery
D) Cost reduction
E) Technical efficiency
  • 39. What does care ethics consider the impact on?
A) System performance
B) Financial returns
C) Development timelines
D) Technical specifications
E) Marginalized communities
  • 40. When must technologists be aware of ethical implications?
A) Only after deployment
B) While creating technologies
C) Never during development
D) Just during testing
E) Exclusively in planning
  • 41. What do the decisions made during technology development shape?
A) Only current users
B) Costs
C) Innovation
D) Future society
E) Technical progress
  • 42. What do Google's AI Principles guide?
A) Software sales
B) Responsible AI development
C) Network security
D) Database management
E) Hardware production
  • 43. Utilitarianism is classified as a:
A) Culture-based theory
B) Non-consequentialist theory
C) Character-based theory
D) Situation-based theory
E) Consequentialist theory
  • 44. Utilitarianism suggests actions are right if they promote:
A) Developing virtuous character
B) Respecting individual rights
C) The greatest happiness for the greatest number
D) Following moral rules
E) Maximizing personal gain
  • 45. Jeremy Bentham and John Stuart Mill are associated with:
A) Virtue Ethics
B) Relativism
C) Social Contract Theory
D) Deontology
E) Utilitarianism
  • 46. Utilitarianism focuses on the:
A) Intentions and motivations
B) Social norms
C) Character and virtues
D) Outcomes or consequences of actions
E) Rules and duties
  • 47. The greatest happiness principle states actions are morally right if they result in:
A) Following universal rules
B) Maximizing personal gain
C) Respecting individual rights
D) The most happiness for the most people
E) Developing virtuous character
  • 48. Hedonism in utilitarianism refers to the pursuit of:
A) Power and influence
B) Knowledge and wisdom
C) Fame and recognition
D) Pleasure and avoidance of pain
E) Wealth and status
  • 49. According to utilitarianism, everyone's happiness:
A) Depends on social status
B) Changes with age
C) Varies by wealth
D) Differs by gender
E) Counts equally
  • 50. The trolley problem illustrates:
A) Cultural relativism
B) Utilitarian decision-making
C) Virtue ethics
D) Deontological principles
E) Social contract theory
  • 51. In the trolley problem, utilitarianism recommends:
A) Leaving it to fate
B) Not pulling to avoid responsibility
C) Pulling the lever to save more lives
D) Finding another solution
E) Consulting others
  • 52. Utilitarianism can justify actions that maximize happiness but:
A) Follow moral rules
B) Ignore individual rights
C) Develop character
D) Consider relationships
E) Respect traditions
  • 53. Utilitarianism is difficult to apply because of challenges in:
A) Maintaining impartiality
B) Following clear rules
C) Predicting and measuring outcomes
D) Respecting traditions
E) Developing character
  • 54. Deontology is founded by:
A) Immanuel Kant
B) John Stuart Mill
C) Aristotle
D) Jeremy Bentham
E) Plato
  • 55. Deontology argues actions are morally right if they follow a:
A) Outcome-based calculation
B) Relationship building
C) Cultural norms
D) Set of rules regardless of consequences
E) Character development
  • 56. The categorical imperative requires acting according to maxims that can be:
A) Maximized for happiness
B) Accepted by society
C) Developed through practice
D) Universalized without contradiction
E) Approved by authorities
  • 57. In deontology, treating others as ends in themselves means:
A) Respecting their dignity and autonomy
B) Ignoring their needs
C) Controlling their actions
D) Using them for personal benefit
E) Exploiting their weaknesses
  • 58. Deontology emphasizes that moral actions are obligatory if they fulfill a:
A) Moral duty
B) Cultural norm
C) Social expectation
D) Personal desire
E) Economic benefit
  • 59. Deontology creates conflicts when duties:
A) Follow traditions
B) Contradict each other
C) Serve society
D) Develop character
E) Maximize happiness
  • 60. Virtue ethics focuses on the:
A) Outcomes of actions
B) Social contracts
C) Cultural traditions
D) Character and virtues of the individual
E) Following moral rules
  • 61. Virtue ethics was developed primarily by:
A) Plato
B) Jeremy Bentham
C) Immanuel Kant
D) John Stuart Mill
E) Aristotle
  • 62. The mean in virtue ethics refers to:
A) Personal gain
B) Balance between deficiency and excess
C) Social approval
D) Maximum happiness
E) Strict rule following
  • 63. Eudaimonia in virtue ethics refers to:
A) Gaining power
B) Avoiding pain
C) Flourishing or human happiness
D) Maximizing pleasure
E) Following rules
  • 64. Virtue ethics emphasizes cultivating virtues like:
A) Financial acumen
B) Courage, honesty, compassion
C) Technical skills
D) Marketing expertise
E) Management abilities
  • 65. A professional code of conduct is a set of:
A) Marketing strategies
B) Guidelines and principles governing professional behavior
C) Technical specifications
D) Legal contracts
E) Financial requirements
  • 66. Professional codes of conduct ensure:
A) Technical excellence
B) Ethical practices, integrity, and accountability
C) Fast delivery
D) Maximum profits
E) Low costs
  • 67. Professional codes help establish:
A) Better marketing
B) Trust with clients, colleagues, and the public
C) Lower costs
D) Faster development
E) Technical superiority
  • 68. The primary purpose of professional codes is to:
A) Reduce risks
B) Maximize profits
C) Minimize time
D) Guide decision making in challenging situations
E) Achieve perfection
  • 69. Professional codes ensure:
A) Guaranteed success
B) More profits
C) Accountability for actions
D) Fewer challenges
E) No mistakes
  • 70. Professional codes promote trust and respect by:
A) Ensuring superiority
B) Limiting innovation
C) Building credibility
D) Guaranteeing profits
E) Minimizing competition
  • 71. Professional codes help organizations avoid:
A) Resource issues
B) Timeline delays
C) Technical problems
D) Legal issues and reputation damage
E) Budget overruns
  • 72. Integrity and honesty in codes means:
A) Truthful and transparent dealings
B) Maximizing profits
C) Meeting deadlines
D) Achieving goals
E) Following procedures
  • 73. Confidentiality requires:
A) Ignoring privacy
B) Publicizing details
C) Respecting privacy and safeguarding information
D) Sharing information
E) Disclosing secrets
  • 74. Fairness and equality means treating individuals:
A) Based on performance
B) Based on education
C) According to position
D) Depending on wealth
E) With respect without bias
  • 75. Compliance with laws requires adherence to:
A) Industry norms
B) Company policies only
C) Team decisions
D) Personal preferences
E) Legal and regulatory requirements
  • 76. Accountability means taking responsibility for:
A) External factors
B) Company failures
C) Market conditions
D) Others' mistakes
E) Actions and outcomes
  • 77. Professional competence requires:
A) Technical shortcuts
B) Quick solutions
C) Minimal effort
D) Maximum profits
E) Continuous learning and development
  • 78. Obligations to clients include:
A) Honest and competent services
B) Low prices
C) Maximum discounts
D) Technical perfection
E) Fast delivery
  • 79. Maintaining confidentiality protects:
A) Limited aspects
B) Company secrets
C) Client interests
D) Personal information
E) All data
  • 80. Obligations to employers include being:
A) Punctual, reliable, dedicated
B) Sales driven
C) Financially focused
D) Technically skilled
E) Marketing oriented
  • 81. Contributing to workplace culture means:
A) Supporting ethical practices
B) Avoiding teamwork
C) Focusing on competition
D) Minimizing collaboration
E) Maximizing performance
  • 82. Obligations to colleagues include:
A) Superiority
B) Competition
C) Achievement
D) Collaboration and respect
E) Financial success
  • 83. Avoiding conflicts of interest means:
A) Maximizing gain
B) Focusing on self
C) Ignoring needs
D) Supporting ethical practices
E) Limiting cooperation
  • 84. Obligations to society require:
A) Meeting deadlines
B) Reducing costs
C) Achieving goals
D) Benefiting society and community
E) Maximizing profits
  • 85. Violating codes can lead to:
A) Career advancement
B) Increased trust
C) Technical improvements
D) Financial gains
E) Legal ramifications
  • 86. Damage to reputation results in:
A) Loss of trust
B) Professional advancement
C) Technical expertise
D) Financial success
E) Increased credibility
  • 87. Disciplinary action may include:
A) Suspension or termination
B) Promotions
C) Additional duties
D) Bonuses
E) Salary increases
  • 88. Internal issues from violations include:
A) Increased motivation
B) Enhanced creativity
C) Decreased morale
D) Improved collaboration
E) Better performance
  • 89. IT/CS professionals design systems affecting:
A) Organizational goals
B) User convenience
C) Financial results
D) Technical performance
E) Privacy, security, safety, economic outcomes
  • 90. Ethical failures in IT/CS can lead to:
A) Increased efficiency
B) Data breaches, financial loss, public harm
C) Enhanced security
D) Better experience
E) Technical improvements
  • 91. ACM code focuses on:
A) Fast delivery
B) Low costs
C) Technical perfection
D) Avoiding harm, honesty, fairness, privacy
E) Maximum profits
  • 92. IEEE code emphasizes:
A) Public safety, honest claims, accountability
B) Financial success
C) Market dominance
D) Technical superiority
E) Competitive advantage
  • 93. Core ethical themes across roles include:
A) Technical skills
B) Quality assurance
C) Public welfare, honesty, transparency, accountability
D) Financial management
E) Project delivery
  • 94. Ethical risks in IT/CS roles include:
A) Communication issues
B) Technical challenges
C) Management pressure, deadlines, incentives
D) Resource limitations
E) Team conflicts
  • 95. Software developers have primary responsibility to:
A) Maximize profits
B) Increase complexity
C) Design secure systems, conduct testing
D) Reduce costs
E) Minimize time
  • 96. Network administrators must:
A) Minimize bandwidth
B) Apply patches, protect logs, avoid abuse
C) Ignore monitoring
D) Maximize speed
E) Reduce measures
  • 97. Data analysts ensure:
A) Fast processing
B) Accuracy, avoid bias, protect information
C) Low storage
D) Unlimited access
E) Maximum collection
  • 98. Computer scientists maintain:
A) Research integrity, consider impact
B) Maximize publications
C) Publish quickly
D) Gain prestige
E) Secure funding
  • 99. Systems architects anticipate:
A) Minimize costs
B) Failure modes, embed security
C) Ignore scalability
D) Reduce complexity
E) Maximize performance
  • 100. Database specialists protect:
A) Maximize performance
B) Minimize storage
C) Reduce backups
D) Increase access
E) Sensitive information, enforce control
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