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SOCPRO REVIEWER PRELIM: QUESTIONABLY REFINED EDITION ¯\_(ツ)_/¯ - Quiz
Contributed by: Fernandez
  • 1. The trolley problem is a classic example used to illustrate which ethical theory?
A) Virtue Ethics
B) Relativism
C) Deontology
D) Utilitarianism
E) Egoism
  • 2. Ano ang tingin mo, papasa ka ba sa exam na ito tungkol sa software ethics?
A) Ayoko pang isipin.
B) Siguro, depende sa swerte.
C) Baka, kung mag-aaral pa ako.
D) Hindi, kinakabahan ako.
E) Oo, sigurado ako!
  • 3. What does 'PLUS' stand for in the ethical decision-making model?
A) People, Logic, Understanding, Standards
B) Policies, Legal, Universal, Self
C) Planning, Logic, Understanding, Solutions
D) Performance, Leadership, Unity, Success
E) Principles, Laws, Unity, Systems
  • 4. What does the 'P' in PLUS stand for?
A) Procedures
B) Performance
C) Policies
D) People
E) Principles
  • 5. What does the 'L' in PLUS evaluate whether an action is?
A) Legal
B) Legitimate
C) Lucrative
D) Limited
E) Logical
  • 6. What does the 'U' in PLUS ask if an action would be acceptable if?
A) Only experts approved
B) It was temporary
C) Management agreed
D) It became profitable
E) Everyone did it
  • 7. What does the 'S' in PLUS involve?
A) Software standards
B) Stakeholder interests
C) System requirements
D) Security protocols
E) Personal integrity and accountability
  • 8. What does stakeholder analysis examine?
A) Who is affected and how
B) Just technical requirements
C) Only financial impacts
D) Exclusively legal aspects
E) Limited to management
  • 9. What does stakeholder analysis focus on?
A) Financial rather than ethical
B) Technical rather than social
C) Impact rather than intent
D) Intent rather than impact
E) Short-term rather than long-term
  • 10. Who are typical stakeholders in software projects?
A) Exclusively competitors
B) Only management
C) Limited to regulators
D) End users, developers, clients, and society
E) Just investors
  • 11. What is the process of stakeholder analysis?
A) Exclusively timeline planning
B) Just budget analysis
C) Identify stakeholders, assess benefits/risks, evaluate fairness
D) Only technical evaluation
E) Limited to profit calculation
  • 12. What occurs when two or more ethical principles conflict?
A) Technical problems arise
B) Budget constraints exist
C) A moral dilemma
D) Requirements change
E) Deadlines are missed
  • 13. What are common causes of moral dilemmas?
A) Time pressure, budget constraints, management demands
B) Proper planning
C) Technical limitations
D) Clear guidelines
E) Resource abundance
  • 14. What should be evaluated first when considering software release with known bugs?
A) Based on cost
B) After management approval
C) The severity of the bug
D) Last
E) Only if profitable
  • 15. What must critical bugs affecting safety or security be?
A) Must not be ignored
B) May be acceptable with warnings
C) Can be fixed later
D) Should be documented only
E) Can always be patched
  • 16. What are common shortcuts in development?
A) Proper planning
B) Code reviews
C) Skipping testing, ignoring documentation, copying unlicensed code
D) Following standards
E) Version control
  • 17. What do legal requirements focus on?
A) What follows standards
B) What is technically efficient
C) What meets deadlines
D) What the law allows or prohibits
E) What maximizes profits
  • 18. What do ethical considerations focus on?
A) What is technically efficient
B) What is morally right or responsible
C) What meets deadlines
D) What maximizes profits
E) What the law allows or prohibits
  • 19. What can be legal and technically correct but ethically questionable?
A) Only financial aspects
B) Nothing
C) Everything
D) Just technical performance
E) A system
  • 20. What helps avoid decisions based on personal bias, authority pressure, and convenience?
A) Technical requirements
B) Ethical decision frameworks
C) Budget constraints
D) Team preferences
E) Industry trends
  • 21. What are common ethical decision frameworks?
A) PLUS Model, Stakeholder Analysis, Professional codes
B) Just Stakeholder Analysis
C) Only PLUS Model
D) Limited to PLUS Model
E) Exclusively Professional codes
  • 22. How is ethics described as a professional skill?
A) Abstract and optional
B) Not abstract, not optional, not separate from technical work
C) Separate from technical work
D) Limited to experts
E) Only for large projects
  • 23. What is ethics defined as?
A) Technical problem-solving
B) Social relationships
C) Economic decision-making
D) Legal compliance
E) A branch of philosophy dealing with morality, right and wrong
  • 24. What is technology described as?
A) Mathematical concepts
B) Cultural traditions
C) Natural phenomena
D) Tools, systems, and devices created by humans to solve problems
E) Scientific theories
  • 25. What has technology become embedded in?
A) Just business applications
B) Only scientific fields
C) Exclusively entertainment
D) Every aspect of daily life
E) Limited areas
  • 26. Why does technology create new ethical challenges?
A) It remains static
B) Eliminates moral issues
C) It evolves rapidly and affects privacy, security, equality
D) Only affects experts
E) Focuses solely on efficiency
  • 27. What can unethical technological practices lead to?
A) Discrimination, loss of privacy, job displacement
B) Improved equality
C) Job creation
D) Better privacy
E) Enhanced security
  • 28. What are examples of potential consequences of unethical technology?
A) Technical achievements
B) Benefits of technology
C) Economic gains
D) Data breaches, AI bias, autonomous weapons, digital addiction
E) Social improvements
  • 29. What do privacy and data security concerns focus on?
A) Only data storage
B) Who owns data and how it's protected
C) Just data transmission
D) Limited to data display
E) Exclusively data processing
  • 30. What do AI and automation raise ethical issues about?
A) Job impact and decision fairness
B) Exclusively speed improvement
C) Only technical efficiency
D) Just cost reduction
E) Limited to user experience
  • 31. What does the digital divide refer to?
A) Technology quality differences
B) Device type diversity
C) Unequal access to technology
D) Internet speed variations
E) Software version changes
  • 32. What do social media raise ethical concerns about?
A) Limited to user interface
B) Exclusively platform design
C) Just advertising
D) Only user engagement
E) Content moderation and misinformation spread
  • 33. In what can AI bias disadvantage minority groups?
A) Limited to data storage
B) Only facial recognition
C) Predictive policing and hiring algorithms
D) Just speech processing
E) Exclusively image analysis
  • 34. What did the Cambridge Analytica scandal highlight issues with?
A) Data collection and privacy rights
B) Limited to content sharing
C) Just advertising
D) Exclusively user engagement
E) Only social connections
  • 35. What is crucial in AI development?
A) Database design
B) Network infrastructure
C) Hardware manufacturing
D) Ensuring fairness, transparency, and accountability
E) Software testing
  • 36. What does utilitarianism in technology aim to?
A) Follow strict rules
B) Develop character
C) Consider only individuals
D) Maximize positive outcomes
E) Focus on traditions
  • 37. What does deontological ethics emphasize?
A) Character development
B) Relationship building
C) Outcome maximization
D) Personal happiness
E) Duty and moral rules
  • 38. What does virtue ethics promote?
A) Cost reduction
B) Technical efficiency
C) Honesty and integrity
D) Profit optimization
E) Speed of delivery
  • 39. What does care ethics consider the impact on?
A) Development timelines
B) Technical specifications
C) System performance
D) Marginalized communities
E) Financial returns
  • 40. When must technologists be aware of ethical implications?
A) Just during testing
B) Never during development
C) Exclusively in planning
D) Only after deployment
E) While creating technologies
  • 41. What do the decisions made during technology development shape?
A) Innovation
B) Only current users
C) Future society
D) Technical progress
E) Costs
  • 42. What do Google's AI Principles guide?
A) Responsible AI development
B) Software sales
C) Hardware production
D) Network security
E) Database management
  • 43. Utilitarianism is classified as a:
A) Character-based theory
B) Culture-based theory
C) Situation-based theory
D) Consequentialist theory
E) Non-consequentialist theory
  • 44. Utilitarianism suggests actions are right if they promote:
A) Respecting individual rights
B) Maximizing personal gain
C) Developing virtuous character
D) The greatest happiness for the greatest number
E) Following moral rules
  • 45. Jeremy Bentham and John Stuart Mill are associated with:
A) Deontology
B) Utilitarianism
C) Relativism
D) Virtue Ethics
E) Social Contract Theory
  • 46. Utilitarianism focuses on the:
A) Rules and duties
B) Outcomes or consequences of actions
C) Character and virtues
D) Social norms
E) Intentions and motivations
  • 47. The greatest happiness principle states actions are morally right if they result in:
A) Maximizing personal gain
B) Respecting individual rights
C) Developing virtuous character
D) The most happiness for the most people
E) Following universal rules
  • 48. Hedonism in utilitarianism refers to the pursuit of:
A) Knowledge and wisdom
B) Wealth and status
C) Power and influence
D) Pleasure and avoidance of pain
E) Fame and recognition
  • 49. According to utilitarianism, everyone's happiness:
A) Changes with age
B) Counts equally
C) Differs by gender
D) Varies by wealth
E) Depends on social status
  • 50. The trolley problem illustrates:
A) Cultural relativism
B) Virtue ethics
C) Social contract theory
D) Deontological principles
E) Utilitarian decision-making
  • 51. In the trolley problem, utilitarianism recommends:
A) Finding another solution
B) Leaving it to fate
C) Not pulling to avoid responsibility
D) Pulling the lever to save more lives
E) Consulting others
  • 52. Utilitarianism can justify actions that maximize happiness but:
A) Ignore individual rights
B) Respect traditions
C) Develop character
D) Consider relationships
E) Follow moral rules
  • 53. Utilitarianism is difficult to apply because of challenges in:
A) Maintaining impartiality
B) Developing character
C) Following clear rules
D) Predicting and measuring outcomes
E) Respecting traditions
  • 54. Deontology is founded by:
A) Aristotle
B) Immanuel Kant
C) Plato
D) John Stuart Mill
E) Jeremy Bentham
  • 55. Deontology argues actions are morally right if they follow a:
A) Set of rules regardless of consequences
B) Character development
C) Outcome-based calculation
D) Relationship building
E) Cultural norms
  • 56. The categorical imperative requires acting according to maxims that can be:
A) Approved by authorities
B) Accepted by society
C) Maximized for happiness
D) Universalized without contradiction
E) Developed through practice
  • 57. In deontology, treating others as ends in themselves means:
A) Using them for personal benefit
B) Exploiting their weaknesses
C) Controlling their actions
D) Respecting their dignity and autonomy
E) Ignoring their needs
  • 58. Deontology emphasizes that moral actions are obligatory if they fulfill a:
A) Moral duty
B) Cultural norm
C) Personal desire
D) Social expectation
E) Economic benefit
  • 59. Deontology creates conflicts when duties:
A) Maximize happiness
B) Develop character
C) Contradict each other
D) Serve society
E) Follow traditions
  • 60. Virtue ethics focuses on the:
A) Cultural traditions
B) Social contracts
C) Character and virtues of the individual
D) Outcomes of actions
E) Following moral rules
  • 61. Virtue ethics was developed primarily by:
A) John Stuart Mill
B) Plato
C) Immanuel Kant
D) Aristotle
E) Jeremy Bentham
  • 62. The mean in virtue ethics refers to:
A) Strict rule following
B) Personal gain
C) Social approval
D) Balance between deficiency and excess
E) Maximum happiness
  • 63. Eudaimonia in virtue ethics refers to:
A) Following rules
B) Maximizing pleasure
C) Gaining power
D) Flourishing or human happiness
E) Avoiding pain
  • 64. Virtue ethics emphasizes cultivating virtues like:
A) Management abilities
B) Courage, honesty, compassion
C) Technical skills
D) Financial acumen
E) Marketing expertise
  • 65. A professional code of conduct is a set of:
A) Marketing strategies
B) Technical specifications
C) Financial requirements
D) Legal contracts
E) Guidelines and principles governing professional behavior
  • 66. Professional codes of conduct ensure:
A) Fast delivery
B) Technical excellence
C) Maximum profits
D) Ethical practices, integrity, and accountability
E) Low costs
  • 67. Professional codes help establish:
A) Better marketing
B) Technical superiority
C) Lower costs
D) Trust with clients, colleagues, and the public
E) Faster development
  • 68. The primary purpose of professional codes is to:
A) Guide decision making in challenging situations
B) Minimize time
C) Achieve perfection
D) Maximize profits
E) Reduce risks
  • 69. Professional codes ensure:
A) More profits
B) No mistakes
C) Accountability for actions
D) Fewer challenges
E) Guaranteed success
  • 70. Professional codes promote trust and respect by:
A) Limiting innovation
B) Ensuring superiority
C) Minimizing competition
D) Building credibility
E) Guaranteeing profits
  • 71. Professional codes help organizations avoid:
A) Timeline delays
B) Budget overruns
C) Legal issues and reputation damage
D) Technical problems
E) Resource issues
  • 72. Integrity and honesty in codes means:
A) Meeting deadlines
B) Truthful and transparent dealings
C) Maximizing profits
D) Achieving goals
E) Following procedures
  • 73. Confidentiality requires:
A) Publicizing details
B) Disclosing secrets
C) Ignoring privacy
D) Respecting privacy and safeguarding information
E) Sharing information
  • 74. Fairness and equality means treating individuals:
A) Based on education
B) Depending on wealth
C) With respect without bias
D) Based on performance
E) According to position
  • 75. Compliance with laws requires adherence to:
A) Legal and regulatory requirements
B) Team decisions
C) Company policies only
D) Industry norms
E) Personal preferences
  • 76. Accountability means taking responsibility for:
A) Actions and outcomes
B) Company failures
C) Market conditions
D) External factors
E) Others' mistakes
  • 77. Professional competence requires:
A) Maximum profits
B) Minimal effort
C) Technical shortcuts
D) Continuous learning and development
E) Quick solutions
  • 78. Obligations to clients include:
A) Technical perfection
B) Honest and competent services
C) Fast delivery
D) Low prices
E) Maximum discounts
  • 79. Maintaining confidentiality protects:
A) Client interests
B) Personal information
C) All data
D) Limited aspects
E) Company secrets
  • 80. Obligations to employers include being:
A) Technically skilled
B) Marketing oriented
C) Punctual, reliable, dedicated
D) Sales driven
E) Financially focused
  • 81. Contributing to workplace culture means:
A) Focusing on competition
B) Avoiding teamwork
C) Supporting ethical practices
D) Maximizing performance
E) Minimizing collaboration
  • 82. Obligations to colleagues include:
A) Achievement
B) Competition
C) Superiority
D) Collaboration and respect
E) Financial success
  • 83. Avoiding conflicts of interest means:
A) Ignoring needs
B) Limiting cooperation
C) Maximizing gain
D) Supporting ethical practices
E) Focusing on self
  • 84. Obligations to society require:
A) Maximizing profits
B) Meeting deadlines
C) Reducing costs
D) Benefiting society and community
E) Achieving goals
  • 85. Violating codes can lead to:
A) Financial gains
B) Career advancement
C) Legal ramifications
D) Technical improvements
E) Increased trust
  • 86. Damage to reputation results in:
A) Professional advancement
B) Financial success
C) Increased credibility
D) Loss of trust
E) Technical expertise
  • 87. Disciplinary action may include:
A) Suspension or termination
B) Salary increases
C) Bonuses
D) Promotions
E) Additional duties
  • 88. Internal issues from violations include:
A) Better performance
B) Enhanced creativity
C) Improved collaboration
D) Increased motivation
E) Decreased morale
  • 89. IT/CS professionals design systems affecting:
A) Privacy, security, safety, economic outcomes
B) Technical performance
C) Financial results
D) User convenience
E) Organizational goals
  • 90. Ethical failures in IT/CS can lead to:
A) Enhanced security
B) Technical improvements
C) Better experience
D) Increased efficiency
E) Data breaches, financial loss, public harm
  • 91. ACM code focuses on:
A) Fast delivery
B) Technical perfection
C) Avoiding harm, honesty, fairness, privacy
D) Low costs
E) Maximum profits
  • 92. IEEE code emphasizes:
A) Competitive advantage
B) Public safety, honest claims, accountability
C) Technical superiority
D) Financial success
E) Market dominance
  • 93. Core ethical themes across roles include:
A) Project delivery
B) Financial management
C) Quality assurance
D) Technical skills
E) Public welfare, honesty, transparency, accountability
  • 94. Ethical risks in IT/CS roles include:
A) Technical challenges
B) Team conflicts
C) Management pressure, deadlines, incentives
D) Communication issues
E) Resource limitations
  • 95. Software developers have primary responsibility to:
A) Increase complexity
B) Reduce costs
C) Maximize profits
D) Design secure systems, conduct testing
E) Minimize time
  • 96. Network administrators must:
A) Ignore monitoring
B) Apply patches, protect logs, avoid abuse
C) Maximize speed
D) Minimize bandwidth
E) Reduce measures
  • 97. Data analysts ensure:
A) Maximum collection
B) Fast processing
C) Accuracy, avoid bias, protect information
D) Low storage
E) Unlimited access
  • 98. Computer scientists maintain:
A) Maximize publications
B) Publish quickly
C) Secure funding
D) Research integrity, consider impact
E) Gain prestige
  • 99. Systems architects anticipate:
A) Failure modes, embed security
B) Maximize performance
C) Ignore scalability
D) Minimize costs
E) Reduce complexity
  • 100. Database specialists protect:
A) Minimize storage
B) Reduce backups
C) Maximize performance
D) Increase access
E) Sensitive information, enforce control
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