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SOCPRO REVIEWER PRELIM: QUESTIONABLY REFINED EDITION ¯\_(ツ)_/¯
Contributed by: Fernandez
  • 1. The trolley problem is a classic example used to illustrate which ethical theory?
A) Relativism
B) Virtue Ethics
C) Egoism
D) Utilitarianism
E) Deontology
  • 2. Ano ang tingin mo, papasa ka ba sa exam na ito tungkol sa software ethics?
A) Oo, sigurado ako!
B) Ayoko pang isipin.
C) Siguro, depende sa swerte.
D) Hindi, kinakabahan ako.
E) Baka, kung mag-aaral pa ako.
  • 3. What does 'PLUS' stand for in the ethical decision-making model?
A) Principles, Laws, Unity, Systems
B) Performance, Leadership, Unity, Success
C) People, Logic, Understanding, Standards
D) Policies, Legal, Universal, Self
E) Planning, Logic, Understanding, Solutions
  • 4. What does the 'P' in PLUS stand for?
A) Performance
B) Principles
C) Procedures
D) Policies
E) People
  • 5. What does the 'L' in PLUS evaluate whether an action is?
A) Logical
B) Legitimate
C) Limited
D) Legal
E) Lucrative
  • 6. What does the 'U' in PLUS ask if an action would be acceptable if?
A) Management agreed
B) Everyone did it
C) Only experts approved
D) It became profitable
E) It was temporary
  • 7. What does the 'S' in PLUS involve?
A) System requirements
B) Software standards
C) Personal integrity and accountability
D) Security protocols
E) Stakeholder interests
  • 8. What does stakeholder analysis examine?
A) Just technical requirements
B) Who is affected and how
C) Only financial impacts
D) Limited to management
E) Exclusively legal aspects
  • 9. What does stakeholder analysis focus on?
A) Technical rather than social
B) Intent rather than impact
C) Financial rather than ethical
D) Short-term rather than long-term
E) Impact rather than intent
  • 10. Who are typical stakeholders in software projects?
A) Just investors
B) Limited to regulators
C) End users, developers, clients, and society
D) Exclusively competitors
E) Only management
  • 11. What is the process of stakeholder analysis?
A) Only technical evaluation
B) Just budget analysis
C) Exclusively timeline planning
D) Identify stakeholders, assess benefits/risks, evaluate fairness
E) Limited to profit calculation
  • 12. What occurs when two or more ethical principles conflict?
A) Requirements change
B) Budget constraints exist
C) Deadlines are missed
D) A moral dilemma
E) Technical problems arise
  • 13. What are common causes of moral dilemmas?
A) Clear guidelines
B) Technical limitations
C) Proper planning
D) Resource abundance
E) Time pressure, budget constraints, management demands
  • 14. What should be evaluated first when considering software release with known bugs?
A) Based on cost
B) The severity of the bug
C) Only if profitable
D) Last
E) After management approval
  • 15. What must critical bugs affecting safety or security be?
A) May be acceptable with warnings
B) Can be fixed later
C) Must not be ignored
D) Can always be patched
E) Should be documented only
  • 16. What are common shortcuts in development?
A) Version control
B) Proper planning
C) Skipping testing, ignoring documentation, copying unlicensed code
D) Code reviews
E) Following standards
  • 17. What do legal requirements focus on?
A) What is technically efficient
B) What maximizes profits
C) What follows standards
D) What the law allows or prohibits
E) What meets deadlines
  • 18. What do ethical considerations focus on?
A) What is technically efficient
B) What the law allows or prohibits
C) What meets deadlines
D) What is morally right or responsible
E) What maximizes profits
  • 19. What can be legal and technically correct but ethically questionable?
A) A system
B) Nothing
C) Only financial aspects
D) Just technical performance
E) Everything
  • 20. What helps avoid decisions based on personal bias, authority pressure, and convenience?
A) Industry trends
B) Ethical decision frameworks
C) Budget constraints
D) Technical requirements
E) Team preferences
  • 21. What are common ethical decision frameworks?
A) PLUS Model, Stakeholder Analysis, Professional codes
B) Limited to PLUS Model
C) Exclusively Professional codes
D) Only PLUS Model
E) Just Stakeholder Analysis
  • 22. How is ethics described as a professional skill?
A) Abstract and optional
B) Only for large projects
C) Separate from technical work
D) Not abstract, not optional, not separate from technical work
E) Limited to experts
  • 23. What is ethics defined as?
A) Technical problem-solving
B) Legal compliance
C) Economic decision-making
D) Social relationships
E) A branch of philosophy dealing with morality, right and wrong
  • 24. What is technology described as?
A) Mathematical concepts
B) Tools, systems, and devices created by humans to solve problems
C) Natural phenomena
D) Cultural traditions
E) Scientific theories
  • 25. What has technology become embedded in?
A) Just business applications
B) Exclusively entertainment
C) Limited areas
D) Every aspect of daily life
E) Only scientific fields
  • 26. Why does technology create new ethical challenges?
A) Focuses solely on efficiency
B) It remains static
C) Only affects experts
D) Eliminates moral issues
E) It evolves rapidly and affects privacy, security, equality
  • 27. What can unethical technological practices lead to?
A) Enhanced security
B) Discrimination, loss of privacy, job displacement
C) Better privacy
D) Job creation
E) Improved equality
  • 28. What are examples of potential consequences of unethical technology?
A) Data breaches, AI bias, autonomous weapons, digital addiction
B) Technical achievements
C) Social improvements
D) Economic gains
E) Benefits of technology
  • 29. What do privacy and data security concerns focus on?
A) Only data storage
B) Limited to data display
C) Who owns data and how it's protected
D) Just data transmission
E) Exclusively data processing
  • 30. What do AI and automation raise ethical issues about?
A) Limited to user experience
B) Only technical efficiency
C) Job impact and decision fairness
D) Exclusively speed improvement
E) Just cost reduction
  • 31. What does the digital divide refer to?
A) Internet speed variations
B) Technology quality differences
C) Software version changes
D) Device type diversity
E) Unequal access to technology
  • 32. What do social media raise ethical concerns about?
A) Exclusively platform design
B) Only user engagement
C) Just advertising
D) Content moderation and misinformation spread
E) Limited to user interface
  • 33. In what can AI bias disadvantage minority groups?
A) Limited to data storage
B) Predictive policing and hiring algorithms
C) Exclusively image analysis
D) Just speech processing
E) Only facial recognition
  • 34. What did the Cambridge Analytica scandal highlight issues with?
A) Exclusively user engagement
B) Data collection and privacy rights
C) Limited to content sharing
D) Just advertising
E) Only social connections
  • 35. What is crucial in AI development?
A) Software testing
B) Database design
C) Ensuring fairness, transparency, and accountability
D) Network infrastructure
E) Hardware manufacturing
  • 36. What does utilitarianism in technology aim to?
A) Develop character
B) Follow strict rules
C) Maximize positive outcomes
D) Focus on traditions
E) Consider only individuals
  • 37. What does deontological ethics emphasize?
A) Outcome maximization
B) Character development
C) Personal happiness
D) Duty and moral rules
E) Relationship building
  • 38. What does virtue ethics promote?
A) Honesty and integrity
B) Profit optimization
C) Speed of delivery
D) Technical efficiency
E) Cost reduction
  • 39. What does care ethics consider the impact on?
A) Marginalized communities
B) System performance
C) Development timelines
D) Financial returns
E) Technical specifications
  • 40. When must technologists be aware of ethical implications?
A) Never during development
B) Only after deployment
C) While creating technologies
D) Exclusively in planning
E) Just during testing
  • 41. What do the decisions made during technology development shape?
A) Costs
B) Innovation
C) Future society
D) Technical progress
E) Only current users
  • 42. What do Google's AI Principles guide?
A) Responsible AI development
B) Network security
C) Software sales
D) Hardware production
E) Database management
  • 43. Utilitarianism is classified as a:
A) Non-consequentialist theory
B) Culture-based theory
C) Situation-based theory
D) Character-based theory
E) Consequentialist theory
  • 44. Utilitarianism suggests actions are right if they promote:
A) Developing virtuous character
B) The greatest happiness for the greatest number
C) Maximizing personal gain
D) Respecting individual rights
E) Following moral rules
  • 45. Jeremy Bentham and John Stuart Mill are associated with:
A) Relativism
B) Virtue Ethics
C) Deontology
D) Social Contract Theory
E) Utilitarianism
  • 46. Utilitarianism focuses on the:
A) Character and virtues
B) Intentions and motivations
C) Outcomes or consequences of actions
D) Rules and duties
E) Social norms
  • 47. The greatest happiness principle states actions are morally right if they result in:
A) Maximizing personal gain
B) Developing virtuous character
C) Following universal rules
D) The most happiness for the most people
E) Respecting individual rights
  • 48. Hedonism in utilitarianism refers to the pursuit of:
A) Wealth and status
B) Power and influence
C) Fame and recognition
D) Pleasure and avoidance of pain
E) Knowledge and wisdom
  • 49. According to utilitarianism, everyone's happiness:
A) Differs by gender
B) Changes with age
C) Depends on social status
D) Counts equally
E) Varies by wealth
  • 50. The trolley problem illustrates:
A) Deontological principles
B) Social contract theory
C) Cultural relativism
D) Utilitarian decision-making
E) Virtue ethics
  • 51. In the trolley problem, utilitarianism recommends:
A) Pulling the lever to save more lives
B) Finding another solution
C) Consulting others
D) Not pulling to avoid responsibility
E) Leaving it to fate
  • 52. Utilitarianism can justify actions that maximize happiness but:
A) Respect traditions
B) Follow moral rules
C) Ignore individual rights
D) Develop character
E) Consider relationships
  • 53. Utilitarianism is difficult to apply because of challenges in:
A) Following clear rules
B) Respecting traditions
C) Developing character
D) Predicting and measuring outcomes
E) Maintaining impartiality
  • 54. Deontology is founded by:
A) Jeremy Bentham
B) Aristotle
C) John Stuart Mill
D) Immanuel Kant
E) Plato
  • 55. Deontology argues actions are morally right if they follow a:
A) Cultural norms
B) Outcome-based calculation
C) Set of rules regardless of consequences
D) Relationship building
E) Character development
  • 56. The categorical imperative requires acting according to maxims that can be:
A) Accepted by society
B) Approved by authorities
C) Maximized for happiness
D) Universalized without contradiction
E) Developed through practice
  • 57. In deontology, treating others as ends in themselves means:
A) Exploiting their weaknesses
B) Ignoring their needs
C) Controlling their actions
D) Using them for personal benefit
E) Respecting their dignity and autonomy
  • 58. Deontology emphasizes that moral actions are obligatory if they fulfill a:
A) Economic benefit
B) Social expectation
C) Cultural norm
D) Moral duty
E) Personal desire
  • 59. Deontology creates conflicts when duties:
A) Follow traditions
B) Serve society
C) Maximize happiness
D) Contradict each other
E) Develop character
  • 60. Virtue ethics focuses on the:
A) Outcomes of actions
B) Cultural traditions
C) Following moral rules
D) Social contracts
E) Character and virtues of the individual
  • 61. Virtue ethics was developed primarily by:
A) Plato
B) Immanuel Kant
C) Aristotle
D) Jeremy Bentham
E) John Stuart Mill
  • 62. The mean in virtue ethics refers to:
A) Personal gain
B) Strict rule following
C) Social approval
D) Maximum happiness
E) Balance between deficiency and excess
  • 63. Eudaimonia in virtue ethics refers to:
A) Gaining power
B) Maximizing pleasure
C) Avoiding pain
D) Following rules
E) Flourishing or human happiness
  • 64. Virtue ethics emphasizes cultivating virtues like:
A) Marketing expertise
B) Management abilities
C) Financial acumen
D) Courage, honesty, compassion
E) Technical skills
  • 65. A professional code of conduct is a set of:
A) Guidelines and principles governing professional behavior
B) Financial requirements
C) Marketing strategies
D) Technical specifications
E) Legal contracts
  • 66. Professional codes of conduct ensure:
A) Low costs
B) Technical excellence
C) Ethical practices, integrity, and accountability
D) Maximum profits
E) Fast delivery
  • 67. Professional codes help establish:
A) Faster development
B) Better marketing
C) Trust with clients, colleagues, and the public
D) Technical superiority
E) Lower costs
  • 68. The primary purpose of professional codes is to:
A) Guide decision making in challenging situations
B) Maximize profits
C) Achieve perfection
D) Reduce risks
E) Minimize time
  • 69. Professional codes ensure:
A) No mistakes
B) Fewer challenges
C) Guaranteed success
D) More profits
E) Accountability for actions
  • 70. Professional codes promote trust and respect by:
A) Minimizing competition
B) Building credibility
C) Guaranteeing profits
D) Limiting innovation
E) Ensuring superiority
  • 71. Professional codes help organizations avoid:
A) Timeline delays
B) Budget overruns
C) Legal issues and reputation damage
D) Technical problems
E) Resource issues
  • 72. Integrity and honesty in codes means:
A) Truthful and transparent dealings
B) Meeting deadlines
C) Achieving goals
D) Following procedures
E) Maximizing profits
  • 73. Confidentiality requires:
A) Respecting privacy and safeguarding information
B) Ignoring privacy
C) Publicizing details
D) Disclosing secrets
E) Sharing information
  • 74. Fairness and equality means treating individuals:
A) According to position
B) With respect without bias
C) Based on education
D) Depending on wealth
E) Based on performance
  • 75. Compliance with laws requires adherence to:
A) Personal preferences
B) Industry norms
C) Legal and regulatory requirements
D) Company policies only
E) Team decisions
  • 76. Accountability means taking responsibility for:
A) Company failures
B) Market conditions
C) Others' mistakes
D) External factors
E) Actions and outcomes
  • 77. Professional competence requires:
A) Continuous learning and development
B) Minimal effort
C) Maximum profits
D) Quick solutions
E) Technical shortcuts
  • 78. Obligations to clients include:
A) Fast delivery
B) Honest and competent services
C) Low prices
D) Maximum discounts
E) Technical perfection
  • 79. Maintaining confidentiality protects:
A) Company secrets
B) All data
C) Limited aspects
D) Personal information
E) Client interests
  • 80. Obligations to employers include being:
A) Marketing oriented
B) Punctual, reliable, dedicated
C) Technically skilled
D) Sales driven
E) Financially focused
  • 81. Contributing to workplace culture means:
A) Minimizing collaboration
B) Avoiding teamwork
C) Focusing on competition
D) Maximizing performance
E) Supporting ethical practices
  • 82. Obligations to colleagues include:
A) Financial success
B) Superiority
C) Competition
D) Collaboration and respect
E) Achievement
  • 83. Avoiding conflicts of interest means:
A) Focusing on self
B) Limiting cooperation
C) Maximizing gain
D) Ignoring needs
E) Supporting ethical practices
  • 84. Obligations to society require:
A) Maximizing profits
B) Reducing costs
C) Benefiting society and community
D) Meeting deadlines
E) Achieving goals
  • 85. Violating codes can lead to:
A) Increased trust
B) Technical improvements
C) Legal ramifications
D) Career advancement
E) Financial gains
  • 86. Damage to reputation results in:
A) Technical expertise
B) Financial success
C) Increased credibility
D) Professional advancement
E) Loss of trust
  • 87. Disciplinary action may include:
A) Bonuses
B) Promotions
C) Additional duties
D) Salary increases
E) Suspension or termination
  • 88. Internal issues from violations include:
A) Better performance
B) Decreased morale
C) Improved collaboration
D) Increased motivation
E) Enhanced creativity
  • 89. IT/CS professionals design systems affecting:
A) Financial results
B) Privacy, security, safety, economic outcomes
C) Organizational goals
D) Technical performance
E) User convenience
  • 90. Ethical failures in IT/CS can lead to:
A) Increased efficiency
B) Technical improvements
C) Data breaches, financial loss, public harm
D) Better experience
E) Enhanced security
  • 91. ACM code focuses on:
A) Low costs
B) Technical perfection
C) Avoiding harm, honesty, fairness, privacy
D) Maximum profits
E) Fast delivery
  • 92. IEEE code emphasizes:
A) Market dominance
B) Public safety, honest claims, accountability
C) Competitive advantage
D) Technical superiority
E) Financial success
  • 93. Core ethical themes across roles include:
A) Financial management
B) Project delivery
C) Quality assurance
D) Technical skills
E) Public welfare, honesty, transparency, accountability
  • 94. Ethical risks in IT/CS roles include:
A) Resource limitations
B) Technical challenges
C) Management pressure, deadlines, incentives
D) Communication issues
E) Team conflicts
  • 95. Software developers have primary responsibility to:
A) Increase complexity
B) Reduce costs
C) Maximize profits
D) Minimize time
E) Design secure systems, conduct testing
  • 96. Network administrators must:
A) Maximize speed
B) Reduce measures
C) Ignore monitoring
D) Minimize bandwidth
E) Apply patches, protect logs, avoid abuse
  • 97. Data analysts ensure:
A) Unlimited access
B) Maximum collection
C) Low storage
D) Accuracy, avoid bias, protect information
E) Fast processing
  • 98. Computer scientists maintain:
A) Secure funding
B) Maximize publications
C) Gain prestige
D) Research integrity, consider impact
E) Publish quickly
  • 99. Systems architects anticipate:
A) Failure modes, embed security
B) Reduce complexity
C) Ignore scalability
D) Maximize performance
E) Minimize costs
  • 100. Database specialists protect:
A) Reduce backups
B) Increase access
C) Maximize performance
D) Sensitive information, enforce control
E) Minimize storage
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