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SOCPRO REVIEWER PRELIM: QUESTIONABLY REFINED EDITION ¯\_(ツ)_/¯
Contributed by: Fernandez
  • 1. The trolley problem is a classic example used to illustrate which ethical theory?
A) Virtue Ethics
B) Deontology
C) Relativism
D) Utilitarianism
E) Egoism
  • 2. Ano ang tingin mo, papasa ka ba sa exam na ito tungkol sa software ethics?
A) Baka, kung mag-aaral pa ako.
B) Hindi, kinakabahan ako.
C) Ayoko pang isipin.
D) Oo, sigurado ako!
E) Siguro, depende sa swerte.
  • 3. What does 'PLUS' stand for in the ethical decision-making model?
A) People, Logic, Understanding, Standards
B) Planning, Logic, Understanding, Solutions
C) Performance, Leadership, Unity, Success
D) Principles, Laws, Unity, Systems
E) Policies, Legal, Universal, Self
  • 4. What does the 'P' in PLUS stand for?
A) People
B) Principles
C) Procedures
D) Policies
E) Performance
  • 5. What does the 'L' in PLUS evaluate whether an action is?
A) Lucrative
B) Limited
C) Logical
D) Legitimate
E) Legal
  • 6. What does the 'U' in PLUS ask if an action would be acceptable if?
A) It became profitable
B) It was temporary
C) Management agreed
D) Only experts approved
E) Everyone did it
  • 7. What does the 'S' in PLUS involve?
A) Security protocols
B) Stakeholder interests
C) Personal integrity and accountability
D) System requirements
E) Software standards
  • 8. What does stakeholder analysis examine?
A) Limited to management
B) Just technical requirements
C) Exclusively legal aspects
D) Who is affected and how
E) Only financial impacts
  • 9. What does stakeholder analysis focus on?
A) Intent rather than impact
B) Technical rather than social
C) Financial rather than ethical
D) Short-term rather than long-term
E) Impact rather than intent
  • 10. Who are typical stakeholders in software projects?
A) Just investors
B) End users, developers, clients, and society
C) Limited to regulators
D) Only management
E) Exclusively competitors
  • 11. What is the process of stakeholder analysis?
A) Identify stakeholders, assess benefits/risks, evaluate fairness
B) Exclusively timeline planning
C) Just budget analysis
D) Limited to profit calculation
E) Only technical evaluation
  • 12. What occurs when two or more ethical principles conflict?
A) Requirements change
B) Technical problems arise
C) A moral dilemma
D) Deadlines are missed
E) Budget constraints exist
  • 13. What are common causes of moral dilemmas?
A) Resource abundance
B) Clear guidelines
C) Proper planning
D) Time pressure, budget constraints, management demands
E) Technical limitations
  • 14. What should be evaluated first when considering software release with known bugs?
A) Only if profitable
B) The severity of the bug
C) Based on cost
D) Last
E) After management approval
  • 15. What must critical bugs affecting safety or security be?
A) Should be documented only
B) Must not be ignored
C) May be acceptable with warnings
D) Can always be patched
E) Can be fixed later
  • 16. What are common shortcuts in development?
A) Version control
B) Proper planning
C) Skipping testing, ignoring documentation, copying unlicensed code
D) Following standards
E) Code reviews
  • 17. What do legal requirements focus on?
A) What meets deadlines
B) What is technically efficient
C) What maximizes profits
D) What the law allows or prohibits
E) What follows standards
  • 18. What do ethical considerations focus on?
A) What meets deadlines
B) What maximizes profits
C) What the law allows or prohibits
D) What is technically efficient
E) What is morally right or responsible
  • 19. What can be legal and technically correct but ethically questionable?
A) Only financial aspects
B) Everything
C) A system
D) Nothing
E) Just technical performance
  • 20. What helps avoid decisions based on personal bias, authority pressure, and convenience?
A) Ethical decision frameworks
B) Technical requirements
C) Team preferences
D) Industry trends
E) Budget constraints
  • 21. What are common ethical decision frameworks?
A) Just Stakeholder Analysis
B) PLUS Model, Stakeholder Analysis, Professional codes
C) Limited to PLUS Model
D) Only PLUS Model
E) Exclusively Professional codes
  • 22. How is ethics described as a professional skill?
A) Only for large projects
B) Limited to experts
C) Separate from technical work
D) Not abstract, not optional, not separate from technical work
E) Abstract and optional
  • 23. What is ethics defined as?
A) Legal compliance
B) Economic decision-making
C) A branch of philosophy dealing with morality, right and wrong
D) Technical problem-solving
E) Social relationships
  • 24. What is technology described as?
A) Tools, systems, and devices created by humans to solve problems
B) Mathematical concepts
C) Cultural traditions
D) Natural phenomena
E) Scientific theories
  • 25. What has technology become embedded in?
A) Only scientific fields
B) Limited areas
C) Every aspect of daily life
D) Just business applications
E) Exclusively entertainment
  • 26. Why does technology create new ethical challenges?
A) Focuses solely on efficiency
B) It evolves rapidly and affects privacy, security, equality
C) Eliminates moral issues
D) Only affects experts
E) It remains static
  • 27. What can unethical technological practices lead to?
A) Improved equality
B) Job creation
C) Better privacy
D) Enhanced security
E) Discrimination, loss of privacy, job displacement
  • 28. What are examples of potential consequences of unethical technology?
A) Benefits of technology
B) Economic gains
C) Technical achievements
D) Data breaches, AI bias, autonomous weapons, digital addiction
E) Social improvements
  • 29. What do privacy and data security concerns focus on?
A) Who owns data and how it's protected
B) Limited to data display
C) Exclusively data processing
D) Just data transmission
E) Only data storage
  • 30. What do AI and automation raise ethical issues about?
A) Limited to user experience
B) Just cost reduction
C) Only technical efficiency
D) Job impact and decision fairness
E) Exclusively speed improvement
  • 31. What does the digital divide refer to?
A) Unequal access to technology
B) Technology quality differences
C) Software version changes
D) Device type diversity
E) Internet speed variations
  • 32. What do social media raise ethical concerns about?
A) Content moderation and misinformation spread
B) Only user engagement
C) Just advertising
D) Limited to user interface
E) Exclusively platform design
  • 33. In what can AI bias disadvantage minority groups?
A) Predictive policing and hiring algorithms
B) Only facial recognition
C) Just speech processing
D) Limited to data storage
E) Exclusively image analysis
  • 34. What did the Cambridge Analytica scandal highlight issues with?
A) Only social connections
B) Exclusively user engagement
C) Limited to content sharing
D) Just advertising
E) Data collection and privacy rights
  • 35. What is crucial in AI development?
A) Software testing
B) Network infrastructure
C) Database design
D) Hardware manufacturing
E) Ensuring fairness, transparency, and accountability
  • 36. What does utilitarianism in technology aim to?
A) Consider only individuals
B) Maximize positive outcomes
C) Follow strict rules
D) Focus on traditions
E) Develop character
  • 37. What does deontological ethics emphasize?
A) Personal happiness
B) Character development
C) Outcome maximization
D) Duty and moral rules
E) Relationship building
  • 38. What does virtue ethics promote?
A) Speed of delivery
B) Technical efficiency
C) Honesty and integrity
D) Profit optimization
E) Cost reduction
  • 39. What does care ethics consider the impact on?
A) Marginalized communities
B) Technical specifications
C) Development timelines
D) Financial returns
E) System performance
  • 40. When must technologists be aware of ethical implications?
A) Just during testing
B) Only after deployment
C) Never during development
D) While creating technologies
E) Exclusively in planning
  • 41. What do the decisions made during technology development shape?
A) Future society
B) Innovation
C) Costs
D) Technical progress
E) Only current users
  • 42. What do Google's AI Principles guide?
A) Responsible AI development
B) Software sales
C) Network security
D) Database management
E) Hardware production
  • 43. Utilitarianism is classified as a:
A) Situation-based theory
B) Consequentialist theory
C) Non-consequentialist theory
D) Character-based theory
E) Culture-based theory
  • 44. Utilitarianism suggests actions are right if they promote:
A) Maximizing personal gain
B) Respecting individual rights
C) The greatest happiness for the greatest number
D) Following moral rules
E) Developing virtuous character
  • 45. Jeremy Bentham and John Stuart Mill are associated with:
A) Virtue Ethics
B) Social Contract Theory
C) Relativism
D) Deontology
E) Utilitarianism
  • 46. Utilitarianism focuses on the:
A) Social norms
B) Character and virtues
C) Outcomes or consequences of actions
D) Intentions and motivations
E) Rules and duties
  • 47. The greatest happiness principle states actions are morally right if they result in:
A) Developing virtuous character
B) The most happiness for the most people
C) Maximizing personal gain
D) Following universal rules
E) Respecting individual rights
  • 48. Hedonism in utilitarianism refers to the pursuit of:
A) Knowledge and wisdom
B) Wealth and status
C) Power and influence
D) Pleasure and avoidance of pain
E) Fame and recognition
  • 49. According to utilitarianism, everyone's happiness:
A) Depends on social status
B) Changes with age
C) Differs by gender
D) Varies by wealth
E) Counts equally
  • 50. The trolley problem illustrates:
A) Social contract theory
B) Deontological principles
C) Virtue ethics
D) Cultural relativism
E) Utilitarian decision-making
  • 51. In the trolley problem, utilitarianism recommends:
A) Finding another solution
B) Consulting others
C) Not pulling to avoid responsibility
D) Pulling the lever to save more lives
E) Leaving it to fate
  • 52. Utilitarianism can justify actions that maximize happiness but:
A) Develop character
B) Consider relationships
C) Follow moral rules
D) Ignore individual rights
E) Respect traditions
  • 53. Utilitarianism is difficult to apply because of challenges in:
A) Developing character
B) Predicting and measuring outcomes
C) Maintaining impartiality
D) Following clear rules
E) Respecting traditions
  • 54. Deontology is founded by:
A) Jeremy Bentham
B) Plato
C) Immanuel Kant
D) John Stuart Mill
E) Aristotle
  • 55. Deontology argues actions are morally right if they follow a:
A) Set of rules regardless of consequences
B) Cultural norms
C) Character development
D) Outcome-based calculation
E) Relationship building
  • 56. The categorical imperative requires acting according to maxims that can be:
A) Universalized without contradiction
B) Developed through practice
C) Maximized for happiness
D) Approved by authorities
E) Accepted by society
  • 57. In deontology, treating others as ends in themselves means:
A) Ignoring their needs
B) Respecting their dignity and autonomy
C) Exploiting their weaknesses
D) Controlling their actions
E) Using them for personal benefit
  • 58. Deontology emphasizes that moral actions are obligatory if they fulfill a:
A) Personal desire
B) Social expectation
C) Economic benefit
D) Moral duty
E) Cultural norm
  • 59. Deontology creates conflicts when duties:
A) Develop character
B) Contradict each other
C) Maximize happiness
D) Serve society
E) Follow traditions
  • 60. Virtue ethics focuses on the:
A) Social contracts
B) Following moral rules
C) Outcomes of actions
D) Character and virtues of the individual
E) Cultural traditions
  • 61. Virtue ethics was developed primarily by:
A) Aristotle
B) Immanuel Kant
C) Plato
D) John Stuart Mill
E) Jeremy Bentham
  • 62. The mean in virtue ethics refers to:
A) Personal gain
B) Strict rule following
C) Maximum happiness
D) Balance between deficiency and excess
E) Social approval
  • 63. Eudaimonia in virtue ethics refers to:
A) Avoiding pain
B) Flourishing or human happiness
C) Gaining power
D) Maximizing pleasure
E) Following rules
  • 64. Virtue ethics emphasizes cultivating virtues like:
A) Technical skills
B) Financial acumen
C) Marketing expertise
D) Courage, honesty, compassion
E) Management abilities
  • 65. A professional code of conduct is a set of:
A) Guidelines and principles governing professional behavior
B) Technical specifications
C) Legal contracts
D) Financial requirements
E) Marketing strategies
  • 66. Professional codes of conduct ensure:
A) Low costs
B) Ethical practices, integrity, and accountability
C) Fast delivery
D) Technical excellence
E) Maximum profits
  • 67. Professional codes help establish:
A) Faster development
B) Lower costs
C) Trust with clients, colleagues, and the public
D) Technical superiority
E) Better marketing
  • 68. The primary purpose of professional codes is to:
A) Minimize time
B) Reduce risks
C) Guide decision making in challenging situations
D) Maximize profits
E) Achieve perfection
  • 69. Professional codes ensure:
A) Guaranteed success
B) More profits
C) Fewer challenges
D) No mistakes
E) Accountability for actions
  • 70. Professional codes promote trust and respect by:
A) Guaranteeing profits
B) Building credibility
C) Minimizing competition
D) Limiting innovation
E) Ensuring superiority
  • 71. Professional codes help organizations avoid:
A) Timeline delays
B) Technical problems
C) Legal issues and reputation damage
D) Budget overruns
E) Resource issues
  • 72. Integrity and honesty in codes means:
A) Achieving goals
B) Meeting deadlines
C) Following procedures
D) Maximizing profits
E) Truthful and transparent dealings
  • 73. Confidentiality requires:
A) Sharing information
B) Respecting privacy and safeguarding information
C) Publicizing details
D) Disclosing secrets
E) Ignoring privacy
  • 74. Fairness and equality means treating individuals:
A) Depending on wealth
B) Based on performance
C) According to position
D) With respect without bias
E) Based on education
  • 75. Compliance with laws requires adherence to:
A) Team decisions
B) Industry norms
C) Company policies only
D) Personal preferences
E) Legal and regulatory requirements
  • 76. Accountability means taking responsibility for:
A) Actions and outcomes
B) External factors
C) Others' mistakes
D) Market conditions
E) Company failures
  • 77. Professional competence requires:
A) Minimal effort
B) Continuous learning and development
C) Maximum profits
D) Technical shortcuts
E) Quick solutions
  • 78. Obligations to clients include:
A) Technical perfection
B) Fast delivery
C) Low prices
D) Honest and competent services
E) Maximum discounts
  • 79. Maintaining confidentiality protects:
A) Limited aspects
B) Company secrets
C) Personal information
D) Client interests
E) All data
  • 80. Obligations to employers include being:
A) Technically skilled
B) Marketing oriented
C) Financially focused
D) Sales driven
E) Punctual, reliable, dedicated
  • 81. Contributing to workplace culture means:
A) Maximizing performance
B) Avoiding teamwork
C) Focusing on competition
D) Minimizing collaboration
E) Supporting ethical practices
  • 82. Obligations to colleagues include:
A) Superiority
B) Financial success
C) Collaboration and respect
D) Achievement
E) Competition
  • 83. Avoiding conflicts of interest means:
A) Focusing on self
B) Limiting cooperation
C) Supporting ethical practices
D) Ignoring needs
E) Maximizing gain
  • 84. Obligations to society require:
A) Reducing costs
B) Meeting deadlines
C) Achieving goals
D) Benefiting society and community
E) Maximizing profits
  • 85. Violating codes can lead to:
A) Financial gains
B) Legal ramifications
C) Technical improvements
D) Career advancement
E) Increased trust
  • 86. Damage to reputation results in:
A) Increased credibility
B) Technical expertise
C) Loss of trust
D) Professional advancement
E) Financial success
  • 87. Disciplinary action may include:
A) Promotions
B) Bonuses
C) Additional duties
D) Salary increases
E) Suspension or termination
  • 88. Internal issues from violations include:
A) Improved collaboration
B) Increased motivation
C) Decreased morale
D) Better performance
E) Enhanced creativity
  • 89. IT/CS professionals design systems affecting:
A) Organizational goals
B) User convenience
C) Technical performance
D) Privacy, security, safety, economic outcomes
E) Financial results
  • 90. Ethical failures in IT/CS can lead to:
A) Enhanced security
B) Data breaches, financial loss, public harm
C) Technical improvements
D) Better experience
E) Increased efficiency
  • 91. ACM code focuses on:
A) Technical perfection
B) Fast delivery
C) Avoiding harm, honesty, fairness, privacy
D) Low costs
E) Maximum profits
  • 92. IEEE code emphasizes:
A) Market dominance
B) Public safety, honest claims, accountability
C) Financial success
D) Technical superiority
E) Competitive advantage
  • 93. Core ethical themes across roles include:
A) Financial management
B) Quality assurance
C) Project delivery
D) Technical skills
E) Public welfare, honesty, transparency, accountability
  • 94. Ethical risks in IT/CS roles include:
A) Technical challenges
B) Management pressure, deadlines, incentives
C) Resource limitations
D) Communication issues
E) Team conflicts
  • 95. Software developers have primary responsibility to:
A) Maximize profits
B) Design secure systems, conduct testing
C) Minimize time
D) Increase complexity
E) Reduce costs
  • 96. Network administrators must:
A) Ignore monitoring
B) Apply patches, protect logs, avoid abuse
C) Reduce measures
D) Minimize bandwidth
E) Maximize speed
  • 97. Data analysts ensure:
A) Fast processing
B) Low storage
C) Unlimited access
D) Maximum collection
E) Accuracy, avoid bias, protect information
  • 98. Computer scientists maintain:
A) Secure funding
B) Maximize publications
C) Research integrity, consider impact
D) Gain prestige
E) Publish quickly
  • 99. Systems architects anticipate:
A) Ignore scalability
B) Minimize costs
C) Failure modes, embed security
D) Maximize performance
E) Reduce complexity
  • 100. Database specialists protect:
A) Increase access
B) Maximize performance
C) Sensitive information, enforce control
D) Reduce backups
E) Minimize storage
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