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NICORRfinals
Contributed by: Sh
  • 1. Which statement BEST describes the nature of executive clemency?
A) It must be approved by Congress
B) It may only be granted before conviction
C) It is subject to approval by the judiciary
D) It is a discretionary power of the Chief Executive
  • 2. A prisoner who studies, teaches, or mentors while in prison may receive an additional deduction of per month.
A) 30 days
B) 20 days
C) 10 days
D) 15 days
  • 3. GCTA and STAL both serve to:
A) Cancel criminal liability
B) Increase penalties
C) Reduce the sentence of a prisoner
D) Transfer prisoners to another
  • 4. Which of the following best distinguishes amnesty from pardon?
A) Amnesty requires judicial approval while pardon does not
B) Amnesty is granted by courts while pardon is granted by the President.
C) Amnesty applies to groups of persons while pardon applies to individuals.
D) Amnesty reduces penalty while pardon postpones punishment.
  • 5. GCTA mainly affects which of the following?
A) Length of imprisonment
B) Criminal liability
C) Prisoner's civil rights
D) Amount of court fines
  • 6. Ana was convicted but allowed by the court to stay in the community under supervision instead of serving time in prison. What was granted?
A) PROBATION
B) REPRIEVE
C) PAROLE
  • 7. It is the temporary suspension of th sentence.
A) PROBATION
B) COMMUTATION OF SENTENCE
C) REPRIEVE
  • 8. What is the constitutional basis of executive clemency in the Philippines?
A) Article II Section 5 of the 1987 Constitution
B) Article VII Section 19 of the 1987 Constitution
C) Article XI Section 1 of the 1987 Constitution
D) Article III Section 1 of the 1987 Constitution
  • 9. Probation may be granted only:
A) After executive clemency
B) After trial
C) After the offender serves half of the sentence
D) Before the offender begins serving the sentence
  • 10. During a strong earthquake that damaged a provincial jail, several inmates escaped. One inmates inmate decided to remain inside the facility even though he had the opportunity to flee. Later, he requested the grant of Special Time Allowance for Loyalty (STAL).
    Under Republic Act No. 10592, what is the proper legal basis for granting STAL?
A) The inmate served more than half of his sentence.
B) The inmate committed no disciplinary offense.
C) The inmate demonstrated loyalty by not escaping during a calamity.
D) The inmate voluntarily surrendered after committing another crime.
  • 11. During the 3rd to 5th year of imprisonment, the deduction for good conduct is per month.
A) 25 days
B) 20 days
C) 30 days
D) 23 days
  • 12. During the first two (2) years of imprisonment, a prisoner may receive how many days deduction per month for good behavior?
A) 23 days
B) 30 days
C) 15 days
D) 20 days
  • 13. Probation is granted by the President?
A) May be
B) FALSE
C) Sometimes
D) TRUE
  • 14. Special Time Allowance for Loyalty (STAL) is granted when a prisoner:
A) Works inside the prison
B) Refuses to escape during a calamity
C) Finishes rehabilitation programs
D) Serves half of the sentence
  • 15. In cases involving violations of election laws, the President cannot grant pardon without recommendation from:
A) Board of Pardons and Parole
B) Department of Justice
C) Supreme Court
D) Commission on Elections
  • 16. Special ITime Allowance for Loyalty grants how much deduction to a prisoner who escapes during a calamity but voluntarily surrenders within 48 hours?
A) 1/5 of the sentence
B) 1/3 of the sentence
C) 1/4 of the sentenc
D) 1/2 of the sentence
  • 17. It is an act of grace that forgives the offender from punishment.
A) Amnesty
B) Pardon
C) Parole
D) Court
  • 18. Pedro was convicted of rebellion. The government later granted forgiveness to all rebels to restore peace. What form of executive clemency was granted?
A) Pardon
B) Amnesty
C) Courtesy
D) Court
  • 19. The document containing prison records submitted to the Board of Pardons and Parole.
A) Court
B) Amnesty
C) Carpeta
D) Pardon
  • 20. Juan was sentenced to 20 years imprisonment. Juan sentenced to years imprisonment The President reduced his sentence to 10 years What form of executive clemency was granted?
A) PAROLE
B) PARDON
C) Court
D) COMMUTATION OF SENTENCE
  • 21. During the hearing for violation of probation conditions, the probationer has the right to:
A) Replace the trial judge handling the case
B) Refuse to appear before the court
C) Demand dismissal without hearing
D) Be informed of the violation charged and present evidence in his favor
  • 22. If the court finds that a probationer committed a serious violation, what action may the court take?
A) Refer the case to the barangay
B) Immediately acquit the probationer
C) Issue a warrant of arrest
D) Automatically terminate probation
  • 23. During the hearing for violation of probation conditions, the probationer has the right to
    counsel:
A) Only during appeal
B) Of his own choice
C) Only if provided by the prosecutor
D) Only if appointed by the probation officer
  • 24. Which of the following is NOT specifically required as part of the contents of a Violation Report?
A) Statements or affidavits of apprehending officers
B) Probationer's sworn explanation before a notary public
C) Place, date, and time of the alleged violation
D) Recommendation of the barangay captain
  • 25. After the probation period expires and the probationer has complied with all conditions, the court may issue a Final Discharge, which has the effect of:
A) Restoring civil rights lost due to conviction
B) Cancelling civil liability
C) Reopening the criminal case
D) Automatically granting parole
  • 26. The Probation Officer's Final Report (PPA Form #9) should be submitted to the Trial Court:
A) One year after supervision begins
B) Immediately after conviction
C) After the probationer files a request
D) Thirty days before the expiration of the probation period
  • 27. In proceedings involving serious violations of probation conditions, the State shall be
    represented by:
A) Barangay Justice
B) Chief Probation Officer
C) Proper prosecuting officer
D) Public Attorney
  • 28. After completing the fact-finding investigation, the supervising probation officer must prepare a document containing the findings and recommendations regarding the alleged violation. What is this document called?
A) Violation Report
B) Revocation Petition
C) Compliance Assessment Report
D) Probation Investigation Report
  • 29. Which of the following may qualify a probationer for early termination of probation?
A) Commission of another offense
B) Serious physical or mental disability
C) Refusal to participate in rehabilitation programs
D) Failure to comply with reporting requirements
  • 30. Which of the following must be included in a Violation Report submitted to the Trial Court?
A) The probationer's educational background only
B) Personal opinion of the probation officer only
C) Political affiliation of the probationer
D) The nature, character, and designation of the violation
  • 31. A court order modifying probation conditions or revoking probation is generally:
A) Appealable to the Supreme Court
B) Automatically subject to review by the DOJ
C) Not appealable but may be corrected by certiorari
D) Appealable to the Court of Appeals
  • 32. Which of the following is NOT a ground for termination of probation supervision?
A) Death of the probationer
B) Successful completion of probation
C) Filing of a civil case against the probationer
D) Early termination of probation
  • 33. When a reliable informant reports that a probationer violated one of the probation conditions, who is primarily responsible for conducting or requiring the fact-finding investigation to determine the truthfulness of the allegation?
A) SPPO, Sr. PPO, PPO II, PPO I, or the CPPO
B) Prosecutor assianed to the case
C) Local Police Chief
D) Trial Court Judge
  • 34. If the court finds that a serious violation of probation conditions has been established, the court may:
A) Continue probation, modify conditions, or revoke probation
B) Dismiss the original conviction
C) Transfer the case to another court
D) Automatically impose a new criminal case
  • 35. After receiving the court's court's Termination Order discharging the probationer, the Probation Office shall:
A) Destroy the probation records immediately
B) Transfer supervision to the barangay
C) Send the records to the police department
D) Formally close the probation case and archive the records
  • 36. A probationer may be recommended for early termination if he has already served at least:
A) Two-thirds (2/3) of the probation period
B) One-third (1/3) of the probation period
C) One-fourth (1/4) of the probation period
D) One-half (1/2) of the probation period
  • 37. Who prepares the Violation Report containing
    findings and recommendations regarding the alleged violation on Probations condition?
A) Prosecutor
B) Police Investigator
C) Supervising Probation Officer
D) Trial Court Judge
  • 38. If a probationer fails to report for initial supervision within seventy-two (72) hours from receipt of the probation order or within the period required by the trial court, the Parole and Probation Office shall:
A) Immediately revoke the probation
B) Report the matter to the trial court for appropriate action
C) File criminal charges against the probationer
D) Automatically terminate probation supervision
  • 39. A probationer committed an act that may

    constitute a violation of the conditions stated in the probation order. Before reporting the matter to the court, the supervising officer must consider the totality of facts and surrounding circumstances. This concept refers to:
A) Probation Supervision Investigation
B) Concept of Violation of Probation Condition
C) Preliminary Revocation Procedure
D) Conditional Revocation Process
  • 40. The Violation Report must be approved or noted by the:
A) CPPO
B) Mayor
C) Barangay Captain
D) Prosecutor
  • 41. TASTM may be granted to a prisoner:
A) At any time during the period of imprisonment
B) Only after appeal is finished
C) Only during parole
D) Only during the first year of imprisonment
  • 42. Republic Act No. 10592 amended provisions of the Revised Penal Code of the Philippines. Which articles were specifically amended?
A) Articles 10, 15, 20, 25, and 30
B) Articles 100, 101, 102, and 103
C) Articles 29, 94, 97, 98, and 99
D) Articles 50, 60, 70, and 80
  • 43. What is Preventive Imprisonment?
A) A punishment given after parole violation
B) A penalty imposed by the President
C) The detention of a person while the case is being investigated or tried
D) The imprisonment after conviction
  • 44. Preventive imprisonment is counted as part of the sentence when:
A) The accused is deported
B) The accused escapes
C) The accused is released on bail
D) The accused is later convicted
  • 45. Which article of the Revised Penal Code provides the credit for preventive imprisonment?
A) Article 89
B) Article 97
C) Article 29
D) Article 99
  • 46. Under RA 10592, the Good Conduct Time Allowance (GCTA) is granted to prisoners who
    demonstrate:
A) Family connections in government
B) Political influence
C) Wealth and status
D) Good discipline and obedience to prison rules
  • 47. Which article of the Revised Penal Code provides the allowance for good conduct?
A) Article 97
B) Article 110
C) Article 50
D) Article 75
  • 48. The evaluation conducted by the MSEC usually considers which of the following factors?
A) All of the above
B) Inmate behavior and compliance with institutional rules
C) Work performance and discipline
D) Participation in rehabilitation programs
  • 49. In provincial, city, district, or municipal jails, the official who may grant time allowances is the:
A) Court Clerk
B) Prosecutor
C) Jail Warden
D) Trial court
  • 50. Which of the following is NOT part of the responsibilities of the MSEC?
A) Evaluating conduct and participation in correctional programs
B) Screening prisoners for eligibility for time allowances
C) Issuing final court judgments on criminal cases
D) Recommending appropriate credits or benefits to qualified inmates
  • 51. The creation of the MSEC is closely related to the implementation of time allowance provisions under:
A) Republic Act No. 6975
B) Republic Act No. 1125
C) Republic Act No. 9165
D) Republic Act No. 10592
  • 52. Which of the following is NOT one of the benefits granted under RA 10592?
A) Special Time Allowance for Loyalty
B) Credit for Preventive Imprisonment
C) Good Conduct Time Allowance
D) Immediate presidential pardon
  • 53. Which government department supervises the correctional system that implements RA 10592?
A) DILG
B) DND
C) DOJ
D) DOH
  • 54. STAL applies to which of the following prisoners?
A) Both detention prisoners and convicted prisoners
B) Only prisoners serving life sentences
C) Only prisoners convicted by final judgment
D) Only detention prisoners
  • 55. The application of STAL contributes to the correctional goal of:
A) Strengthening prison discipline and rewarding loyalty
B) Allowing prisoners to escape freely
C) Removing rehabilitation programs
D) Eliminating prison rules
  • 56. What does TASTM stand for?
A) Time Allowance for Study, Teaching and Mentoring
B) Time Allowance for Security and Training Management
C) Time Assessment System for Training Management
D) Training and Academic Support for Teaching Mentors
  • 57. How many days may be deducted from a prisoner's sentence for every month of study, teaching, or mentoring service?
A) 10 days
B) 30 days
C) 15 days
D) 20 days
  • 58. A prisoner who escaped during a calamity but surrendered three days later after the official
    announcement is:
A) Automatically pardoned
B) Entitled to half of STAL
C) Entitled to STAL
D) Not entitled to STAL
  • 59. Who are entitled to Credit for Preventive Imprisonment (CPI) under RA 10592?
A) Only prisoners serving life imprisonment
B) Only prisoners convicted of heinous crimes
C) Accused persons detained during trial wholater receive a prison sentence
D) Only parolees
  • 60. Which of the following situations qualifies a prisoner for two-fifths deduction under STAL?
A) The prisoner requests release
B) The prisoner stays inside the prison despite danger caused by a calamity
C) The prisoner escapes during a flood
D) The prisoner refuses to follow prison
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