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NICORRfinals
Contributed by: Sh
  • 1. Which statement BEST describes the nature of executive clemency?
A) It is subject to approval by the judiciary
B) It may only be granted before conviction
C) It is a discretionary power of the Chief Executive
D) It must be approved by Congress
  • 2. A prisoner who studies, teaches, or mentors while in prison may receive an additional deduction of per month.
A) 20 days
B) 10 days
C) 15 days
D) 30 days
  • 3. GCTA and STAL both serve to:
A) Increase penalties
B) Reduce the sentence of a prisoner
C) Cancel criminal liability
D) Transfer prisoners to another
  • 4. Which of the following best distinguishes amnesty from pardon?
A) Amnesty applies to groups of persons while pardon applies to individuals.
B) Amnesty requires judicial approval while pardon does not
C) Amnesty reduces penalty while pardon postpones punishment.
D) Amnesty is granted by courts while pardon is granted by the President.
  • 5. GCTA mainly affects which of the following?
A) Amount of court fines
B) Prisoner's civil rights
C) Criminal liability
D) Length of imprisonment
  • 6. Ana was convicted but allowed by the court to stay in the community under supervision instead of serving time in prison. What was granted?
A) PROBATION
B) REPRIEVE
C) PAROLE
  • 7. It is the temporary suspension of th sentence.
A) REPRIEVE
B) COMMUTATION OF SENTENCE
C) PROBATION
  • 8. What is the constitutional basis of executive clemency in the Philippines?
A) Article II Section 5 of the 1987 Constitution
B) Article III Section 1 of the 1987 Constitution
C) Article VII Section 19 of the 1987 Constitution
D) Article XI Section 1 of the 1987 Constitution
  • 9. Probation may be granted only:
A) After the offender serves half of the sentence
B) After executive clemency
C) After trial
D) Before the offender begins serving the sentence
  • 10. During a strong earthquake that damaged a provincial jail, several inmates escaped. One inmates inmate decided to remain inside the facility even though he had the opportunity to flee. Later, he requested the grant of Special Time Allowance for Loyalty (STAL).
    Under Republic Act No. 10592, what is the proper legal basis for granting STAL?
A) The inmate committed no disciplinary offense.
B) The inmate served more than half of his sentence.
C) The inmate voluntarily surrendered after committing another crime.
D) The inmate demonstrated loyalty by not escaping during a calamity.
  • 11. During the 3rd to 5th year of imprisonment, the deduction for good conduct is per month.
A) 30 days
B) 20 days
C) 25 days
D) 23 days
  • 12. During the first two (2) years of imprisonment, a prisoner may receive how many days deduction per month for good behavior?
A) 15 days
B) 30 days
C) 20 days
D) 23 days
  • 13. Probation is granted by the President?
A) FALSE
B) Sometimes
C) TRUE
D) May be
  • 14. Special Time Allowance for Loyalty (STAL) is granted when a prisoner:
A) Finishes rehabilitation programs
B) Works inside the prison
C) Serves half of the sentence
D) Refuses to escape during a calamity
  • 15. In cases involving violations of election laws, the President cannot grant pardon without recommendation from:
A) Board of Pardons and Parole
B) Commission on Elections
C) Supreme Court
D) Department of Justice
  • 16. Special ITime Allowance for Loyalty grants how much deduction to a prisoner who escapes during a calamity but voluntarily surrenders within 48 hours?
A) 1/4 of the sentenc
B) 1/3 of the sentence
C) 1/5 of the sentence
D) 1/2 of the sentence
  • 17. It is an act of grace that forgives the offender from punishment.
A) Parole
B) Court
C) Pardon
D) Amnesty
  • 18. Pedro was convicted of rebellion. The government later granted forgiveness to all rebels to restore peace. What form of executive clemency was granted?
A) Courtesy
B) Amnesty
C) Court
D) Pardon
  • 19. The document containing prison records submitted to the Board of Pardons and Parole.
A) Amnesty
B) Carpeta
C) Pardon
D) Court
  • 20. Juan was sentenced to 20 years imprisonment. Juan sentenced to years imprisonment The President reduced his sentence to 10 years What form of executive clemency was granted?
A) Court
B) PARDON
C) COMMUTATION OF SENTENCE
D) PAROLE
  • 21. During the hearing for violation of probation conditions, the probationer has the right to:
A) Demand dismissal without hearing
B) Replace the trial judge handling the case
C) Refuse to appear before the court
D) Be informed of the violation charged and present evidence in his favor
  • 22. If the court finds that a probationer committed a serious violation, what action may the court take?
A) Immediately acquit the probationer
B) Automatically terminate probation
C) Refer the case to the barangay
D) Issue a warrant of arrest
  • 23. During the hearing for violation of probation conditions, the probationer has the right to
    counsel:
A) Only during appeal
B) Only if appointed by the probation officer
C) Only if provided by the prosecutor
D) Of his own choice
  • 24. Which of the following is NOT specifically required as part of the contents of a Violation Report?
A) Statements or affidavits of apprehending officers
B) Place, date, and time of the alleged violation
C) Probationer's sworn explanation before a notary public
D) Recommendation of the barangay captain
  • 25. After the probation period expires and the probationer has complied with all conditions, the court may issue a Final Discharge, which has the effect of:
A) Cancelling civil liability
B) Restoring civil rights lost due to conviction
C) Reopening the criminal case
D) Automatically granting parole
  • 26. The Probation Officer's Final Report (PPA Form #9) should be submitted to the Trial Court:
A) Thirty days before the expiration of the probation period
B) One year after supervision begins
C) After the probationer files a request
D) Immediately after conviction
  • 27. In proceedings involving serious violations of probation conditions, the State shall be
    represented by:
A) Public Attorney
B) Proper prosecuting officer
C) Chief Probation Officer
D) Barangay Justice
  • 28. After completing the fact-finding investigation, the supervising probation officer must prepare a document containing the findings and recommendations regarding the alleged violation. What is this document called?
A) Revocation Petition
B) Violation Report
C) Compliance Assessment Report
D) Probation Investigation Report
  • 29. Which of the following may qualify a probationer for early termination of probation?
A) Serious physical or mental disability
B) Failure to comply with reporting requirements
C) Refusal to participate in rehabilitation programs
D) Commission of another offense
  • 30. Which of the following must be included in a Violation Report submitted to the Trial Court?
A) The nature, character, and designation of the violation
B) Political affiliation of the probationer
C) The probationer's educational background only
D) Personal opinion of the probation officer only
  • 31. A court order modifying probation conditions or revoking probation is generally:
A) Appealable to the Supreme Court
B) Automatically subject to review by the DOJ
C) Not appealable but may be corrected by certiorari
D) Appealable to the Court of Appeals
  • 32. Which of the following is NOT a ground for termination of probation supervision?
A) Early termination of probation
B) Successful completion of probation
C) Death of the probationer
D) Filing of a civil case against the probationer
  • 33. When a reliable informant reports that a probationer violated one of the probation conditions, who is primarily responsible for conducting or requiring the fact-finding investigation to determine the truthfulness of the allegation?
A) Trial Court Judge
B) Prosecutor assianed to the case
C) Local Police Chief
D) SPPO, Sr. PPO, PPO II, PPO I, or the CPPO
  • 34. If the court finds that a serious violation of probation conditions has been established, the court may:
A) Dismiss the original conviction
B) Transfer the case to another court
C) Continue probation, modify conditions, or revoke probation
D) Automatically impose a new criminal case
  • 35. After receiving the court's court's Termination Order discharging the probationer, the Probation Office shall:
A) Formally close the probation case and archive the records
B) Send the records to the police department
C) Destroy the probation records immediately
D) Transfer supervision to the barangay
  • 36. A probationer may be recommended for early termination if he has already served at least:
A) Two-thirds (2/3) of the probation period
B) One-third (1/3) of the probation period
C) One-fourth (1/4) of the probation period
D) One-half (1/2) of the probation period
  • 37. Who prepares the Violation Report containing
    findings and recommendations regarding the alleged violation on Probations condition?
A) Police Investigator
B) Trial Court Judge
C) Prosecutor
D) Supervising Probation Officer
  • 38. If a probationer fails to report for initial supervision within seventy-two (72) hours from receipt of the probation order or within the period required by the trial court, the Parole and Probation Office shall:
A) File criminal charges against the probationer
B) Automatically terminate probation supervision
C) Report the matter to the trial court for appropriate action
D) Immediately revoke the probation
  • 39. A probationer committed an act that may

    constitute a violation of the conditions stated in the probation order. Before reporting the matter to the court, the supervising officer must consider the totality of facts and surrounding circumstances. This concept refers to:
A) Preliminary Revocation Procedure
B) Conditional Revocation Process
C) Concept of Violation of Probation Condition
D) Probation Supervision Investigation
  • 40. The Violation Report must be approved or noted by the:
A) Barangay Captain
B) Prosecutor
C) CPPO
D) Mayor
  • 41. TASTM may be granted to a prisoner:
A) Only after appeal is finished
B) At any time during the period of imprisonment
C) Only during parole
D) Only during the first year of imprisonment
  • 42. Republic Act No. 10592 amended provisions of the Revised Penal Code of the Philippines. Which articles were specifically amended?
A) Articles 100, 101, 102, and 103
B) Articles 10, 15, 20, 25, and 30
C) Articles 50, 60, 70, and 80
D) Articles 29, 94, 97, 98, and 99
  • 43. What is Preventive Imprisonment?
A) The detention of a person while the case is being investigated or tried
B) The imprisonment after conviction
C) A punishment given after parole violation
D) A penalty imposed by the President
  • 44. Preventive imprisonment is counted as part of the sentence when:
A) The accused is released on bail
B) The accused escapes
C) The accused is deported
D) The accused is later convicted
  • 45. Which article of the Revised Penal Code provides the credit for preventive imprisonment?
A) Article 89
B) Article 99
C) Article 29
D) Article 97
  • 46. Under RA 10592, the Good Conduct Time Allowance (GCTA) is granted to prisoners who
    demonstrate:
A) Good discipline and obedience to prison rules
B) Wealth and status
C) Family connections in government
D) Political influence
  • 47. Which article of the Revised Penal Code provides the allowance for good conduct?
A) Article 75
B) Article 97
C) Article 110
D) Article 50
  • 48. The evaluation conducted by the MSEC usually considers which of the following factors?
A) Participation in rehabilitation programs
B) All of the above
C) Inmate behavior and compliance with institutional rules
D) Work performance and discipline
  • 49. In provincial, city, district, or municipal jails, the official who may grant time allowances is the:
A) Prosecutor
B) Court Clerk
C) Jail Warden
D) Trial court
  • 50. Which of the following is NOT part of the responsibilities of the MSEC?
A) Recommending appropriate credits or benefits to qualified inmates
B) Issuing final court judgments on criminal cases
C) Screening prisoners for eligibility for time allowances
D) Evaluating conduct and participation in correctional programs
  • 51. The creation of the MSEC is closely related to the implementation of time allowance provisions under:
A) Republic Act No. 9165
B) Republic Act No. 10592
C) Republic Act No. 6975
D) Republic Act No. 1125
  • 52. Which of the following is NOT one of the benefits granted under RA 10592?
A) Good Conduct Time Allowance
B) Special Time Allowance for Loyalty
C) Credit for Preventive Imprisonment
D) Immediate presidential pardon
  • 53. Which government department supervises the correctional system that implements RA 10592?
A) DOJ
B) DND
C) DILG
D) DOH
  • 54. STAL applies to which of the following prisoners?
A) Only prisoners serving life sentences
B) Only detention prisoners
C) Both detention prisoners and convicted prisoners
D) Only prisoners convicted by final judgment
  • 55. The application of STAL contributes to the correctional goal of:
A) Removing rehabilitation programs
B) Eliminating prison rules
C) Allowing prisoners to escape freely
D) Strengthening prison discipline and rewarding loyalty
  • 56. What does TASTM stand for?
A) Time Allowance for Study, Teaching and Mentoring
B) Training and Academic Support for Teaching Mentors
C) Time Assessment System for Training Management
D) Time Allowance for Security and Training Management
  • 57. How many days may be deducted from a prisoner's sentence for every month of study, teaching, or mentoring service?
A) 10 days
B) 15 days
C) 30 days
D) 20 days
  • 58. A prisoner who escaped during a calamity but surrendered three days later after the official
    announcement is:
A) Not entitled to STAL
B) Entitled to half of STAL
C) Entitled to STAL
D) Automatically pardoned
  • 59. Who are entitled to Credit for Preventive Imprisonment (CPI) under RA 10592?
A) Accused persons detained during trial wholater receive a prison sentence
B) Only prisoners serving life imprisonment
C) Only prisoners convicted of heinous crimes
D) Only parolees
  • 60. Which of the following situations qualifies a prisoner for two-fifths deduction under STAL?
A) The prisoner refuses to follow prison
B) The prisoner stays inside the prison despite danger caused by a calamity
C) The prisoner requests release
D) The prisoner escapes during a flood
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