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CDI1-FINVIN
Contributed by: Three
  • 1. The primary objective of criminal investigation is to?
A) Collect evidence for intelligence units
B) Secure the conviction of the accused
C) Influence the statements of witnesses
D) Ascertain facts to establish truth
  • 2. The phase where investigators arrive, evaluate the area, and ensure safety is?
A) Termination phase
B) Reporting phase
C) Initial response phase
D) Follow-up phase
  • 3. The “cardinal points of investigation” mainly guide investigators in?
A) Drafting an intelligence cycle
B) Organizing the prosecution panel
C) Determining the essential information about a crime
D) Identifying the criminal’s motives only
  • 4. The “WHO” in the cardinal points refers to:
A) Only the perpetrators
B) All individuals involved directly or indirectly
C) Individuals present before the incident
D) Persons who may testify only
  • 5. The intelligence principle stating that intelligence must be produced on time is:
A) Flexibility
B) Timeliness
C) Secrecy
D) Accuracy
  • 6. The investigative tool that involves asking structured questions to gather facts:
A) Interrogation
B) Validation
C) Interview
D) Examination
  • 7. The proper sequence of the intelligence cycle begins with:
A) Planning and direction
B) Dissemination
C) Processing
D) Collection
  • 8. In the processing phase of the intelligence cycle, the main activity is:
A) Deployment of operatives
B) Arrest of suspects
C) Conversion of raw data to usable information
D) Documentation of court records
  • 9. The objective of surveillance in investigation is to:
A) Replace interrogation
B) Create fear among suspects
C) Establish public visibility
D) Observe activities discreetly
  • 10. The investigative phase that includes case buildup and suspect identification is:
A) Preliminary investigation
B) Termination
C) Court prosecution
D) Follow-up investigation
  • 11. A principle of intelligence ensuring unauthorized persons cannot access information:
A) Secrecy
B) Mobility
C) Accuracy
D) Reliability
  • 12. An investigator reconstructs the event by determining what happened. This refers to:
A) The “Why
B) The “When”
C) The “Who”
D) The “How”
  • 13. The tool used to preserve crime scene conditions through visual documentation:
A) Surveillance
B) Photography
C) Notes
D) Canvassing
  • 14. The purpose of an initial interview with witnesses is to:
A) Elicit firsthand observations
B) Pressure them for a confession
C) Prepare defense strategies
D) Influence their recall
  • 15. Intelligence information that comes from public reports is:
A) Covert collection
B) Strategic intelligence
C) Overt information
D) Operational intelligence
  • 16. The investigator’s “follow-up” work includes:
A) Securing perimeter
B) Arresting without probable cause
C) Case linkage and further evidence search
D) Closing case files
  • 17. Which is not part of the cardinal points?
A) Why
B) Witness credibility
C) Where
D) Who
  • 18. The principle that intelligence must be correct and factual:
A) Compatibility
B) Timeliness
C) Secrecy
D) Accuracy
  • 19. The tool of investigation used to record observations:
A) Sketch
B) Note-taking
C) Examination
D) Interview
  • 20. The “objective of criminal investigation” focusing on evidence aims to:
A) Avoid the need for witnesses
B) Confuse the defense counsel
C) Provide foundation for prosecution
D) Reduce the investigator’s workload
  • 21. The phase where investigators prepare formal documentation:
A) Initial response
B) Termination phase
C) Prosecution phase
D) Reporting phase
  • 22. Intelligence that guides long-term planning:
A) Overt intelligence
B) Strategic intelligence
C) Operational intelligence
D) Counterintelligence
  • 23. Crime scene sketching is essential to:
A) Identify the suspect immediately
B) Make a 3D reconstruction
C) Replace photography
D) Provide a scale representation of the area
  • 24. A principle requiring all investigators to coordinate with others:
A) Objectivity
B) Coordination
C) Accurate reporting
D) Unity of direction
  • 25. An informer is motivated by revenge, while an informant is motivated by civic duty. Distinguishing their motives is essential to:
A) Case termination
B) Arrest timing
C) Surveillance planning
D) Source evaluation
  • 26. A suspect uses countersurveillance techniques, forcing the team to adapt routes, timings, and spacing. This demonstrates:
A) Failure of planning
B) Reactive investigative strategy
C) Low information value
D) Deviation from intelligence doctrine
  • 27. When an officer analyzes reports to determine which information contributes to long-term policy decisions, he is identifying:
A) Operational intelligence
B) Strategic intelligence
C) Administrative intelligence
D) Tactical surveillance data
  • 28. Multiple reports about a terrorist plot come from different informants. The officer synthesizes them to form a single picture. This analytical process is:
A) Refutation
B) Integration
C) Exclusion
D) Prior isolation
  • 29. A handler receives a tip that may cause political embarrassment if leaked. The handler must evaluate classification not just by content but by effect of disclosure. This requires:
A) Analytical risk assessment
B) Rapid reporting
C) Specialized dissemination
D) Document reproduction
  • 30. An officer arrests a suspect without a warrant after witnessing the suspect stab another person. This scenario illustrates:
A) Arrest in flagrante delicto
B) Arrest by pre-arranged operation
C) Arrest by virtue of citizen’s arrest
D) Arrest by search warrant
  • 31. During a warrantless arrest, the officer must immediately inform the suspect of the cause of arrest. This step applies which requirement under R.A. 7438?
A) Right to bail
B) Right to silence only
C) Right to a speed disposition
D) Right to be informed of the nature and cause of arrest
  • 32. When conducting a systematic strip method during crime scene search, the team applies:
A) Evidence-centered searching
B) Randomized checking pattern
C) Coordinated circular movement
D) Vertical, overlapping movement
  • 33. A police officer refrains from threatening a suspect during questioning to comply with:
    A.
A) R.A. 9745 – Anti-Torture Act
B) R.A. 9231
C) R.A. 7438
D) R.A. 10022
  • 34. A team leader divides the area into quadrants before assigning personnel. This uses the:
A) Outward spiral method
B) Spotlight method
C) Zone search method
D) Wheel search method
  • 35. Upon arrest, the suspect requests counsel. The officer stops questioning until a lawyer arrives. This practice follows:
A) Hot pursuit doctrine
B) Miranda rights under R.A. 7438
C) Physical evidence doctrine
D) Costudial remedy rule
  • 36. An investigator uses measurements from fixed points to plot the position of evidence in a crime scene sketch. This application uses:
A) Baseline method
B) Triangulation method
C) Polar coordinates
D) Rough sketching
  • 37. A police officer tells the suspect to sign a confession without counsel. This violates:
    A. Search and seizure procedure
A) R.A. 7438
B) Search and seizure procedure
C) R.A. 9745
D) Warrantless arrest doctrine
  • 38. During vehicle surveillance, the team switches to leapfrogging to prevent losing sight. This procedure is known as:
A) Tail–relay method
B) Visual obstruction tracking
C) Direct trailing
D) Contact surveillance
  • 39. When sketching a crime scene, the investigator first prepares a rough sketch. This is done to:
A) Substitute formal diagrams
B) Produce a final sketch for court immediately
C) Establish a quick but accurate representation of the scene
D) Replace photography
  • 40. A lawful search is conducted after an arrest, limited to the immediate control area of the arrestee. This applies:
A) Search incidental to a lawful arrest
B) Search for premises
C) Consent search
D) Administrative search
  • 41. A police officer tells a suspect to sign a confession without a lawyer present. This violates:
A) Both A and B
B) R.A. 9745
C) R.A. 7438
D) Only search and seizure rules
  • 42. During a wheel method search, the team starts at:
A) Random points decided by personnel
B) The corners of the crime scene
C) The outer boundaries moving inward
D) The central point moving outward
  • 43. An investigator seals collected evidence bags immediately after retrieval. This applies the principle of:
A) Physical integrity doctrine
B) Harmonization
C) Chain of surveillance
D) Chain of custody
  • 44. The officer asks a female officer to search a female suspect. This follows:
A) Necessity of force principle
B) Administrative rule for detention
C) Gender-nuetrality principle
D) Proper search procedure
  • 45. Evidence in plain view was seized after the officer lawfully entered the home for a warrant execution, but the object was unrelated to the warrant. The officer must determine if:
A) The evidence was in closed storage
B) The incriminating nature was immediately apparent
C) A perimeter search was conducted
D) The suspect verbally consented
  • 46. Officers conducted a search based solely on anonymous tip without corroboration. The supervising officer must determine whether:
A) Evidence was already in plain view
B) Consent existed
C) Crime scene was already secured
D) Probable cause was independently established
  • 47. A crime scene is large and irregular; the team chooses the spiral method. The leader must assess:
A) Whether multiple teams are available
B) Whether the center is identifiable
C) Whether sketches can be made later
D) Whether visibility is limited
  • 48. A final sketch contradicts the rough sketch measurements. The investigator must:
A) Rely solely on photographs
B) Present both sketches and let the court decide
C) Reconcile inconsistencies through re-measurement
D) Discard the rough sketch
  • 49. A suspect voluntarily blurts out a confession before being read rights. The officer must determ
A) Whether the confession was spontaneous
B) If the suspect was deceived
C) If the suspect already had a lawyer
D) Whether the officer recorded the moment
  • 50. The officer arrests someone because they “look suspicious.” Analyzing this, the arrest is:
A) Valid under stop-and-frisk
B) Valid under warrantless arrest
C) Valid under custodial rule
D) Invalid due to lack of overt act
  • 51. A team conducts a quadrant search at night but lighting is poor. The leader must analyze whether:
A) The search should be delayed until morning
B) Additional lighting equipment should be deployed
C) Quadrant search should be replaced by strip method
D) Only photographs should be taken
  • 52. A suspect signs a waiver of rights without counsel. Under R.A. 7438, this is:
A) Invalid for lack of counsel
B) Valid if officer witnesses it
C) Valid if voluntary
D) Valid if recorded
  • 53. Search incidental to arrest was performed in a room far from where the suspect was apprehended. The court must analyze:
A) Whether consent was implied
B) Whether area searched was within immediate control
C) Whether suspect resisted
D) Whether officers had a search warrant
  • 54. A team conducts a strip method search and finds concealed weapons. This demonstrates:
A) Witness-led collection
B) Systematic crime scene search
C) Random evidence retrieval
D) Uncontrolled investigation
  • 55. Information that requires validation before being used for intelligence:
A) Raw information
B) Discarded information
C) Finished intelligence
D) Classified information
  • 56. The “Why” in cardinal points explain
A) Sequence of action
B) Underlying motive
C) Weapon used
D) Suspect identities
  • 57. A core objective of intelligence is to:
A) Create confidential rumors
B) Replace investigators
C) Provide public entertainment
D) Support decision-making
  • 58. A characteristic of a good investigator:
A) Observant and systematic
B) Prioritizing personal judgment
C) Impulsive decision-making
D) Overreliance on instincts
  • 59. Physical evidence is best described as:
A) Hearsay from neighbors
B) Any verbal statement
C) Tangible items related to the crim
D) Rumors about the suspect
  • 60. Intelligence collected through hidden means:
A) Overt
B) Strategic
C) Covert
D) Publicly available
  • 61. iminating contamination is a concern in which phase?
A) Follow-up phase
B) Court presentation
C) Dissemination phase
D) Crime scene processing
  • 62. One goal of investigation is to recover:
A) Instruments of the crime
B) All destroyed evidence
C) Personal belongings of witnesses
D) Every item in the area
  • 63. Proper dissemination ensures intelligence reaches:
A) Any available personnel
B) The suspect
C) Proper decision-makers
D) Only investigators
  • 64. A suspect’s background inquiry is an example of:
A) Surveillance
B) Crime scene processing
C) Neighborhood canvassing
D) Intelligence gathering
  • 65. The term “how the crime was committed” refers to:
A) Means
B) Motive
C) Modus operandi
D) Opportunity
  • 66. The investigator’s first duty at the scene:
A) Collect fingerprints immediately
B) Conduct interrogation
C) Secure and isolate the scene
D) Approach the suspect
  • 67. Intelligence that focuses on specific targets for immediate operations:
A) Structural intelligence
B) Strategic intelligence
C) Administrative intelligence
D) Operational intelligence
  • 68. The “When” in cardinal points identifies:
A) Weather Conditions
B) Date and time of occurrence
C) Evidence collected
D) Cause of death
  • 69. An advantage of photography over sketches:
A) Replace testimony
B) Locates suspect
C) Shows exact appearance
D) Create Investigation direction
  • 70. A fundamental objective of investigation is to:
A) Identify the guilty party
B) Produce intelligence reports
C) Avoid filing cases
D) Satisfy public demand
  • 71. Counterintelligence protects:
A) Confidential materials from adversaries
B) Suspect
C) Scene integrity
D) Witness credibility
  • 72. An example of an investigative tool:
A) Interrogation
B) Preliminary hearing
C) Judicial affidavit
D) Arrest warrant
  • 73. The final phase of investigation is:
A) Termination
B) Case documentation
C) Processing
D) Follow-up
  • 74. The tool used to verify the truthfulness of statements:
A) Sketching
B) Surveillance
C) Interview
D) Interrogation
  • 75. Intelligence used to support administrative decisions:
A) Administrative intelligence
B) Structural
C) Strategic
D) Overt
  • 76. An investigator notes inconsistencies in witness accounts and compares them with physical evidence. This process relates to:
A) Conducting termination
B) Evaluating investigative leads
C) Initial response
D) Organizing evidence chronologically
  • 77. A crime scene with multiple entry points requires the investigator to determine which path the offender used. This applies the principle of:
A) Reconstruction
B) Motive analysis
C) Scene sketching
D) Verification
  • 78. If intelligence gathered is accurate but reaches decision-makers too late, the failure is in:
A) Processing
B) Dissemination
C) Coordination
D) Collection
  • 79. When an investigator determines that the suspect’s MO matches past incidents, the investigator is applying:
A) Case isolation
B) Accusation formulation
C) Pattern analysis
D) Witness evaluation
  • 80. Conflicting evidence suggests two possible scenarios. The investigator compares both to determine the most logical sequence of events. This uses:
A) Deductive reasoning
B) Note-taking
C) Surveillance
D) The cardinal points
  • 81. During a foot surveillance, the suspect suddenly enters a crowded market. The investigator adjusts distance to avoid detection. This action applies which principle?
A) Preserving cover and concealment
B) Using direct confrontation
C) Maintaining a fixed pace
D) Establishing overt presence
  • 82. An operative receives raw data from a civilian and must sort, translate, and verify it before use. This corresponds to which intelligence cycle phase?
A) Dissemination
B) Direction
C) Collection
D) Processing
  • 83. A handler meets an informant in a neutral location to reduce risk. This demonstrates the principle of:
A) Strategic penetration
B) Securing informant identity
C) Evidence substitution
D) Randomizing interrogation
  • 84. When preparing surveillance notes, the investigator diagrams the suspect’s movement pattern to predict next actions. This applies:
A) Pattern recognition
B) Overt documentation
C) Randomized tracking
D) Interrogation technique
  • 85. An intelligence officer determines which unit must receive a report concerning a smuggling operation. This step applies:
A) Evaluation
B) Classification
C) Dissemination
D) Direction
  • 86. A confidential informant provides consistent quality data over several months. The handler categorizes this person as:
A) Regular informant
B) Danger informant
C) Classified agent
D) Accidental source
  • 87. An investigator classifies a document “Secret” because unauthorized disclosure may harm operations. This is:
A) Raw sorting
B) Security labeling
C) Encoding
D) Overclassification
  • 88. During vehicle surveillance, the subject increases speed. The team switches to leapfrogging to prevent losing sight. This procedure is known as:
A) Tail-relay method
B) Direct trailing
C) Visual obstruction tracking
D) Contact surveillance
  • 89. An intelligence unit instructs collectors to focus on illegal firearms networks. This operational task belongs to:
A) Analysis
B) Planning and direction
C) Reclassification
D) Dissemination
  • 90. A handler assesses an informant’s motives before accepting information. This application reflects:
A) Tactical manipulation
B) Surveillance support
C) Premature classification
D) Source validation
  • 91. A field agent receives two conflicting reports and must choose which to pursue based on reliability. This is an example of:
A) Discarding all sources
B) Random selection
C) Prioritization of information
D) Offensive surveillance
  • 92. When conducting stationary surveillance, the officer positions in a location with unobstructed visibility yet low exposure. This applies:
A) Cover selection
B) Rational shadowing
C) Dual-tracking
D) Forced confrontation
  • 93. Intelligence requiring immediate operational action is categorized as:
A) Operational
B) Background
C) Administrative
D) Strategic
  • 94. A field operative monitors radio traffic for intelligence leads. This practice falls under:
A) Controlled overt collection
B) Technical surveillance
C) Indirect canvassing
D) Witness retrieval
  • 95. An investigator destroys preliminary notes after filing final reports to prevent leakage. This applies:
A) Proper document disposal
B) Covert misinformation
C) Interrogation secrecy
D) Information suppression
  • 96. Two teams conduct surveillance: one follows closely while another monitors from a distance. The operation minimizes detection while maintaining observation. This setup exemplifies:
A) Improvised surveillance
B) Static intelligence
C) Combined (team) surveillance
D) Fragmented tracking
  • 97. If direction in the intelligence cycle is weak, resulting in irrelevant data being collected, the failure lies in:
A) Document security
B) Dissemination
C) Planning clarity
D) Source reliability
  • 98. An informant provides accurate details but frequently violates agreed protocols, placing the team at risk. The handler must assess:
A) Whether to change the informant’s identity
B) If surveillance should be canceled
C) Whether to reassign the team
D) Operational utility vs. security risk
  • 99. Intelligence reports classified “Top Secret” are mixed with unclassified memos, increasing exposure. This violates:
A) Multi-source evaluation
B) Covert collection
C) Surveillance coordination
D) Compartmentation principle
  • 100. An officer notices that surveillance footage contradicts live observations, requiring him to identify which source is more credible. This uses:
A) Hypothetical assumption
B) Evidence suppression
C) Source cross-validation
D) Immediate confrontation
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