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CDI1-FINVIN
Contributed by: Three
  • 1. The primary objective of criminal investigation is to?
A) Ascertain facts to establish truth
B) Secure the conviction of the accused
C) Collect evidence for intelligence units
D) Influence the statements of witnesses
  • 2. The phase where investigators arrive, evaluate the area, and ensure safety is?
A) Follow-up phase
B) Termination phase
C) Initial response phase
D) Reporting phase
  • 3. The “cardinal points of investigation” mainly guide investigators in?
A) Organizing the prosecution panel
B) Determining the essential information about a crime
C) Identifying the criminal’s motives only
D) Drafting an intelligence cycle
  • 4. The “WHO” in the cardinal points refers to:
A) Persons who may testify only
B) Only the perpetrators
C) All individuals involved directly or indirectly
D) Individuals present before the incident
  • 5. The intelligence principle stating that intelligence must be produced on time is:
A) Timeliness
B) Secrecy
C) Accuracy
D) Flexibility
  • 6. The investigative tool that involves asking structured questions to gather facts:
A) Validation
B) Interrogation
C) Examination
D) Interview
  • 7. The proper sequence of the intelligence cycle begins with:
A) Dissemination
B) Planning and direction
C) Processing
D) Collection
  • 8. In the processing phase of the intelligence cycle, the main activity is:
A) Arrest of suspects
B) Documentation of court records
C) Conversion of raw data to usable information
D) Deployment of operatives
  • 9. The objective of surveillance in investigation is to:
A) Create fear among suspects
B) Observe activities discreetly
C) Establish public visibility
D) Replace interrogation
  • 10. The investigative phase that includes case buildup and suspect identification is:
A) Preliminary investigation
B) Termination
C) Follow-up investigation
D) Court prosecution
  • 11. A principle of intelligence ensuring unauthorized persons cannot access information:
A) Reliability
B) Accuracy
C) Secrecy
D) Mobility
  • 12. An investigator reconstructs the event by determining what happened. This refers to:
A) The “When”
B) The “Why
C) The “Who”
D) The “How”
  • 13. The tool used to preserve crime scene conditions through visual documentation:
A) Photography
B) Notes
C) Surveillance
D) Canvassing
  • 14. The purpose of an initial interview with witnesses is to:
A) Prepare defense strategies
B) Elicit firsthand observations
C) Influence their recall
D) Pressure them for a confession
  • 15. Intelligence information that comes from public reports is:
A) Strategic intelligence
B) Operational intelligence
C) Covert collection
D) Overt information
  • 16. The investigator’s “follow-up” work includes:
A) Case linkage and further evidence search
B) Arresting without probable cause
C) Closing case files
D) Securing perimeter
  • 17. Which is not part of the cardinal points?
A) Why
B) Who
C) Where
D) Witness credibility
  • 18. The principle that intelligence must be correct and factual:
A) Timeliness
B) Compatibility
C) Secrecy
D) Accuracy
  • 19. The tool of investigation used to record observations:
A) Note-taking
B) Interview
C) Examination
D) Sketch
  • 20. The “objective of criminal investigation” focusing on evidence aims to:
A) Reduce the investigator’s workload
B) Avoid the need for witnesses
C) Provide foundation for prosecution
D) Confuse the defense counsel
  • 21. The phase where investigators prepare formal documentation:
A) Initial response
B) Termination phase
C) Reporting phase
D) Prosecution phase
  • 22. Intelligence that guides long-term planning:
A) Overt intelligence
B) Strategic intelligence
C) Operational intelligence
D) Counterintelligence
  • 23. Crime scene sketching is essential to:
A) Provide a scale representation of the area
B) Replace photography
C) Make a 3D reconstruction
D) Identify the suspect immediately
  • 24. A principle requiring all investigators to coordinate with others:
A) Accurate reporting
B) Unity of direction
C) Coordination
D) Objectivity
  • 25. An informer is motivated by revenge, while an informant is motivated by civic duty. Distinguishing their motives is essential to:
A) Case termination
B) Arrest timing
C) Surveillance planning
D) Source evaluation
  • 26. A suspect uses countersurveillance techniques, forcing the team to adapt routes, timings, and spacing. This demonstrates:
A) Low information value
B) Failure of planning
C) Reactive investigative strategy
D) Deviation from intelligence doctrine
  • 27. When an officer analyzes reports to determine which information contributes to long-term policy decisions, he is identifying:
A) Administrative intelligence
B) Operational intelligence
C) Strategic intelligence
D) Tactical surveillance data
  • 28. Multiple reports about a terrorist plot come from different informants. The officer synthesizes them to form a single picture. This analytical process is:
A) Prior isolation
B) Refutation
C) Exclusion
D) Integration
  • 29. A handler receives a tip that may cause political embarrassment if leaked. The handler must evaluate classification not just by content but by effect of disclosure. This requires:
A) Analytical risk assessment
B) Document reproduction
C) Rapid reporting
D) Specialized dissemination
  • 30. An officer arrests a suspect without a warrant after witnessing the suspect stab another person. This scenario illustrates:
A) Arrest in flagrante delicto
B) Arrest by virtue of citizen’s arrest
C) Arrest by search warrant
D) Arrest by pre-arranged operation
  • 31. During a warrantless arrest, the officer must immediately inform the suspect of the cause of arrest. This step applies which requirement under R.A. 7438?
A) Right to silence only
B) Right to a speed disposition
C) Right to be informed of the nature and cause of arrest
D) Right to bail
  • 32. When conducting a systematic strip method during crime scene search, the team applies:
A) Vertical, overlapping movement
B) Randomized checking pattern
C) Coordinated circular movement
D) Evidence-centered searching
  • 33. A police officer refrains from threatening a suspect during questioning to comply with:
    A.
A) R.A. 9745 – Anti-Torture Act
B) R.A. 9231
C) R.A. 7438
D) R.A. 10022
  • 34. A team leader divides the area into quadrants before assigning personnel. This uses the:
A) Wheel search method
B) Zone search method
C) Outward spiral method
D) Spotlight method
  • 35. Upon arrest, the suspect requests counsel. The officer stops questioning until a lawyer arrives. This practice follows:
A) Costudial remedy rule
B) Hot pursuit doctrine
C) Miranda rights under R.A. 7438
D) Physical evidence doctrine
  • 36. An investigator uses measurements from fixed points to plot the position of evidence in a crime scene sketch. This application uses:
A) Polar coordinates
B) Triangulation method
C) Rough sketching
D) Baseline method
  • 37. A police officer tells the suspect to sign a confession without counsel. This violates:
    A. Search and seizure procedure
A) Search and seizure procedure
B) R.A. 7438
C) Warrantless arrest doctrine
D) R.A. 9745
  • 38. During vehicle surveillance, the team switches to leapfrogging to prevent losing sight. This procedure is known as:
A) Direct trailing
B) Tail–relay method
C) Visual obstruction tracking
D) Contact surveillance
  • 39. When sketching a crime scene, the investigator first prepares a rough sketch. This is done to:
A) Substitute formal diagrams
B) Produce a final sketch for court immediately
C) Establish a quick but accurate representation of the scene
D) Replace photography
  • 40. A lawful search is conducted after an arrest, limited to the immediate control area of the arrestee. This applies:
A) Search incidental to a lawful arrest
B) Consent search
C) Search for premises
D) Administrative search
  • 41. A police officer tells a suspect to sign a confession without a lawyer present. This violates:
A) Both A and B
B) R.A. 9745
C) Only search and seizure rules
D) R.A. 7438
  • 42. During a wheel method search, the team starts at:
A) The central point moving outward
B) The corners of the crime scene
C) The outer boundaries moving inward
D) Random points decided by personnel
  • 43. An investigator seals collected evidence bags immediately after retrieval. This applies the principle of:
A) Chain of surveillance
B) Physical integrity doctrine
C) Chain of custody
D) Harmonization
  • 44. The officer asks a female officer to search a female suspect. This follows:
A) Administrative rule for detention
B) Necessity of force principle
C) Gender-nuetrality principle
D) Proper search procedure
  • 45. Evidence in plain view was seized after the officer lawfully entered the home for a warrant execution, but the object was unrelated to the warrant. The officer must determine if:
A) The suspect verbally consented
B) The evidence was in closed storage
C) The incriminating nature was immediately apparent
D) A perimeter search was conducted
  • 46. Officers conducted a search based solely on anonymous tip without corroboration. The supervising officer must determine whether:
A) Consent existed
B) Probable cause was independently established
C) Evidence was already in plain view
D) Crime scene was already secured
  • 47. A crime scene is large and irregular; the team chooses the spiral method. The leader must assess:
A) Whether multiple teams are available
B) Whether sketches can be made later
C) Whether visibility is limited
D) Whether the center is identifiable
  • 48. A final sketch contradicts the rough sketch measurements. The investigator must:
A) Discard the rough sketch
B) Rely solely on photographs
C) Reconcile inconsistencies through re-measurement
D) Present both sketches and let the court decide
  • 49. A suspect voluntarily blurts out a confession before being read rights. The officer must determ
A) If the suspect was deceived
B) Whether the officer recorded the moment
C) If the suspect already had a lawyer
D) Whether the confession was spontaneous
  • 50. The officer arrests someone because they “look suspicious.” Analyzing this, the arrest is:
A) Invalid due to lack of overt act
B) Valid under custodial rule
C) Valid under stop-and-frisk
D) Valid under warrantless arrest
  • 51. A team conducts a quadrant search at night but lighting is poor. The leader must analyze whether:
A) The search should be delayed until morning
B) Quadrant search should be replaced by strip method
C) Only photographs should be taken
D) Additional lighting equipment should be deployed
  • 52. A suspect signs a waiver of rights without counsel. Under R.A. 7438, this is:
A) Valid if officer witnesses it
B) Valid if recorded
C) Valid if voluntary
D) Invalid for lack of counsel
  • 53. Search incidental to arrest was performed in a room far from where the suspect was apprehended. The court must analyze:
A) Whether suspect resisted
B) Whether consent was implied
C) Whether officers had a search warrant
D) Whether area searched was within immediate control
  • 54. A team conducts a strip method search and finds concealed weapons. This demonstrates:
A) Random evidence retrieval
B) Systematic crime scene search
C) Witness-led collection
D) Uncontrolled investigation
  • 55. Information that requires validation before being used for intelligence:
A) Classified information
B) Discarded information
C) Raw information
D) Finished intelligence
  • 56. The “Why” in cardinal points explain
A) Sequence of action
B) Suspect identities
C) Weapon used
D) Underlying motive
  • 57. A core objective of intelligence is to:
A) Create confidential rumors
B) Replace investigators
C) Provide public entertainment
D) Support decision-making
  • 58. A characteristic of a good investigator:
A) Observant and systematic
B) Overreliance on instincts
C) Impulsive decision-making
D) Prioritizing personal judgment
  • 59. Physical evidence is best described as:
A) Rumors about the suspect
B) Hearsay from neighbors
C) Any verbal statement
D) Tangible items related to the crim
  • 60. Intelligence collected through hidden means:
A) Covert
B) Strategic
C) Publicly available
D) Overt
  • 61. iminating contamination is a concern in which phase?
A) Court presentation
B) Follow-up phase
C) Crime scene processing
D) Dissemination phase
  • 62. One goal of investigation is to recover:
A) All destroyed evidence
B) Instruments of the crime
C) Personal belongings of witnesses
D) Every item in the area
  • 63. Proper dissemination ensures intelligence reaches:
A) The suspect
B) Proper decision-makers
C) Only investigators
D) Any available personnel
  • 64. A suspect’s background inquiry is an example of:
A) Crime scene processing
B) Surveillance
C) Intelligence gathering
D) Neighborhood canvassing
  • 65. The term “how the crime was committed” refers to:
A) Motive
B) Modus operandi
C) Means
D) Opportunity
  • 66. The investigator’s first duty at the scene:
A) Secure and isolate the scene
B) Collect fingerprints immediately
C) Conduct interrogation
D) Approach the suspect
  • 67. Intelligence that focuses on specific targets for immediate operations:
A) Structural intelligence
B) Strategic intelligence
C) Administrative intelligence
D) Operational intelligence
  • 68. The “When” in cardinal points identifies:
A) Cause of death
B) Date and time of occurrence
C) Evidence collected
D) Weather Conditions
  • 69. An advantage of photography over sketches:
A) Create Investigation direction
B) Shows exact appearance
C) Replace testimony
D) Locates suspect
  • 70. A fundamental objective of investigation is to:
A) Satisfy public demand
B) Avoid filing cases
C) Produce intelligence reports
D) Identify the guilty party
  • 71. Counterintelligence protects:
A) Confidential materials from adversaries
B) Scene integrity
C) Witness credibility
D) Suspect
  • 72. An example of an investigative tool:
A) Preliminary hearing
B) Interrogation
C) Arrest warrant
D) Judicial affidavit
  • 73. The final phase of investigation is:
A) Case documentation
B) Processing
C) Follow-up
D) Termination
  • 74. The tool used to verify the truthfulness of statements:
A) Sketching
B) Interrogation
C) Surveillance
D) Interview
  • 75. Intelligence used to support administrative decisions:
A) Structural
B) Administrative intelligence
C) Strategic
D) Overt
  • 76. An investigator notes inconsistencies in witness accounts and compares them with physical evidence. This process relates to:
A) Conducting termination
B) Organizing evidence chronologically
C) Initial response
D) Evaluating investigative leads
  • 77. A crime scene with multiple entry points requires the investigator to determine which path the offender used. This applies the principle of:
A) Reconstruction
B) Verification
C) Motive analysis
D) Scene sketching
  • 78. If intelligence gathered is accurate but reaches decision-makers too late, the failure is in:
A) Collection
B) Coordination
C) Processing
D) Dissemination
  • 79. When an investigator determines that the suspect’s MO matches past incidents, the investigator is applying:
A) Case isolation
B) Witness evaluation
C) Accusation formulation
D) Pattern analysis
  • 80. Conflicting evidence suggests two possible scenarios. The investigator compares both to determine the most logical sequence of events. This uses:
A) Note-taking
B) Deductive reasoning
C) The cardinal points
D) Surveillance
  • 81. During a foot surveillance, the suspect suddenly enters a crowded market. The investigator adjusts distance to avoid detection. This action applies which principle?
A) Maintaining a fixed pace
B) Using direct confrontation
C) Preserving cover and concealment
D) Establishing overt presence
  • 82. An operative receives raw data from a civilian and must sort, translate, and verify it before use. This corresponds to which intelligence cycle phase?
A) Processing
B) Dissemination
C) Direction
D) Collection
  • 83. A handler meets an informant in a neutral location to reduce risk. This demonstrates the principle of:
A) Evidence substitution
B) Strategic penetration
C) Securing informant identity
D) Randomizing interrogation
  • 84. When preparing surveillance notes, the investigator diagrams the suspect’s movement pattern to predict next actions. This applies:
A) Pattern recognition
B) Overt documentation
C) Interrogation technique
D) Randomized tracking
  • 85. An intelligence officer determines which unit must receive a report concerning a smuggling operation. This step applies:
A) Direction
B) Evaluation
C) Classification
D) Dissemination
  • 86. A confidential informant provides consistent quality data over several months. The handler categorizes this person as:
A) Danger informant
B) Accidental source
C) Regular informant
D) Classified agent
  • 87. An investigator classifies a document “Secret” because unauthorized disclosure may harm operations. This is:
A) Raw sorting
B) Encoding
C) Security labeling
D) Overclassification
  • 88. During vehicle surveillance, the subject increases speed. The team switches to leapfrogging to prevent losing sight. This procedure is known as:
A) Visual obstruction tracking
B) Contact surveillance
C) Tail-relay method
D) Direct trailing
  • 89. An intelligence unit instructs collectors to focus on illegal firearms networks. This operational task belongs to:
A) Reclassification
B) Planning and direction
C) Analysis
D) Dissemination
  • 90. A handler assesses an informant’s motives before accepting information. This application reflects:
A) Premature classification
B) Source validation
C) Surveillance support
D) Tactical manipulation
  • 91. A field agent receives two conflicting reports and must choose which to pursue based on reliability. This is an example of:
A) Prioritization of information
B) Discarding all sources
C) Random selection
D) Offensive surveillance
  • 92. When conducting stationary surveillance, the officer positions in a location with unobstructed visibility yet low exposure. This applies:
A) Forced confrontation
B) Dual-tracking
C) Rational shadowing
D) Cover selection
  • 93. Intelligence requiring immediate operational action is categorized as:
A) Strategic
B) Administrative
C) Operational
D) Background
  • 94. A field operative monitors radio traffic for intelligence leads. This practice falls under:
A) Controlled overt collection
B) Witness retrieval
C) Technical surveillance
D) Indirect canvassing
  • 95. An investigator destroys preliminary notes after filing final reports to prevent leakage. This applies:
A) Interrogation secrecy
B) Proper document disposal
C) Covert misinformation
D) Information suppression
  • 96. Two teams conduct surveillance: one follows closely while another monitors from a distance. The operation minimizes detection while maintaining observation. This setup exemplifies:
A) Fragmented tracking
B) Improvised surveillance
C) Static intelligence
D) Combined (team) surveillance
  • 97. If direction in the intelligence cycle is weak, resulting in irrelevant data being collected, the failure lies in:
A) Document security
B) Planning clarity
C) Dissemination
D) Source reliability
  • 98. An informant provides accurate details but frequently violates agreed protocols, placing the team at risk. The handler must assess:
A) Whether to change the informant’s identity
B) If surveillance should be canceled
C) Whether to reassign the team
D) Operational utility vs. security risk
  • 99. Intelligence reports classified “Top Secret” are mixed with unclassified memos, increasing exposure. This violates:
A) Covert collection
B) Multi-source evaluation
C) Surveillance coordination
D) Compartmentation principle
  • 100. An officer notices that surveillance footage contradicts live observations, requiring him to identify which source is more credible. This uses:
A) Immediate confrontation
B) Evidence suppression
C) Hypothetical assumption
D) Source cross-validation
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