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CDI1-FINVIN
Contributed by: Three
  • 1. The primary objective of criminal investigation is to?
A) Influence the statements of witnesses
B) Secure the conviction of the accused
C) Ascertain facts to establish truth
D) Collect evidence for intelligence units
  • 2. The phase where investigators arrive, evaluate the area, and ensure safety is?
A) Follow-up phase
B) Termination phase
C) Initial response phase
D) Reporting phase
  • 3. The “cardinal points of investigation” mainly guide investigators in?
A) Identifying the criminal’s motives only
B) Organizing the prosecution panel
C) Determining the essential information about a crime
D) Drafting an intelligence cycle
  • 4. The “WHO” in the cardinal points refers to:
A) Only the perpetrators
B) All individuals involved directly or indirectly
C) Persons who may testify only
D) Individuals present before the incident
  • 5. The intelligence principle stating that intelligence must be produced on time is:
A) Secrecy
B) Accuracy
C) Flexibility
D) Timeliness
  • 6. The investigative tool that involves asking structured questions to gather facts:
A) Validation
B) Interrogation
C) Examination
D) Interview
  • 7. The proper sequence of the intelligence cycle begins with:
A) Processing
B) Planning and direction
C) Collection
D) Dissemination
  • 8. In the processing phase of the intelligence cycle, the main activity is:
A) Arrest of suspects
B) Conversion of raw data to usable information
C) Deployment of operatives
D) Documentation of court records
  • 9. The objective of surveillance in investigation is to:
A) Observe activities discreetly
B) Create fear among suspects
C) Replace interrogation
D) Establish public visibility
  • 10. The investigative phase that includes case buildup and suspect identification is:
A) Preliminary investigation
B) Termination
C) Court prosecution
D) Follow-up investigation
  • 11. A principle of intelligence ensuring unauthorized persons cannot access information:
A) Accuracy
B) Secrecy
C) Mobility
D) Reliability
  • 12. An investigator reconstructs the event by determining what happened. This refers to:
A) The “When”
B) The “Who”
C) The “Why
D) The “How”
  • 13. The tool used to preserve crime scene conditions through visual documentation:
A) Notes
B) Photography
C) Surveillance
D) Canvassing
  • 14. The purpose of an initial interview with witnesses is to:
A) Pressure them for a confession
B) Prepare defense strategies
C) Influence their recall
D) Elicit firsthand observations
  • 15. Intelligence information that comes from public reports is:
A) Operational intelligence
B) Overt information
C) Strategic intelligence
D) Covert collection
  • 16. The investigator’s “follow-up” work includes:
A) Case linkage and further evidence search
B) Securing perimeter
C) Closing case files
D) Arresting without probable cause
  • 17. Which is not part of the cardinal points?
A) Who
B) Witness credibility
C) Why
D) Where
  • 18. The principle that intelligence must be correct and factual:
A) Accuracy
B) Secrecy
C) Timeliness
D) Compatibility
  • 19. The tool of investigation used to record observations:
A) Note-taking
B) Interview
C) Examination
D) Sketch
  • 20. The “objective of criminal investigation” focusing on evidence aims to:
A) Avoid the need for witnesses
B) Confuse the defense counsel
C) Provide foundation for prosecution
D) Reduce the investigator’s workload
  • 21. The phase where investigators prepare formal documentation:
A) Prosecution phase
B) Reporting phase
C) Termination phase
D) Initial response
  • 22. Intelligence that guides long-term planning:
A) Overt intelligence
B) Operational intelligence
C) Strategic intelligence
D) Counterintelligence
  • 23. Crime scene sketching is essential to:
A) Identify the suspect immediately
B) Provide a scale representation of the area
C) Replace photography
D) Make a 3D reconstruction
  • 24. A principle requiring all investigators to coordinate with others:
A) Coordination
B) Objectivity
C) Unity of direction
D) Accurate reporting
  • 25. An informer is motivated by revenge, while an informant is motivated by civic duty. Distinguishing their motives is essential to:
A) Arrest timing
B) Surveillance planning
C) Case termination
D) Source evaluation
  • 26. A suspect uses countersurveillance techniques, forcing the team to adapt routes, timings, and spacing. This demonstrates:
A) Reactive investigative strategy
B) Deviation from intelligence doctrine
C) Low information value
D) Failure of planning
  • 27. When an officer analyzes reports to determine which information contributes to long-term policy decisions, he is identifying:
A) Strategic intelligence
B) Administrative intelligence
C) Tactical surveillance data
D) Operational intelligence
  • 28. Multiple reports about a terrorist plot come from different informants. The officer synthesizes them to form a single picture. This analytical process is:
A) Refutation
B) Integration
C) Exclusion
D) Prior isolation
  • 29. A handler receives a tip that may cause political embarrassment if leaked. The handler must evaluate classification not just by content but by effect of disclosure. This requires:
A) Specialized dissemination
B) Document reproduction
C) Analytical risk assessment
D) Rapid reporting
  • 30. An officer arrests a suspect without a warrant after witnessing the suspect stab another person. This scenario illustrates:
A) Arrest by pre-arranged operation
B) Arrest in flagrante delicto
C) Arrest by search warrant
D) Arrest by virtue of citizen’s arrest
  • 31. During a warrantless arrest, the officer must immediately inform the suspect of the cause of arrest. This step applies which requirement under R.A. 7438?
A) Right to silence only
B) Right to be informed of the nature and cause of arrest
C) Right to a speed disposition
D) Right to bail
  • 32. When conducting a systematic strip method during crime scene search, the team applies:
A) Coordinated circular movement
B) Randomized checking pattern
C) Vertical, overlapping movement
D) Evidence-centered searching
  • 33. A police officer refrains from threatening a suspect during questioning to comply with:
    A.
A) R.A. 7438
B) R.A. 9231
C) R.A. 9745 – Anti-Torture Act
D) R.A. 10022
  • 34. A team leader divides the area into quadrants before assigning personnel. This uses the:
A) Zone search method
B) Outward spiral method
C) Spotlight method
D) Wheel search method
  • 35. Upon arrest, the suspect requests counsel. The officer stops questioning until a lawyer arrives. This practice follows:
A) Miranda rights under R.A. 7438
B) Physical evidence doctrine
C) Costudial remedy rule
D) Hot pursuit doctrine
  • 36. An investigator uses measurements from fixed points to plot the position of evidence in a crime scene sketch. This application uses:
A) Polar coordinates
B) Triangulation method
C) Rough sketching
D) Baseline method
  • 37. A police officer tells the suspect to sign a confession without counsel. This violates:
    A. Search and seizure procedure
A) R.A. 9745
B) R.A. 7438
C) Warrantless arrest doctrine
D) Search and seizure procedure
  • 38. During vehicle surveillance, the team switches to leapfrogging to prevent losing sight. This procedure is known as:
A) Tail–relay method
B) Visual obstruction tracking
C) Contact surveillance
D) Direct trailing
  • 39. When sketching a crime scene, the investigator first prepares a rough sketch. This is done to:
A) Replace photography
B) Substitute formal diagrams
C) Establish a quick but accurate representation of the scene
D) Produce a final sketch for court immediately
  • 40. A lawful search is conducted after an arrest, limited to the immediate control area of the arrestee. This applies:
A) Search for premises
B) Consent search
C) Administrative search
D) Search incidental to a lawful arrest
  • 41. A police officer tells a suspect to sign a confession without a lawyer present. This violates:
A) Only search and seizure rules
B) Both A and B
C) R.A. 9745
D) R.A. 7438
  • 42. During a wheel method search, the team starts at:
A) The corners of the crime scene
B) The outer boundaries moving inward
C) The central point moving outward
D) Random points decided by personnel
  • 43. An investigator seals collected evidence bags immediately after retrieval. This applies the principle of:
A) Harmonization
B) Physical integrity doctrine
C) Chain of custody
D) Chain of surveillance
  • 44. The officer asks a female officer to search a female suspect. This follows:
A) Gender-nuetrality principle
B) Proper search procedure
C) Administrative rule for detention
D) Necessity of force principle
  • 45. Evidence in plain view was seized after the officer lawfully entered the home for a warrant execution, but the object was unrelated to the warrant. The officer must determine if:
A) A perimeter search was conducted
B) The evidence was in closed storage
C) The suspect verbally consented
D) The incriminating nature was immediately apparent
  • 46. Officers conducted a search based solely on anonymous tip without corroboration. The supervising officer must determine whether:
A) Consent existed
B) Crime scene was already secured
C) Evidence was already in plain view
D) Probable cause was independently established
  • 47. A crime scene is large and irregular; the team chooses the spiral method. The leader must assess:
A) Whether multiple teams are available
B) Whether sketches can be made later
C) Whether the center is identifiable
D) Whether visibility is limited
  • 48. A final sketch contradicts the rough sketch measurements. The investigator must:
A) Reconcile inconsistencies through re-measurement
B) Present both sketches and let the court decide
C) Rely solely on photographs
D) Discard the rough sketch
  • 49. A suspect voluntarily blurts out a confession before being read rights. The officer must determ
A) If the suspect was deceived
B) Whether the officer recorded the moment
C) Whether the confession was spontaneous
D) If the suspect already had a lawyer
  • 50. The officer arrests someone because they “look suspicious.” Analyzing this, the arrest is:
A) Valid under warrantless arrest
B) Valid under stop-and-frisk
C) Valid under custodial rule
D) Invalid due to lack of overt act
  • 51. A team conducts a quadrant search at night but lighting is poor. The leader must analyze whether:
A) Only photographs should be taken
B) The search should be delayed until morning
C) Additional lighting equipment should be deployed
D) Quadrant search should be replaced by strip method
  • 52. A suspect signs a waiver of rights without counsel. Under R.A. 7438, this is:
A) Invalid for lack of counsel
B) Valid if recorded
C) Valid if officer witnesses it
D) Valid if voluntary
  • 53. Search incidental to arrest was performed in a room far from where the suspect was apprehended. The court must analyze:
A) Whether officers had a search warrant
B) Whether area searched was within immediate control
C) Whether consent was implied
D) Whether suspect resisted
  • 54. A team conducts a strip method search and finds concealed weapons. This demonstrates:
A) Uncontrolled investigation
B) Systematic crime scene search
C) Random evidence retrieval
D) Witness-led collection
  • 55. Information that requires validation before being used for intelligence:
A) Classified information
B) Finished intelligence
C) Raw information
D) Discarded information
  • 56. The “Why” in cardinal points explain
A) Sequence of action
B) Weapon used
C) Underlying motive
D) Suspect identities
  • 57. A core objective of intelligence is to:
A) Replace investigators
B) Provide public entertainment
C) Create confidential rumors
D) Support decision-making
  • 58. A characteristic of a good investigator:
A) Prioritizing personal judgment
B) Impulsive decision-making
C) Overreliance on instincts
D) Observant and systematic
  • 59. Physical evidence is best described as:
A) Tangible items related to the crim
B) Any verbal statement
C) Hearsay from neighbors
D) Rumors about the suspect
  • 60. Intelligence collected through hidden means:
A) Publicly available
B) Strategic
C) Covert
D) Overt
  • 61. iminating contamination is a concern in which phase?
A) Court presentation
B) Crime scene processing
C) Follow-up phase
D) Dissemination phase
  • 62. One goal of investigation is to recover:
A) Every item in the area
B) Personal belongings of witnesses
C) All destroyed evidence
D) Instruments of the crime
  • 63. Proper dissemination ensures intelligence reaches:
A) Proper decision-makers
B) Only investigators
C) The suspect
D) Any available personnel
  • 64. A suspect’s background inquiry is an example of:
A) Intelligence gathering
B) Neighborhood canvassing
C) Crime scene processing
D) Surveillance
  • 65. The term “how the crime was committed” refers to:
A) Motive
B) Modus operandi
C) Opportunity
D) Means
  • 66. The investigator’s first duty at the scene:
A) Conduct interrogation
B) Secure and isolate the scene
C) Approach the suspect
D) Collect fingerprints immediately
  • 67. Intelligence that focuses on specific targets for immediate operations:
A) Strategic intelligence
B) Operational intelligence
C) Structural intelligence
D) Administrative intelligence
  • 68. The “When” in cardinal points identifies:
A) Cause of death
B) Evidence collected
C) Weather Conditions
D) Date and time of occurrence
  • 69. An advantage of photography over sketches:
A) Create Investigation direction
B) Shows exact appearance
C) Locates suspect
D) Replace testimony
  • 70. A fundamental objective of investigation is to:
A) Satisfy public demand
B) Produce intelligence reports
C) Identify the guilty party
D) Avoid filing cases
  • 71. Counterintelligence protects:
A) Scene integrity
B) Confidential materials from adversaries
C) Suspect
D) Witness credibility
  • 72. An example of an investigative tool:
A) Preliminary hearing
B) Interrogation
C) Judicial affidavit
D) Arrest warrant
  • 73. The final phase of investigation is:
A) Follow-up
B) Termination
C) Case documentation
D) Processing
  • 74. The tool used to verify the truthfulness of statements:
A) Surveillance
B) Interrogation
C) Interview
D) Sketching
  • 75. Intelligence used to support administrative decisions:
A) Overt
B) Administrative intelligence
C) Strategic
D) Structural
  • 76. An investigator notes inconsistencies in witness accounts and compares them with physical evidence. This process relates to:
A) Evaluating investigative leads
B) Initial response
C) Organizing evidence chronologically
D) Conducting termination
  • 77. A crime scene with multiple entry points requires the investigator to determine which path the offender used. This applies the principle of:
A) Motive analysis
B) Reconstruction
C) Scene sketching
D) Verification
  • 78. If intelligence gathered is accurate but reaches decision-makers too late, the failure is in:
A) Collection
B) Dissemination
C) Processing
D) Coordination
  • 79. When an investigator determines that the suspect’s MO matches past incidents, the investigator is applying:
A) Pattern analysis
B) Accusation formulation
C) Witness evaluation
D) Case isolation
  • 80. Conflicting evidence suggests two possible scenarios. The investigator compares both to determine the most logical sequence of events. This uses:
A) Deductive reasoning
B) Note-taking
C) The cardinal points
D) Surveillance
  • 81. During a foot surveillance, the suspect suddenly enters a crowded market. The investigator adjusts distance to avoid detection. This action applies which principle?
A) Maintaining a fixed pace
B) Establishing overt presence
C) Using direct confrontation
D) Preserving cover and concealment
  • 82. An operative receives raw data from a civilian and must sort, translate, and verify it before use. This corresponds to which intelligence cycle phase?
A) Collection
B) Direction
C) Processing
D) Dissemination
  • 83. A handler meets an informant in a neutral location to reduce risk. This demonstrates the principle of:
A) Evidence substitution
B) Strategic penetration
C) Randomizing interrogation
D) Securing informant identity
  • 84. When preparing surveillance notes, the investigator diagrams the suspect’s movement pattern to predict next actions. This applies:
A) Pattern recognition
B) Interrogation technique
C) Overt documentation
D) Randomized tracking
  • 85. An intelligence officer determines which unit must receive a report concerning a smuggling operation. This step applies:
A) Evaluation
B) Classification
C) Dissemination
D) Direction
  • 86. A confidential informant provides consistent quality data over several months. The handler categorizes this person as:
A) Classified agent
B) Regular informant
C) Accidental source
D) Danger informant
  • 87. An investigator classifies a document “Secret” because unauthorized disclosure may harm operations. This is:
A) Security labeling
B) Encoding
C) Overclassification
D) Raw sorting
  • 88. During vehicle surveillance, the subject increases speed. The team switches to leapfrogging to prevent losing sight. This procedure is known as:
A) Direct trailing
B) Contact surveillance
C) Tail-relay method
D) Visual obstruction tracking
  • 89. An intelligence unit instructs collectors to focus on illegal firearms networks. This operational task belongs to:
A) Dissemination
B) Planning and direction
C) Analysis
D) Reclassification
  • 90. A handler assesses an informant’s motives before accepting information. This application reflects:
A) Surveillance support
B) Premature classification
C) Source validation
D) Tactical manipulation
  • 91. A field agent receives two conflicting reports and must choose which to pursue based on reliability. This is an example of:
A) Random selection
B) Offensive surveillance
C) Prioritization of information
D) Discarding all sources
  • 92. When conducting stationary surveillance, the officer positions in a location with unobstructed visibility yet low exposure. This applies:
A) Forced confrontation
B) Rational shadowing
C) Dual-tracking
D) Cover selection
  • 93. Intelligence requiring immediate operational action is categorized as:
A) Background
B) Strategic
C) Administrative
D) Operational
  • 94. A field operative monitors radio traffic for intelligence leads. This practice falls under:
A) Technical surveillance
B) Witness retrieval
C) Indirect canvassing
D) Controlled overt collection
  • 95. An investigator destroys preliminary notes after filing final reports to prevent leakage. This applies:
A) Interrogation secrecy
B) Proper document disposal
C) Covert misinformation
D) Information suppression
  • 96. Two teams conduct surveillance: one follows closely while another monitors from a distance. The operation minimizes detection while maintaining observation. This setup exemplifies:
A) Fragmented tracking
B) Static intelligence
C) Combined (team) surveillance
D) Improvised surveillance
  • 97. If direction in the intelligence cycle is weak, resulting in irrelevant data being collected, the failure lies in:
A) Source reliability
B) Document security
C) Planning clarity
D) Dissemination
  • 98. An informant provides accurate details but frequently violates agreed protocols, placing the team at risk. The handler must assess:
A) Whether to reassign the team
B) Whether to change the informant’s identity
C) Operational utility vs. security risk
D) If surveillance should be canceled
  • 99. Intelligence reports classified “Top Secret” are mixed with unclassified memos, increasing exposure. This violates:
A) Surveillance coordination
B) Covert collection
C) Compartmentation principle
D) Multi-source evaluation
  • 100. An officer notices that surveillance footage contradicts live observations, requiring him to identify which source is more credible. This uses:
A) Evidence suppression
B) Source cross-validation
C) Hypothetical assumption
D) Immediate confrontation
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