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CDI1-FINVIN
Contributed by: Three
  • 1. The primary objective of criminal investigation is to?
A) Influence the statements of witnesses
B) Ascertain facts to establish truth
C) Collect evidence for intelligence units
D) Secure the conviction of the accused
  • 2. The phase where investigators arrive, evaluate the area, and ensure safety is?
A) Termination phase
B) Reporting phase
C) Initial response phase
D) Follow-up phase
  • 3. The “cardinal points of investigation” mainly guide investigators in?
A) Drafting an intelligence cycle
B) Identifying the criminal’s motives only
C) Organizing the prosecution panel
D) Determining the essential information about a crime
  • 4. The “WHO” in the cardinal points refers to:
A) All individuals involved directly or indirectly
B) Individuals present before the incident
C) Persons who may testify only
D) Only the perpetrators
  • 5. The intelligence principle stating that intelligence must be produced on time is:
A) Flexibility
B) Secrecy
C) Accuracy
D) Timeliness
  • 6. The investigative tool that involves asking structured questions to gather facts:
A) Examination
B) Interview
C) Validation
D) Interrogation
  • 7. The proper sequence of the intelligence cycle begins with:
A) Planning and direction
B) Collection
C) Dissemination
D) Processing
  • 8. In the processing phase of the intelligence cycle, the main activity is:
A) Arrest of suspects
B) Conversion of raw data to usable information
C) Deployment of operatives
D) Documentation of court records
  • 9. The objective of surveillance in investigation is to:
A) Establish public visibility
B) Create fear among suspects
C) Observe activities discreetly
D) Replace interrogation
  • 10. The investigative phase that includes case buildup and suspect identification is:
A) Follow-up investigation
B) Termination
C) Court prosecution
D) Preliminary investigation
  • 11. A principle of intelligence ensuring unauthorized persons cannot access information:
A) Secrecy
B) Mobility
C) Accuracy
D) Reliability
  • 12. An investigator reconstructs the event by determining what happened. This refers to:
A) The “Why
B) The “Who”
C) The “How”
D) The “When”
  • 13. The tool used to preserve crime scene conditions through visual documentation:
A) Notes
B) Surveillance
C) Photography
D) Canvassing
  • 14. The purpose of an initial interview with witnesses is to:
A) Elicit firsthand observations
B) Pressure them for a confession
C) Prepare defense strategies
D) Influence their recall
  • 15. Intelligence information that comes from public reports is:
A) Operational intelligence
B) Strategic intelligence
C) Covert collection
D) Overt information
  • 16. The investigator’s “follow-up” work includes:
A) Closing case files
B) Arresting without probable cause
C) Case linkage and further evidence search
D) Securing perimeter
  • 17. Which is not part of the cardinal points?
A) Where
B) Who
C) Witness credibility
D) Why
  • 18. The principle that intelligence must be correct and factual:
A) Timeliness
B) Accuracy
C) Secrecy
D) Compatibility
  • 19. The tool of investigation used to record observations:
A) Examination
B) Interview
C) Note-taking
D) Sketch
  • 20. The “objective of criminal investigation” focusing on evidence aims to:
A) Provide foundation for prosecution
B) Confuse the defense counsel
C) Reduce the investigator’s workload
D) Avoid the need for witnesses
  • 21. The phase where investigators prepare formal documentation:
A) Termination phase
B) Initial response
C) Reporting phase
D) Prosecution phase
  • 22. Intelligence that guides long-term planning:
A) Operational intelligence
B) Counterintelligence
C) Strategic intelligence
D) Overt intelligence
  • 23. Crime scene sketching is essential to:
A) Make a 3D reconstruction
B) Provide a scale representation of the area
C) Identify the suspect immediately
D) Replace photography
  • 24. A principle requiring all investigators to coordinate with others:
A) Unity of direction
B) Objectivity
C) Accurate reporting
D) Coordination
  • 25. An informer is motivated by revenge, while an informant is motivated by civic duty. Distinguishing their motives is essential to:
A) Case termination
B) Arrest timing
C) Source evaluation
D) Surveillance planning
  • 26. A suspect uses countersurveillance techniques, forcing the team to adapt routes, timings, and spacing. This demonstrates:
A) Deviation from intelligence doctrine
B) Low information value
C) Reactive investigative strategy
D) Failure of planning
  • 27. When an officer analyzes reports to determine which information contributes to long-term policy decisions, he is identifying:
A) Tactical surveillance data
B) Administrative intelligence
C) Strategic intelligence
D) Operational intelligence
  • 28. Multiple reports about a terrorist plot come from different informants. The officer synthesizes them to form a single picture. This analytical process is:
A) Prior isolation
B) Integration
C) Refutation
D) Exclusion
  • 29. A handler receives a tip that may cause political embarrassment if leaked. The handler must evaluate classification not just by content but by effect of disclosure. This requires:
A) Specialized dissemination
B) Rapid reporting
C) Analytical risk assessment
D) Document reproduction
  • 30. An officer arrests a suspect without a warrant after witnessing the suspect stab another person. This scenario illustrates:
A) Arrest by search warrant
B) Arrest by pre-arranged operation
C) Arrest by virtue of citizen’s arrest
D) Arrest in flagrante delicto
  • 31. During a warrantless arrest, the officer must immediately inform the suspect of the cause of arrest. This step applies which requirement under R.A. 7438?
A) Right to be informed of the nature and cause of arrest
B) Right to silence only
C) Right to bail
D) Right to a speed disposition
  • 32. When conducting a systematic strip method during crime scene search, the team applies:
A) Evidence-centered searching
B) Coordinated circular movement
C) Vertical, overlapping movement
D) Randomized checking pattern
  • 33. A police officer refrains from threatening a suspect during questioning to comply with:
    A.
A) R.A. 7438
B) R.A. 9231
C) R.A. 9745 – Anti-Torture Act
D) R.A. 10022
  • 34. A team leader divides the area into quadrants before assigning personnel. This uses the:
A) Spotlight method
B) Outward spiral method
C) Zone search method
D) Wheel search method
  • 35. Upon arrest, the suspect requests counsel. The officer stops questioning until a lawyer arrives. This practice follows:
A) Physical evidence doctrine
B) Costudial remedy rule
C) Hot pursuit doctrine
D) Miranda rights under R.A. 7438
  • 36. An investigator uses measurements from fixed points to plot the position of evidence in a crime scene sketch. This application uses:
A) Baseline method
B) Polar coordinates
C) Rough sketching
D) Triangulation method
  • 37. A police officer tells the suspect to sign a confession without counsel. This violates:
    A. Search and seizure procedure
A) Warrantless arrest doctrine
B) Search and seizure procedure
C) R.A. 7438
D) R.A. 9745
  • 38. During vehicle surveillance, the team switches to leapfrogging to prevent losing sight. This procedure is known as:
A) Tail–relay method
B) Visual obstruction tracking
C) Direct trailing
D) Contact surveillance
  • 39. When sketching a crime scene, the investigator first prepares a rough sketch. This is done to:
A) Substitute formal diagrams
B) Produce a final sketch for court immediately
C) Establish a quick but accurate representation of the scene
D) Replace photography
  • 40. A lawful search is conducted after an arrest, limited to the immediate control area of the arrestee. This applies:
A) Search for premises
B) Search incidental to a lawful arrest
C) Consent search
D) Administrative search
  • 41. A police officer tells a suspect to sign a confession without a lawyer present. This violates:
A) R.A. 7438
B) R.A. 9745
C) Both A and B
D) Only search and seizure rules
  • 42. During a wheel method search, the team starts at:
A) The corners of the crime scene
B) Random points decided by personnel
C) The central point moving outward
D) The outer boundaries moving inward
  • 43. An investigator seals collected evidence bags immediately after retrieval. This applies the principle of:
A) Chain of custody
B) Harmonization
C) Chain of surveillance
D) Physical integrity doctrine
  • 44. The officer asks a female officer to search a female suspect. This follows:
A) Gender-nuetrality principle
B) Necessity of force principle
C) Administrative rule for detention
D) Proper search procedure
  • 45. Evidence in plain view was seized after the officer lawfully entered the home for a warrant execution, but the object was unrelated to the warrant. The officer must determine if:
A) The suspect verbally consented
B) The evidence was in closed storage
C) A perimeter search was conducted
D) The incriminating nature was immediately apparent
  • 46. Officers conducted a search based solely on anonymous tip without corroboration. The supervising officer must determine whether:
A) Consent existed
B) Crime scene was already secured
C) Probable cause was independently established
D) Evidence was already in plain view
  • 47. A crime scene is large and irregular; the team chooses the spiral method. The leader must assess:
A) Whether the center is identifiable
B) Whether multiple teams are available
C) Whether visibility is limited
D) Whether sketches can be made later
  • 48. A final sketch contradicts the rough sketch measurements. The investigator must:
A) Discard the rough sketch
B) Rely solely on photographs
C) Reconcile inconsistencies through re-measurement
D) Present both sketches and let the court decide
  • 49. A suspect voluntarily blurts out a confession before being read rights. The officer must determ
A) Whether the confession was spontaneous
B) If the suspect was deceived
C) Whether the officer recorded the moment
D) If the suspect already had a lawyer
  • 50. The officer arrests someone because they “look suspicious.” Analyzing this, the arrest is:
A) Invalid due to lack of overt act
B) Valid under stop-and-frisk
C) Valid under warrantless arrest
D) Valid under custodial rule
  • 51. A team conducts a quadrant search at night but lighting is poor. The leader must analyze whether:
A) Additional lighting equipment should be deployed
B) Quadrant search should be replaced by strip method
C) The search should be delayed until morning
D) Only photographs should be taken
  • 52. A suspect signs a waiver of rights without counsel. Under R.A. 7438, this is:
A) Valid if recorded
B) Invalid for lack of counsel
C) Valid if officer witnesses it
D) Valid if voluntary
  • 53. Search incidental to arrest was performed in a room far from where the suspect was apprehended. The court must analyze:
A) Whether suspect resisted
B) Whether consent was implied
C) Whether officers had a search warrant
D) Whether area searched was within immediate control
  • 54. A team conducts a strip method search and finds concealed weapons. This demonstrates:
A) Random evidence retrieval
B) Systematic crime scene search
C) Uncontrolled investigation
D) Witness-led collection
  • 55. Information that requires validation before being used for intelligence:
A) Discarded information
B) Classified information
C) Raw information
D) Finished intelligence
  • 56. The “Why” in cardinal points explain
A) Suspect identities
B) Sequence of action
C) Weapon used
D) Underlying motive
  • 57. A core objective of intelligence is to:
A) Support decision-making
B) Provide public entertainment
C) Create confidential rumors
D) Replace investigators
  • 58. A characteristic of a good investigator:
A) Prioritizing personal judgment
B) Overreliance on instincts
C) Impulsive decision-making
D) Observant and systematic
  • 59. Physical evidence is best described as:
A) Hearsay from neighbors
B) Any verbal statement
C) Rumors about the suspect
D) Tangible items related to the crim
  • 60. Intelligence collected through hidden means:
A) Publicly available
B) Covert
C) Strategic
D) Overt
  • 61. iminating contamination is a concern in which phase?
A) Court presentation
B) Crime scene processing
C) Dissemination phase
D) Follow-up phase
  • 62. One goal of investigation is to recover:
A) Every item in the area
B) All destroyed evidence
C) Instruments of the crime
D) Personal belongings of witnesses
  • 63. Proper dissemination ensures intelligence reaches:
A) The suspect
B) Proper decision-makers
C) Any available personnel
D) Only investigators
  • 64. A suspect’s background inquiry is an example of:
A) Surveillance
B) Neighborhood canvassing
C) Intelligence gathering
D) Crime scene processing
  • 65. The term “how the crime was committed” refers to:
A) Means
B) Opportunity
C) Modus operandi
D) Motive
  • 66. The investigator’s first duty at the scene:
A) Conduct interrogation
B) Collect fingerprints immediately
C) Approach the suspect
D) Secure and isolate the scene
  • 67. Intelligence that focuses on specific targets for immediate operations:
A) Operational intelligence
B) Structural intelligence
C) Administrative intelligence
D) Strategic intelligence
  • 68. The “When” in cardinal points identifies:
A) Evidence collected
B) Date and time of occurrence
C) Cause of death
D) Weather Conditions
  • 69. An advantage of photography over sketches:
A) Replace testimony
B) Shows exact appearance
C) Create Investigation direction
D) Locates suspect
  • 70. A fundamental objective of investigation is to:
A) Avoid filing cases
B) Identify the guilty party
C) Produce intelligence reports
D) Satisfy public demand
  • 71. Counterintelligence protects:
A) Confidential materials from adversaries
B) Scene integrity
C) Witness credibility
D) Suspect
  • 72. An example of an investigative tool:
A) Judicial affidavit
B) Arrest warrant
C) Preliminary hearing
D) Interrogation
  • 73. The final phase of investigation is:
A) Follow-up
B) Termination
C) Processing
D) Case documentation
  • 74. The tool used to verify the truthfulness of statements:
A) Interrogation
B) Interview
C) Sketching
D) Surveillance
  • 75. Intelligence used to support administrative decisions:
A) Structural
B) Administrative intelligence
C) Overt
D) Strategic
  • 76. An investigator notes inconsistencies in witness accounts and compares them with physical evidence. This process relates to:
A) Evaluating investigative leads
B) Organizing evidence chronologically
C) Conducting termination
D) Initial response
  • 77. A crime scene with multiple entry points requires the investigator to determine which path the offender used. This applies the principle of:
A) Reconstruction
B) Motive analysis
C) Verification
D) Scene sketching
  • 78. If intelligence gathered is accurate but reaches decision-makers too late, the failure is in:
A) Collection
B) Processing
C) Coordination
D) Dissemination
  • 79. When an investigator determines that the suspect’s MO matches past incidents, the investigator is applying:
A) Witness evaluation
B) Pattern analysis
C) Case isolation
D) Accusation formulation
  • 80. Conflicting evidence suggests two possible scenarios. The investigator compares both to determine the most logical sequence of events. This uses:
A) Surveillance
B) Note-taking
C) The cardinal points
D) Deductive reasoning
  • 81. During a foot surveillance, the suspect suddenly enters a crowded market. The investigator adjusts distance to avoid detection. This action applies which principle?
A) Using direct confrontation
B) Maintaining a fixed pace
C) Establishing overt presence
D) Preserving cover and concealment
  • 82. An operative receives raw data from a civilian and must sort, translate, and verify it before use. This corresponds to which intelligence cycle phase?
A) Collection
B) Processing
C) Direction
D) Dissemination
  • 83. A handler meets an informant in a neutral location to reduce risk. This demonstrates the principle of:
A) Randomizing interrogation
B) Evidence substitution
C) Securing informant identity
D) Strategic penetration
  • 84. When preparing surveillance notes, the investigator diagrams the suspect’s movement pattern to predict next actions. This applies:
A) Randomized tracking
B) Interrogation technique
C) Pattern recognition
D) Overt documentation
  • 85. An intelligence officer determines which unit must receive a report concerning a smuggling operation. This step applies:
A) Direction
B) Evaluation
C) Classification
D) Dissemination
  • 86. A confidential informant provides consistent quality data over several months. The handler categorizes this person as:
A) Regular informant
B) Danger informant
C) Classified agent
D) Accidental source
  • 87. An investigator classifies a document “Secret” because unauthorized disclosure may harm operations. This is:
A) Security labeling
B) Overclassification
C) Raw sorting
D) Encoding
  • 88. During vehicle surveillance, the subject increases speed. The team switches to leapfrogging to prevent losing sight. This procedure is known as:
A) Tail-relay method
B) Visual obstruction tracking
C) Contact surveillance
D) Direct trailing
  • 89. An intelligence unit instructs collectors to focus on illegal firearms networks. This operational task belongs to:
A) Reclassification
B) Dissemination
C) Analysis
D) Planning and direction
  • 90. A handler assesses an informant’s motives before accepting information. This application reflects:
A) Surveillance support
B) Premature classification
C) Source validation
D) Tactical manipulation
  • 91. A field agent receives two conflicting reports and must choose which to pursue based on reliability. This is an example of:
A) Random selection
B) Offensive surveillance
C) Discarding all sources
D) Prioritization of information
  • 92. When conducting stationary surveillance, the officer positions in a location with unobstructed visibility yet low exposure. This applies:
A) Rational shadowing
B) Dual-tracking
C) Forced confrontation
D) Cover selection
  • 93. Intelligence requiring immediate operational action is categorized as:
A) Operational
B) Strategic
C) Background
D) Administrative
  • 94. A field operative monitors radio traffic for intelligence leads. This practice falls under:
A) Indirect canvassing
B) Witness retrieval
C) Controlled overt collection
D) Technical surveillance
  • 95. An investigator destroys preliminary notes after filing final reports to prevent leakage. This applies:
A) Information suppression
B) Interrogation secrecy
C) Proper document disposal
D) Covert misinformation
  • 96. Two teams conduct surveillance: one follows closely while another monitors from a distance. The operation minimizes detection while maintaining observation. This setup exemplifies:
A) Improvised surveillance
B) Fragmented tracking
C) Static intelligence
D) Combined (team) surveillance
  • 97. If direction in the intelligence cycle is weak, resulting in irrelevant data being collected, the failure lies in:
A) Dissemination
B) Document security
C) Source reliability
D) Planning clarity
  • 98. An informant provides accurate details but frequently violates agreed protocols, placing the team at risk. The handler must assess:
A) If surveillance should be canceled
B) Whether to reassign the team
C) Operational utility vs. security risk
D) Whether to change the informant’s identity
  • 99. Intelligence reports classified “Top Secret” are mixed with unclassified memos, increasing exposure. This violates:
A) Covert collection
B) Compartmentation principle
C) Multi-source evaluation
D) Surveillance coordination
  • 100. An officer notices that surveillance footage contradicts live observations, requiring him to identify which source is more credible. This uses:
A) Source cross-validation
B) Hypothetical assumption
C) Immediate confrontation
D) Evidence suppression
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