ThatQuiz Test Library Take this test now
CDI1-FINVIN
Contributed by: Three
  • 1. The primary objective of criminal investigation is to?
A) Influence the statements of witnesses
B) Secure the conviction of the accused
C) Ascertain facts to establish truth
D) Collect evidence for intelligence units
  • 2. The phase where investigators arrive, evaluate the area, and ensure safety is?
A) Termination phase
B) Initial response phase
C) Follow-up phase
D) Reporting phase
  • 3. The “cardinal points of investigation” mainly guide investigators in?
A) Determining the essential information about a crime
B) Identifying the criminal’s motives only
C) Drafting an intelligence cycle
D) Organizing the prosecution panel
  • 4. The “WHO” in the cardinal points refers to:
A) Persons who may testify only
B) Only the perpetrators
C) Individuals present before the incident
D) All individuals involved directly or indirectly
  • 5. The intelligence principle stating that intelligence must be produced on time is:
A) Secrecy
B) Timeliness
C) Accuracy
D) Flexibility
  • 6. The investigative tool that involves asking structured questions to gather facts:
A) Examination
B) Validation
C) Interrogation
D) Interview
  • 7. The proper sequence of the intelligence cycle begins with:
A) Dissemination
B) Processing
C) Collection
D) Planning and direction
  • 8. In the processing phase of the intelligence cycle, the main activity is:
A) Conversion of raw data to usable information
B) Arrest of suspects
C) Deployment of operatives
D) Documentation of court records
  • 9. The objective of surveillance in investigation is to:
A) Replace interrogation
B) Establish public visibility
C) Create fear among suspects
D) Observe activities discreetly
  • 10. The investigative phase that includes case buildup and suspect identification is:
A) Preliminary investigation
B) Follow-up investigation
C) Court prosecution
D) Termination
  • 11. A principle of intelligence ensuring unauthorized persons cannot access information:
A) Reliability
B) Mobility
C) Secrecy
D) Accuracy
  • 12. An investigator reconstructs the event by determining what happened. This refers to:
A) The “How”
B) The “Why
C) The “Who”
D) The “When”
  • 13. The tool used to preserve crime scene conditions through visual documentation:
A) Notes
B) Photography
C) Canvassing
D) Surveillance
  • 14. The purpose of an initial interview with witnesses is to:
A) Influence their recall
B) Elicit firsthand observations
C) Prepare defense strategies
D) Pressure them for a confession
  • 15. Intelligence information that comes from public reports is:
A) Operational intelligence
B) Overt information
C) Covert collection
D) Strategic intelligence
  • 16. The investigator’s “follow-up” work includes:
A) Closing case files
B) Arresting without probable cause
C) Securing perimeter
D) Case linkage and further evidence search
  • 17. Which is not part of the cardinal points?
A) Who
B) Witness credibility
C) Where
D) Why
  • 18. The principle that intelligence must be correct and factual:
A) Compatibility
B) Accuracy
C) Timeliness
D) Secrecy
  • 19. The tool of investigation used to record observations:
A) Interview
B) Sketch
C) Examination
D) Note-taking
  • 20. The “objective of criminal investigation” focusing on evidence aims to:
A) Reduce the investigator’s workload
B) Provide foundation for prosecution
C) Confuse the defense counsel
D) Avoid the need for witnesses
  • 21. The phase where investigators prepare formal documentation:
A) Reporting phase
B) Termination phase
C) Initial response
D) Prosecution phase
  • 22. Intelligence that guides long-term planning:
A) Operational intelligence
B) Strategic intelligence
C) Overt intelligence
D) Counterintelligence
  • 23. Crime scene sketching is essential to:
A) Provide a scale representation of the area
B) Identify the suspect immediately
C) Make a 3D reconstruction
D) Replace photography
  • 24. A principle requiring all investigators to coordinate with others:
A) Coordination
B) Objectivity
C) Accurate reporting
D) Unity of direction
  • 25. An informer is motivated by revenge, while an informant is motivated by civic duty. Distinguishing their motives is essential to:
A) Surveillance planning
B) Arrest timing
C) Case termination
D) Source evaluation
  • 26. A suspect uses countersurveillance techniques, forcing the team to adapt routes, timings, and spacing. This demonstrates:
A) Failure of planning
B) Reactive investigative strategy
C) Low information value
D) Deviation from intelligence doctrine
  • 27. When an officer analyzes reports to determine which information contributes to long-term policy decisions, he is identifying:
A) Operational intelligence
B) Administrative intelligence
C) Strategic intelligence
D) Tactical surveillance data
  • 28. Multiple reports about a terrorist plot come from different informants. The officer synthesizes them to form a single picture. This analytical process is:
A) Prior isolation
B) Integration
C) Refutation
D) Exclusion
  • 29. A handler receives a tip that may cause political embarrassment if leaked. The handler must evaluate classification not just by content but by effect of disclosure. This requires:
A) Rapid reporting
B) Specialized dissemination
C) Document reproduction
D) Analytical risk assessment
  • 30. An officer arrests a suspect without a warrant after witnessing the suspect stab another person. This scenario illustrates:
A) Arrest by pre-arranged operation
B) Arrest in flagrante delicto
C) Arrest by virtue of citizen’s arrest
D) Arrest by search warrant
  • 31. During a warrantless arrest, the officer must immediately inform the suspect of the cause of arrest. This step applies which requirement under R.A. 7438?
A) Right to a speed disposition
B) Right to be informed of the nature and cause of arrest
C) Right to bail
D) Right to silence only
  • 32. When conducting a systematic strip method during crime scene search, the team applies:
A) Vertical, overlapping movement
B) Coordinated circular movement
C) Evidence-centered searching
D) Randomized checking pattern
  • 33. A police officer refrains from threatening a suspect during questioning to comply with:
    A.
A) R.A. 9745 – Anti-Torture Act
B) R.A. 7438
C) R.A. 10022
D) R.A. 9231
  • 34. A team leader divides the area into quadrants before assigning personnel. This uses the:
A) Zone search method
B) Spotlight method
C) Wheel search method
D) Outward spiral method
  • 35. Upon arrest, the suspect requests counsel. The officer stops questioning until a lawyer arrives. This practice follows:
A) Hot pursuit doctrine
B) Miranda rights under R.A. 7438
C) Physical evidence doctrine
D) Costudial remedy rule
  • 36. An investigator uses measurements from fixed points to plot the position of evidence in a crime scene sketch. This application uses:
A) Polar coordinates
B) Rough sketching
C) Baseline method
D) Triangulation method
  • 37. A police officer tells the suspect to sign a confession without counsel. This violates:
    A. Search and seizure procedure
A) R.A. 9745
B) Search and seizure procedure
C) R.A. 7438
D) Warrantless arrest doctrine
  • 38. During vehicle surveillance, the team switches to leapfrogging to prevent losing sight. This procedure is known as:
A) Visual obstruction tracking
B) Direct trailing
C) Contact surveillance
D) Tail–relay method
  • 39. When sketching a crime scene, the investigator first prepares a rough sketch. This is done to:
A) Replace photography
B) Produce a final sketch for court immediately
C) Substitute formal diagrams
D) Establish a quick but accurate representation of the scene
  • 40. A lawful search is conducted after an arrest, limited to the immediate control area of the arrestee. This applies:
A) Administrative search
B) Consent search
C) Search for premises
D) Search incidental to a lawful arrest
  • 41. A police officer tells a suspect to sign a confession without a lawyer present. This violates:
A) Only search and seizure rules
B) R.A. 9745
C) R.A. 7438
D) Both A and B
  • 42. During a wheel method search, the team starts at:
A) The corners of the crime scene
B) Random points decided by personnel
C) The outer boundaries moving inward
D) The central point moving outward
  • 43. An investigator seals collected evidence bags immediately after retrieval. This applies the principle of:
A) Chain of custody
B) Chain of surveillance
C) Harmonization
D) Physical integrity doctrine
  • 44. The officer asks a female officer to search a female suspect. This follows:
A) Necessity of force principle
B) Proper search procedure
C) Administrative rule for detention
D) Gender-nuetrality principle
  • 45. Evidence in plain view was seized after the officer lawfully entered the home for a warrant execution, but the object was unrelated to the warrant. The officer must determine if:
A) A perimeter search was conducted
B) The suspect verbally consented
C) The evidence was in closed storage
D) The incriminating nature was immediately apparent
  • 46. Officers conducted a search based solely on anonymous tip without corroboration. The supervising officer must determine whether:
A) Probable cause was independently established
B) Crime scene was already secured
C) Evidence was already in plain view
D) Consent existed
  • 47. A crime scene is large and irregular; the team chooses the spiral method. The leader must assess:
A) Whether the center is identifiable
B) Whether multiple teams are available
C) Whether visibility is limited
D) Whether sketches can be made later
  • 48. A final sketch contradicts the rough sketch measurements. The investigator must:
A) Discard the rough sketch
B) Present both sketches and let the court decide
C) Reconcile inconsistencies through re-measurement
D) Rely solely on photographs
  • 49. A suspect voluntarily blurts out a confession before being read rights. The officer must determ
A) If the suspect already had a lawyer
B) If the suspect was deceived
C) Whether the confession was spontaneous
D) Whether the officer recorded the moment
  • 50. The officer arrests someone because they “look suspicious.” Analyzing this, the arrest is:
A) Invalid due to lack of overt act
B) Valid under warrantless arrest
C) Valid under custodial rule
D) Valid under stop-and-frisk
  • 51. A team conducts a quadrant search at night but lighting is poor. The leader must analyze whether:
A) Additional lighting equipment should be deployed
B) Quadrant search should be replaced by strip method
C) Only photographs should be taken
D) The search should be delayed until morning
  • 52. A suspect signs a waiver of rights without counsel. Under R.A. 7438, this is:
A) Invalid for lack of counsel
B) Valid if voluntary
C) Valid if recorded
D) Valid if officer witnesses it
  • 53. Search incidental to arrest was performed in a room far from where the suspect was apprehended. The court must analyze:
A) Whether officers had a search warrant
B) Whether consent was implied
C) Whether suspect resisted
D) Whether area searched was within immediate control
  • 54. A team conducts a strip method search and finds concealed weapons. This demonstrates:
A) Random evidence retrieval
B) Uncontrolled investigation
C) Systematic crime scene search
D) Witness-led collection
  • 55. Information that requires validation before being used for intelligence:
A) Raw information
B) Discarded information
C) Finished intelligence
D) Classified information
  • 56. The “Why” in cardinal points explain
A) Underlying motive
B) Sequence of action
C) Weapon used
D) Suspect identities
  • 57. A core objective of intelligence is to:
A) Create confidential rumors
B) Replace investigators
C) Support decision-making
D) Provide public entertainment
  • 58. A characteristic of a good investigator:
A) Observant and systematic
B) Impulsive decision-making
C) Overreliance on instincts
D) Prioritizing personal judgment
  • 59. Physical evidence is best described as:
A) Any verbal statement
B) Hearsay from neighbors
C) Rumors about the suspect
D) Tangible items related to the crim
  • 60. Intelligence collected through hidden means:
A) Strategic
B) Covert
C) Overt
D) Publicly available
  • 61. iminating contamination is a concern in which phase?
A) Follow-up phase
B) Court presentation
C) Crime scene processing
D) Dissemination phase
  • 62. One goal of investigation is to recover:
A) Instruments of the crime
B) Every item in the area
C) All destroyed evidence
D) Personal belongings of witnesses
  • 63. Proper dissemination ensures intelligence reaches:
A) Only investigators
B) Any available personnel
C) Proper decision-makers
D) The suspect
  • 64. A suspect’s background inquiry is an example of:
A) Surveillance
B) Neighborhood canvassing
C) Intelligence gathering
D) Crime scene processing
  • 65. The term “how the crime was committed” refers to:
A) Opportunity
B) Motive
C) Means
D) Modus operandi
  • 66. The investigator’s first duty at the scene:
A) Approach the suspect
B) Secure and isolate the scene
C) Conduct interrogation
D) Collect fingerprints immediately
  • 67. Intelligence that focuses on specific targets for immediate operations:
A) Strategic intelligence
B) Administrative intelligence
C) Operational intelligence
D) Structural intelligence
  • 68. The “When” in cardinal points identifies:
A) Weather Conditions
B) Date and time of occurrence
C) Cause of death
D) Evidence collected
  • 69. An advantage of photography over sketches:
A) Locates suspect
B) Create Investigation direction
C) Replace testimony
D) Shows exact appearance
  • 70. A fundamental objective of investigation is to:
A) Satisfy public demand
B) Produce intelligence reports
C) Avoid filing cases
D) Identify the guilty party
  • 71. Counterintelligence protects:
A) Witness credibility
B) Suspect
C) Confidential materials from adversaries
D) Scene integrity
  • 72. An example of an investigative tool:
A) Interrogation
B) Preliminary hearing
C) Judicial affidavit
D) Arrest warrant
  • 73. The final phase of investigation is:
A) Follow-up
B) Termination
C) Processing
D) Case documentation
  • 74. The tool used to verify the truthfulness of statements:
A) Sketching
B) Interview
C) Interrogation
D) Surveillance
  • 75. Intelligence used to support administrative decisions:
A) Overt
B) Strategic
C) Structural
D) Administrative intelligence
  • 76. An investigator notes inconsistencies in witness accounts and compares them with physical evidence. This process relates to:
A) Initial response
B) Conducting termination
C) Evaluating investigative leads
D) Organizing evidence chronologically
  • 77. A crime scene with multiple entry points requires the investigator to determine which path the offender used. This applies the principle of:
A) Verification
B) Scene sketching
C) Reconstruction
D) Motive analysis
  • 78. If intelligence gathered is accurate but reaches decision-makers too late, the failure is in:
A) Collection
B) Coordination
C) Processing
D) Dissemination
  • 79. When an investigator determines that the suspect’s MO matches past incidents, the investigator is applying:
A) Pattern analysis
B) Accusation formulation
C) Witness evaluation
D) Case isolation
  • 80. Conflicting evidence suggests two possible scenarios. The investigator compares both to determine the most logical sequence of events. This uses:
A) Deductive reasoning
B) Surveillance
C) The cardinal points
D) Note-taking
  • 81. During a foot surveillance, the suspect suddenly enters a crowded market. The investigator adjusts distance to avoid detection. This action applies which principle?
A) Using direct confrontation
B) Preserving cover and concealment
C) Maintaining a fixed pace
D) Establishing overt presence
  • 82. An operative receives raw data from a civilian and must sort, translate, and verify it before use. This corresponds to which intelligence cycle phase?
A) Direction
B) Processing
C) Collection
D) Dissemination
  • 83. A handler meets an informant in a neutral location to reduce risk. This demonstrates the principle of:
A) Strategic penetration
B) Randomizing interrogation
C) Securing informant identity
D) Evidence substitution
  • 84. When preparing surveillance notes, the investigator diagrams the suspect’s movement pattern to predict next actions. This applies:
A) Interrogation technique
B) Pattern recognition
C) Overt documentation
D) Randomized tracking
  • 85. An intelligence officer determines which unit must receive a report concerning a smuggling operation. This step applies:
A) Classification
B) Direction
C) Evaluation
D) Dissemination
  • 86. A confidential informant provides consistent quality data over several months. The handler categorizes this person as:
A) Classified agent
B) Danger informant
C) Accidental source
D) Regular informant
  • 87. An investigator classifies a document “Secret” because unauthorized disclosure may harm operations. This is:
A) Raw sorting
B) Encoding
C) Security labeling
D) Overclassification
  • 88. During vehicle surveillance, the subject increases speed. The team switches to leapfrogging to prevent losing sight. This procedure is known as:
A) Direct trailing
B) Tail-relay method
C) Visual obstruction tracking
D) Contact surveillance
  • 89. An intelligence unit instructs collectors to focus on illegal firearms networks. This operational task belongs to:
A) Dissemination
B) Reclassification
C) Analysis
D) Planning and direction
  • 90. A handler assesses an informant’s motives before accepting information. This application reflects:
A) Tactical manipulation
B) Premature classification
C) Surveillance support
D) Source validation
  • 91. A field agent receives two conflicting reports and must choose which to pursue based on reliability. This is an example of:
A) Prioritization of information
B) Random selection
C) Discarding all sources
D) Offensive surveillance
  • 92. When conducting stationary surveillance, the officer positions in a location with unobstructed visibility yet low exposure. This applies:
A) Rational shadowing
B) Dual-tracking
C) Cover selection
D) Forced confrontation
  • 93. Intelligence requiring immediate operational action is categorized as:
A) Operational
B) Administrative
C) Background
D) Strategic
  • 94. A field operative monitors radio traffic for intelligence leads. This practice falls under:
A) Witness retrieval
B) Controlled overt collection
C) Technical surveillance
D) Indirect canvassing
  • 95. An investigator destroys preliminary notes after filing final reports to prevent leakage. This applies:
A) Information suppression
B) Covert misinformation
C) Proper document disposal
D) Interrogation secrecy
  • 96. Two teams conduct surveillance: one follows closely while another monitors from a distance. The operation minimizes detection while maintaining observation. This setup exemplifies:
A) Combined (team) surveillance
B) Fragmented tracking
C) Static intelligence
D) Improvised surveillance
  • 97. If direction in the intelligence cycle is weak, resulting in irrelevant data being collected, the failure lies in:
A) Document security
B) Planning clarity
C) Source reliability
D) Dissemination
  • 98. An informant provides accurate details but frequently violates agreed protocols, placing the team at risk. The handler must assess:
A) Whether to change the informant’s identity
B) Operational utility vs. security risk
C) Whether to reassign the team
D) If surveillance should be canceled
  • 99. Intelligence reports classified “Top Secret” are mixed with unclassified memos, increasing exposure. This violates:
A) Covert collection
B) Compartmentation principle
C) Multi-source evaluation
D) Surveillance coordination
  • 100. An officer notices that surveillance footage contradicts live observations, requiring him to identify which source is more credible. This uses:
A) Evidence suppression
B) Source cross-validation
C) Immediate confrontation
D) Hypothetical assumption
Created with That Quiz — where a math practice test is always one click away.