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CDI1-FINVIN
Contributed by: Three
  • 1. The primary objective of criminal investigation is to?
A) Ascertain facts to establish truth
B) Influence the statements of witnesses
C) Secure the conviction of the accused
D) Collect evidence for intelligence units
  • 2. The phase where investigators arrive, evaluate the area, and ensure safety is?
A) Termination phase
B) Initial response phase
C) Follow-up phase
D) Reporting phase
  • 3. The “cardinal points of investigation” mainly guide investigators in?
A) Organizing the prosecution panel
B) Identifying the criminal’s motives only
C) Determining the essential information about a crime
D) Drafting an intelligence cycle
  • 4. The “WHO” in the cardinal points refers to:
A) All individuals involved directly or indirectly
B) Only the perpetrators
C) Individuals present before the incident
D) Persons who may testify only
  • 5. The intelligence principle stating that intelligence must be produced on time is:
A) Flexibility
B) Timeliness
C) Secrecy
D) Accuracy
  • 6. The investigative tool that involves asking structured questions to gather facts:
A) Examination
B) Interrogation
C) Validation
D) Interview
  • 7. The proper sequence of the intelligence cycle begins with:
A) Processing
B) Dissemination
C) Planning and direction
D) Collection
  • 8. In the processing phase of the intelligence cycle, the main activity is:
A) Documentation of court records
B) Conversion of raw data to usable information
C) Deployment of operatives
D) Arrest of suspects
  • 9. The objective of surveillance in investigation is to:
A) Observe activities discreetly
B) Replace interrogation
C) Establish public visibility
D) Create fear among suspects
  • 10. The investigative phase that includes case buildup and suspect identification is:
A) Termination
B) Preliminary investigation
C) Follow-up investigation
D) Court prosecution
  • 11. A principle of intelligence ensuring unauthorized persons cannot access information:
A) Reliability
B) Accuracy
C) Secrecy
D) Mobility
  • 12. An investigator reconstructs the event by determining what happened. This refers to:
A) The “Who”
B) The “How”
C) The “When”
D) The “Why
  • 13. The tool used to preserve crime scene conditions through visual documentation:
A) Notes
B) Canvassing
C) Photography
D) Surveillance
  • 14. The purpose of an initial interview with witnesses is to:
A) Influence their recall
B) Prepare defense strategies
C) Elicit firsthand observations
D) Pressure them for a confession
  • 15. Intelligence information that comes from public reports is:
A) Operational intelligence
B) Covert collection
C) Overt information
D) Strategic intelligence
  • 16. The investigator’s “follow-up” work includes:
A) Arresting without probable cause
B) Securing perimeter
C) Case linkage and further evidence search
D) Closing case files
  • 17. Which is not part of the cardinal points?
A) Witness credibility
B) Why
C) Where
D) Who
  • 18. The principle that intelligence must be correct and factual:
A) Accuracy
B) Secrecy
C) Timeliness
D) Compatibility
  • 19. The tool of investigation used to record observations:
A) Sketch
B) Note-taking
C) Interview
D) Examination
  • 20. The “objective of criminal investigation” focusing on evidence aims to:
A) Provide foundation for prosecution
B) Avoid the need for witnesses
C) Reduce the investigator’s workload
D) Confuse the defense counsel
  • 21. The phase where investigators prepare formal documentation:
A) Reporting phase
B) Termination phase
C) Initial response
D) Prosecution phase
  • 22. Intelligence that guides long-term planning:
A) Overt intelligence
B) Counterintelligence
C) Strategic intelligence
D) Operational intelligence
  • 23. Crime scene sketching is essential to:
A) Provide a scale representation of the area
B) Identify the suspect immediately
C) Replace photography
D) Make a 3D reconstruction
  • 24. A principle requiring all investigators to coordinate with others:
A) Unity of direction
B) Objectivity
C) Coordination
D) Accurate reporting
  • 25. An informer is motivated by revenge, while an informant is motivated by civic duty. Distinguishing their motives is essential to:
A) Arrest timing
B) Surveillance planning
C) Case termination
D) Source evaluation
  • 26. A suspect uses countersurveillance techniques, forcing the team to adapt routes, timings, and spacing. This demonstrates:
A) Deviation from intelligence doctrine
B) Failure of planning
C) Low information value
D) Reactive investigative strategy
  • 27. When an officer analyzes reports to determine which information contributes to long-term policy decisions, he is identifying:
A) Tactical surveillance data
B) Strategic intelligence
C) Operational intelligence
D) Administrative intelligence
  • 28. Multiple reports about a terrorist plot come from different informants. The officer synthesizes them to form a single picture. This analytical process is:
A) Integration
B) Refutation
C) Exclusion
D) Prior isolation
  • 29. A handler receives a tip that may cause political embarrassment if leaked. The handler must evaluate classification not just by content but by effect of disclosure. This requires:
A) Specialized dissemination
B) Document reproduction
C) Rapid reporting
D) Analytical risk assessment
  • 30. An officer arrests a suspect without a warrant after witnessing the suspect stab another person. This scenario illustrates:
A) Arrest by search warrant
B) Arrest by virtue of citizen’s arrest
C) Arrest by pre-arranged operation
D) Arrest in flagrante delicto
  • 31. During a warrantless arrest, the officer must immediately inform the suspect of the cause of arrest. This step applies which requirement under R.A. 7438?
A) Right to silence only
B) Right to a speed disposition
C) Right to bail
D) Right to be informed of the nature and cause of arrest
  • 32. When conducting a systematic strip method during crime scene search, the team applies:
A) Coordinated circular movement
B) Vertical, overlapping movement
C) Randomized checking pattern
D) Evidence-centered searching
  • 33. A police officer refrains from threatening a suspect during questioning to comply with:
    A.
A) R.A. 9745 – Anti-Torture Act
B) R.A. 9231
C) R.A. 7438
D) R.A. 10022
  • 34. A team leader divides the area into quadrants before assigning personnel. This uses the:
A) Zone search method
B) Spotlight method
C) Outward spiral method
D) Wheel search method
  • 35. Upon arrest, the suspect requests counsel. The officer stops questioning until a lawyer arrives. This practice follows:
A) Hot pursuit doctrine
B) Physical evidence doctrine
C) Miranda rights under R.A. 7438
D) Costudial remedy rule
  • 36. An investigator uses measurements from fixed points to plot the position of evidence in a crime scene sketch. This application uses:
A) Baseline method
B) Triangulation method
C) Rough sketching
D) Polar coordinates
  • 37. A police officer tells the suspect to sign a confession without counsel. This violates:
    A. Search and seizure procedure
A) Warrantless arrest doctrine
B) R.A. 7438
C) R.A. 9745
D) Search and seizure procedure
  • 38. During vehicle surveillance, the team switches to leapfrogging to prevent losing sight. This procedure is known as:
A) Direct trailing
B) Contact surveillance
C) Tail–relay method
D) Visual obstruction tracking
  • 39. When sketching a crime scene, the investigator first prepares a rough sketch. This is done to:
A) Produce a final sketch for court immediately
B) Substitute formal diagrams
C) Replace photography
D) Establish a quick but accurate representation of the scene
  • 40. A lawful search is conducted after an arrest, limited to the immediate control area of the arrestee. This applies:
A) Administrative search
B) Search incidental to a lawful arrest
C) Search for premises
D) Consent search
  • 41. A police officer tells a suspect to sign a confession without a lawyer present. This violates:
A) R.A. 7438
B) Both A and B
C) Only search and seizure rules
D) R.A. 9745
  • 42. During a wheel method search, the team starts at:
A) The outer boundaries moving inward
B) The central point moving outward
C) The corners of the crime scene
D) Random points decided by personnel
  • 43. An investigator seals collected evidence bags immediately after retrieval. This applies the principle of:
A) Harmonization
B) Physical integrity doctrine
C) Chain of custody
D) Chain of surveillance
  • 44. The officer asks a female officer to search a female suspect. This follows:
A) Proper search procedure
B) Administrative rule for detention
C) Gender-nuetrality principle
D) Necessity of force principle
  • 45. Evidence in plain view was seized after the officer lawfully entered the home for a warrant execution, but the object was unrelated to the warrant. The officer must determine if:
A) The evidence was in closed storage
B) The incriminating nature was immediately apparent
C) A perimeter search was conducted
D) The suspect verbally consented
  • 46. Officers conducted a search based solely on anonymous tip without corroboration. The supervising officer must determine whether:
A) Consent existed
B) Evidence was already in plain view
C) Crime scene was already secured
D) Probable cause was independently established
  • 47. A crime scene is large and irregular; the team chooses the spiral method. The leader must assess:
A) Whether multiple teams are available
B) Whether visibility is limited
C) Whether sketches can be made later
D) Whether the center is identifiable
  • 48. A final sketch contradicts the rough sketch measurements. The investigator must:
A) Present both sketches and let the court decide
B) Rely solely on photographs
C) Discard the rough sketch
D) Reconcile inconsistencies through re-measurement
  • 49. A suspect voluntarily blurts out a confession before being read rights. The officer must determ
A) Whether the officer recorded the moment
B) Whether the confession was spontaneous
C) If the suspect already had a lawyer
D) If the suspect was deceived
  • 50. The officer arrests someone because they “look suspicious.” Analyzing this, the arrest is:
A) Valid under warrantless arrest
B) Valid under custodial rule
C) Valid under stop-and-frisk
D) Invalid due to lack of overt act
  • 51. A team conducts a quadrant search at night but lighting is poor. The leader must analyze whether:
A) Only photographs should be taken
B) Additional lighting equipment should be deployed
C) Quadrant search should be replaced by strip method
D) The search should be delayed until morning
  • 52. A suspect signs a waiver of rights without counsel. Under R.A. 7438, this is:
A) Invalid for lack of counsel
B) Valid if officer witnesses it
C) Valid if voluntary
D) Valid if recorded
  • 53. Search incidental to arrest was performed in a room far from where the suspect was apprehended. The court must analyze:
A) Whether suspect resisted
B) Whether consent was implied
C) Whether area searched was within immediate control
D) Whether officers had a search warrant
  • 54. A team conducts a strip method search and finds concealed weapons. This demonstrates:
A) Systematic crime scene search
B) Uncontrolled investigation
C) Witness-led collection
D) Random evidence retrieval
  • 55. Information that requires validation before being used for intelligence:
A) Raw information
B) Classified information
C) Discarded information
D) Finished intelligence
  • 56. The “Why” in cardinal points explain
A) Sequence of action
B) Suspect identities
C) Weapon used
D) Underlying motive
  • 57. A core objective of intelligence is to:
A) Replace investigators
B) Provide public entertainment
C) Create confidential rumors
D) Support decision-making
  • 58. A characteristic of a good investigator:
A) Impulsive decision-making
B) Overreliance on instincts
C) Prioritizing personal judgment
D) Observant and systematic
  • 59. Physical evidence is best described as:
A) Hearsay from neighbors
B) Any verbal statement
C) Rumors about the suspect
D) Tangible items related to the crim
  • 60. Intelligence collected through hidden means:
A) Covert
B) Strategic
C) Publicly available
D) Overt
  • 61. iminating contamination is a concern in which phase?
A) Follow-up phase
B) Crime scene processing
C) Dissemination phase
D) Court presentation
  • 62. One goal of investigation is to recover:
A) All destroyed evidence
B) Every item in the area
C) Personal belongings of witnesses
D) Instruments of the crime
  • 63. Proper dissemination ensures intelligence reaches:
A) The suspect
B) Any available personnel
C) Only investigators
D) Proper decision-makers
  • 64. A suspect’s background inquiry is an example of:
A) Intelligence gathering
B) Crime scene processing
C) Surveillance
D) Neighborhood canvassing
  • 65. The term “how the crime was committed” refers to:
A) Motive
B) Modus operandi
C) Means
D) Opportunity
  • 66. The investigator’s first duty at the scene:
A) Secure and isolate the scene
B) Collect fingerprints immediately
C) Approach the suspect
D) Conduct interrogation
  • 67. Intelligence that focuses on specific targets for immediate operations:
A) Operational intelligence
B) Structural intelligence
C) Strategic intelligence
D) Administrative intelligence
  • 68. The “When” in cardinal points identifies:
A) Weather Conditions
B) Cause of death
C) Date and time of occurrence
D) Evidence collected
  • 69. An advantage of photography over sketches:
A) Locates suspect
B) Create Investigation direction
C) Shows exact appearance
D) Replace testimony
  • 70. A fundamental objective of investigation is to:
A) Avoid filing cases
B) Produce intelligence reports
C) Satisfy public demand
D) Identify the guilty party
  • 71. Counterintelligence protects:
A) Suspect
B) Confidential materials from adversaries
C) Scene integrity
D) Witness credibility
  • 72. An example of an investigative tool:
A) Interrogation
B) Judicial affidavit
C) Preliminary hearing
D) Arrest warrant
  • 73. The final phase of investigation is:
A) Termination
B) Case documentation
C) Follow-up
D) Processing
  • 74. The tool used to verify the truthfulness of statements:
A) Surveillance
B) Interview
C) Sketching
D) Interrogation
  • 75. Intelligence used to support administrative decisions:
A) Overt
B) Structural
C) Strategic
D) Administrative intelligence
  • 76. An investigator notes inconsistencies in witness accounts and compares them with physical evidence. This process relates to:
A) Organizing evidence chronologically
B) Conducting termination
C) Evaluating investigative leads
D) Initial response
  • 77. A crime scene with multiple entry points requires the investigator to determine which path the offender used. This applies the principle of:
A) Reconstruction
B) Motive analysis
C) Verification
D) Scene sketching
  • 78. If intelligence gathered is accurate but reaches decision-makers too late, the failure is in:
A) Coordination
B) Dissemination
C) Processing
D) Collection
  • 79. When an investigator determines that the suspect’s MO matches past incidents, the investigator is applying:
A) Witness evaluation
B) Pattern analysis
C) Accusation formulation
D) Case isolation
  • 80. Conflicting evidence suggests two possible scenarios. The investigator compares both to determine the most logical sequence of events. This uses:
A) The cardinal points
B) Deductive reasoning
C) Surveillance
D) Note-taking
  • 81. During a foot surveillance, the suspect suddenly enters a crowded market. The investigator adjusts distance to avoid detection. This action applies which principle?
A) Using direct confrontation
B) Maintaining a fixed pace
C) Preserving cover and concealment
D) Establishing overt presence
  • 82. An operative receives raw data from a civilian and must sort, translate, and verify it before use. This corresponds to which intelligence cycle phase?
A) Dissemination
B) Processing
C) Direction
D) Collection
  • 83. A handler meets an informant in a neutral location to reduce risk. This demonstrates the principle of:
A) Securing informant identity
B) Evidence substitution
C) Strategic penetration
D) Randomizing interrogation
  • 84. When preparing surveillance notes, the investigator diagrams the suspect’s movement pattern to predict next actions. This applies:
A) Pattern recognition
B) Randomized tracking
C) Overt documentation
D) Interrogation technique
  • 85. An intelligence officer determines which unit must receive a report concerning a smuggling operation. This step applies:
A) Evaluation
B) Dissemination
C) Direction
D) Classification
  • 86. A confidential informant provides consistent quality data over several months. The handler categorizes this person as:
A) Classified agent
B) Regular informant
C) Danger informant
D) Accidental source
  • 87. An investigator classifies a document “Secret” because unauthorized disclosure may harm operations. This is:
A) Encoding
B) Overclassification
C) Security labeling
D) Raw sorting
  • 88. During vehicle surveillance, the subject increases speed. The team switches to leapfrogging to prevent losing sight. This procedure is known as:
A) Contact surveillance
B) Visual obstruction tracking
C) Tail-relay method
D) Direct trailing
  • 89. An intelligence unit instructs collectors to focus on illegal firearms networks. This operational task belongs to:
A) Dissemination
B) Reclassification
C) Planning and direction
D) Analysis
  • 90. A handler assesses an informant’s motives before accepting information. This application reflects:
A) Surveillance support
B) Tactical manipulation
C) Premature classification
D) Source validation
  • 91. A field agent receives two conflicting reports and must choose which to pursue based on reliability. This is an example of:
A) Offensive surveillance
B) Discarding all sources
C) Random selection
D) Prioritization of information
  • 92. When conducting stationary surveillance, the officer positions in a location with unobstructed visibility yet low exposure. This applies:
A) Dual-tracking
B) Forced confrontation
C) Cover selection
D) Rational shadowing
  • 93. Intelligence requiring immediate operational action is categorized as:
A) Background
B) Administrative
C) Operational
D) Strategic
  • 94. A field operative monitors radio traffic for intelligence leads. This practice falls under:
A) Controlled overt collection
B) Technical surveillance
C) Witness retrieval
D) Indirect canvassing
  • 95. An investigator destroys preliminary notes after filing final reports to prevent leakage. This applies:
A) Interrogation secrecy
B) Proper document disposal
C) Information suppression
D) Covert misinformation
  • 96. Two teams conduct surveillance: one follows closely while another monitors from a distance. The operation minimizes detection while maintaining observation. This setup exemplifies:
A) Static intelligence
B) Fragmented tracking
C) Combined (team) surveillance
D) Improvised surveillance
  • 97. If direction in the intelligence cycle is weak, resulting in irrelevant data being collected, the failure lies in:
A) Planning clarity
B) Dissemination
C) Source reliability
D) Document security
  • 98. An informant provides accurate details but frequently violates agreed protocols, placing the team at risk. The handler must assess:
A) If surveillance should be canceled
B) Whether to reassign the team
C) Whether to change the informant’s identity
D) Operational utility vs. security risk
  • 99. Intelligence reports classified “Top Secret” are mixed with unclassified memos, increasing exposure. This violates:
A) Multi-source evaluation
B) Surveillance coordination
C) Covert collection
D) Compartmentation principle
  • 100. An officer notices that surveillance footage contradicts live observations, requiring him to identify which source is more credible. This uses:
A) Evidence suppression
B) Immediate confrontation
C) Hypothetical assumption
D) Source cross-validation
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