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CDI1-FINVIN
Contributed by: Three
  • 1. The primary objective of criminal investigation is to?
A) Ascertain facts to establish truth
B) Secure the conviction of the accused
C) Influence the statements of witnesses
D) Collect evidence for intelligence units
  • 2. The phase where investigators arrive, evaluate the area, and ensure safety is?
A) Follow-up phase
B) Initial response phase
C) Reporting phase
D) Termination phase
  • 3. The “cardinal points of investigation” mainly guide investigators in?
A) Identifying the criminal’s motives only
B) Drafting an intelligence cycle
C) Organizing the prosecution panel
D) Determining the essential information about a crime
  • 4. The “WHO” in the cardinal points refers to:
A) All individuals involved directly or indirectly
B) Only the perpetrators
C) Individuals present before the incident
D) Persons who may testify only
  • 5. The intelligence principle stating that intelligence must be produced on time is:
A) Accuracy
B) Timeliness
C) Secrecy
D) Flexibility
  • 6. The investigative tool that involves asking structured questions to gather facts:
A) Validation
B) Interview
C) Examination
D) Interrogation
  • 7. The proper sequence of the intelligence cycle begins with:
A) Planning and direction
B) Collection
C) Dissemination
D) Processing
  • 8. In the processing phase of the intelligence cycle, the main activity is:
A) Conversion of raw data to usable information
B) Arrest of suspects
C) Documentation of court records
D) Deployment of operatives
  • 9. The objective of surveillance in investigation is to:
A) Replace interrogation
B) Establish public visibility
C) Observe activities discreetly
D) Create fear among suspects
  • 10. The investigative phase that includes case buildup and suspect identification is:
A) Court prosecution
B) Follow-up investigation
C) Preliminary investigation
D) Termination
  • 11. A principle of intelligence ensuring unauthorized persons cannot access information:
A) Accuracy
B) Secrecy
C) Reliability
D) Mobility
  • 12. An investigator reconstructs the event by determining what happened. This refers to:
A) The “When”
B) The “How”
C) The “Why
D) The “Who”
  • 13. The tool used to preserve crime scene conditions through visual documentation:
A) Surveillance
B) Canvassing
C) Photography
D) Notes
  • 14. The purpose of an initial interview with witnesses is to:
A) Elicit firsthand observations
B) Influence their recall
C) Prepare defense strategies
D) Pressure them for a confession
  • 15. Intelligence information that comes from public reports is:
A) Overt information
B) Strategic intelligence
C) Operational intelligence
D) Covert collection
  • 16. The investigator’s “follow-up” work includes:
A) Closing case files
B) Securing perimeter
C) Arresting without probable cause
D) Case linkage and further evidence search
  • 17. Which is not part of the cardinal points?
A) Witness credibility
B) Where
C) Why
D) Who
  • 18. The principle that intelligence must be correct and factual:
A) Compatibility
B) Secrecy
C) Timeliness
D) Accuracy
  • 19. The tool of investigation used to record observations:
A) Examination
B) Interview
C) Note-taking
D) Sketch
  • 20. The “objective of criminal investigation” focusing on evidence aims to:
A) Confuse the defense counsel
B) Avoid the need for witnesses
C) Provide foundation for prosecution
D) Reduce the investigator’s workload
  • 21. The phase where investigators prepare formal documentation:
A) Reporting phase
B) Initial response
C) Termination phase
D) Prosecution phase
  • 22. Intelligence that guides long-term planning:
A) Overt intelligence
B) Strategic intelligence
C) Counterintelligence
D) Operational intelligence
  • 23. Crime scene sketching is essential to:
A) Provide a scale representation of the area
B) Make a 3D reconstruction
C) Identify the suspect immediately
D) Replace photography
  • 24. A principle requiring all investigators to coordinate with others:
A) Objectivity
B) Accurate reporting
C) Unity of direction
D) Coordination
  • 25. An informer is motivated by revenge, while an informant is motivated by civic duty. Distinguishing their motives is essential to:
A) Source evaluation
B) Case termination
C) Surveillance planning
D) Arrest timing
  • 26. A suspect uses countersurveillance techniques, forcing the team to adapt routes, timings, and spacing. This demonstrates:
A) Deviation from intelligence doctrine
B) Reactive investigative strategy
C) Low information value
D) Failure of planning
  • 27. When an officer analyzes reports to determine which information contributes to long-term policy decisions, he is identifying:
A) Operational intelligence
B) Strategic intelligence
C) Tactical surveillance data
D) Administrative intelligence
  • 28. Multiple reports about a terrorist plot come from different informants. The officer synthesizes them to form a single picture. This analytical process is:
A) Exclusion
B) Refutation
C) Integration
D) Prior isolation
  • 29. A handler receives a tip that may cause political embarrassment if leaked. The handler must evaluate classification not just by content but by effect of disclosure. This requires:
A) Analytical risk assessment
B) Rapid reporting
C) Specialized dissemination
D) Document reproduction
  • 30. An officer arrests a suspect without a warrant after witnessing the suspect stab another person. This scenario illustrates:
A) Arrest in flagrante delicto
B) Arrest by virtue of citizen’s arrest
C) Arrest by search warrant
D) Arrest by pre-arranged operation
  • 31. During a warrantless arrest, the officer must immediately inform the suspect of the cause of arrest. This step applies which requirement under R.A. 7438?
A) Right to be informed of the nature and cause of arrest
B) Right to silence only
C) Right to a speed disposition
D) Right to bail
  • 32. When conducting a systematic strip method during crime scene search, the team applies:
A) Coordinated circular movement
B) Randomized checking pattern
C) Vertical, overlapping movement
D) Evidence-centered searching
  • 33. A police officer refrains from threatening a suspect during questioning to comply with:
    A.
A) R.A. 9745 – Anti-Torture Act
B) R.A. 9231
C) R.A. 10022
D) R.A. 7438
  • 34. A team leader divides the area into quadrants before assigning personnel. This uses the:
A) Wheel search method
B) Zone search method
C) Spotlight method
D) Outward spiral method
  • 35. Upon arrest, the suspect requests counsel. The officer stops questioning until a lawyer arrives. This practice follows:
A) Hot pursuit doctrine
B) Miranda rights under R.A. 7438
C) Physical evidence doctrine
D) Costudial remedy rule
  • 36. An investigator uses measurements from fixed points to plot the position of evidence in a crime scene sketch. This application uses:
A) Rough sketching
B) Triangulation method
C) Baseline method
D) Polar coordinates
  • 37. A police officer tells the suspect to sign a confession without counsel. This violates:
    A. Search and seizure procedure
A) Search and seizure procedure
B) Warrantless arrest doctrine
C) R.A. 7438
D) R.A. 9745
  • 38. During vehicle surveillance, the team switches to leapfrogging to prevent losing sight. This procedure is known as:
A) Contact surveillance
B) Visual obstruction tracking
C) Direct trailing
D) Tail–relay method
  • 39. When sketching a crime scene, the investigator first prepares a rough sketch. This is done to:
A) Establish a quick but accurate representation of the scene
B) Substitute formal diagrams
C) Produce a final sketch for court immediately
D) Replace photography
  • 40. A lawful search is conducted after an arrest, limited to the immediate control area of the arrestee. This applies:
A) Search incidental to a lawful arrest
B) Consent search
C) Search for premises
D) Administrative search
  • 41. A police officer tells a suspect to sign a confession without a lawyer present. This violates:
A) R.A. 7438
B) Only search and seizure rules
C) R.A. 9745
D) Both A and B
  • 42. During a wheel method search, the team starts at:
A) Random points decided by personnel
B) The corners of the crime scene
C) The outer boundaries moving inward
D) The central point moving outward
  • 43. An investigator seals collected evidence bags immediately after retrieval. This applies the principle of:
A) Harmonization
B) Chain of surveillance
C) Chain of custody
D) Physical integrity doctrine
  • 44. The officer asks a female officer to search a female suspect. This follows:
A) Administrative rule for detention
B) Necessity of force principle
C) Gender-nuetrality principle
D) Proper search procedure
  • 45. Evidence in plain view was seized after the officer lawfully entered the home for a warrant execution, but the object was unrelated to the warrant. The officer must determine if:
A) The evidence was in closed storage
B) The incriminating nature was immediately apparent
C) The suspect verbally consented
D) A perimeter search was conducted
  • 46. Officers conducted a search based solely on anonymous tip without corroboration. The supervising officer must determine whether:
A) Probable cause was independently established
B) Consent existed
C) Crime scene was already secured
D) Evidence was already in plain view
  • 47. A crime scene is large and irregular; the team chooses the spiral method. The leader must assess:
A) Whether visibility is limited
B) Whether sketches can be made later
C) Whether multiple teams are available
D) Whether the center is identifiable
  • 48. A final sketch contradicts the rough sketch measurements. The investigator must:
A) Rely solely on photographs
B) Present both sketches and let the court decide
C) Discard the rough sketch
D) Reconcile inconsistencies through re-measurement
  • 49. A suspect voluntarily blurts out a confession before being read rights. The officer must determ
A) Whether the officer recorded the moment
B) Whether the confession was spontaneous
C) If the suspect already had a lawyer
D) If the suspect was deceived
  • 50. The officer arrests someone because they “look suspicious.” Analyzing this, the arrest is:
A) Valid under custodial rule
B) Valid under warrantless arrest
C) Valid under stop-and-frisk
D) Invalid due to lack of overt act
  • 51. A team conducts a quadrant search at night but lighting is poor. The leader must analyze whether:
A) Quadrant search should be replaced by strip method
B) Additional lighting equipment should be deployed
C) The search should be delayed until morning
D) Only photographs should be taken
  • 52. A suspect signs a waiver of rights without counsel. Under R.A. 7438, this is:
A) Valid if recorded
B) Valid if voluntary
C) Invalid for lack of counsel
D) Valid if officer witnesses it
  • 53. Search incidental to arrest was performed in a room far from where the suspect was apprehended. The court must analyze:
A) Whether suspect resisted
B) Whether consent was implied
C) Whether officers had a search warrant
D) Whether area searched was within immediate control
  • 54. A team conducts a strip method search and finds concealed weapons. This demonstrates:
A) Systematic crime scene search
B) Random evidence retrieval
C) Witness-led collection
D) Uncontrolled investigation
  • 55. Information that requires validation before being used for intelligence:
A) Classified information
B) Raw information
C) Finished intelligence
D) Discarded information
  • 56. The “Why” in cardinal points explain
A) Underlying motive
B) Sequence of action
C) Weapon used
D) Suspect identities
  • 57. A core objective of intelligence is to:
A) Create confidential rumors
B) Provide public entertainment
C) Replace investigators
D) Support decision-making
  • 58. A characteristic of a good investigator:
A) Overreliance on instincts
B) Prioritizing personal judgment
C) Observant and systematic
D) Impulsive decision-making
  • 59. Physical evidence is best described as:
A) Rumors about the suspect
B) Any verbal statement
C) Tangible items related to the crim
D) Hearsay from neighbors
  • 60. Intelligence collected through hidden means:
A) Covert
B) Publicly available
C) Overt
D) Strategic
  • 61. iminating contamination is a concern in which phase?
A) Follow-up phase
B) Dissemination phase
C) Crime scene processing
D) Court presentation
  • 62. One goal of investigation is to recover:
A) Every item in the area
B) Personal belongings of witnesses
C) All destroyed evidence
D) Instruments of the crime
  • 63. Proper dissemination ensures intelligence reaches:
A) Only investigators
B) Any available personnel
C) Proper decision-makers
D) The suspect
  • 64. A suspect’s background inquiry is an example of:
A) Crime scene processing
B) Neighborhood canvassing
C) Intelligence gathering
D) Surveillance
  • 65. The term “how the crime was committed” refers to:
A) Means
B) Modus operandi
C) Motive
D) Opportunity
  • 66. The investigator’s first duty at the scene:
A) Approach the suspect
B) Secure and isolate the scene
C) Conduct interrogation
D) Collect fingerprints immediately
  • 67. Intelligence that focuses on specific targets for immediate operations:
A) Strategic intelligence
B) Administrative intelligence
C) Structural intelligence
D) Operational intelligence
  • 68. The “When” in cardinal points identifies:
A) Evidence collected
B) Weather Conditions
C) Cause of death
D) Date and time of occurrence
  • 69. An advantage of photography over sketches:
A) Replace testimony
B) Create Investigation direction
C) Shows exact appearance
D) Locates suspect
  • 70. A fundamental objective of investigation is to:
A) Produce intelligence reports
B) Identify the guilty party
C) Avoid filing cases
D) Satisfy public demand
  • 71. Counterintelligence protects:
A) Confidential materials from adversaries
B) Witness credibility
C) Scene integrity
D) Suspect
  • 72. An example of an investigative tool:
A) Preliminary hearing
B) Interrogation
C) Arrest warrant
D) Judicial affidavit
  • 73. The final phase of investigation is:
A) Processing
B) Follow-up
C) Termination
D) Case documentation
  • 74. The tool used to verify the truthfulness of statements:
A) Interview
B) Sketching
C) Surveillance
D) Interrogation
  • 75. Intelligence used to support administrative decisions:
A) Administrative intelligence
B) Strategic
C) Overt
D) Structural
  • 76. An investigator notes inconsistencies in witness accounts and compares them with physical evidence. This process relates to:
A) Initial response
B) Conducting termination
C) Organizing evidence chronologically
D) Evaluating investigative leads
  • 77. A crime scene with multiple entry points requires the investigator to determine which path the offender used. This applies the principle of:
A) Scene sketching
B) Motive analysis
C) Reconstruction
D) Verification
  • 78. If intelligence gathered is accurate but reaches decision-makers too late, the failure is in:
A) Processing
B) Collection
C) Dissemination
D) Coordination
  • 79. When an investigator determines that the suspect’s MO matches past incidents, the investigator is applying:
A) Case isolation
B) Witness evaluation
C) Accusation formulation
D) Pattern analysis
  • 80. Conflicting evidence suggests two possible scenarios. The investigator compares both to determine the most logical sequence of events. This uses:
A) The cardinal points
B) Deductive reasoning
C) Surveillance
D) Note-taking
  • 81. During a foot surveillance, the suspect suddenly enters a crowded market. The investigator adjusts distance to avoid detection. This action applies which principle?
A) Establishing overt presence
B) Preserving cover and concealment
C) Maintaining a fixed pace
D) Using direct confrontation
  • 82. An operative receives raw data from a civilian and must sort, translate, and verify it before use. This corresponds to which intelligence cycle phase?
A) Direction
B) Processing
C) Collection
D) Dissemination
  • 83. A handler meets an informant in a neutral location to reduce risk. This demonstrates the principle of:
A) Securing informant identity
B) Randomizing interrogation
C) Evidence substitution
D) Strategic penetration
  • 84. When preparing surveillance notes, the investigator diagrams the suspect’s movement pattern to predict next actions. This applies:
A) Interrogation technique
B) Overt documentation
C) Pattern recognition
D) Randomized tracking
  • 85. An intelligence officer determines which unit must receive a report concerning a smuggling operation. This step applies:
A) Dissemination
B) Classification
C) Evaluation
D) Direction
  • 86. A confidential informant provides consistent quality data over several months. The handler categorizes this person as:
A) Regular informant
B) Classified agent
C) Accidental source
D) Danger informant
  • 87. An investigator classifies a document “Secret” because unauthorized disclosure may harm operations. This is:
A) Encoding
B) Overclassification
C) Raw sorting
D) Security labeling
  • 88. During vehicle surveillance, the subject increases speed. The team switches to leapfrogging to prevent losing sight. This procedure is known as:
A) Tail-relay method
B) Visual obstruction tracking
C) Direct trailing
D) Contact surveillance
  • 89. An intelligence unit instructs collectors to focus on illegal firearms networks. This operational task belongs to:
A) Analysis
B) Reclassification
C) Dissemination
D) Planning and direction
  • 90. A handler assesses an informant’s motives before accepting information. This application reflects:
A) Premature classification
B) Surveillance support
C) Source validation
D) Tactical manipulation
  • 91. A field agent receives two conflicting reports and must choose which to pursue based on reliability. This is an example of:
A) Random selection
B) Offensive surveillance
C) Discarding all sources
D) Prioritization of information
  • 92. When conducting stationary surveillance, the officer positions in a location with unobstructed visibility yet low exposure. This applies:
A) Rational shadowing
B) Forced confrontation
C) Cover selection
D) Dual-tracking
  • 93. Intelligence requiring immediate operational action is categorized as:
A) Strategic
B) Background
C) Operational
D) Administrative
  • 94. A field operative monitors radio traffic for intelligence leads. This practice falls under:
A) Controlled overt collection
B) Witness retrieval
C) Indirect canvassing
D) Technical surveillance
  • 95. An investigator destroys preliminary notes after filing final reports to prevent leakage. This applies:
A) Information suppression
B) Interrogation secrecy
C) Proper document disposal
D) Covert misinformation
  • 96. Two teams conduct surveillance: one follows closely while another monitors from a distance. The operation minimizes detection while maintaining observation. This setup exemplifies:
A) Combined (team) surveillance
B) Fragmented tracking
C) Static intelligence
D) Improvised surveillance
  • 97. If direction in the intelligence cycle is weak, resulting in irrelevant data being collected, the failure lies in:
A) Source reliability
B) Document security
C) Planning clarity
D) Dissemination
  • 98. An informant provides accurate details but frequently violates agreed protocols, placing the team at risk. The handler must assess:
A) Whether to reassign the team
B) If surveillance should be canceled
C) Operational utility vs. security risk
D) Whether to change the informant’s identity
  • 99. Intelligence reports classified “Top Secret” are mixed with unclassified memos, increasing exposure. This violates:
A) Multi-source evaluation
B) Covert collection
C) Compartmentation principle
D) Surveillance coordination
  • 100. An officer notices that surveillance footage contradicts live observations, requiring him to identify which source is more credible. This uses:
A) Source cross-validation
B) Evidence suppression
C) Immediate confrontation
D) Hypothetical assumption
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