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CPCTES
Contributed by: Dinglasa
  • 1. What is the primary purpose of criminal procedure?
A) To regulate the process of criminal justice
B) To collect taxes
C) To create laws
D) To punish witnesses
  • 2. Which refers to the means sanctioned by rules for proving truth in court?
A) Pleading
B) Verdict
C) Evidence
D) Complaint
  • 3. A complaint is defined as:
A) A lawyer’s opinion
B) A sworn written statement charging a person with an offense
C) A police report only
D) A decision of the court
  • 4. An information is:
A) A newspaper report
B) . A criminal pleading filed by the prosecutor in court
C) A witness statement only
D) A confession
  • 5. Which party has the burden of proving guilt in a criminal case?
A) Judge
B) Witness
C) Accused
D) Prosecution
  • 6. The constitutional presumption in favor of the accused is:
A) Presumption of liability
B) Presumption of innocence
C) Presumption of wealth
D) Presumption of guilt
  • 7. Which court proceeding determines probable cause for arrest?
A) Preliminary Investigation
B) Appeal
C) Sentencing
D) Trial
  • 8. Probable cause means:
A) Strong suspicion supported by facts
B) Absolute certainty
C) Mere rumor
D) Witness opinion only
  • 9. Which of the following is considered documentary evidence?
A) Fingerprint
B) Testimony
C) Knife
D) Contract
  • 10. Testimonial evidence refers to:
A) Oral statement made under oath
B) Photograph
C) Physical object
D) Written confession only
  • 11. Physical evidence is also known as:
A) Secondary evidence
B) Object evidence
C) Documentary evidence
D) Opinion evidence
  • 12. Which rule requires the original document when contents are in issue?
A) Parol Evidence Rule
B) Res Gestae Rule
C) Hearsay Rule
D) Best Evidence Rule
  • 13. Hearsay evidence is generally:
A) Always admissible
B) Always true
C) Required in court
D) Inadmissible unless under exceptions
  • 14. Cross-examination is conducted by:
A) Witness himself
B) Jury
C) Judge only
D) Opposing counsel
  • 15. Which stage allows questioning of a witness by the party who presented him?
A) Cross-examination
B) Direct examination
C) Appeal
D) Recall
  • 16. Circumstantial evidence is:
A) Evidence requiring inference
B) Documentary proof only
C) Fake evidence
D) Direct proof of fact
  • 17. Direct evidence proves a fact:
A) By opinion alone
B) Immediately and directly
C) Through inference
D) By rumor
  • 18. Which officer generally prosecutes criminal cases?
A) Clerk of Court
B) Prosecutor
C) Sheriff
D) Bailiff
  • 19. The accused enters his plea during:
A) Promulgation
B) Appeal
C) Arraignment
D) Trial
  • 20. A plea of guilty means:
A) Refusal to testify
B) Admission of charge
C) Request for dismissal
D) Denial of charge
  • 21. A plea of not guilty means:
A) Denial of the accusation
B) Acceptance of punishment
C) Admission of guilt
D) Waiver of trial
  • 22. Which constitutional right protects against self-incrimination?
A) Right to property
B) Right to vote
C) Right to remain silent
D) Right to travel
  • 23. Arrest is defined as:
A) Payment of fine
B) Filing a complaint
C) Taking a person into custody to answer for an offense
D) Court conviction
  • 24. A warrant of arrest is issued by:
A) Witness
B) Police officer
C) Judge
D) Prosecutor
  • 25. Which of the following is an example of object evidence?
    A. Affidavit
A) Gun used in crime
B) Affidavit
C) Testimony
D) Police blotter
  • 26. Evidence must be relevant and:
A) Admissible
B) Lengthy
C) Popular
D) Expensive
  • 27. Relevant evidence means:
A) Evidence from newspaper only
B) Illegal evidence
C) Evidence unrelated to issue
D) Evidence having connection with the fact in issue
  • 28. Competent evidence means:
A) Very expensive
B) Legally admissible in court
C) Publicly known
D) Witness-approved
  • 29. Which examination follows direct examination?
A) Appeal
B) Recall examination
C) Cross-examination
D) Redirect examination
  • 30. Redirect examination aims to:
A) End the case
B) Change testimony entirely
C) Attack witness credibility only
D) Clarify matters raised during cross-examination
  • 31. Which evidence is stronger when proving a document’s contents?
A) Secondary evidence
B) Rumor
C) Oral testimony
D) Original document
  • 32. Secondary evidence may be admitted when:
A) Witness refuses to testify
B) Original exists and available
C) Judge prefers it
D) Original is lost or unavailable under rules
  • 33. Judicial notice refers to:
A) Court recognizing facts without evidence
B) Witness testimony
C) Newspaper publication
D) Police investigation
  • 34. The credibility of a witness refers to:
A) Occupation only
B) Financial status
C) Age only
D) Believability or trustworthiness
  • 35. Which evidence is based on personal knowledge of a witness?
A) Hearsay evidence
B) Direct testimony
C) Rumor
D) Speculation
  • 36. Motive is:
A) Reason that induces a person to act
B) Witness statement
C) Court order
D) The act itself
  • 37. Alibi is a defense claiming:
A) Presence at another place during crime
B) Self-defense
C) Lack of motive
D) Mistaken identity only
  • 38. Which standard is required to convict an accused?
A) Beyond reasonable doubt
B) Mere suspicion
C) Public opinion
D) Probable cause
  • 39. Acquittal means:
A) Conviction of accused
B) Filing of case
C) Arrest of accused
D) Release because guilt not proven
  • 40. Conviction means:
A) Finding the accused guilty
B) Withdrawal of complaint
C) New trial
D) Dismissal of case
  • 41. Which right guarantees legal assistance to the accused?
A) Right to property
B) Right to counsel
C) Right to privacy
D) Right to travel
  • 42. Bail is defined as:
A) Court decision
B) Police investigation
C) Final punishment
D) Security for release of accused to guarantee court apperance
  • 43. Bail may be given in the form of:
A) Police report only
B) Property or surety bond
C) Testimony only
D) Court transcript
  • 44. Search warrant is issued for the purpose of:
A) Filing complaint
B) Collecting taxes
C) Convicting accused
D) Searching and seizing specific property
  • 45. Which official issues a search warrant?
A) Judge
B) Prosecutor
C) Witness
D) Police officer
  • 46. Illegal search and seizure violate:
A) Tax laws
B) Traffic rules
C) School policies
D) Constitutional rights
  • 47. Evidence obtained illegally is generally called:
A) Excluded evidence
B) Direct evidence
C) Best evidence
D) Documentary evidence
  • 48. Which rule excludes illegally obtained evidence?
A) Hearsay Rule
B) Exclusionary Rule
C) Best Evidence Rule
D) Dead Man Rule
  • 49. Corpus delicti refers to:
A) Body of the accused only
B) Witness affidavit
C) Fact that a crime has been committed
D) Court records
  • 50. Which document records witness statements under oath?
A) Summons
B) Receipt
C) Affidavit
D) Invoice
  • 51. Summons is generally issued in:
A) Civil cases
B) Appeal only
C) Sentencing
D) Criminal conviction
  • 52. Which officer serves court processes such as writs and subpoenas?
A) Clerk
B) Sheriff
C) Witness
D) Prosecutor
  • 53. A subpoena is issued to:
A) Dismiss case
B) Compel attendance of witness or production of documents
C) Arrest immediately
D) Convict accused
  • 54. Subpoena duces tecum requires:
A) Payment of fine
B) Production of documents or objects
C) Witness appearance only
D) Arrest of accused
  • 55. Subpoena ad testificandum compels:
A) Filing of complaint
B) Witness testimony
C) Payment of damages
D) Delivery of property
  • 56. Which evidence consists of written or printed materials?
A) Object evidence
B) Circumstantial evidence
C) Documentary evidence
D) Testimonial evidence
  • 57. The judge’s decision is based on:
A) Public pressure
B) Media reports
C) Personal opinion alone
D) Evidence presented and applicable law
  • 58. Which proceeding follows arraignment?
A) Complaint filing
B) Investigation
C) Trial
D) Arrest
  • 59. Trial is conducted to:
A) Determine guilt or innocence
B) Punish witness
C) Collect taxes
D) Write police report
  • 60. Which principle states that no person shall be tried twice for the same offense?
A) Due process
B) Hearsay Rule
C) Double jeopardy
D) Probable cause
  • 61. Double jeopardy protects a person from:
A) Multiple arrests for different crimes
B) Paying bail twice
C) Being tried twice for the same offense
D) Giving testimony twice
  • 62. Due process means:
A) Public opinion decides the case
B) Fair and lawful procedure
C) Immediate punishment without hearing
D) Police decide guilt
  • 63. Which pleading is filed to challenge defects in a complaint or information?
A) Affidavit
B) Motion to Quash
C) Verdict
D) Warrant
  • 64. A demurrer to evidence is filed when:
A) Accused admits guilt
B) Prosecution evidence is insufficient
C) Witness disappears
D) Trial has not started
  • 65. Which party presents evidence first during trial?
A) Witness
B) Prosecution
C) Judge
D) Defense
  • 66. The defense presents evidence:
A) During investigation only
B) Before arraignment
C) After prosecution rests its case
D) Before complaint filing
  • 67. Which motion asks the court to postpone proceedings?
A) Motion for Continuance
B) Motion to Dismiss
C) Motion for Judgment
D) Motion to Quash
  • 68. A hostile witness is one who:
A) Supports both parties
B) Is under 18 years old
C) Shows adverse interest or unwillingness
D) Refuses oath only
  • 69. Which evidence proves a fact without inference?
A) Direct evidence
B) Secondary evidence
C) Hearsay evidence
D) Circumstantial evidence
  • 70. Character evidence generally refers to:
A) Financial records
B) Written contracts
C) Proof of moral traits or reputation
D) Crime scene objects
  • 71. Expert witness testimony is based on:
A) Rumor
B) Specialized knowledge and skill
C) Friendship with accused
D) Guesswork
  • 72. Which witness testifies about facts personally perceived?
A) Character witness
B) Expert witness
C) Hostile witness
D) Ordinary witness
  • 73. Which document officially records court proceedings?
A) Receipt
B) Police badge
C) Transcript of stenographic notes
D) Search warrant
  • 74. Perjury is committed by
A) Giving false testimony under oath
B) Remaining silent
C) Filing appeal
D) Posting bail
  • 75. Which court action formally ends a criminal case without conviction?
A) Dismissal
B) Sentencing
C) Conviction
D) Arraignment
  • 76. Sentencing occurs when:
A) Bail is posted
B) Trial begins
C) Judge imposes penalty after conviction
D) Complaint is filed
  • 77. Appeal is made to:
A) File police blotter
B) Arrest accused again
C) Reinvestigate crime scene only
D) Request review of lower court decision
  • 78. Which court officer keeps records and documents?
A) Prosecutor
B) Sheriff
C) Bailiff
D) Clerk of Court
  • 79. Judicial affidavit is:
A) Court decision
B) Oral testimony only
C) Arrest order
D) Written sworn testimony of witness
  • 80. Which principle requires that criminal laws be interpreted strictly against the State?
A) Estoppel
B) Liberal construction
C) Judicial notice
D) Rule of lenity
  • 81. Which court document contains the final judgment of the court?
A) Subpoena
B) Decision
C) Affidavit
D) Complaint
  • 82. The term venue in criminal cases refers to:
A) Witness location
B) Court furniture
C) Place where the case is tried
D) Type of penalty
  • 83. Which right ensures that an accused knows the nature and cause of accusation?
A) Right to information
B) Right to property
C) Right to privacy
D) Right to travel
  • 84. Which evidence is admissible because it forms part of a spontaneous statement?
A) Hearsay
B) Res Gestae
C) Opinion evidence
D) Secondary evidence
  • 85. Leading questions are generally:
A) Used by witnesses only
B) Required during trial
C) Not allowed on direct examination
D) Allowed on direct examination
  • 86. Which question suggests its own answer to the witness?
A) Compound question
B) Leading question
C) Hypothetical question
D) Narrative question
  • 87. Which objection challenges evidence as irrelevant?
A) Objection: Compound
B) Objection: Leading
C) Objection: Argumentative
D) Objection: Irrelevant
  • 88. Which doctrine states that facts admitted no longer require proof?
A) Hearsay Rule
B) Corpus Delicti
C) Judicial Admission
D) Double Jeopardy
  • 89. Recantation means:
A) Posting bail
B) Repeating testimony
C) Withdrawal or repudiation of previous statement
D) Filing complaint
  • 90. Which witness may provide opinions based on specialized expertise?
A) Child witness
B) Expert witness
C) Character witness
D) Hostile witness
  • 91. Which rule prevents testimony about privileged communication?
A) Hearsay Rule
B) Exclusionary Rule
C) Best Evidence Rule
D) Privileged Communication Rule
  • 92. Attorney-client communication is generally:
A) Privileged and confidential
B) Public information
C) Illegal evidence
D) Hearsay only
  • 93. Which stage occurs when judgment is announced in court?
A) Examination
B) Promulgation
C) Arraignment
D) Investigation
  • 94. Which legal remedy questions the legality of detention?
A) Certiorari
B) Injunction
C) Habeas Corpus
D) Mandamus
  • 95. Which evidence relies upon a chain of circumstances?
A) Circumstantial evidence
B) Primary evidence
C) Documentary evidence
D) Direct evidence
  • 96. Which principle states that an accused is innocent until proven guilty?
A) Rule of lenity
B) Judicial notice
C) Corpus delicti
D) Presumption of innocence
  • 97. Which court order commands law enforcement to arrest a person?
A) Subpoena
B) Search warrant
C) Summons
D) Warrant of arrest
  • 98. Which examination follows cross-examination?
A) Redirect examination
B) Arraignment
C) Sentencing
D) Investigation
  • 99. Which term refers to the legal authority of a court to hear and decide a case?
A) Venue
B) Jurisdiction
C) Promulgation
D) Probable cause
  • 100. The ultimate goal of criminal procedure and evidence is to:
A) Increase penalties only
B) Protect rights and ensure justice
C) Avoid trials
D) Delay cases
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