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CPCTES
Contributed by: Dinglasa
  • 1. What is the primary purpose of criminal procedure?
A) To create laws
B) To punish witnesses
C) To collect taxes
D) To regulate the process of criminal justice
  • 2. Which refers to the means sanctioned by rules for proving truth in court?
A) Pleading
B) Evidence
C) Complaint
D) Verdict
  • 3. A complaint is defined as:
A) A sworn written statement charging a person with an offense
B) A police report only
C) A lawyer’s opinion
D) A decision of the court
  • 4. An information is:
A) A witness statement only
B) . A criminal pleading filed by the prosecutor in court
C) A newspaper report
D) A confession
  • 5. Which party has the burden of proving guilt in a criminal case?
A) Witness
B) Judge
C) Prosecution
D) Accused
  • 6. The constitutional presumption in favor of the accused is:
A) Presumption of wealth
B) Presumption of guilt
C) Presumption of innocence
D) Presumption of liability
  • 7. Which court proceeding determines probable cause for arrest?
A) Appeal
B) Trial
C) Preliminary Investigation
D) Sentencing
  • 8. Probable cause means:
A) Witness opinion only
B) Strong suspicion supported by facts
C) Absolute certainty
D) Mere rumor
  • 9. Which of the following is considered documentary evidence?
A) Knife
B) Fingerprint
C) Contract
D) Testimony
  • 10. Testimonial evidence refers to:
A) Physical object
B) Written confession only
C) Oral statement made under oath
D) Photograph
  • 11. Physical evidence is also known as:
A) Secondary evidence
B) Object evidence
C) Opinion evidence
D) Documentary evidence
  • 12. Which rule requires the original document when contents are in issue?
A) Parol Evidence Rule
B) Res Gestae Rule
C) Hearsay Rule
D) Best Evidence Rule
  • 13. Hearsay evidence is generally:
A) Always admissible
B) Required in court
C) Always true
D) Inadmissible unless under exceptions
  • 14. Cross-examination is conducted by:
A) Jury
B) Opposing counsel
C) Witness himself
D) Judge only
  • 15. Which stage allows questioning of a witness by the party who presented him?
A) Cross-examination
B) Appeal
C) Direct examination
D) Recall
  • 16. Circumstantial evidence is:
A) Direct proof of fact
B) Evidence requiring inference
C) Documentary proof only
D) Fake evidence
  • 17. Direct evidence proves a fact:
A) By rumor
B) By opinion alone
C) Through inference
D) Immediately and directly
  • 18. Which officer generally prosecutes criminal cases?
A) Bailiff
B) Sheriff
C) Clerk of Court
D) Prosecutor
  • 19. The accused enters his plea during:
A) Appeal
B) Promulgation
C) Arraignment
D) Trial
  • 20. A plea of guilty means:
A) Denial of charge
B) Request for dismissal
C) Refusal to testify
D) Admission of charge
  • 21. A plea of not guilty means:
A) Denial of the accusation
B) Waiver of trial
C) Acceptance of punishment
D) Admission of guilt
  • 22. Which constitutional right protects against self-incrimination?
A) Right to property
B) Right to vote
C) Right to remain silent
D) Right to travel
  • 23. Arrest is defined as:
A) Court conviction
B) Payment of fine
C) Filing a complaint
D) Taking a person into custody to answer for an offense
  • 24. A warrant of arrest is issued by:
A) Police officer
B) Prosecutor
C) Judge
D) Witness
  • 25. Which of the following is an example of object evidence?
    A. Affidavit
A) Gun used in crime
B) Affidavit
C) Police blotter
D) Testimony
  • 26. Evidence must be relevant and:
A) Popular
B) Lengthy
C) Expensive
D) Admissible
  • 27. Relevant evidence means:
A) Evidence unrelated to issue
B) Evidence having connection with the fact in issue
C) Illegal evidence
D) Evidence from newspaper only
  • 28. Competent evidence means:
A) Witness-approved
B) Very expensive
C) Legally admissible in court
D) Publicly known
  • 29. Which examination follows direct examination?
A) Appeal
B) Cross-examination
C) Recall examination
D) Redirect examination
  • 30. Redirect examination aims to:
A) Clarify matters raised during cross-examination
B) Change testimony entirely
C) Attack witness credibility only
D) End the case
  • 31. Which evidence is stronger when proving a document’s contents?
A) Original document
B) Oral testimony
C) Secondary evidence
D) Rumor
  • 32. Secondary evidence may be admitted when:
A) Original exists and available
B) Witness refuses to testify
C) Original is lost or unavailable under rules
D) Judge prefers it
  • 33. Judicial notice refers to:
A) Witness testimony
B) Newspaper publication
C) Police investigation
D) Court recognizing facts without evidence
  • 34. The credibility of a witness refers to:
A) Occupation only
B) Believability or trustworthiness
C) Financial status
D) Age only
  • 35. Which evidence is based on personal knowledge of a witness?
A) Direct testimony
B) Speculation
C) Hearsay evidence
D) Rumor
  • 36. Motive is:
A) The act itself
B) Witness statement
C) Court order
D) Reason that induces a person to act
  • 37. Alibi is a defense claiming:
A) Lack of motive
B) Presence at another place during crime
C) Self-defense
D) Mistaken identity only
  • 38. Which standard is required to convict an accused?
A) Probable cause
B) Public opinion
C) Beyond reasonable doubt
D) Mere suspicion
  • 39. Acquittal means:
A) Conviction of accused
B) Release because guilt not proven
C) Filing of case
D) Arrest of accused
  • 40. Conviction means:
A) Dismissal of case
B) New trial
C) Finding the accused guilty
D) Withdrawal of complaint
  • 41. Which right guarantees legal assistance to the accused?
A) Right to privacy
B) Right to travel
C) Right to counsel
D) Right to property
  • 42. Bail is defined as:
A) Court decision
B) Police investigation
C) Security for release of accused to guarantee court apperance
D) Final punishment
  • 43. Bail may be given in the form of:
A) Testimony only
B) Property or surety bond
C) Police report only
D) Court transcript
  • 44. Search warrant is issued for the purpose of:
A) Filing complaint
B) Convicting accused
C) Collecting taxes
D) Searching and seizing specific property
  • 45. Which official issues a search warrant?
A) Prosecutor
B) Judge
C) Police officer
D) Witness
  • 46. Illegal search and seizure violate:
A) School policies
B) Tax laws
C) Constitutional rights
D) Traffic rules
  • 47. Evidence obtained illegally is generally called:
A) Direct evidence
B) Excluded evidence
C) Best evidence
D) Documentary evidence
  • 48. Which rule excludes illegally obtained evidence?
A) Hearsay Rule
B) Exclusionary Rule
C) Best Evidence Rule
D) Dead Man Rule
  • 49. Corpus delicti refers to:
A) Witness affidavit
B) Fact that a crime has been committed
C) Body of the accused only
D) Court records
  • 50. Which document records witness statements under oath?
A) Receipt
B) Invoice
C) Affidavit
D) Summons
  • 51. Summons is generally issued in:
A) Appeal only
B) Sentencing
C) Criminal conviction
D) Civil cases
  • 52. Which officer serves court processes such as writs and subpoenas?
A) Clerk
B) Witness
C) Sheriff
D) Prosecutor
  • 53. A subpoena is issued to:
A) Arrest immediately
B) Dismiss case
C) Convict accused
D) Compel attendance of witness or production of documents
  • 54. Subpoena duces tecum requires:
A) Witness appearance only
B) Payment of fine
C) Production of documents or objects
D) Arrest of accused
  • 55. Subpoena ad testificandum compels:
A) Payment of damages
B) Witness testimony
C) Filing of complaint
D) Delivery of property
  • 56. Which evidence consists of written or printed materials?
A) Testimonial evidence
B) Object evidence
C) Documentary evidence
D) Circumstantial evidence
  • 57. The judge’s decision is based on:
A) Public pressure
B) Personal opinion alone
C) Evidence presented and applicable law
D) Media reports
  • 58. Which proceeding follows arraignment?
A) Arrest
B) Investigation
C) Trial
D) Complaint filing
  • 59. Trial is conducted to:
A) Punish witness
B) Determine guilt or innocence
C) Collect taxes
D) Write police report
  • 60. Which principle states that no person shall be tried twice for the same offense?
A) Due process
B) Probable cause
C) Hearsay Rule
D) Double jeopardy
  • 61. Double jeopardy protects a person from:
A) Multiple arrests for different crimes
B) Giving testimony twice
C) Being tried twice for the same offense
D) Paying bail twice
  • 62. Due process means:
A) Police decide guilt
B) Public opinion decides the case
C) Fair and lawful procedure
D) Immediate punishment without hearing
  • 63. Which pleading is filed to challenge defects in a complaint or information?
A) Motion to Quash
B) Verdict
C) Warrant
D) Affidavit
  • 64. A demurrer to evidence is filed when:
A) Trial has not started
B) Prosecution evidence is insufficient
C) Witness disappears
D) Accused admits guilt
  • 65. Which party presents evidence first during trial?
A) Judge
B) Witness
C) Prosecution
D) Defense
  • 66. The defense presents evidence:
A) Before arraignment
B) During investigation only
C) After prosecution rests its case
D) Before complaint filing
  • 67. Which motion asks the court to postpone proceedings?
A) Motion to Quash
B) Motion to Dismiss
C) Motion for Judgment
D) Motion for Continuance
  • 68. A hostile witness is one who:
A) Is under 18 years old
B) Supports both parties
C) Refuses oath only
D) Shows adverse interest or unwillingness
  • 69. Which evidence proves a fact without inference?
A) Hearsay evidence
B) Secondary evidence
C) Circumstantial evidence
D) Direct evidence
  • 70. Character evidence generally refers to:
A) Written contracts
B) Crime scene objects
C) Proof of moral traits or reputation
D) Financial records
  • 71. Expert witness testimony is based on:
A) Specialized knowledge and skill
B) Friendship with accused
C) Guesswork
D) Rumor
  • 72. Which witness testifies about facts personally perceived?
A) Expert witness
B) Character witness
C) Hostile witness
D) Ordinary witness
  • 73. Which document officially records court proceedings?
A) Receipt
B) Transcript of stenographic notes
C) Search warrant
D) Police badge
  • 74. Perjury is committed by
A) Posting bail
B) Giving false testimony under oath
C) Remaining silent
D) Filing appeal
  • 75. Which court action formally ends a criminal case without conviction?
A) Sentencing
B) Conviction
C) Arraignment
D) Dismissal
  • 76. Sentencing occurs when:
A) Bail is posted
B) Trial begins
C) Judge imposes penalty after conviction
D) Complaint is filed
  • 77. Appeal is made to:
A) Request review of lower court decision
B) File police blotter
C) Arrest accused again
D) Reinvestigate crime scene only
  • 78. Which court officer keeps records and documents?
A) Bailiff
B) Prosecutor
C) Sheriff
D) Clerk of Court
  • 79. Judicial affidavit is:
A) Arrest order
B) Court decision
C) Oral testimony only
D) Written sworn testimony of witness
  • 80. Which principle requires that criminal laws be interpreted strictly against the State?
A) Estoppel
B) Rule of lenity
C) Judicial notice
D) Liberal construction
  • 81. Which court document contains the final judgment of the court?
A) Subpoena
B) Affidavit
C) Decision
D) Complaint
  • 82. The term venue in criminal cases refers to:
A) Type of penalty
B) Place where the case is tried
C) Witness location
D) Court furniture
  • 83. Which right ensures that an accused knows the nature and cause of accusation?
A) Right to privacy
B) Right to information
C) Right to property
D) Right to travel
  • 84. Which evidence is admissible because it forms part of a spontaneous statement?
A) Res Gestae
B) Hearsay
C) Secondary evidence
D) Opinion evidence
  • 85. Leading questions are generally:
A) Used by witnesses only
B) Allowed on direct examination
C) Required during trial
D) Not allowed on direct examination
  • 86. Which question suggests its own answer to the witness?
A) Hypothetical question
B) Leading question
C) Compound question
D) Narrative question
  • 87. Which objection challenges evidence as irrelevant?
A) Objection: Compound
B) Objection: Irrelevant
C) Objection: Leading
D) Objection: Argumentative
  • 88. Which doctrine states that facts admitted no longer require proof?
A) Double Jeopardy
B) Corpus Delicti
C) Judicial Admission
D) Hearsay Rule
  • 89. Recantation means:
A) Repeating testimony
B) Posting bail
C) Filing complaint
D) Withdrawal or repudiation of previous statement
  • 90. Which witness may provide opinions based on specialized expertise?
A) Character witness
B) Expert witness
C) Hostile witness
D) Child witness
  • 91. Which rule prevents testimony about privileged communication?
A) Best Evidence Rule
B) Hearsay Rule
C) Privileged Communication Rule
D) Exclusionary Rule
  • 92. Attorney-client communication is generally:
A) Hearsay only
B) Illegal evidence
C) Privileged and confidential
D) Public information
  • 93. Which stage occurs when judgment is announced in court?
A) Arraignment
B) Examination
C) Investigation
D) Promulgation
  • 94. Which legal remedy questions the legality of detention?
A) Certiorari
B) Mandamus
C) Habeas Corpus
D) Injunction
  • 95. Which evidence relies upon a chain of circumstances?
A) Direct evidence
B) Circumstantial evidence
C) Primary evidence
D) Documentary evidence
  • 96. Which principle states that an accused is innocent until proven guilty?
A) Corpus delicti
B) Presumption of innocence
C) Judicial notice
D) Rule of lenity
  • 97. Which court order commands law enforcement to arrest a person?
A) Subpoena
B) Warrant of arrest
C) Summons
D) Search warrant
  • 98. Which examination follows cross-examination?
A) Redirect examination
B) Sentencing
C) Investigation
D) Arraignment
  • 99. Which term refers to the legal authority of a court to hear and decide a case?
A) Jurisdiction
B) Venue
C) Probable cause
D) Promulgation
  • 100. The ultimate goal of criminal procedure and evidence is to:
A) Delay cases
B) Increase penalties only
C) Avoid trials
D) Protect rights and ensure justice
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