ThatQuiz Test Library Take this test now
CPCTES
Contributed by: Dinglasa
  • 1. What is the primary purpose of criminal procedure?
A) To create laws
B) To collect taxes
C) To regulate the process of criminal justice
D) To punish witnesses
  • 2. Which refers to the means sanctioned by rules for proving truth in court?
A) Verdict
B) Complaint
C) Pleading
D) Evidence
  • 3. A complaint is defined as:
A) A police report only
B) A sworn written statement charging a person with an offense
C) A lawyer’s opinion
D) A decision of the court
  • 4. An information is:
A) A newspaper report
B) A confession
C) . A criminal pleading filed by the prosecutor in court
D) A witness statement only
  • 5. Which party has the burden of proving guilt in a criminal case?
A) Witness
B) Prosecution
C) Judge
D) Accused
  • 6. The constitutional presumption in favor of the accused is:
A) Presumption of wealth
B) Presumption of liability
C) Presumption of guilt
D) Presumption of innocence
  • 7. Which court proceeding determines probable cause for arrest?
A) Appeal
B) Preliminary Investigation
C) Sentencing
D) Trial
  • 8. Probable cause means:
A) Witness opinion only
B) Mere rumor
C) Absolute certainty
D) Strong suspicion supported by facts
  • 9. Which of the following is considered documentary evidence?
A) Fingerprint
B) Contract
C) Knife
D) Testimony
  • 10. Testimonial evidence refers to:
A) Physical object
B) Oral statement made under oath
C) Written confession only
D) Photograph
  • 11. Physical evidence is also known as:
A) Documentary evidence
B) Object evidence
C) Opinion evidence
D) Secondary evidence
  • 12. Which rule requires the original document when contents are in issue?
A) Res Gestae Rule
B) Best Evidence Rule
C) Parol Evidence Rule
D) Hearsay Rule
  • 13. Hearsay evidence is generally:
A) Always true
B) Inadmissible unless under exceptions
C) Always admissible
D) Required in court
  • 14. Cross-examination is conducted by:
A) Judge only
B) Jury
C) Opposing counsel
D) Witness himself
  • 15. Which stage allows questioning of a witness by the party who presented him?
A) Cross-examination
B) Direct examination
C) Appeal
D) Recall
  • 16. Circumstantial evidence is:
A) Evidence requiring inference
B) Documentary proof only
C) Fake evidence
D) Direct proof of fact
  • 17. Direct evidence proves a fact:
A) By rumor
B) Through inference
C) Immediately and directly
D) By opinion alone
  • 18. Which officer generally prosecutes criminal cases?
A) Clerk of Court
B) Bailiff
C) Prosecutor
D) Sheriff
  • 19. The accused enters his plea during:
A) Trial
B) Promulgation
C) Appeal
D) Arraignment
  • 20. A plea of guilty means:
A) Denial of charge
B) Admission of charge
C) Refusal to testify
D) Request for dismissal
  • 21. A plea of not guilty means:
A) Acceptance of punishment
B) Admission of guilt
C) Denial of the accusation
D) Waiver of trial
  • 22. Which constitutional right protects against self-incrimination?
A) Right to vote
B) Right to travel
C) Right to property
D) Right to remain silent
  • 23. Arrest is defined as:
A) Court conviction
B) Taking a person into custody to answer for an offense
C) Filing a complaint
D) Payment of fine
  • 24. A warrant of arrest is issued by:
A) Police officer
B) Judge
C) Prosecutor
D) Witness
  • 25. Which of the following is an example of object evidence?
    A. Affidavit
A) Gun used in crime
B) Police blotter
C) Testimony
D) Affidavit
  • 26. Evidence must be relevant and:
A) Lengthy
B) Popular
C) Admissible
D) Expensive
  • 27. Relevant evidence means:
A) Evidence from newspaper only
B) Illegal evidence
C) Evidence unrelated to issue
D) Evidence having connection with the fact in issue
  • 28. Competent evidence means:
A) Legally admissible in court
B) Very expensive
C) Publicly known
D) Witness-approved
  • 29. Which examination follows direct examination?
A) Redirect examination
B) Cross-examination
C) Appeal
D) Recall examination
  • 30. Redirect examination aims to:
A) End the case
B) Change testimony entirely
C) Attack witness credibility only
D) Clarify matters raised during cross-examination
  • 31. Which evidence is stronger when proving a document’s contents?
A) Rumor
B) Secondary evidence
C) Oral testimony
D) Original document
  • 32. Secondary evidence may be admitted when:
A) Original is lost or unavailable under rules
B) Judge prefers it
C) Original exists and available
D) Witness refuses to testify
  • 33. Judicial notice refers to:
A) Court recognizing facts without evidence
B) Witness testimony
C) Newspaper publication
D) Police investigation
  • 34. The credibility of a witness refers to:
A) Believability or trustworthiness
B) Financial status
C) Age only
D) Occupation only
  • 35. Which evidence is based on personal knowledge of a witness?
A) Direct testimony
B) Hearsay evidence
C) Speculation
D) Rumor
  • 36. Motive is:
A) Court order
B) Witness statement
C) The act itself
D) Reason that induces a person to act
  • 37. Alibi is a defense claiming:
A) Mistaken identity only
B) Lack of motive
C) Self-defense
D) Presence at another place during crime
  • 38. Which standard is required to convict an accused?
A) Probable cause
B) Mere suspicion
C) Beyond reasonable doubt
D) Public opinion
  • 39. Acquittal means:
A) Filing of case
B) Release because guilt not proven
C) Arrest of accused
D) Conviction of accused
  • 40. Conviction means:
A) Finding the accused guilty
B) Dismissal of case
C) New trial
D) Withdrawal of complaint
  • 41. Which right guarantees legal assistance to the accused?
A) Right to counsel
B) Right to privacy
C) Right to property
D) Right to travel
  • 42. Bail is defined as:
A) Final punishment
B) Police investigation
C) Security for release of accused to guarantee court apperance
D) Court decision
  • 43. Bail may be given in the form of:
A) Property or surety bond
B) Police report only
C) Court transcript
D) Testimony only
  • 44. Search warrant is issued for the purpose of:
A) Convicting accused
B) Searching and seizing specific property
C) Filing complaint
D) Collecting taxes
  • 45. Which official issues a search warrant?
A) Witness
B) Judge
C) Police officer
D) Prosecutor
  • 46. Illegal search and seizure violate:
A) Constitutional rights
B) Tax laws
C) Traffic rules
D) School policies
  • 47. Evidence obtained illegally is generally called:
A) Documentary evidence
B) Best evidence
C) Excluded evidence
D) Direct evidence
  • 48. Which rule excludes illegally obtained evidence?
A) Dead Man Rule
B) Hearsay Rule
C) Exclusionary Rule
D) Best Evidence Rule
  • 49. Corpus delicti refers to:
A) Fact that a crime has been committed
B) Witness affidavit
C) Body of the accused only
D) Court records
  • 50. Which document records witness statements under oath?
A) Affidavit
B) Summons
C) Receipt
D) Invoice
  • 51. Summons is generally issued in:
A) Civil cases
B) Criminal conviction
C) Appeal only
D) Sentencing
  • 52. Which officer serves court processes such as writs and subpoenas?
A) Clerk
B) Witness
C) Prosecutor
D) Sheriff
  • 53. A subpoena is issued to:
A) Arrest immediately
B) Convict accused
C) Compel attendance of witness or production of documents
D) Dismiss case
  • 54. Subpoena duces tecum requires:
A) Production of documents or objects
B) Witness appearance only
C) Payment of fine
D) Arrest of accused
  • 55. Subpoena ad testificandum compels:
A) Payment of damages
B) Delivery of property
C) Witness testimony
D) Filing of complaint
  • 56. Which evidence consists of written or printed materials?
A) Object evidence
B) Documentary evidence
C) Circumstantial evidence
D) Testimonial evidence
  • 57. The judge’s decision is based on:
A) Media reports
B) Public pressure
C) Evidence presented and applicable law
D) Personal opinion alone
  • 58. Which proceeding follows arraignment?
A) Complaint filing
B) Arrest
C) Investigation
D) Trial
  • 59. Trial is conducted to:
A) Write police report
B) Punish witness
C) Collect taxes
D) Determine guilt or innocence
  • 60. Which principle states that no person shall be tried twice for the same offense?
A) Hearsay Rule
B) Due process
C) Probable cause
D) Double jeopardy
  • 61. Double jeopardy protects a person from:
A) Multiple arrests for different crimes
B) Giving testimony twice
C) Being tried twice for the same offense
D) Paying bail twice
  • 62. Due process means:
A) Public opinion decides the case
B) Fair and lawful procedure
C) Immediate punishment without hearing
D) Police decide guilt
  • 63. Which pleading is filed to challenge defects in a complaint or information?
A) Affidavit
B) Verdict
C) Warrant
D) Motion to Quash
  • 64. A demurrer to evidence is filed when:
A) Accused admits guilt
B) Witness disappears
C) Prosecution evidence is insufficient
D) Trial has not started
  • 65. Which party presents evidence first during trial?
A) Witness
B) Defense
C) Prosecution
D) Judge
  • 66. The defense presents evidence:
A) Before complaint filing
B) Before arraignment
C) During investigation only
D) After prosecution rests its case
  • 67. Which motion asks the court to postpone proceedings?
A) Motion for Continuance
B) Motion for Judgment
C) Motion to Quash
D) Motion to Dismiss
  • 68. A hostile witness is one who:
A) Supports both parties
B) Shows adverse interest or unwillingness
C) Refuses oath only
D) Is under 18 years old
  • 69. Which evidence proves a fact without inference?
A) Secondary evidence
B) Circumstantial evidence
C) Hearsay evidence
D) Direct evidence
  • 70. Character evidence generally refers to:
A) Proof of moral traits or reputation
B) Written contracts
C) Financial records
D) Crime scene objects
  • 71. Expert witness testimony is based on:
A) Guesswork
B) Friendship with accused
C) Specialized knowledge and skill
D) Rumor
  • 72. Which witness testifies about facts personally perceived?
A) Ordinary witness
B) Expert witness
C) Hostile witness
D) Character witness
  • 73. Which document officially records court proceedings?
A) Transcript of stenographic notes
B) Police badge
C) Search warrant
D) Receipt
  • 74. Perjury is committed by
A) Filing appeal
B) Posting bail
C) Remaining silent
D) Giving false testimony under oath
  • 75. Which court action formally ends a criminal case without conviction?
A) Arraignment
B) Sentencing
C) Dismissal
D) Conviction
  • 76. Sentencing occurs when:
A) Complaint is filed
B) Bail is posted
C) Judge imposes penalty after conviction
D) Trial begins
  • 77. Appeal is made to:
A) Reinvestigate crime scene only
B) Arrest accused again
C) Request review of lower court decision
D) File police blotter
  • 78. Which court officer keeps records and documents?
A) Prosecutor
B) Clerk of Court
C) Sheriff
D) Bailiff
  • 79. Judicial affidavit is:
A) Written sworn testimony of witness
B) Court decision
C) Oral testimony only
D) Arrest order
  • 80. Which principle requires that criminal laws be interpreted strictly against the State?
A) Liberal construction
B) Rule of lenity
C) Judicial notice
D) Estoppel
  • 81. Which court document contains the final judgment of the court?
A) Complaint
B) Affidavit
C) Subpoena
D) Decision
  • 82. The term venue in criminal cases refers to:
A) Place where the case is tried
B) Type of penalty
C) Court furniture
D) Witness location
  • 83. Which right ensures that an accused knows the nature and cause of accusation?
A) Right to property
B) Right to travel
C) Right to privacy
D) Right to information
  • 84. Which evidence is admissible because it forms part of a spontaneous statement?
A) Hearsay
B) Res Gestae
C) Secondary evidence
D) Opinion evidence
  • 85. Leading questions are generally:
A) Required during trial
B) Allowed on direct examination
C) Not allowed on direct examination
D) Used by witnesses only
  • 86. Which question suggests its own answer to the witness?
A) Narrative question
B) Hypothetical question
C) Compound question
D) Leading question
  • 87. Which objection challenges evidence as irrelevant?
A) Objection: Argumentative
B) Objection: Compound
C) Objection: Leading
D) Objection: Irrelevant
  • 88. Which doctrine states that facts admitted no longer require proof?
A) Corpus Delicti
B) Double Jeopardy
C) Hearsay Rule
D) Judicial Admission
  • 89. Recantation means:
A) Posting bail
B) Filing complaint
C) Repeating testimony
D) Withdrawal or repudiation of previous statement
  • 90. Which witness may provide opinions based on specialized expertise?
A) Character witness
B) Expert witness
C) Child witness
D) Hostile witness
  • 91. Which rule prevents testimony about privileged communication?
A) Privileged Communication Rule
B) Hearsay Rule
C) Exclusionary Rule
D) Best Evidence Rule
  • 92. Attorney-client communication is generally:
A) Illegal evidence
B) Privileged and confidential
C) Public information
D) Hearsay only
  • 93. Which stage occurs when judgment is announced in court?
A) Investigation
B) Examination
C) Arraignment
D) Promulgation
  • 94. Which legal remedy questions the legality of detention?
A) Injunction
B) Certiorari
C) Habeas Corpus
D) Mandamus
  • 95. Which evidence relies upon a chain of circumstances?
A) Direct evidence
B) Primary evidence
C) Documentary evidence
D) Circumstantial evidence
  • 96. Which principle states that an accused is innocent until proven guilty?
A) Corpus delicti
B) Presumption of innocence
C) Judicial notice
D) Rule of lenity
  • 97. Which court order commands law enforcement to arrest a person?
A) Search warrant
B) Warrant of arrest
C) Subpoena
D) Summons
  • 98. Which examination follows cross-examination?
A) Investigation
B) Sentencing
C) Arraignment
D) Redirect examination
  • 99. Which term refers to the legal authority of a court to hear and decide a case?
A) Promulgation
B) Probable cause
C) Jurisdiction
D) Venue
  • 100. The ultimate goal of criminal procedure and evidence is to:
A) Delay cases
B) Protect rights and ensure justice
C) Avoid trials
D) Increase penalties only
Created with That Quiz — a math test site for students of all grade levels.