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CPCTES - Quiz
Contributed by: Dinglasa
  • 1. What is the primary purpose of criminal procedure?
A) To create laws
B) To collect taxes
C) To punish witnesses
D) To regulate the process of criminal justice
  • 2. Which refers to the means sanctioned by rules for proving truth in court?
A) Verdict
B) Pleading
C) Complaint
D) Evidence
  • 3. A complaint is defined as:
A) A decision of the court
B) A police report only
C) A lawyer’s opinion
D) A sworn written statement charging a person with an offense
  • 4. An information is:
A) A witness statement only
B) A newspaper report
C) A confession
D) . A criminal pleading filed by the prosecutor in court
  • 5. Which party has the burden of proving guilt in a criminal case?
A) Accused
B) Witness
C) Judge
D) Prosecution
  • 6. The constitutional presumption in favor of the accused is:
A) Presumption of innocence
B) Presumption of guilt
C) Presumption of wealth
D) Presumption of liability
  • 7. Which court proceeding determines probable cause for arrest?
A) Trial
B) Appeal
C) Preliminary Investigation
D) Sentencing
  • 8. Probable cause means:
A) Absolute certainty
B) Mere rumor
C) Strong suspicion supported by facts
D) Witness opinion only
  • 9. Which of the following is considered documentary evidence?
A) Fingerprint
B) Knife
C) Testimony
D) Contract
  • 10. Testimonial evidence refers to:
A) Physical object
B) Oral statement made under oath
C) Written confession only
D) Photograph
  • 11. Physical evidence is also known as:
A) Documentary evidence
B) Object evidence
C) Secondary evidence
D) Opinion evidence
  • 12. Which rule requires the original document when contents are in issue?
A) Res Gestae Rule
B) Best Evidence Rule
C) Hearsay Rule
D) Parol Evidence Rule
  • 13. Hearsay evidence is generally:
A) Required in court
B) Always admissible
C) Always true
D) Inadmissible unless under exceptions
  • 14. Cross-examination is conducted by:
A) Jury
B) Witness himself
C) Opposing counsel
D) Judge only
  • 15. Which stage allows questioning of a witness by the party who presented him?
A) Appeal
B) Direct examination
C) Recall
D) Cross-examination
  • 16. Circumstantial evidence is:
A) Documentary proof only
B) Fake evidence
C) Direct proof of fact
D) Evidence requiring inference
  • 17. Direct evidence proves a fact:
A) Immediately and directly
B) By rumor
C) Through inference
D) By opinion alone
  • 18. Which officer generally prosecutes criminal cases?
A) Sheriff
B) Prosecutor
C) Clerk of Court
D) Bailiff
  • 19. The accused enters his plea during:
A) Arraignment
B) Promulgation
C) Trial
D) Appeal
  • 20. A plea of guilty means:
A) Denial of charge
B) Admission of charge
C) Request for dismissal
D) Refusal to testify
  • 21. A plea of not guilty means:
A) Waiver of trial
B) Acceptance of punishment
C) Denial of the accusation
D) Admission of guilt
  • 22. Which constitutional right protects against self-incrimination?
A) Right to vote
B) Right to property
C) Right to travel
D) Right to remain silent
  • 23. Arrest is defined as:
A) Payment of fine
B) Taking a person into custody to answer for an offense
C) Filing a complaint
D) Court conviction
  • 24. A warrant of arrest is issued by:
A) Prosecutor
B) Police officer
C) Judge
D) Witness
  • 25. Which of the following is an example of object evidence?
    A. Affidavit
A) Testimony
B) Affidavit
C) Gun used in crime
D) Police blotter
  • 26. Evidence must be relevant and:
A) Admissible
B) Expensive
C) Popular
D) Lengthy
  • 27. Relevant evidence means:
A) Illegal evidence
B) Evidence unrelated to issue
C) Evidence having connection with the fact in issue
D) Evidence from newspaper only
  • 28. Competent evidence means:
A) Very expensive
B) Legally admissible in court
C) Publicly known
D) Witness-approved
  • 29. Which examination follows direct examination?
A) Appeal
B) Cross-examination
C) Redirect examination
D) Recall examination
  • 30. Redirect examination aims to:
A) Clarify matters raised during cross-examination
B) End the case
C) Change testimony entirely
D) Attack witness credibility only
  • 31. Which evidence is stronger when proving a document’s contents?
A) Original document
B) Rumor
C) Secondary evidence
D) Oral testimony
  • 32. Secondary evidence may be admitted when:
A) Judge prefers it
B) Original exists and available
C) Original is lost or unavailable under rules
D) Witness refuses to testify
  • 33. Judicial notice refers to:
A) Court recognizing facts without evidence
B) Witness testimony
C) Police investigation
D) Newspaper publication
  • 34. The credibility of a witness refers to:
A) Occupation only
B) Financial status
C) Age only
D) Believability or trustworthiness
  • 35. Which evidence is based on personal knowledge of a witness?
A) Speculation
B) Direct testimony
C) Rumor
D) Hearsay evidence
  • 36. Motive is:
A) Court order
B) The act itself
C) Reason that induces a person to act
D) Witness statement
  • 37. Alibi is a defense claiming:
A) Self-defense
B) Lack of motive
C) Mistaken identity only
D) Presence at another place during crime
  • 38. Which standard is required to convict an accused?
A) Probable cause
B) Beyond reasonable doubt
C) Public opinion
D) Mere suspicion
  • 39. Acquittal means:
A) Arrest of accused
B) Release because guilt not proven
C) Filing of case
D) Conviction of accused
  • 40. Conviction means:
A) Dismissal of case
B) Finding the accused guilty
C) Withdrawal of complaint
D) New trial
  • 41. Which right guarantees legal assistance to the accused?
A) Right to counsel
B) Right to travel
C) Right to privacy
D) Right to property
  • 42. Bail is defined as:
A) Court decision
B) Security for release of accused to guarantee court apperance
C) Police investigation
D) Final punishment
  • 43. Bail may be given in the form of:
A) Property or surety bond
B) Police report only
C) Testimony only
D) Court transcript
  • 44. Search warrant is issued for the purpose of:
A) Convicting accused
B) Searching and seizing specific property
C) Filing complaint
D) Collecting taxes
  • 45. Which official issues a search warrant?
A) Judge
B) Police officer
C) Prosecutor
D) Witness
  • 46. Illegal search and seizure violate:
A) Tax laws
B) School policies
C) Constitutional rights
D) Traffic rules
  • 47. Evidence obtained illegally is generally called:
A) Documentary evidence
B) Best evidence
C) Excluded evidence
D) Direct evidence
  • 48. Which rule excludes illegally obtained evidence?
A) Dead Man Rule
B) Exclusionary Rule
C) Hearsay Rule
D) Best Evidence Rule
  • 49. Corpus delicti refers to:
A) Court records
B) Body of the accused only
C) Witness affidavit
D) Fact that a crime has been committed
  • 50. Which document records witness statements under oath?
A) Summons
B) Receipt
C) Invoice
D) Affidavit
  • 51. Summons is generally issued in:
A) Criminal conviction
B) Civil cases
C) Appeal only
D) Sentencing
  • 52. Which officer serves court processes such as writs and subpoenas?
A) Sheriff
B) Prosecutor
C) Clerk
D) Witness
  • 53. A subpoena is issued to:
A) Compel attendance of witness or production of documents
B) Arrest immediately
C) Convict accused
D) Dismiss case
  • 54. Subpoena duces tecum requires:
A) Arrest of accused
B) Payment of fine
C) Witness appearance only
D) Production of documents or objects
  • 55. Subpoena ad testificandum compels:
A) Delivery of property
B) Payment of damages
C) Witness testimony
D) Filing of complaint
  • 56. Which evidence consists of written or printed materials?
A) Circumstantial evidence
B) Documentary evidence
C) Object evidence
D) Testimonial evidence
  • 57. The judge’s decision is based on:
A) Public pressure
B) Evidence presented and applicable law
C) Personal opinion alone
D) Media reports
  • 58. Which proceeding follows arraignment?
A) Trial
B) Arrest
C) Complaint filing
D) Investigation
  • 59. Trial is conducted to:
A) Collect taxes
B) Punish witness
C) Write police report
D) Determine guilt or innocence
  • 60. Which principle states that no person shall be tried twice for the same offense?
A) Probable cause
B) Double jeopardy
C) Hearsay Rule
D) Due process
  • 61. Double jeopardy protects a person from:
A) Paying bail twice
B) Giving testimony twice
C) Being tried twice for the same offense
D) Multiple arrests for different crimes
  • 62. Due process means:
A) Fair and lawful procedure
B) Immediate punishment without hearing
C) Police decide guilt
D) Public opinion decides the case
  • 63. Which pleading is filed to challenge defects in a complaint or information?
A) Warrant
B) Affidavit
C) Verdict
D) Motion to Quash
  • 64. A demurrer to evidence is filed when:
A) Witness disappears
B) Prosecution evidence is insufficient
C) Trial has not started
D) Accused admits guilt
  • 65. Which party presents evidence first during trial?
A) Defense
B) Judge
C) Prosecution
D) Witness
  • 66. The defense presents evidence:
A) After prosecution rests its case
B) Before complaint filing
C) Before arraignment
D) During investigation only
  • 67. Which motion asks the court to postpone proceedings?
A) Motion to Dismiss
B) Motion for Continuance
C) Motion for Judgment
D) Motion to Quash
  • 68. A hostile witness is one who:
A) Shows adverse interest or unwillingness
B) Is under 18 years old
C) Refuses oath only
D) Supports both parties
  • 69. Which evidence proves a fact without inference?
A) Hearsay evidence
B) Circumstantial evidence
C) Secondary evidence
D) Direct evidence
  • 70. Character evidence generally refers to:
A) Financial records
B) Crime scene objects
C) Written contracts
D) Proof of moral traits or reputation
  • 71. Expert witness testimony is based on:
A) Guesswork
B) Friendship with accused
C) Rumor
D) Specialized knowledge and skill
  • 72. Which witness testifies about facts personally perceived?
A) Hostile witness
B) Ordinary witness
C) Expert witness
D) Character witness
  • 73. Which document officially records court proceedings?
A) Transcript of stenographic notes
B) Police badge
C) Search warrant
D) Receipt
  • 74. Perjury is committed by
A) Giving false testimony under oath
B) Filing appeal
C) Posting bail
D) Remaining silent
  • 75. Which court action formally ends a criminal case without conviction?
A) Conviction
B) Dismissal
C) Arraignment
D) Sentencing
  • 76. Sentencing occurs when:
A) Bail is posted
B) Judge imposes penalty after conviction
C) Trial begins
D) Complaint is filed
  • 77. Appeal is made to:
A) Arrest accused again
B) Reinvestigate crime scene only
C) Request review of lower court decision
D) File police blotter
  • 78. Which court officer keeps records and documents?
A) Prosecutor
B) Clerk of Court
C) Bailiff
D) Sheriff
  • 79. Judicial affidavit is:
A) Oral testimony only
B) Court decision
C) Arrest order
D) Written sworn testimony of witness
  • 80. Which principle requires that criminal laws be interpreted strictly against the State?
A) Liberal construction
B) Estoppel
C) Judicial notice
D) Rule of lenity
  • 81. Which court document contains the final judgment of the court?
A) Affidavit
B) Decision
C) Subpoena
D) Complaint
  • 82. The term venue in criminal cases refers to:
A) Type of penalty
B) Court furniture
C) Place where the case is tried
D) Witness location
  • 83. Which right ensures that an accused knows the nature and cause of accusation?
A) Right to property
B) Right to privacy
C) Right to information
D) Right to travel
  • 84. Which evidence is admissible because it forms part of a spontaneous statement?
A) Hearsay
B) Res Gestae
C) Opinion evidence
D) Secondary evidence
  • 85. Leading questions are generally:
A) Allowed on direct examination
B) Not allowed on direct examination
C) Required during trial
D) Used by witnesses only
  • 86. Which question suggests its own answer to the witness?
A) Compound question
B) Leading question
C) Hypothetical question
D) Narrative question
  • 87. Which objection challenges evidence as irrelevant?
A) Objection: Compound
B) Objection: Irrelevant
C) Objection: Leading
D) Objection: Argumentative
  • 88. Which doctrine states that facts admitted no longer require proof?
A) Corpus Delicti
B) Hearsay Rule
C) Double Jeopardy
D) Judicial Admission
  • 89. Recantation means:
A) Posting bail
B) Withdrawal or repudiation of previous statement
C) Repeating testimony
D) Filing complaint
  • 90. Which witness may provide opinions based on specialized expertise?
A) Hostile witness
B) Character witness
C) Child witness
D) Expert witness
  • 91. Which rule prevents testimony about privileged communication?
A) Privileged Communication Rule
B) Best Evidence Rule
C) Hearsay Rule
D) Exclusionary Rule
  • 92. Attorney-client communication is generally:
A) Illegal evidence
B) Privileged and confidential
C) Public information
D) Hearsay only
  • 93. Which stage occurs when judgment is announced in court?
A) Investigation
B) Examination
C) Arraignment
D) Promulgation
  • 94. Which legal remedy questions the legality of detention?
A) Habeas Corpus
B) Injunction
C) Certiorari
D) Mandamus
  • 95. Which evidence relies upon a chain of circumstances?
A) Primary evidence
B) Documentary evidence
C) Direct evidence
D) Circumstantial evidence
  • 96. Which principle states that an accused is innocent until proven guilty?
A) Judicial notice
B) Presumption of innocence
C) Rule of lenity
D) Corpus delicti
  • 97. Which court order commands law enforcement to arrest a person?
A) Search warrant
B) Subpoena
C) Summons
D) Warrant of arrest
  • 98. Which examination follows cross-examination?
A) Investigation
B) Arraignment
C) Sentencing
D) Redirect examination
  • 99. Which term refers to the legal authority of a court to hear and decide a case?
A) Jurisdiction
B) Venue
C) Promulgation
D) Probable cause
  • 100. The ultimate goal of criminal procedure and evidence is to:
A) Protect rights and ensure justice
B) Delay cases
C) Avoid trials
D) Increase penalties only
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