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CLJ3-CRILW1
Contributed by: One
  • 1. Which is a primary characteristic of criminal law?
A) Focuses on property rights
B) Deals with contracts
C) Enforces social order
D) Resolves private disputes
  • 2. What element is essential to define a felony?
A) No punishment
B) Commission of an unlawful act with criminal intent
C) Absence of harm
D) Only negligence required
  • 3. Dolo in criminal law means:
A) Intent or deliberate fault
B) Negligence
C) Excuse for crime
D) Accident
  • 4. Which of the following best describes culpa?
A) Criminal negligence or fault
B) Justifiable act
C) No liability
D) Intentional wrongdoing
  • 5. Which element must be proven in every felony?
A) Motive
B) Police report
C) Actus reus and mens rea
D) Civil damages
  • 6. Criminal law is mainly concerned with:
A) Tax disputes
B) Private contracts
C) Compensation for damages
D) Punishment for offenses against society
  • 7. Which describes the phrase “plurality of crimes”?
A) Single crime committed once
B) Crimes that are not punishable
C) Multiple crimes committed simultaneously or consecutively
D) Only misdemeanors
  • 8. Which is NOT a characteristic of criminal law?
A) Requires victim’s consent
B) Burden of proof beyond reasonable doubt
C) Public wrongs
D) Imposes penalties
  • 9. What best defines mens rea?
A) Criminal act
B) Physical evidence
C) Proof of harm
D) Criminal intent or state of mind
  • 10. The principle “nullum crimen sine lege” means:
A) Crime can happen without law
B) Law is irrelevant
C) All crimes are equal
D) No crime without law
  • 11. What is an example of dolo?
A) Unknowingly breaking a rule
B) Planning and killing someone intentionally
C) Forgetting a law
D) Accidentally causing harm
  • 12. If a person acted negligently but without intent, this is called:
A) Justifiable homicide
B) Culpa
C) Attempt
D) Dolo
  • 13. What happens in complex crimes under plurality of crimes?
A) Crimes are punished separately but concurrently
B) No punishment applies
C) Multiple offenses committed with a single act
D) Only one crime is punished
  • 14. Which of these is NOT an element of a felony?
A) Criminal intent
B) Monetary damages
C) Voluntariness
D) Unlawful act
  • 15. Which distinguishes felony from misdemeanor?
A) Misdemeanors require intent
B) No difference
C) Felonies involve more serious punishment
D) Felonies have lighter penalties
  • 16. What describes “actus reus”?
A) Penalty
B) Motive
C) Physical or unlawful act
D) Mental element
  • 17. How does criminal law treat repeated offenses?
A) As separate unrelated acts
B) No punishment for repeats
C) Usually with increased penalties
D) Only first offense counts
  • 18. Which is correct about the concept of imputability?
A) Refers to victim’s fault
B) Refers to physical capability
C) Refers to police investigation
D) Refers to legal capacity to be responsible for crime
  • 19. When does criminal liability occur without dolo?
A) No liability applies
B) Always innocent
C) Only if dolo is proven
D) When culpa or negligence is present
  • 20. Which is true about the prosecution of plurality of crimes?
A) They are ignored
B) They may be consolidated or separate depending on law
C) Only one crime is considered
D) They must be tried separately always
  • 21. Mark and Leo planned to rob a store. Mark held the gun and took the money while Leo stood guard outside to stop others from entering. What is Leo's liability?
A) Accomplices
B) Principal by direct participation
C) Principal by Inducement
D) Accesory
  • 22. Anna convinced Carlo to kill her business rival by promising him money. Carlo performed the killing. What is Anna's liability?
A) Principal by Inducement
B) Accesory
C) Principal by Direct Participation
D) Accomplices
  • 23. Three people committed a robbery. Ones acted as the lookout, one drove the gateway vehicle, and one took the money. They agreed beforehand to commit the crim. What describes their liability?
A) Principle by Inducement
B) Accomplices
C) Accesory
D) Principles by Conspiracy
  • 24. Rico helped carry the victim so that his friend could stab him. Rico's act was necessary for the stabbing to happen. What is Rico's Liability?
A) Principle by Inducement
B) Accomplices
C) Principal by Indispensable Cooperation
D) Accesory
  • 25. Sam suggested to Jay to steal a motorcycle, but Jay refuse. The crime was never committed. What is Sam's liability?
A) Accomplices
B) Accesory
C) Proposal to Commit a Felony
D) Conspiracy
  • 26. After a robbery, Greg hid the stolen items in his house knowing they were stolen. What is Greg's liability?
A) Principal by Cooperation
B) Accomplices
C) Accesory
D) Principal by Inducement
  • 27. Two friends agreed to burn a building and both set the fire. What is their liability?
A) Principal by Inducement
B) Principal by direct participation
C) Accesory
D) Accomplices
  • 28. Conspiracy among two or more persons to commit a felony incurs liability to:
A) A reduced liability if a participant withdraws
B) No liability if the crime is not completed
C) All participants as principals in the felony
D) Only the principal offender
  • 29. A person who proposes to commit a felony and performs an act to carry it out is:
A) Not liable unless the crime is committed
B) Guilty as an accessory after the fact
C) Liable as a principal in the conspiracy or proposal
D) Only liable if someone is injured
  • 30. In conspiracy, liability arises when:
A) The crime is charged but not proven
B) An overt act in furtherance of the conspiracy occurs, even if the principal crime is not completed
C) The crime is completed
D) The conspirators sever ties
  • 31. If two or more persons agree to commit a crime and one performs an act in furtherance, all are:
A) Exempt from liability if none partakes in the final act
B) Liable only for the act they personally commit
C) Exposed to liability only if the crime is completed
D) Liable as co-conspirators for the intended offense
  • 32. An agreement to commit a crime, without any act in furtherance, is:
A) Exempt if the parties later desist
B) Not punishable
C) Punishable as conspiracy if there is a clear intent to commit the offense
D) Punishable only if a victim is harmed
  • 33. A person who advises another to commit a felony but takes no further step is:
A) Not liable unless the advice results in a completed crime
B) Guilty of conspiracy
C) Exempt if the crime is never attempted
D) Guilty of solicitation or proposing the crime, depending on jurisdiction
  • 34. Withdrawal from a conspiracy:
A) Converts conspiracy into a mere discussion
B) Always relieves all conspirators of liability
C) Does not affect liability for the conspiracy once formed
D) Relieves a conspirator from liability only if withdrawal is timely and communicated to co-conspirators
  • 35. A participant who assists after the crime is committed is:
A) Liable as a principal for the completed crime
B) Guilty as an accessory after the fact, not for conspiracy
C) Exempt from liability if they did not participate in
D) Guilty as an accomplice only if they provide help before the crime
  • 36. Two individuals agree to commit burglary and one of them purchases crowbars to be used in the plan. They have formed a conspiracy. What is the liability of the purchasing conspirator?
A) Liable as a conspirator for the planned offense
B) Not liable until the burglary occurs
C) Liable only if they participate in the actual break-in
D) Liable only for possession of tools
  • 37. A person proposes to commit a fraud and tells another to go ahead, but no one acts on the proposal. Depending on jurisdiction, this act is most accurately described as:
A) Solicitation or proposing the crime, depending on jurisdiction
B) Conspiracy, if an overt act is performed in reliance on the proposal
C) Purely protected speech with no liability
D) Attempted crime regardless of overt acts
  • 38. During a conspiracy, one member withdraws before any overt act occurs. The withdrawal:
A) Has no effect on liability for the conspiracy
B) Converts the conspiracy into mere agreement
C) Relieves the withdrawing member from liability if and when properly communicated
D) Automatically terminates liability for all co-conspirators
  • 39. If two people conspire to commit a felony and one person acts to help carry out the plan, but the felony is not completed, the other conspirator is:
A) Not liable since the crime failed
B) Exempt if no victim was harmed
C) Only liable for the act they personally performed
D) Liable as a conspirator for the intended offense
  • 40. A person advises another to commit a felony and provides minor assistance, but no further steps are taken. This person is most likely:
A) Exempt from liability because no crime occurred
B) Guilty of solicitation or proposing the crime, depending on jurisdiction
C) Guilty of conspiracy
D) Guilty of the completed crime
  • 41. A person plans to commit robbery but is arrested right after buying a weapon for the crime. Which stage of felony commission applies?
A) Frustration
B) Consummation
C) Proposal
D) Attempt
  • 42. A felony punishable by reclusion perpetua is classified as:
A) Misdemeanor
B) Less grave felony
C) Grave felony
D) Light felony
  • 43. A person commits homicide with mitigating circumstances, which reduces the penalty. This is an example of applying:
A) Minimum penalty
B) Medium penalty
C) Indeterminate penalty
D) Maximum penalty
  • 44. Which of these stages applies to a crime where the offender performs all the acts necessary to consummate the felony but the intended result does not occur?
A) Proposal
B) ) Consummation
C) Frustration
D) Attempt
  • 45. A person is sentenced with the penalty for a less grave felony. This means the crime committed:
A) Is punishable by the most severe penalties
B) Is a misdemeanor
C) Does not involve any penalty
D) Has a penalty lighter than grave felonies but heavier than light felonies
  • 46. A person arranges the details of a planned robbery but has not taken any direct steps. What stage of felony is this?
A) Proposal
B) Attempt
C) Frustration
D) Consummation
  • 47. A person was caught entering a house to commit theft, but left without taking anything. This is best classified as:
A) Proposal
B) Consummation
C) Attempt
D) Frustration
  • 48. Which of the following penalties is generally assigned to less grave felonies?
A) Prision correccional
B) Destierro
C) Reclusion perpetua
D) Arresto mayor
  • 49. A completed murder usually falls under:
A) Infraction
B) Light felony
C) Less grave felony
D) Grave felony
  • 50. If a mitigating circumstance is present, the court should impose the:
A) Minimum penalty
B) Maximum penalty
C) Medium penalty
D) No penalty
  • 51. A person who finishes all acts for robbery but is stopped before taking the money is in what stage?
A) Frustration
B) Proposal
C) ) Attempt
D) Consummation
  • 52. The stage when all elements of the felony are present and the crime is completed is called:
A) Frustration
B) Attempt
C) Proposal
D) Consummation
  • 53. Which crime is classified as a light felony?
A) Murder
B) Slight physical injuries
C) Parricide
D) Qualified theft
  • 54. The graduated scale of penalties means:
A) Penalties apply only after conviction
B) Penalties are fixed and non-negotiable
C) Penalties progressively increase or decrease based on aggravating or mitigating factors
D) Penalties are waived if the victim forgives
  • 55. An offense punishable by arresto mayor is a:
A) Less grave felony
B) Light felony
C) Grave felony
D) Misdemeanor
  • 56. A conspirator withdrawing before any overt act is committed:
A) May be absolved if withdrawal is timely and communicated
B) Is a principal offender
C) Is always guilty
D) Is liable only if the crime is completed
  • 57. How does the presence of aggravating circumstances affect the penalty?
A) Penalty is waived altogether
B) Penalty is increased to maximum
C) Penalty remains the same
D) Penalty is lowered to minimum
  • 58. Attempted felonies receive:
A) Penalties lower than consummated felonies
B) The same penalties as consummated felonies
C) No penalties
D) Administrative penalties only
  • 59. When a person only proposes a felony and no further act occurs, he is guilty of:
A) No crime
B) Conspiracy
C) Proposal or solicitation
D) Consummated felony
  • 60. Which felony classification corresponds to prision mayor punishment?
A) Light felony
B) Less grave felony
C) Infraction
D) Grave felony
  • 61. A person unintentionally causes injury due to negligence. What circumstance affects their liability?
A) Mitigating circumstance
B) Justifying circumstance
C) Accident
D) Intoxication
  • 62. If a person commits a crime in self-defense, the circumstance is:
A) Aggravating circumstance
B) Exempting circumstance
C) Justifying circumstance
D) Mitigating circumstance
  • 63. A minor below 15 years old commits a felony. What applies to their criminal liability?
A) Subject to maximum penalty
B) Exempt from criminal liability
C) Liable only if accompanied by adult
D) Full liability
  • 64. Voluntary intoxication affecting the person’s mind during a crime is considered a:
A) Mitigating circumstance
B) Exempting circumstance
C) Aggravating circumstance
D) Justifying circumstance
  • 65. When two or more aggravating circumstances exist, how is liability affected?
A) Penal liability increases
B) Penal liability decreases
C) Liability is extinguished
D) Penalty is waived
  • 66. An insanity or mental illness at the time of the crime is a:
A) Aggravating circumstance
B) Exempting circumstance
C) Justifying circumstance
D) Mitigating circumstance
  • 67. If a person acts under lawful order from a superior, this is a:
A) Exempting circumstance
B) Justifying circumstance
C) Mitigating circumstance
D) Aggravating circumstance
  • 68. Prisoner of war commits a crime during war. What circumstance fits?
A) Justifying circumstance
B) Exempting circumstance
C) Mitigating circumstance
D) No circumstance at all
  • 69. Crime of passion committed immediately after discovering infidelity is a:
A) Mitigating circumstance
B) Justifying circumstance
C) Aggravating circumstance
D) Exempting circumstance
  • 70. A person is forced at gunpoint to participate in a robbery. This affects criminal liability as:
A) Exempting circumstance
B) Mitigating circumstance
C) Justifying circumstance
D) Aggravating circumstance
  • 71. If the offender is an accomplice and not the principal, which circumstance applies?
A) Exempting circumstance
B) Mitigating circumstance
C) Justifying circumstance
D) Aggravating circumstance
  • 72. The use of a deadly weapon during the commission of a felony is:
A) Aggravating circumstance
B) Mitigating circumstance
C) Exempting circumstance
D) Justifying circumstance
  • 73. Act committed by a police officer in lawful arrest is a:
A) Mitigating circumstance
B) Exempting circumstance
C) Justifying circumstance
D) Aggravating circumstance
  • 74. Repeat offenses generally result in:
A) Aggravating circumstance
B) Justifying circumstance
C) Exempting circumstance
D) Mitigating circumstance
  • 75. If an offender voluntarily surrenders and helps arrest accomplices, this is a:
A) Justifying circumstance
B) Aggravating circumstance
C) Exempting circumstance
D) Mitigating circumstance
  • 76. A crime committed out of motive of hatred or revenge is:
A) Justifying circumstance
B) Aggravating circumstance
C) Exempting circumstance
D) Mitigating circumstance
  • 77. Committing the crime through an involuntary reflex action is:
A) Aggravating circumstance
B) Justifying circumstance
C) Exempting circumstance
D) Mitigating circumstance
  • 78. A defendant acting under superior orders that are manifestly unlawful is:
A) Mitigated in penalty
B) Justified fully
C) Still criminally liable
D) Exempted from liability
  • 79. If multiple offenses are committed in a single act, the penalty imposed will be:
A) Only the penalty for the most serious felony
B) The sum of the penalties but not exceeding maximum
C) Penalty is waived
D) The highest penalty above the others
  • 80. Committing a felony during a calamity or catastrophe is treated as:
A) Justifying circumstance
B) Mitigating circumstance
C) No special circumstance
D) Aggravating circumstance
  • 81. When a convicted person fully serves the penalty imposed, this mode of extinguishing liability is called:
A) Prescription of crimes
B) Service or satisfaction of the penalty
C) Amnesty
D) Death of the offender
  • 82. If the accused dies before the final judgment, criminal liability is extinguished by:
A) Acquittal
B) Death of the offender
C) Amnesty
D) Prescription of crimes
  • 83. The government pardons a convicted offender, thereby extinguishing liability, through:
A) Expungement
B) Acquittal
C) Prescription of crimes
D) Amnesty
  • 84. If the court decides that the accused is not guilty, liability is extinguished by:
A) Amnesty
B) Acquittal
C) Death
D) Service of sentence
  • 85. Criminal liability can be extinguished when the complaint is retracted by the offended party in a crime punishable only upon complaint. This is:
A) Amnesty
B) Revocation
C) Desistance
D) Compromise or settlement
  • 86. The expiration of the time fixed by law for the prosecution or enforcement of a penalty is called:
A) Extinction by death
B) Prescription of crimes
C) Abandonment
D) Rescission
  • 87. If an accused is released based on a law abolishing that crime or penalty, liability is extinguished by:
A) Acquittal
B) Prescription
C) Legislative repeal
D) Amnesty
  • 88. If the offended party pardons the offender, the mode of extinguishing criminal liability is:
A) Gratuitous remission of penalty
B) Condonation
C) Justifying circumstance
D) Rescission
  • 89. If the accused performs a lawful act that justifies the felony committed, their criminal liability is extinguished by:
A) Prescription
B) Settlement
C) Justifying circumstance
D) Acquittal
  • 90. The mode of extinguishing criminal liability when the offended party agrees to withdraw the complaint before trial commences is called:
A) Compromise
B) Desistance
C) Satisfaction
D) Abandonment
  • 91. A convicted person completes the full prison sentence. What mode of extinction applies?
A) Amnesty
B) Prescription
C) Death
D) Service of penalty
  • 92. The accused dies before trial or sentencing. Which mode extinguishes liability?
A) Death
B) Compromise
C) Amnesty
D) Acquittal
  • 93. The government issues a general pardon for certain crimes, extinguishing liability. This is called:
A) Prescription
B) Expungement
C) Satisfaction
D) Amnesty
  • 94. The court finds the accused not guilty after trial. What mode applies?
A) Amnesty
B) Prescription
C) Service of penalty
D) Acquittal
  • 95. The offended party withdraws the complaint before trial in a crime punishable only upon complaint. This mode is:
A) Abandonment
B) Desistance
C) Amnesty
D) Satisfaction
  • 96. After lapse of a legally fixed period, prosecution or enforcement can no longer be pursued. This is:
A) Amnesty
B) Abandonment
C) Prescription
D) Satisfaction
  • 97. A law abolishes a crime and its penalties, releasing convicted persons from liability. This mode is:
A) Amnesty
B) Acquittal
C) Legislative repeal
D) Prescription
  • 98. The offender is pardoned by the offended party, extinguishing the penalty. This mode is:
A) Acquittal
B) Desistance
C) Gratuitous remission
D) Prescription
  • 99. The crime is justified because the accused acted in lawful self-defense. This mode is:
A) Amnesty
B) Prescription
C) Satisfaction
D) Justifying circumstance
  • 100. When the offended party agrees to withdraw the complaint before trial, ending the prosecution is called:
A) Abandonment
B) Desistance
C) Amnesty
D) Compromise
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