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CDI 1 MCQs - Quiz
Contributed by: Torejas
  • 1. What is the primary goal of criminal investigation?
A) To satisfy the victim's family
B) To close the case quickly
C) To punish the offender immediately
D) To determine the truth and identify the guilty
  • 2. Which is NOT one of the three-fold aims of criminal investigation?
A) Recover damages for the victim
B) Identify the perpetrator
C) Locate and apprehend the perpetrator
D) Provide evidence to support conviction
  • 3. The three basic tools of criminal investigation are:
A) Police, prosecutor, court
B) Patrol, surveillance, entrapment
C) Information, Interview, Instrumentation
D) People, money, technology
  • 4. Information as an investigative tool refers to:
A) Data gathered from witnesses only
B) Secret documents only
C) Confessions obtained under pressure
D) Knowledge derived from persons, records, and public sources
  • 5. Interview differs from interrogation in that interview is:
A) Always recorded secretly
B) Done to suspects only
C) Questioning of persons who may or may not be involved, done in friendly atmosphere
D) Conducted without counsel
  • 6. Interrogation is conducted primarily to:
A) Calm the witness
B) Obtain admission or confession from a suspect
C) Verify alibi's
D) Get the person to restate what they know
  • 7. Instrumentation in investigation means:
A) Application of sciences and technical methods to detect crime
B) Using authority to gather facts
C) Buying expensive equipment
D) Relying on intuition
  • 8. Who among the following is the person who first arrives at the crime scene?
A) Case investigator
B) First responder
C) Prosecutor
D) Crime laboratory technician
  • 9. The very first action of the first responder at a crime scene:
A) Interview witnesses
B) Take photographs
C) Collect evidence
D) Secure and isolate the scene
  • 10. Chain of custody refers to:
A) The prison transfer form
B) The warrant used to seize items
C) Unbroken documentary record of everyone who handled evidence
D) The police officer guarding the suspect
  • 11. If a suspect is caught in the act of committing a crime, the arrest is:
A) Can only be done by a judge
B) Requires court approval first
C) Illegal
D) Warrantless arrest in flagrante delicto
  • 12. A person who, without being a witness, supplies information of value to investigators on a confidential basis:
A) Informant
B) Suspect
C) Victim
D) Accomplice
  • 13. The intelligence cycle in correct sequence:
A) Planning → Collection → Processing → Dissemination
B) Processing → Planning → Dissemination → Collection
C) Dissemination → Collection → Planning → Processing
D) Collection → Planning → Processing → Dissemination
  • 14. What type of intelligence deals with personalities, their activities and associations?
A) Line / Tactical intelligence
B) Counter-intelligence
C) Strategic intelligence
D) Estimate
  • 15. Intelligence intended for long-term planning and policy making:
A) Strategic intelligence
B) Operational intelligence
C) Current intelligence
D) Tactical intelligence
  • 16. Covert observation of a person, place, or thing to obtain information:
A) Surveillance
B) Search
C) Raid
D) Interoggation
  • 17. Surveillance conducted on foot:
A) Mobile /foot surveillance
B) Stationary surveillance
C) Technical surveillance
D) Air surveillance
  • 18. When the observer takes a fixed position to watch a target:
A) Casing
B) Stationary / fixed surveillance
C) Tailing
D) Shadowing
  • 19. A secret investigation conducted before launching the actual case inquiry to verify facts:
A) Preliminary investigation
B) Preparatory investigation / casing
C) Re-investigation
D) Follow-up investigation
  • 20. Evidence that proves a fact directly without need of inference:
A) Hearsay evidence
B) Ducomentary evidence
C) Circumtancial evidence
D) Direct evidence
  • 21. Evidence that implies a fact from which the main fact may be inferred:
A) Circumstantial evidence
B) Real evidence
C) Direct evidence
D) Testimonial evidence
  • 22. The body of the crime; the fact that a crime has actually been committed:
A) Corpus delicti
B) Res gestae
C) Modus operandi
D) Prima facie
  • 23. Method of operation; characteristic way a criminal commits crimes:
A) Alibi
B) Motive
C) Corpus delicti
D) Modus operandi
  • 24. Reason that impels a person to commit a crime:
A) Intent
B) Ability
C) Motive
D) Opportunity
  • 25. A defense that the accused was somewhere else when the crime happened:
A) Entrapment
B) Duress
C) Self-defense
D) Alibi
  • 26. A statement made by a suspect acknowledging guilt:
A) Affidavit
B) Admission
C) Deposition
D) Confession
  • 27. An acknowledgement of a fact or circumstance but not necessarily of guilt ?
A) Admission
B) Testimony
C) Confession
D) Declaration
  • 28. Who among informants is motivated by revenge against the target?
A) Mercenaries
B) Fearful
C) Grudge
D) Vengeful
  • 29. Informant who gives information in exchange for money or reward?
A) Repentant
B) Disinterested
C) Mercenary
D) Mercentile
  • 30. The most reliable type of informant is usually?
A) Disinterested / Neutral
B) Mercenary
C) Grudge-bearing
D) Criminal participant
  • 31. Under RA 4200, unauthorized wiretapping is:
A) A criminal offense
B) Allowed if public safety is involved
C) Permitted without warrant in all cases
D) Allowed if police say so
  • 32. A written order issued by a judge directing a peace officer to arrest a person
A) Search warrant
B) Warrant of arrest
C) Subpoena
D) Summon
  • 33. A search warrant is valid for:
A) 15 days from date of issuance
B) 30 days from date of issuance
C) 10 days from date of issuance
D) Indefinite
  • 34. A search warrant must be issued upon probable cause determined personally by
A) Prosecutor
B) Judge
C) Police chief
D) President
  • 35. Things to be seized under a search warrant must be particularly described in the:
A) News report
B) Affidavit only
C) Police blotter
D) Warrant itself
  • 36. Warrantless search incidental to a lawful arrest is valid if made:
A) Before filling of complaint
B) Any time after arrest
C) At the time of arrest and within the immediate area of control
D) 1 week after arrest
  • 37. Objects in plain view of an officer who has a right to be in the place can be seized under:
A) Plain view doctrine
B) None of these
C) Exigent circumstances
D) Consent search
  • 38. A search conducted with the voluntary permission of the person concerned:
A) Valid only if witnessed
B) Consent search; must be voluntary and intelligent
C) Required written court order
D) Always illegal
  • 39. Custodial investigation begins when:
A) . The officer first sees the suspect
B) The warrant is issued
C) The investigation focuses on a specific person who is taken into custody
D) The complaint is filed
  • 40. During custodial investigation, the suspect must be informed of the right to:
A) All of the above
B) Remain silent
C) Be informed of these rights in a language understood
D) Have competent and independent counsel
  • 41. Any extrajudicial confession made without the assistance of counsel is:
A) Admissible if true
B) Null and void and cannot be used in court
C) Admissible if signed
D) Admissible in minor offenses only
  • 42. The rule that evidence obtained illegally cannot be used in court:
A) Exclusionary rule / Fruit of the poisonous tree
B) Hearsay rules
C) Best evidence rules
D) Miranda rules
  • 43. Preliminary investigation is conducted to determine:
A) Probable cause
B) Suspicion
C) Public opinion
D) Guilt beyond reasonable doubt
  • 44. Who conducts preliminary investigation?
A) Police investigator
B) Prosecutor
C) Mayor
D) Judge
  • 45. Inquest proceeding applies when a person is lawfully arrested without warrant and:
A) The offense is bailable
B) The arrest is valid and the offense requires preliminary investigation
C) The suspect waives rights
D) There are no witnesses
  • 46. The period to file inquest for offenses punishable by imprisonment of 4 years, 2 months and 1 day to 6 years:
A) 36 hours
B) 24 hours
C) 15 hours
D) 18 hours
  • 47. The police blotter is a record of:
A) Secret operation
B) Confidential informants
C) Court decision
D) Daily events and reports at the station
  • 48. The document prepared by the investigator containing facts of the case:
A) News release
B) Policy paper
C) Editorial
D) Investigative report
  • 49. The sketch drawn at the crime scene showing measurements and distances:
A) Perspective sketch
B) Artistic sketch
C) Finished sketch
D) Rough sketch
  • 50. Photographs taken at the crime scene should be done in sequence:
A) Medium → general → close-up
B) No fix order
C) Close-up → medium → general
D) General → medium → close-up
  • 51. What is the minimum number of photographs recommended for complete scene documentation?**
A) Overlapping coverage from all angles
B) 2
C) 4
D) Only one overview
  • 52. The "walk-through" of the crime scene after photography:
A) Reconstruction
B) Final survey
C) Release
D) Initial survey / primary search
  • 53. Evidence should be marked:
A) When the prosecutor say so
B) Before the trial
C) At the scene immediately upon collection
D) After reaching the laboratory
  • 54. When collecting bloodstained material, it should be:
A) Packed wet in plastic immediately
B) Air-dried properly then packaged to prevent contamination
C) Keep under sunlight
D) Sprayed with water
  • 55. Fingerprints found at the scene are what type of evidence?
A) Testimonial
B) Real / physical evidence
C) Hearsay
D) Documentary
  • 56. Modus operandi files are useful to:
A) Justify overtime
B) Link crimes committed by the same person
C) Record police salary
D) Identify victims
  • 57. Which is NOT a characteristic of a good investigator?
A) Prejudgment
B) Perseverance
C) Impartiality
D) Open-mindedness
  • 58. The best time to interview a witness is:
A) Whenever convenient
B) As soon as possible after the event
C) One month later
D) After the trial start
  • 59. Leading questions may be allowed during:
A) Cross examination
B) Initial interview of friendly witness
C) Direct examination
D) Never
  • 60. A witness who cannot recall details may be aided with:
A) Leading questions always
B) Past recollection recorded / refreshing memory
C) Suggestion
D) Pressure to remember
  • 61. In interrogation, the investigator should start from:
A) Threatening arrest
B) General matters then narrow to specific
C) Accusing immediately
D) . The most serious charge first
  • 62. If a suspect confesses, the next step is:
A) Reduce to writing with counsel assistance
B) Destroy other evidence
C) Release them
D) Publicize it
  • 63. Entrapment is a means of:
A) Catching a criminal in the execution of their plan; lawful
B) Punishing innocent persons
C) Manufacturing Evidence
D) Inducing a person to commit a crime
  • 64. Instigation differs from entrapment because instigation:
A) Induces an innocent person to commit a crime; accused is acquitted
B) Is the same as entrapment
C) Required no evidence
D) Is lawful
  • 65. Undercover agent means:
A) A judge
B) An operative assigned to act under assumed identity
C) A jail warden
D) An officer openly in uniform
  • 66. The purpose of casing a place is to:
A) Observe layout, security, habits, without arousing suspicion
B) Destroy evidence
C) Announce police presence
D) Arrest immediately
  • 67. Stationary surveillance is also known as:
A) Fixed / stake-out
B) Tailing
C) Loitering
D) Shadowing
  • 68. When the target is aware of being followed and evades, this is:
A) Normal
B) Expected
C) Good practice
D) Surveillance compromised / blown
  • 69. A "pouch" or drop system in intelligence refers to:
A) Money bag
B) Mail delivery
C) Evidence bag
D) Leaving and picking up information at prearranged place
  • 70. A reliable source is one who:
A) Is related to the suspect
B) Has provided accurate information in the past
C) Always tells what you want to hear
D) Is paid the most
  • 71. Intelligence information evaluation uses four factors:
A) Speed, secrecy, cost, risk
B) Rank, experience, training, courage
C) Time, place, person, thing
D) Reliability of source, accuracy of info, relevance, timeliness
  • 72. Confidentiality in intelligence means:
A) Publishing on social media
B) Never writing anything down
C) Telling only friends
D) Restricting access to those who need to know
  • 73. The "need-to-know" principle means:
A) No one gets information
B) Only the public is informed
C) Everyone gets all information
D) Information given only to those whose duty requires it
  • 74. Preliminary investigation in the Philippines is governed by:
A) Local ordinances
B) RPC only
C) Police manual only
D) Rules of Court, Rule 112
  • 75. A complaint under Rule 110 is a sworn written statement charging a person with an offense, subscribed by:
A) All of the above
B) Any peace officers
C) Other public officer charged with enforcement
D) Offended party
  • 76. A person can be charged even if the victim does not file if:
A) The crime is against public interest
B) Any of these
C) The media demands it
D) The police want to
  • 77. Venue of criminal action is where:
A) The offense was committed or any of its essential ingredients occurred
B) The court is most convenient
C) The victims lives
D) The prosecutor decides
  • 78. Double jeopardy means:
A) Being arrested twice
B) Being questioned twice
C) Being tried twice for the same offense after acquittal or conviction
D) Having two lawyers
  • 79. The accused is presumed:
A) Innocent if wealthy
B) Innocent until proven guilty
C) Guilty until proven otherwise
D) Guilty if charged
  • 80. Proof beyond reasonable doubt is required to establish:
A) Conviction
B) Filling of complaint
C) Suspicion
D) Probable cause
  • 81. Circumstantial evidence is sufficient for conviction if:
A) It is the only evidence
B) The facts proved are consistent with guilt and inconsistent with innocence
C) The suspect cannot explain
D) The victim say so
  • 82. Hearsay evidence is generally:
A) Admissible
B) Admissible if written
C) Inadmissible
D) Admissible if urgent
  • 83. Dying declaration is an exception to:
A) Chain of custody
B) Best evidence rule
C) Hearsay rule
D) Miranda rule
  • 84. For a dying declaration to be valid, the declarant must be:
A) Under medication
B) Conscious of impending death
C) Over 21 years old
D) Related to the victim
  • 85. Res gestae refers to statements:
A) Prepared in advance
B) Spontaneously made during startling occurrence
C) Made long after the event
D) Taken from books
  • 86. The crime scene should be photographed:
A) Before anyone enters and disturbs it
B) Only if media is present
C) . After evidence is collected
D) After cleaning
  • 87. When evidence is transferred from one handler to another, this must be recorded in:
A) General diary
B) Personal notebook
C) Chain of custudy form
D) Social media post
  • 88. If evidence is lost or contaminated:
A) Case is automatically dismissed
B) Suspect is acquitted automatically
C) Admissibility may be affected; integrity challenged
D) Investigator is jailed immediately
  • 89. The release of the crime scene is done when:
A) Media leaves
B) Public gets impatient
C) All processing is completed and approved
D) Suspect is caught
  • 90. Follow-up investigation begins:
A) After preliminary investigation and continues until case is solved or closed
B) Only after conviction
C) Before the crime is reported
D) When ordered by media
  • 91. During follow-up, alibis should be:
A) Accepted immediately
B) Verified and checked for credibility
C) Ignored
D) Kept secret
  • 92. The investigator's court appearance requires:
A) Bringing witnesses secretly
B) Familiarity with case facts, documents, and proper decorum
C) Wearing casual clothes
D) Arguing with the defense
  • 93. When testifying, the witness should:
A) Answer clearly and truthfully only what is known
B) Look only at the prosecutor
C) Guess if unsure
D) Give extra information voluntarily
  • 94. A case may be closed when:
A) Suspect is identified and evidence sufficient for filing
B) Any of the above as per procedure
C) No leads despite all efforts
D) Suspect is dead
  • 95. Cold case refers to:
A) Well-documented case
B) A crime committed in winter
C) Minor offense
D) An unsolved case with exhausted leads
  • 96. Re-opening a closed case is proper when:
A) Media reports it
B) Investigator is bored
C) New and substantial evidence is discovered
D) Public demands it
  • 97. Republic Act 11131 is known as:
A) Anti-crime law
B) Security agency regulation law
C) Criminology Profession Act of 2018
D) Police act
  • 98. CHED Memorandum Order No. 5 Series of 2018 covers:
A) Police training
B) Fire code
C) Jail management
D) BS Criminology curriculum
  • 99. The licensure exam for Criminologists includes CDI subjects with a weight of:
A) 20%
B) 15%
C) 25%
D) 10%
  • 100. The ultimate goal of the criminal justice system is:
A) Punishment
B) Speedy disposal of cases
C) Justice through due process and truth
D) Conviction
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