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COEDAD FINAL
Contributed by: Billo
  • 1. What is the correct simulation resolution setting?
A) Minimum timestep
B) Fixed timestep
C) Maximum timestep = 1/100 of smallest time constant
D) Auto timestep
  • 2. What is the proper method to measure capacitor charging time?
A) Calculating from frequency response
B) Using cursor differences in voltage vs. time plot
C) Measuring peak voltage only
D) Reading the voltage value at t=0
  • 3. What is the primary objective of the advanced circuit analysis laboratory activities?
A) Build physical electronic circuits
B) Master complex circuit simulation techniques in LTSpice
C) Develop new electronic components
D) Program microcontrollers
  • 4. Which plot type correctly shows frequency response?
A) Nyquist plot
B) Bode plot
C) Smith chart
D) Time domain plot
  • 5. What determines the RC circuit's time constant?
A) R-C
B) R+C
C) RxC
D) C/R
  • 6. Which load resistance value is specified for testing?
A) 220Ω
B) 47Ω
C) 1kΩ
D) 100Ω
  • 7. Which analysis type properly evaluates component variations?
A) DC sweep
B) Transient
C) Fourier
D) Monte Carlo
  • 8. What is the correct duration for running the transient analysis?
A) 10ms
B) 1ms
C) 2ms
D) 5ms
  • 9. What is the proper feedback resistor value for matched differential gain?
A) 15ΚΩ
B) 5ΚΩ
C) 10ΚΩ
D) 20kΩ
  • 10. What is the specified cutoff frequency for the second-order low-pass filter?
A) 500Hz
B) 2kHz
C) 1kHz
D) 10kHz
  • 11. What represents the correct stop frequency for AC analysis?
A) 1MHz
B) 2MHz
C) 500kHz
D) 100kHz
  • 12. What op-amp model is specified for the non-inverting amplifier?
A) LM741
B) TL082
C) LT1001
D) LM358
  • 13. What is the required stopband attenuation for the filter design in Activity 3?
A) >80dB
B) >40dB
C) >60dB
D) >20dB
  • 14. What parameter correctly indicates power supply efficiency?
A) Voltage out / Voltage in
B) Current out / Current in
C) Output power / Input power × 100%
D) Input power / Output power × 100%
  • 15. What is the required cutoff frequency for the filter in Activity 3?
A) 50kHz
B) 1kHz
C) 100kHz
D) 10kHz
  • 16. Which configuration best tests common-mode rejection?
A) Single input signal only
B) Identical signals applied to both inputs
C) Grounded input
D) Different signals on each input
  • 17. What determines the correct oscillation frequency?
A) LC resonance
B) Power supply frequency
C) External clock
D) RC time constant
  • 18. Which measurement technique correctly determines ripple voltage?
A) RMS calculation
B) Instantaneous voltage
C) Average voltage
D) Peak-to-peak voltage measurement
  • 19. What is the correct starting frequency for AC analysis?
A) 1Hz
B) 0.1Hz
C) 100Hz
D) 10Hz
  • 20. What type of components are specified to be used as matched pairs in the differential amplifier design?
A) Resistors with 0.1% tolerance
B) Inductors with 0.5% tolerance
C) Transistors with 5% tolerance
D) Capacitors with 1% tolerance
  • 21. Which control method is correct for the buck converter?
A) Open loop control
B) Linear regulation
C) PWM feedback control
D) Voltage follower
  • 22. What is the output voltage requirement for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 12V DC
B) 24V DC
C) 5V DC
D) 3.3V DC
  • 23. Which parameter correctly indicates transient response?
A) Average power
B) Output voltage settling time
C) Input current
D) Switching noise
  • 24. Which convergence setting is proper for complex circuits?
A) gmin = 1e-7
B) gmin = 1e-9
C) gmin = 1e-12
D) gmin = 1e-6
  • 25. What is the correct method for implementing current limiting?
A) Capacitive coupling
B) Series sense resistor with feedback
C) Parallel resistor
D) Voltage divider
  • 26. Which approach correctly verifies circuit operation?
A) Random probing
B) Visual inspection
C) Systematic node voltage checking
D) Component count
  • 27. What type of oscillator is designed in Activity 4?
A) Crystal oscillator
B) Hartley oscillator
C) Colpitts oscillator
D) Wien bridge oscillator
  • 28. What is the correct input resistor value for the differential amplifier?
A) 10ΚΩ
B) 47kQ
C) 1ΚΩ
D) 100ΚΩ
  • 29. Which parameter correctly measures load regulation?
A) Alout/AVout
B) AVin/AVout
C) AVout/AVin
D) AVout/Alload
  • 30. Which topology is specified for the active filter implementation?
A) Twin-T
B) Sallen-Key
C) State variable
D) Multiple feedback
  • 31. In the differential amplifier design activity, what is the required gain specification?
A) 10
B) 100
C) 50
D) 80dB
  • 32. Which parameter correctly measures differential amplifier performance?
A) CMRR
B) Gain bandwidth
C) Input bias current
D) Slew rate
  • 33. Which approach properly analyzes power dissipation?
A) Energy calculation
B) Heat measurement
C) .meas avg power = avg(V(n1)*I(R1))
D) Power = V *1
  • 34. Which of the following is NOT one of the DC output voltages required for the regulated power supply in Activity 5?
A) 12V DC
B) -15V DC
C) +15V DC
D) 5V DC
  • 35. In Activity 2 in final lab, what type of power supply is being designed?
A) Linear regulator
B) Boost converter
C) Flyback converter
D) Buck converter
  • 36. What is the correct input voltage for the regulator circuit?
A) 15V
B) 9V
C) 12V
D) 24V
  • 37. What is the correct format for exporting netlists?
A) HTML format
B) SPICE compatible text format
C) XML format
D) Binary format
  • 38. What is the correct method for measuring frequency stability?
A) RMS voltage
B) Peak amplitude
C) Long-term frequency drift measurement
D) Phase noise
  • 39. Which oscillator type is specified in the lab guide?
A) Colpitts
B) Wien bridge
C) Crystal
D) RC phase shift
  • 40. What gain setting is specified for the non-inverting amplifier?
A) 15
B) 10
C) 2
D) 5
  • 41. Which approach correctly implements hierarchical designs?
A) Component arrays
B) Symbol creation with subcircuits
C) Linked files
D) Multiple schematics
  • 42. In LTSpice, what command key opens the component browser?
A) F3
B) F1
C) F2
D) F4
  • 43. Which power supply configuration is correct for the op-amp?
A) ±12V
B) +5V only
C) ±15V
D) +12V only
  • 44. What is the proper diode configuration for full-wave rectification?
A) Two diodes in series
B) Single diode setup
C) Bridge configuration with four diodes
D) Center-tapped transformer
  • 45. What is the required switching frequency for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 500kHz
B) 1MHz
C) 250kHz
D) 100kHz
  • 46. Which analysis command is used for time-domain simulation?
A) .tran
B) .dc
C) .ac
D) .op
  • 47. Which initial value setting is correct for the pulse source configuration?
A) 1V
B) 5V
C) 0V
D) -5V
  • 48. Which capacitor value is specified for filtering in the power supply?
A) 2200μF
B) 470μF
C) 100μF
D) 1000μF
  • 49. Which parameter properly controls simulation accuracy?
A) reltol = 1e-3
B) itol = 1e-8
C) vntol = 1e-6
D) abstol 1e-12
  • 50. Which command generates proper performance reports?
A) .save
B) .meas
C) .print
D) .plot
  • 51. Which approach properly documents simulation settings?
A) Verbal description
B) Separate text file
C) Reference manual
D) SPICE directives with comments
  • 52. What is the correct peak voltage for the AC source in rectifier simulation?
A) 10V
B) 15V
C) 5V
D) 12V
  • 53. What is the proper output voltage specification?
A) 5V
B) 3.3V
C) 9V
D) 6V
  • 54. Which technique correctly validates results?
A) Theoretical calculation comparison
B) Visual estimation
C) Peer review
D) Assumption
  • 55. What is the proper rise time setting for the pulse source?
A) 1ns
B) 10ns
C) 1μς
D) 100ns
  • 56. What is the correct inductor value for the buck converter?
A) 47μΗ
B) 220μΗ
C) 1mH
D) 100μΗ
  • 57. Which input signal is correct for testing the op-amp circuit?
A) 3V pulse
B) 1V sine wave
C) 0.5V triangle wave
D) 2V square wave
  • 58. What is the correct method for bandwidth measurement?
A) Frequency at -3dB point from midband gain
B) Cutoff frequency at OdB
C) Resonant frequency
D) Maximum frequency of input signal
  • 59. What is the correct method for frequency domain analysis?
A) .ac analysis
B) .four
C) .tran fft
D) .fft V(out)
  • 60. Which component provides proper amplitude stabilization?
A) AGC circuit with thermistor
B) Zener diode
C) Fixed resistor
D) Variable capacitor
  • 61. What defines the -3dB point in frequency response?
A) Zero crossing point
B) Maximum amplitude point
C) Half power point (0.707 of peak amplitude)
D) Quarter power point
  • 62. What is the correct phase shift at cutoff frequency?
A) -90 degrees
B) -180 degrees
C) -60 degrees
D) -45 degrees
  • 63. What is the correct method for component labeling?
A) Sequential only
B) Default names
C) Random numbers
D) Hierarchical prefix with functional description
  • 64. What is the correct file organization structure?
A) Mixed files
B) Random storage
C) Single directory
D) Separate folders for each analysis type
  • 65. Which naming convention is proper for simulation files?
A) Numeric only
B) ProjectName_CircuitType_Version
C) Random string
D) Date_Time
  • 66. What is the specified frequency for the oscillator in Activity 4?
A) 1MHz
B) 100kHz
C) 500kHz
D) 10MHz
  • 67. What is the input voltage specification for the switch-mode power supply in Activity 2 in finals lab?
A) 12V DC
B) 5V DC
C) 120V AC
D) 24V DC
  • 68. Which of the following is NOT listed as a documentation requirement for the laboratory activities?
A) Simulation results
B) Comparison with theoretical calculations
C) Video demonstration of circuit operation
D) Complete schematic file
  • 69. What is the proper method for identifying simulation errors?
A) Circuit restart
B) Component replacement
C) Error log analysis and stepping
D) Power cycling
  • 70. Which command correctly calculates RMS values?
A) .meas tran rms RMS V(out)
B) .measure average
C) .save rms
D) .print rms
  • 71. Which parameter properly indicates filter roll-off rate?
A) 20 dB/decade
B) -30 dB/decade
C) -60 dB/decade
D) -40 dB/decade
  • 72. Which analysis type is NOT mentioned as part of Activity 3's filter implementation?
A) AC analysis
B) Monte Carlo analysis
C) Phase response analysis
D) Transient analysis
  • 73. Which protection feature is NOT mentioned as a requirement for the regulated power supply design?
A) Soft-start circuit
B) Over-current protection
C) Under-voltage lockout
D) Thermal shutdown
  • 74. What is the required CMRR (Common Mode Rejection Ratio) for the differential amplifier in Activity 1?
A) >60dB
B) >100dB
C) >80dB
D) >40dB
  • 75. What is the correct method for setting initial conditions?
A) Reset circuit
B) Startup switches
C) External sources
D) .ic command with node voltages
  • 76. Which waveform represents correct capacitor charging behavior?
A) Sinusoidal oscillation
B) Exponential rise to steady state
C) Step function
D) Linear increase
  • 77. What is the maximum allowed Total Harmonic Distortion (THD) for the oscillator design?
A) <10%
B) <1%
C) <0.1%
D) <5%
  • 78. What type of filter is designed in Activity 3?
A) 3rd order Bessel filter
B) 5th order Elliptic filter
C) 2nd order Chebyshev filter
D) 4th order Butterworth filter
  • 79. What is the correct method for measuring differential gain?
A) Average of both inputs
B) Output voltage / differential input voltage
C) Total output / total input
D) Peak output voltage
  • 80. In Activity 5, what is the input voltage specification for the regulated power supply?
A) 120V AC
B) 24V DC
C) 12V DC
D) 240V AC
  • 81. What is the proper format for measurement expressions?
A) measure(v1-v2)
B) diff(V1,V2)
C) voltage(1,2)
D) V(node1)-V(node2)
  • 82. What is the correct damping ratio for optimal filter response?
A) 0.1
B) 0.5
C) 0.707
D) 0.25
  • 83. How many points per decade are specified for frequency analysis?
A) 75
B) 100
C) 50
D) 200
  • 84. Which parameter is NOT listed as one to analyze in the switch-mode power supply design?
A) Output ripple voltage
B) Transient response
C) Efficiency at different loads
D) Input impedance
  • 85. Which method properly verifies model accuracy?
A) Assumption based
B) Comparison with datasheet specifications
C) Peer feedback
D) Visual inspection
  • 86. Which method correctly exports waveform data?
A) Print screen
B) Right-click plot, export data as text
C) Copy to clipboard
D) Save as image only
  • 87. What implementation method is specified for the filter design in Activity 3?
A) Twin-T configuration
B) State variable filter
C) Multiple feedback topology
D) Cascaded Sallen-Key stages
  • 88. What is the maximum current specification per output for the regulated power supply in Activity 5?
A) 2A
B) 1A
C) 500mA
D) 3A
  • 89. What is the proper method for measuring efficiency?
A) Voltage ratio only
B) Current ratio only
C) (Pout/Pin) x 100%
D) Power loss calculation
  • 90. What is the correct method for version control?
A) No backup
B) Sequential backup with date stamps
C) Random copies
D) Single file override
  • 91. What is the correct method for creating custom components?
A) Modifying existing parts
B) Using.subckt definition
C) Symbol editor only
D) Component wizard
  • 92. What is the correct approach for handling convergence issues?
A) Increase maximum iterations
B) Change solver type
C) Reduce timestep
D) Modify gmin stepping
  • 93. What is the specified load current for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 1A
B) 500mA
C) 2A
D) 5A
  • 94. Which parameter indicates proper oscillator startup?
A) Immediate full amplitude
B) Random amplitude variation
C) Linear amplitude increase
D) Exponential amplitude growth to steady state
  • 95. What is the correct capacitor value specified for the transient analysis task?
A) 47μF
B) 220μF
C) 1000μF
D) 100μF
  • 96. What is the correct approach for debugging convergence issues?
A) Parameter randomization
B) Complete rebuild
C) Circuit simplification
D) Progressive component addition
  • 97. What is the specified passband ripple requirement for the filter in Activity 3?
A) <1dB
B) <3dB
C) <0.5dB
D) <0.1dB
  • 98. Which component value is used for R1 in the initial RC circuit analysis?
A) 10ΚΩ
B) 2ΚΩ
C) 1KΩ
D) 100Ω
  • 99. What is the specified switching frequency?
A) 100kHz
B) 75kHz
C) 200kHz
D) 50kHz
  • 100. What is the required output amplitude for the oscillator in Activity 4?
A) 5V peak-to-peak
B) 3.3V peak-to-peak
C) 1V peak-to-peak
D) 10V peak-to-peak
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