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COEDAD FINAL
Contributed by: Billo
  • 1. What is the correct simulation resolution setting?
A) Minimum timestep
B) Auto timestep
C) Maximum timestep = 1/100 of smallest time constant
D) Fixed timestep
  • 2. What is the proper method to measure capacitor charging time?
A) Measuring peak voltage only
B) Reading the voltage value at t=0
C) Calculating from frequency response
D) Using cursor differences in voltage vs. time plot
  • 3. What is the primary objective of the advanced circuit analysis laboratory activities?
A) Develop new electronic components
B) Build physical electronic circuits
C) Master complex circuit simulation techniques in LTSpice
D) Program microcontrollers
  • 4. Which plot type correctly shows frequency response?
A) Nyquist plot
B) Smith chart
C) Bode plot
D) Time domain plot
  • 5. What determines the RC circuit's time constant?
A) C/R
B) RxC
C) R+C
D) R-C
  • 6. Which load resistance value is specified for testing?
A) 47Ω
B) 100Ω
C) 1kΩ
D) 220Ω
  • 7. Which analysis type properly evaluates component variations?
A) DC sweep
B) Transient
C) Fourier
D) Monte Carlo
  • 8. What is the correct duration for running the transient analysis?
A) 1ms
B) 2ms
C) 10ms
D) 5ms
  • 9. What is the proper feedback resistor value for matched differential gain?
A) 10ΚΩ
B) 20kΩ
C) 15ΚΩ
D) 5ΚΩ
  • 10. What is the specified cutoff frequency for the second-order low-pass filter?
A) 1kHz
B) 10kHz
C) 500Hz
D) 2kHz
  • 11. What represents the correct stop frequency for AC analysis?
A) 1MHz
B) 2MHz
C) 100kHz
D) 500kHz
  • 12. What op-amp model is specified for the non-inverting amplifier?
A) LT1001
B) LM358
C) TL082
D) LM741
  • 13. What is the required stopband attenuation for the filter design in Activity 3?
A) >60dB
B) >80dB
C) >40dB
D) >20dB
  • 14. What parameter correctly indicates power supply efficiency?
A) Input power / Output power × 100%
B) Current out / Current in
C) Voltage out / Voltage in
D) Output power / Input power × 100%
  • 15. What is the required cutoff frequency for the filter in Activity 3?
A) 100kHz
B) 1kHz
C) 50kHz
D) 10kHz
  • 16. Which configuration best tests common-mode rejection?
A) Single input signal only
B) Identical signals applied to both inputs
C) Different signals on each input
D) Grounded input
  • 17. What determines the correct oscillation frequency?
A) LC resonance
B) RC time constant
C) Power supply frequency
D) External clock
  • 18. Which measurement technique correctly determines ripple voltage?
A) Average voltage
B) Instantaneous voltage
C) Peak-to-peak voltage measurement
D) RMS calculation
  • 19. What is the correct starting frequency for AC analysis?
A) 0.1Hz
B) 100Hz
C) 10Hz
D) 1Hz
  • 20. What type of components are specified to be used as matched pairs in the differential amplifier design?
A) Resistors with 0.1% tolerance
B) Transistors with 5% tolerance
C) Capacitors with 1% tolerance
D) Inductors with 0.5% tolerance
  • 21. Which control method is correct for the buck converter?
A) PWM feedback control
B) Linear regulation
C) Open loop control
D) Voltage follower
  • 22. What is the output voltage requirement for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 24V DC
B) 3.3V DC
C) 12V DC
D) 5V DC
  • 23. Which parameter correctly indicates transient response?
A) Output voltage settling time
B) Switching noise
C) Input current
D) Average power
  • 24. Which convergence setting is proper for complex circuits?
A) gmin = 1e-9
B) gmin = 1e-12
C) gmin = 1e-7
D) gmin = 1e-6
  • 25. What is the correct method for implementing current limiting?
A) Voltage divider
B) Parallel resistor
C) Capacitive coupling
D) Series sense resistor with feedback
  • 26. Which approach correctly verifies circuit operation?
A) Systematic node voltage checking
B) Random probing
C) Visual inspection
D) Component count
  • 27. What type of oscillator is designed in Activity 4?
A) Colpitts oscillator
B) Crystal oscillator
C) Wien bridge oscillator
D) Hartley oscillator
  • 28. What is the correct input resistor value for the differential amplifier?
A) 10ΚΩ
B) 47kQ
C) 1ΚΩ
D) 100ΚΩ
  • 29. Which parameter correctly measures load regulation?
A) AVin/AVout
B) Alout/AVout
C) AVout/Alload
D) AVout/AVin
  • 30. Which topology is specified for the active filter implementation?
A) Sallen-Key
B) Twin-T
C) Multiple feedback
D) State variable
  • 31. In the differential amplifier design activity, what is the required gain specification?
A) 80dB
B) 50
C) 10
D) 100
  • 32. Which parameter correctly measures differential amplifier performance?
A) Input bias current
B) Gain bandwidth
C) Slew rate
D) CMRR
  • 33. Which approach properly analyzes power dissipation?
A) Power = V *1
B) Heat measurement
C) Energy calculation
D) .meas avg power = avg(V(n1)*I(R1))
  • 34. Which of the following is NOT one of the DC output voltages required for the regulated power supply in Activity 5?
A) +15V DC
B) -15V DC
C) 5V DC
D) 12V DC
  • 35. In Activity 2 in final lab, what type of power supply is being designed?
A) Boost converter
B) Buck converter
C) Flyback converter
D) Linear regulator
  • 36. What is the correct input voltage for the regulator circuit?
A) 9V
B) 24V
C) 12V
D) 15V
  • 37. What is the correct format for exporting netlists?
A) XML format
B) HTML format
C) Binary format
D) SPICE compatible text format
  • 38. What is the correct method for measuring frequency stability?
A) Peak amplitude
B) RMS voltage
C) Phase noise
D) Long-term frequency drift measurement
  • 39. Which oscillator type is specified in the lab guide?
A) Crystal
B) Wien bridge
C) RC phase shift
D) Colpitts
  • 40. What gain setting is specified for the non-inverting amplifier?
A) 10
B) 15
C) 2
D) 5
  • 41. Which approach correctly implements hierarchical designs?
A) Component arrays
B) Symbol creation with subcircuits
C) Multiple schematics
D) Linked files
  • 42. In LTSpice, what command key opens the component browser?
A) F4
B) F2
C) F1
D) F3
  • 43. Which power supply configuration is correct for the op-amp?
A) +12V only
B) +5V only
C) ±12V
D) ±15V
  • 44. What is the proper diode configuration for full-wave rectification?
A) Two diodes in series
B) Bridge configuration with four diodes
C) Center-tapped transformer
D) Single diode setup
  • 45. What is the required switching frequency for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 1MHz
B) 250kHz
C) 500kHz
D) 100kHz
  • 46. Which analysis command is used for time-domain simulation?
A) .op
B) .ac
C) .tran
D) .dc
  • 47. Which initial value setting is correct for the pulse source configuration?
A) 1V
B) 0V
C) 5V
D) -5V
  • 48. Which capacitor value is specified for filtering in the power supply?
A) 2200μF
B) 1000μF
C) 470μF
D) 100μF
  • 49. Which parameter properly controls simulation accuracy?
A) vntol = 1e-6
B) abstol 1e-12
C) reltol = 1e-3
D) itol = 1e-8
  • 50. Which command generates proper performance reports?
A) .save
B) .print
C) .plot
D) .meas
  • 51. Which approach properly documents simulation settings?
A) Separate text file
B) Verbal description
C) Reference manual
D) SPICE directives with comments
  • 52. What is the correct peak voltage for the AC source in rectifier simulation?
A) 5V
B) 15V
C) 12V
D) 10V
  • 53. What is the proper output voltage specification?
A) 3.3V
B) 5V
C) 9V
D) 6V
  • 54. Which technique correctly validates results?
A) Assumption
B) Theoretical calculation comparison
C) Visual estimation
D) Peer review
  • 55. What is the proper rise time setting for the pulse source?
A) 1μς
B) 1ns
C) 100ns
D) 10ns
  • 56. What is the correct inductor value for the buck converter?
A) 47μΗ
B) 1mH
C) 100μΗ
D) 220μΗ
  • 57. Which input signal is correct for testing the op-amp circuit?
A) 0.5V triangle wave
B) 2V square wave
C) 3V pulse
D) 1V sine wave
  • 58. What is the correct method for bandwidth measurement?
A) Resonant frequency
B) Cutoff frequency at OdB
C) Frequency at -3dB point from midband gain
D) Maximum frequency of input signal
  • 59. What is the correct method for frequency domain analysis?
A) .four
B) .ac analysis
C) .fft V(out)
D) .tran fft
  • 60. Which component provides proper amplitude stabilization?
A) Zener diode
B) AGC circuit with thermistor
C) Variable capacitor
D) Fixed resistor
  • 61. What defines the -3dB point in frequency response?
A) Zero crossing point
B) Half power point (0.707 of peak amplitude)
C) Quarter power point
D) Maximum amplitude point
  • 62. What is the correct phase shift at cutoff frequency?
A) -60 degrees
B) -45 degrees
C) -180 degrees
D) -90 degrees
  • 63. What is the correct method for component labeling?
A) Default names
B) Random numbers
C) Sequential only
D) Hierarchical prefix with functional description
  • 64. What is the correct file organization structure?
A) Random storage
B) Mixed files
C) Single directory
D) Separate folders for each analysis type
  • 65. Which naming convention is proper for simulation files?
A) Random string
B) ProjectName_CircuitType_Version
C) Numeric only
D) Date_Time
  • 66. What is the specified frequency for the oscillator in Activity 4?
A) 1MHz
B) 100kHz
C) 500kHz
D) 10MHz
  • 67. What is the input voltage specification for the switch-mode power supply in Activity 2 in finals lab?
A) 12V DC
B) 120V AC
C) 24V DC
D) 5V DC
  • 68. Which of the following is NOT listed as a documentation requirement for the laboratory activities?
A) Simulation results
B) Video demonstration of circuit operation
C) Complete schematic file
D) Comparison with theoretical calculations
  • 69. What is the proper method for identifying simulation errors?
A) Circuit restart
B) Power cycling
C) Component replacement
D) Error log analysis and stepping
  • 70. Which command correctly calculates RMS values?
A) .print rms
B) .measure average
C) .meas tran rms RMS V(out)
D) .save rms
  • 71. Which parameter properly indicates filter roll-off rate?
A) -40 dB/decade
B) 20 dB/decade
C) -30 dB/decade
D) -60 dB/decade
  • 72. Which analysis type is NOT mentioned as part of Activity 3's filter implementation?
A) Phase response analysis
B) Monte Carlo analysis
C) AC analysis
D) Transient analysis
  • 73. Which protection feature is NOT mentioned as a requirement for the regulated power supply design?
A) Thermal shutdown
B) Under-voltage lockout
C) Over-current protection
D) Soft-start circuit
  • 74. What is the required CMRR (Common Mode Rejection Ratio) for the differential amplifier in Activity 1?
A) >40dB
B) >60dB
C) >80dB
D) >100dB
  • 75. What is the correct method for setting initial conditions?
A) Reset circuit
B) .ic command with node voltages
C) External sources
D) Startup switches
  • 76. Which waveform represents correct capacitor charging behavior?
A) Sinusoidal oscillation
B) Linear increase
C) Exponential rise to steady state
D) Step function
  • 77. What is the maximum allowed Total Harmonic Distortion (THD) for the oscillator design?
A) <1%
B) <10%
C) <0.1%
D) <5%
  • 78. What type of filter is designed in Activity 3?
A) 2nd order Chebyshev filter
B) 4th order Butterworth filter
C) 5th order Elliptic filter
D) 3rd order Bessel filter
  • 79. What is the correct method for measuring differential gain?
A) Total output / total input
B) Average of both inputs
C) Peak output voltage
D) Output voltage / differential input voltage
  • 80. In Activity 5, what is the input voltage specification for the regulated power supply?
A) 240V AC
B) 24V DC
C) 120V AC
D) 12V DC
  • 81. What is the proper format for measurement expressions?
A) voltage(1,2)
B) measure(v1-v2)
C) diff(V1,V2)
D) V(node1)-V(node2)
  • 82. What is the correct damping ratio for optimal filter response?
A) 0.1
B) 0.25
C) 0.5
D) 0.707
  • 83. How many points per decade are specified for frequency analysis?
A) 200
B) 50
C) 75
D) 100
  • 84. Which parameter is NOT listed as one to analyze in the switch-mode power supply design?
A) Transient response
B) Efficiency at different loads
C) Input impedance
D) Output ripple voltage
  • 85. Which method properly verifies model accuracy?
A) Visual inspection
B) Comparison with datasheet specifications
C) Assumption based
D) Peer feedback
  • 86. Which method correctly exports waveform data?
A) Print screen
B) Save as image only
C) Copy to clipboard
D) Right-click plot, export data as text
  • 87. What implementation method is specified for the filter design in Activity 3?
A) Twin-T configuration
B) Cascaded Sallen-Key stages
C) Multiple feedback topology
D) State variable filter
  • 88. What is the maximum current specification per output for the regulated power supply in Activity 5?
A) 2A
B) 500mA
C) 1A
D) 3A
  • 89. What is the proper method for measuring efficiency?
A) Current ratio only
B) Voltage ratio only
C) Power loss calculation
D) (Pout/Pin) x 100%
  • 90. What is the correct method for version control?
A) No backup
B) Random copies
C) Single file override
D) Sequential backup with date stamps
  • 91. What is the correct method for creating custom components?
A) Modifying existing parts
B) Component wizard
C) Symbol editor only
D) Using.subckt definition
  • 92. What is the correct approach for handling convergence issues?
A) Change solver type
B) Modify gmin stepping
C) Increase maximum iterations
D) Reduce timestep
  • 93. What is the specified load current for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 2A
B) 1A
C) 500mA
D) 5A
  • 94. Which parameter indicates proper oscillator startup?
A) Exponential amplitude growth to steady state
B) Random amplitude variation
C) Linear amplitude increase
D) Immediate full amplitude
  • 95. What is the correct capacitor value specified for the transient analysis task?
A) 1000μF
B) 220μF
C) 100μF
D) 47μF
  • 96. What is the correct approach for debugging convergence issues?
A) Progressive component addition
B) Circuit simplification
C) Parameter randomization
D) Complete rebuild
  • 97. What is the specified passband ripple requirement for the filter in Activity 3?
A) <0.5dB
B) <1dB
C) <3dB
D) <0.1dB
  • 98. Which component value is used for R1 in the initial RC circuit analysis?
A) 1KΩ
B) 100Ω
C) 10ΚΩ
D) 2ΚΩ
  • 99. What is the specified switching frequency?
A) 50kHz
B) 200kHz
C) 100kHz
D) 75kHz
  • 100. What is the required output amplitude for the oscillator in Activity 4?
A) 10V peak-to-peak
B) 1V peak-to-peak
C) 3.3V peak-to-peak
D) 5V peak-to-peak
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