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COEDAD FINAL
Contributed by: Billo
  • 1. What is the correct simulation resolution setting?
A) Auto timestep
B) Fixed timestep
C) Maximum timestep = 1/100 of smallest time constant
D) Minimum timestep
  • 2. What is the proper method to measure capacitor charging time?
A) Calculating from frequency response
B) Using cursor differences in voltage vs. time plot
C) Measuring peak voltage only
D) Reading the voltage value at t=0
  • 3. What is the primary objective of the advanced circuit analysis laboratory activities?
A) Program microcontrollers
B) Master complex circuit simulation techniques in LTSpice
C) Build physical electronic circuits
D) Develop new electronic components
  • 4. Which plot type correctly shows frequency response?
A) Time domain plot
B) Smith chart
C) Bode plot
D) Nyquist plot
  • 5. What determines the RC circuit's time constant?
A) RxC
B) R+C
C) R-C
D) C/R
  • 6. Which load resistance value is specified for testing?
A) 1kΩ
B) 100Ω
C) 220Ω
D) 47Ω
  • 7. Which analysis type properly evaluates component variations?
A) Transient
B) Fourier
C) Monte Carlo
D) DC sweep
  • 8. What is the correct duration for running the transient analysis?
A) 5ms
B) 1ms
C) 10ms
D) 2ms
  • 9. What is the proper feedback resistor value for matched differential gain?
A) 20kΩ
B) 10ΚΩ
C) 5ΚΩ
D) 15ΚΩ
  • 10. What is the specified cutoff frequency for the second-order low-pass filter?
A) 10kHz
B) 2kHz
C) 1kHz
D) 500Hz
  • 11. What represents the correct stop frequency for AC analysis?
A) 100kHz
B) 1MHz
C) 2MHz
D) 500kHz
  • 12. What op-amp model is specified for the non-inverting amplifier?
A) LT1001
B) LM741
C) TL082
D) LM358
  • 13. What is the required stopband attenuation for the filter design in Activity 3?
A) >80dB
B) >40dB
C) >20dB
D) >60dB
  • 14. What parameter correctly indicates power supply efficiency?
A) Current out / Current in
B) Input power / Output power × 100%
C) Output power / Input power × 100%
D) Voltage out / Voltage in
  • 15. What is the required cutoff frequency for the filter in Activity 3?
A) 10kHz
B) 1kHz
C) 50kHz
D) 100kHz
  • 16. Which configuration best tests common-mode rejection?
A) Identical signals applied to both inputs
B) Different signals on each input
C) Grounded input
D) Single input signal only
  • 17. What determines the correct oscillation frequency?
A) Power supply frequency
B) LC resonance
C) External clock
D) RC time constant
  • 18. Which measurement technique correctly determines ripple voltage?
A) RMS calculation
B) Peak-to-peak voltage measurement
C) Instantaneous voltage
D) Average voltage
  • 19. What is the correct starting frequency for AC analysis?
A) 10Hz
B) 0.1Hz
C) 100Hz
D) 1Hz
  • 20. What type of components are specified to be used as matched pairs in the differential amplifier design?
A) Resistors with 0.1% tolerance
B) Transistors with 5% tolerance
C) Inductors with 0.5% tolerance
D) Capacitors with 1% tolerance
  • 21. Which control method is correct for the buck converter?
A) Open loop control
B) Linear regulation
C) Voltage follower
D) PWM feedback control
  • 22. What is the output voltage requirement for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 12V DC
B) 3.3V DC
C) 24V DC
D) 5V DC
  • 23. Which parameter correctly indicates transient response?
A) Output voltage settling time
B) Switching noise
C) Input current
D) Average power
  • 24. Which convergence setting is proper for complex circuits?
A) gmin = 1e-9
B) gmin = 1e-6
C) gmin = 1e-12
D) gmin = 1e-7
  • 25. What is the correct method for implementing current limiting?
A) Series sense resistor with feedback
B) Parallel resistor
C) Capacitive coupling
D) Voltage divider
  • 26. Which approach correctly verifies circuit operation?
A) Visual inspection
B) Component count
C) Systematic node voltage checking
D) Random probing
  • 27. What type of oscillator is designed in Activity 4?
A) Colpitts oscillator
B) Crystal oscillator
C) Hartley oscillator
D) Wien bridge oscillator
  • 28. What is the correct input resistor value for the differential amplifier?
A) 10ΚΩ
B) 100ΚΩ
C) 1ΚΩ
D) 47kQ
  • 29. Which parameter correctly measures load regulation?
A) AVout/Alload
B) AVin/AVout
C) Alout/AVout
D) AVout/AVin
  • 30. Which topology is specified for the active filter implementation?
A) State variable
B) Multiple feedback
C) Sallen-Key
D) Twin-T
  • 31. In the differential amplifier design activity, what is the required gain specification?
A) 50
B) 100
C) 80dB
D) 10
  • 32. Which parameter correctly measures differential amplifier performance?
A) Slew rate
B) Input bias current
C) CMRR
D) Gain bandwidth
  • 33. Which approach properly analyzes power dissipation?
A) Power = V *1
B) Heat measurement
C) Energy calculation
D) .meas avg power = avg(V(n1)*I(R1))
  • 34. Which of the following is NOT one of the DC output voltages required for the regulated power supply in Activity 5?
A) +15V DC
B) 12V DC
C) 5V DC
D) -15V DC
  • 35. In Activity 2 in final lab, what type of power supply is being designed?
A) Boost converter
B) Buck converter
C) Linear regulator
D) Flyback converter
  • 36. What is the correct input voltage for the regulator circuit?
A) 12V
B) 9V
C) 24V
D) 15V
  • 37. What is the correct format for exporting netlists?
A) SPICE compatible text format
B) Binary format
C) XML format
D) HTML format
  • 38. What is the correct method for measuring frequency stability?
A) RMS voltage
B) Long-term frequency drift measurement
C) Phase noise
D) Peak amplitude
  • 39. Which oscillator type is specified in the lab guide?
A) Crystal
B) RC phase shift
C) Colpitts
D) Wien bridge
  • 40. What gain setting is specified for the non-inverting amplifier?
A) 5
B) 10
C) 2
D) 15
  • 41. Which approach correctly implements hierarchical designs?
A) Linked files
B) Component arrays
C) Multiple schematics
D) Symbol creation with subcircuits
  • 42. In LTSpice, what command key opens the component browser?
A) F3
B) F4
C) F1
D) F2
  • 43. Which power supply configuration is correct for the op-amp?
A) +5V only
B) +12V only
C) ±15V
D) ±12V
  • 44. What is the proper diode configuration for full-wave rectification?
A) Two diodes in series
B) Center-tapped transformer
C) Bridge configuration with four diodes
D) Single diode setup
  • 45. What is the required switching frequency for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 100kHz
B) 1MHz
C) 500kHz
D) 250kHz
  • 46. Which analysis command is used for time-domain simulation?
A) .op
B) .tran
C) .ac
D) .dc
  • 47. Which initial value setting is correct for the pulse source configuration?
A) 5V
B) 0V
C) 1V
D) -5V
  • 48. Which capacitor value is specified for filtering in the power supply?
A) 470μF
B) 1000μF
C) 2200μF
D) 100μF
  • 49. Which parameter properly controls simulation accuracy?
A) abstol 1e-12
B) reltol = 1e-3
C) vntol = 1e-6
D) itol = 1e-8
  • 50. Which command generates proper performance reports?
A) .save
B) .plot
C) .print
D) .meas
  • 51. Which approach properly documents simulation settings?
A) Verbal description
B) SPICE directives with comments
C) Reference manual
D) Separate text file
  • 52. What is the correct peak voltage for the AC source in rectifier simulation?
A) 15V
B) 5V
C) 10V
D) 12V
  • 53. What is the proper output voltage specification?
A) 9V
B) 3.3V
C) 6V
D) 5V
  • 54. Which technique correctly validates results?
A) Assumption
B) Peer review
C) Theoretical calculation comparison
D) Visual estimation
  • 55. What is the proper rise time setting for the pulse source?
A) 100ns
B) 1ns
C) 1μς
D) 10ns
  • 56. What is the correct inductor value for the buck converter?
A) 1mH
B) 220μΗ
C) 100μΗ
D) 47μΗ
  • 57. Which input signal is correct for testing the op-amp circuit?
A) 2V square wave
B) 0.5V triangle wave
C) 3V pulse
D) 1V sine wave
  • 58. What is the correct method for bandwidth measurement?
A) Cutoff frequency at OdB
B) Resonant frequency
C) Frequency at -3dB point from midband gain
D) Maximum frequency of input signal
  • 59. What is the correct method for frequency domain analysis?
A) .four
B) .ac analysis
C) .fft V(out)
D) .tran fft
  • 60. Which component provides proper amplitude stabilization?
A) Fixed resistor
B) Zener diode
C) Variable capacitor
D) AGC circuit with thermistor
  • 61. What defines the -3dB point in frequency response?
A) Maximum amplitude point
B) Quarter power point
C) Zero crossing point
D) Half power point (0.707 of peak amplitude)
  • 62. What is the correct phase shift at cutoff frequency?
A) -60 degrees
B) -45 degrees
C) -90 degrees
D) -180 degrees
  • 63. What is the correct method for component labeling?
A) Sequential only
B) Hierarchical prefix with functional description
C) Random numbers
D) Default names
  • 64. What is the correct file organization structure?
A) Mixed files
B) Single directory
C) Separate folders for each analysis type
D) Random storage
  • 65. Which naming convention is proper for simulation files?
A) Date_Time
B) Random string
C) Numeric only
D) ProjectName_CircuitType_Version
  • 66. What is the specified frequency for the oscillator in Activity 4?
A) 100kHz
B) 10MHz
C) 500kHz
D) 1MHz
  • 67. What is the input voltage specification for the switch-mode power supply in Activity 2 in finals lab?
A) 120V AC
B) 12V DC
C) 5V DC
D) 24V DC
  • 68. Which of the following is NOT listed as a documentation requirement for the laboratory activities?
A) Comparison with theoretical calculations
B) Video demonstration of circuit operation
C) Simulation results
D) Complete schematic file
  • 69. What is the proper method for identifying simulation errors?
A) Component replacement
B) Circuit restart
C) Error log analysis and stepping
D) Power cycling
  • 70. Which command correctly calculates RMS values?
A) .save rms
B) .measure average
C) .print rms
D) .meas tran rms RMS V(out)
  • 71. Which parameter properly indicates filter roll-off rate?
A) 20 dB/decade
B) -30 dB/decade
C) -40 dB/decade
D) -60 dB/decade
  • 72. Which analysis type is NOT mentioned as part of Activity 3's filter implementation?
A) AC analysis
B) Transient analysis
C) Phase response analysis
D) Monte Carlo analysis
  • 73. Which protection feature is NOT mentioned as a requirement for the regulated power supply design?
A) Under-voltage lockout
B) Over-current protection
C) Soft-start circuit
D) Thermal shutdown
  • 74. What is the required CMRR (Common Mode Rejection Ratio) for the differential amplifier in Activity 1?
A) >100dB
B) >40dB
C) >60dB
D) >80dB
  • 75. What is the correct method for setting initial conditions?
A) Reset circuit
B) Startup switches
C) .ic command with node voltages
D) External sources
  • 76. Which waveform represents correct capacitor charging behavior?
A) Exponential rise to steady state
B) Step function
C) Sinusoidal oscillation
D) Linear increase
  • 77. What is the maximum allowed Total Harmonic Distortion (THD) for the oscillator design?
A) <0.1%
B) <1%
C) <10%
D) <5%
  • 78. What type of filter is designed in Activity 3?
A) 3rd order Bessel filter
B) 4th order Butterworth filter
C) 5th order Elliptic filter
D) 2nd order Chebyshev filter
  • 79. What is the correct method for measuring differential gain?
A) Total output / total input
B) Average of both inputs
C) Peak output voltage
D) Output voltage / differential input voltage
  • 80. In Activity 5, what is the input voltage specification for the regulated power supply?
A) 240V AC
B) 24V DC
C) 120V AC
D) 12V DC
  • 81. What is the proper format for measurement expressions?
A) diff(V1,V2)
B) V(node1)-V(node2)
C) voltage(1,2)
D) measure(v1-v2)
  • 82. What is the correct damping ratio for optimal filter response?
A) 0.5
B) 0.25
C) 0.1
D) 0.707
  • 83. How many points per decade are specified for frequency analysis?
A) 100
B) 200
C) 75
D) 50
  • 84. Which parameter is NOT listed as one to analyze in the switch-mode power supply design?
A) Output ripple voltage
B) Efficiency at different loads
C) Input impedance
D) Transient response
  • 85. Which method properly verifies model accuracy?
A) Comparison with datasheet specifications
B) Visual inspection
C) Peer feedback
D) Assumption based
  • 86. Which method correctly exports waveform data?
A) Print screen
B) Save as image only
C) Copy to clipboard
D) Right-click plot, export data as text
  • 87. What implementation method is specified for the filter design in Activity 3?
A) State variable filter
B) Twin-T configuration
C) Cascaded Sallen-Key stages
D) Multiple feedback topology
  • 88. What is the maximum current specification per output for the regulated power supply in Activity 5?
A) 3A
B) 1A
C) 500mA
D) 2A
  • 89. What is the proper method for measuring efficiency?
A) Current ratio only
B) Voltage ratio only
C) (Pout/Pin) x 100%
D) Power loss calculation
  • 90. What is the correct method for version control?
A) No backup
B) Sequential backup with date stamps
C) Single file override
D) Random copies
  • 91. What is the correct method for creating custom components?
A) Component wizard
B) Modifying existing parts
C) Symbol editor only
D) Using.subckt definition
  • 92. What is the correct approach for handling convergence issues?
A) Increase maximum iterations
B) Modify gmin stepping
C) Reduce timestep
D) Change solver type
  • 93. What is the specified load current for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 1A
B) 2A
C) 500mA
D) 5A
  • 94. Which parameter indicates proper oscillator startup?
A) Linear amplitude increase
B) Exponential amplitude growth to steady state
C) Random amplitude variation
D) Immediate full amplitude
  • 95. What is the correct capacitor value specified for the transient analysis task?
A) 100μF
B) 47μF
C) 1000μF
D) 220μF
  • 96. What is the correct approach for debugging convergence issues?
A) Parameter randomization
B) Circuit simplification
C) Progressive component addition
D) Complete rebuild
  • 97. What is the specified passband ripple requirement for the filter in Activity 3?
A) <3dB
B) <0.5dB
C) <1dB
D) <0.1dB
  • 98. Which component value is used for R1 in the initial RC circuit analysis?
A) 100Ω
B) 1KΩ
C) 10ΚΩ
D) 2ΚΩ
  • 99. What is the specified switching frequency?
A) 200kHz
B) 75kHz
C) 100kHz
D) 50kHz
  • 100. What is the required output amplitude for the oscillator in Activity 4?
A) 5V peak-to-peak
B) 10V peak-to-peak
C) 3.3V peak-to-peak
D) 1V peak-to-peak
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