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COEDAD FINAL
Contributed by: Billo
  • 1. What is the correct simulation resolution setting?
A) Auto timestep
B) Fixed timestep
C) Maximum timestep = 1/100 of smallest time constant
D) Minimum timestep
  • 2. What is the proper method to measure capacitor charging time?
A) Reading the voltage value at t=0
B) Using cursor differences in voltage vs. time plot
C) Calculating from frequency response
D) Measuring peak voltage only
  • 3. What is the primary objective of the advanced circuit analysis laboratory activities?
A) Develop new electronic components
B) Program microcontrollers
C) Master complex circuit simulation techniques in LTSpice
D) Build physical electronic circuits
  • 4. Which plot type correctly shows frequency response?
A) Smith chart
B) Bode plot
C) Nyquist plot
D) Time domain plot
  • 5. What determines the RC circuit's time constant?
A) R-C
B) RxC
C) C/R
D) R+C
  • 6. Which load resistance value is specified for testing?
A) 1kΩ
B) 220Ω
C) 100Ω
D) 47Ω
  • 7. Which analysis type properly evaluates component variations?
A) DC sweep
B) Monte Carlo
C) Transient
D) Fourier
  • 8. What is the correct duration for running the transient analysis?
A) 10ms
B) 2ms
C) 5ms
D) 1ms
  • 9. What is the proper feedback resistor value for matched differential gain?
A) 5ΚΩ
B) 10ΚΩ
C) 15ΚΩ
D) 20kΩ
  • 10. What is the specified cutoff frequency for the second-order low-pass filter?
A) 2kHz
B) 500Hz
C) 1kHz
D) 10kHz
  • 11. What represents the correct stop frequency for AC analysis?
A) 100kHz
B) 2MHz
C) 500kHz
D) 1MHz
  • 12. What op-amp model is specified for the non-inverting amplifier?
A) LM741
B) LM358
C) LT1001
D) TL082
  • 13. What is the required stopband attenuation for the filter design in Activity 3?
A) >60dB
B) >20dB
C) >80dB
D) >40dB
  • 14. What parameter correctly indicates power supply efficiency?
A) Current out / Current in
B) Input power / Output power × 100%
C) Voltage out / Voltage in
D) Output power / Input power × 100%
  • 15. What is the required cutoff frequency for the filter in Activity 3?
A) 50kHz
B) 10kHz
C) 1kHz
D) 100kHz
  • 16. Which configuration best tests common-mode rejection?
A) Grounded input
B) Single input signal only
C) Identical signals applied to both inputs
D) Different signals on each input
  • 17. What determines the correct oscillation frequency?
A) RC time constant
B) Power supply frequency
C) LC resonance
D) External clock
  • 18. Which measurement technique correctly determines ripple voltage?
A) Average voltage
B) Peak-to-peak voltage measurement
C) RMS calculation
D) Instantaneous voltage
  • 19. What is the correct starting frequency for AC analysis?
A) 10Hz
B) 1Hz
C) 100Hz
D) 0.1Hz
  • 20. What type of components are specified to be used as matched pairs in the differential amplifier design?
A) Transistors with 5% tolerance
B) Inductors with 0.5% tolerance
C) Resistors with 0.1% tolerance
D) Capacitors with 1% tolerance
  • 21. Which control method is correct for the buck converter?
A) Linear regulation
B) Voltage follower
C) Open loop control
D) PWM feedback control
  • 22. What is the output voltage requirement for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 24V DC
B) 12V DC
C) 5V DC
D) 3.3V DC
  • 23. Which parameter correctly indicates transient response?
A) Switching noise
B) Input current
C) Output voltage settling time
D) Average power
  • 24. Which convergence setting is proper for complex circuits?
A) gmin = 1e-7
B) gmin = 1e-9
C) gmin = 1e-6
D) gmin = 1e-12
  • 25. What is the correct method for implementing current limiting?
A) Voltage divider
B) Capacitive coupling
C) Parallel resistor
D) Series sense resistor with feedback
  • 26. Which approach correctly verifies circuit operation?
A) Systematic node voltage checking
B) Visual inspection
C) Random probing
D) Component count
  • 27. What type of oscillator is designed in Activity 4?
A) Hartley oscillator
B) Wien bridge oscillator
C) Crystal oscillator
D) Colpitts oscillator
  • 28. What is the correct input resistor value for the differential amplifier?
A) 1ΚΩ
B) 10ΚΩ
C) 47kQ
D) 100ΚΩ
  • 29. Which parameter correctly measures load regulation?
A) AVout/AVin
B) AVout/Alload
C) Alout/AVout
D) AVin/AVout
  • 30. Which topology is specified for the active filter implementation?
A) State variable
B) Sallen-Key
C) Multiple feedback
D) Twin-T
  • 31. In the differential amplifier design activity, what is the required gain specification?
A) 100
B) 80dB
C) 10
D) 50
  • 32. Which parameter correctly measures differential amplifier performance?
A) Gain bandwidth
B) Input bias current
C) CMRR
D) Slew rate
  • 33. Which approach properly analyzes power dissipation?
A) Heat measurement
B) .meas avg power = avg(V(n1)*I(R1))
C) Power = V *1
D) Energy calculation
  • 34. Which of the following is NOT one of the DC output voltages required for the regulated power supply in Activity 5?
A) +15V DC
B) 5V DC
C) 12V DC
D) -15V DC
  • 35. In Activity 2 in final lab, what type of power supply is being designed?
A) Linear regulator
B) Flyback converter
C) Boost converter
D) Buck converter
  • 36. What is the correct input voltage for the regulator circuit?
A) 15V
B) 24V
C) 9V
D) 12V
  • 37. What is the correct format for exporting netlists?
A) XML format
B) HTML format
C) SPICE compatible text format
D) Binary format
  • 38. What is the correct method for measuring frequency stability?
A) RMS voltage
B) Long-term frequency drift measurement
C) Peak amplitude
D) Phase noise
  • 39. Which oscillator type is specified in the lab guide?
A) Colpitts
B) Crystal
C) Wien bridge
D) RC phase shift
  • 40. What gain setting is specified for the non-inverting amplifier?
A) 15
B) 5
C) 10
D) 2
  • 41. Which approach correctly implements hierarchical designs?
A) Multiple schematics
B) Symbol creation with subcircuits
C) Linked files
D) Component arrays
  • 42. In LTSpice, what command key opens the component browser?
A) F1
B) F2
C) F3
D) F4
  • 43. Which power supply configuration is correct for the op-amp?
A) ±15V
B) +12V only
C) ±12V
D) +5V only
  • 44. What is the proper diode configuration for full-wave rectification?
A) Two diodes in series
B) Center-tapped transformer
C) Single diode setup
D) Bridge configuration with four diodes
  • 45. What is the required switching frequency for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 250kHz
B) 1MHz
C) 100kHz
D) 500kHz
  • 46. Which analysis command is used for time-domain simulation?
A) .op
B) .dc
C) .ac
D) .tran
  • 47. Which initial value setting is correct for the pulse source configuration?
A) -5V
B) 0V
C) 5V
D) 1V
  • 48. Which capacitor value is specified for filtering in the power supply?
A) 470μF
B) 1000μF
C) 100μF
D) 2200μF
  • 49. Which parameter properly controls simulation accuracy?
A) vntol = 1e-6
B) reltol = 1e-3
C) itol = 1e-8
D) abstol 1e-12
  • 50. Which command generates proper performance reports?
A) .save
B) .print
C) .meas
D) .plot
  • 51. Which approach properly documents simulation settings?
A) Verbal description
B) Reference manual
C) SPICE directives with comments
D) Separate text file
  • 52. What is the correct peak voltage for the AC source in rectifier simulation?
A) 12V
B) 10V
C) 15V
D) 5V
  • 53. What is the proper output voltage specification?
A) 3.3V
B) 5V
C) 9V
D) 6V
  • 54. Which technique correctly validates results?
A) Assumption
B) Peer review
C) Visual estimation
D) Theoretical calculation comparison
  • 55. What is the proper rise time setting for the pulse source?
A) 1ns
B) 10ns
C) 1μς
D) 100ns
  • 56. What is the correct inductor value for the buck converter?
A) 220μΗ
B) 47μΗ
C) 100μΗ
D) 1mH
  • 57. Which input signal is correct for testing the op-amp circuit?
A) 1V sine wave
B) 2V square wave
C) 3V pulse
D) 0.5V triangle wave
  • 58. What is the correct method for bandwidth measurement?
A) Frequency at -3dB point from midband gain
B) Cutoff frequency at OdB
C) Maximum frequency of input signal
D) Resonant frequency
  • 59. What is the correct method for frequency domain analysis?
A) .four
B) .ac analysis
C) .fft V(out)
D) .tran fft
  • 60. Which component provides proper amplitude stabilization?
A) Zener diode
B) Variable capacitor
C) Fixed resistor
D) AGC circuit with thermistor
  • 61. What defines the -3dB point in frequency response?
A) Zero crossing point
B) Maximum amplitude point
C) Quarter power point
D) Half power point (0.707 of peak amplitude)
  • 62. What is the correct phase shift at cutoff frequency?
A) -180 degrees
B) -60 degrees
C) -90 degrees
D) -45 degrees
  • 63. What is the correct method for component labeling?
A) Sequential only
B) Random numbers
C) Default names
D) Hierarchical prefix with functional description
  • 64. What is the correct file organization structure?
A) Separate folders for each analysis type
B) Single directory
C) Random storage
D) Mixed files
  • 65. Which naming convention is proper for simulation files?
A) ProjectName_CircuitType_Version
B) Date_Time
C) Random string
D) Numeric only
  • 66. What is the specified frequency for the oscillator in Activity 4?
A) 10MHz
B) 100kHz
C) 500kHz
D) 1MHz
  • 67. What is the input voltage specification for the switch-mode power supply in Activity 2 in finals lab?
A) 24V DC
B) 12V DC
C) 120V AC
D) 5V DC
  • 68. Which of the following is NOT listed as a documentation requirement for the laboratory activities?
A) Complete schematic file
B) Video demonstration of circuit operation
C) Simulation results
D) Comparison with theoretical calculations
  • 69. What is the proper method for identifying simulation errors?
A) Component replacement
B) Power cycling
C) Error log analysis and stepping
D) Circuit restart
  • 70. Which command correctly calculates RMS values?
A) .save rms
B) .print rms
C) .meas tran rms RMS V(out)
D) .measure average
  • 71. Which parameter properly indicates filter roll-off rate?
A) -60 dB/decade
B) -30 dB/decade
C) -40 dB/decade
D) 20 dB/decade
  • 72. Which analysis type is NOT mentioned as part of Activity 3's filter implementation?
A) AC analysis
B) Phase response analysis
C) Monte Carlo analysis
D) Transient analysis
  • 73. Which protection feature is NOT mentioned as a requirement for the regulated power supply design?
A) Under-voltage lockout
B) Thermal shutdown
C) Over-current protection
D) Soft-start circuit
  • 74. What is the required CMRR (Common Mode Rejection Ratio) for the differential amplifier in Activity 1?
A) >100dB
B) >60dB
C) >40dB
D) >80dB
  • 75. What is the correct method for setting initial conditions?
A) Reset circuit
B) .ic command with node voltages
C) Startup switches
D) External sources
  • 76. Which waveform represents correct capacitor charging behavior?
A) Step function
B) Exponential rise to steady state
C) Linear increase
D) Sinusoidal oscillation
  • 77. What is the maximum allowed Total Harmonic Distortion (THD) for the oscillator design?
A) <1%
B) <0.1%
C) <5%
D) <10%
  • 78. What type of filter is designed in Activity 3?
A) 4th order Butterworth filter
B) 2nd order Chebyshev filter
C) 5th order Elliptic filter
D) 3rd order Bessel filter
  • 79. What is the correct method for measuring differential gain?
A) Peak output voltage
B) Total output / total input
C) Output voltage / differential input voltage
D) Average of both inputs
  • 80. In Activity 5, what is the input voltage specification for the regulated power supply?
A) 24V DC
B) 240V AC
C) 120V AC
D) 12V DC
  • 81. What is the proper format for measurement expressions?
A) measure(v1-v2)
B) V(node1)-V(node2)
C) voltage(1,2)
D) diff(V1,V2)
  • 82. What is the correct damping ratio for optimal filter response?
A) 0.25
B) 0.707
C) 0.5
D) 0.1
  • 83. How many points per decade are specified for frequency analysis?
A) 75
B) 50
C) 100
D) 200
  • 84. Which parameter is NOT listed as one to analyze in the switch-mode power supply design?
A) Efficiency at different loads
B) Input impedance
C) Transient response
D) Output ripple voltage
  • 85. Which method properly verifies model accuracy?
A) Peer feedback
B) Assumption based
C) Visual inspection
D) Comparison with datasheet specifications
  • 86. Which method correctly exports waveform data?
A) Right-click plot, export data as text
B) Print screen
C) Copy to clipboard
D) Save as image only
  • 87. What implementation method is specified for the filter design in Activity 3?
A) State variable filter
B) Multiple feedback topology
C) Cascaded Sallen-Key stages
D) Twin-T configuration
  • 88. What is the maximum current specification per output for the regulated power supply in Activity 5?
A) 500mA
B) 2A
C) 1A
D) 3A
  • 89. What is the proper method for measuring efficiency?
A) Power loss calculation
B) Current ratio only
C) (Pout/Pin) x 100%
D) Voltage ratio only
  • 90. What is the correct method for version control?
A) No backup
B) Random copies
C) Single file override
D) Sequential backup with date stamps
  • 91. What is the correct method for creating custom components?
A) Symbol editor only
B) Modifying existing parts
C) Using.subckt definition
D) Component wizard
  • 92. What is the correct approach for handling convergence issues?
A) Reduce timestep
B) Increase maximum iterations
C) Change solver type
D) Modify gmin stepping
  • 93. What is the specified load current for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 2A
B) 1A
C) 500mA
D) 5A
  • 94. Which parameter indicates proper oscillator startup?
A) Exponential amplitude growth to steady state
B) Immediate full amplitude
C) Linear amplitude increase
D) Random amplitude variation
  • 95. What is the correct capacitor value specified for the transient analysis task?
A) 47μF
B) 100μF
C) 220μF
D) 1000μF
  • 96. What is the correct approach for debugging convergence issues?
A) Complete rebuild
B) Progressive component addition
C) Circuit simplification
D) Parameter randomization
  • 97. What is the specified passband ripple requirement for the filter in Activity 3?
A) <0.5dB
B) <0.1dB
C) <1dB
D) <3dB
  • 98. Which component value is used for R1 in the initial RC circuit analysis?
A) 100Ω
B) 10ΚΩ
C) 2ΚΩ
D) 1KΩ
  • 99. What is the specified switching frequency?
A) 200kHz
B) 100kHz
C) 50kHz
D) 75kHz
  • 100. What is the required output amplitude for the oscillator in Activity 4?
A) 1V peak-to-peak
B) 10V peak-to-peak
C) 5V peak-to-peak
D) 3.3V peak-to-peak
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