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COEDAD FINAL
Contributed by: Billo
  • 1. What is the correct simulation resolution setting?
A) Fixed timestep
B) Auto timestep
C) Maximum timestep = 1/100 of smallest time constant
D) Minimum timestep
  • 2. What is the proper method to measure capacitor charging time?
A) Calculating from frequency response
B) Using cursor differences in voltage vs. time plot
C) Reading the voltage value at t=0
D) Measuring peak voltage only
  • 3. What is the primary objective of the advanced circuit analysis laboratory activities?
A) Build physical electronic circuits
B) Develop new electronic components
C) Program microcontrollers
D) Master complex circuit simulation techniques in LTSpice
  • 4. Which plot type correctly shows frequency response?
A) Time domain plot
B) Smith chart
C) Bode plot
D) Nyquist plot
  • 5. What determines the RC circuit's time constant?
A) RxC
B) C/R
C) R-C
D) R+C
  • 6. Which load resistance value is specified for testing?
A) 47Ω
B) 220Ω
C) 100Ω
D) 1kΩ
  • 7. Which analysis type properly evaluates component variations?
A) DC sweep
B) Transient
C) Monte Carlo
D) Fourier
  • 8. What is the correct duration for running the transient analysis?
A) 1ms
B) 5ms
C) 2ms
D) 10ms
  • 9. What is the proper feedback resistor value for matched differential gain?
A) 20kΩ
B) 10ΚΩ
C) 5ΚΩ
D) 15ΚΩ
  • 10. What is the specified cutoff frequency for the second-order low-pass filter?
A) 2kHz
B) 10kHz
C) 500Hz
D) 1kHz
  • 11. What represents the correct stop frequency for AC analysis?
A) 2MHz
B) 100kHz
C) 500kHz
D) 1MHz
  • 12. What op-amp model is specified for the non-inverting amplifier?
A) LM358
B) TL082
C) LT1001
D) LM741
  • 13. What is the required stopband attenuation for the filter design in Activity 3?
A) >20dB
B) >80dB
C) >40dB
D) >60dB
  • 14. What parameter correctly indicates power supply efficiency?
A) Input power / Output power × 100%
B) Voltage out / Voltage in
C) Output power / Input power × 100%
D) Current out / Current in
  • 15. What is the required cutoff frequency for the filter in Activity 3?
A) 50kHz
B) 10kHz
C) 1kHz
D) 100kHz
  • 16. Which configuration best tests common-mode rejection?
A) Grounded input
B) Single input signal only
C) Identical signals applied to both inputs
D) Different signals on each input
  • 17. What determines the correct oscillation frequency?
A) Power supply frequency
B) External clock
C) RC time constant
D) LC resonance
  • 18. Which measurement technique correctly determines ripple voltage?
A) Peak-to-peak voltage measurement
B) Instantaneous voltage
C) RMS calculation
D) Average voltage
  • 19. What is the correct starting frequency for AC analysis?
A) 0.1Hz
B) 100Hz
C) 1Hz
D) 10Hz
  • 20. What type of components are specified to be used as matched pairs in the differential amplifier design?
A) Inductors with 0.5% tolerance
B) Transistors with 5% tolerance
C) Capacitors with 1% tolerance
D) Resistors with 0.1% tolerance
  • 21. Which control method is correct for the buck converter?
A) PWM feedback control
B) Voltage follower
C) Linear regulation
D) Open loop control
  • 22. What is the output voltage requirement for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 12V DC
B) 3.3V DC
C) 24V DC
D) 5V DC
  • 23. Which parameter correctly indicates transient response?
A) Switching noise
B) Average power
C) Output voltage settling time
D) Input current
  • 24. Which convergence setting is proper for complex circuits?
A) gmin = 1e-7
B) gmin = 1e-12
C) gmin = 1e-9
D) gmin = 1e-6
  • 25. What is the correct method for implementing current limiting?
A) Series sense resistor with feedback
B) Capacitive coupling
C) Parallel resistor
D) Voltage divider
  • 26. Which approach correctly verifies circuit operation?
A) Random probing
B) Component count
C) Systematic node voltage checking
D) Visual inspection
  • 27. What type of oscillator is designed in Activity 4?
A) Wien bridge oscillator
B) Hartley oscillator
C) Colpitts oscillator
D) Crystal oscillator
  • 28. What is the correct input resistor value for the differential amplifier?
A) 47kQ
B) 100ΚΩ
C) 1ΚΩ
D) 10ΚΩ
  • 29. Which parameter correctly measures load regulation?
A) AVin/AVout
B) AVout/Alload
C) Alout/AVout
D) AVout/AVin
  • 30. Which topology is specified for the active filter implementation?
A) State variable
B) Multiple feedback
C) Twin-T
D) Sallen-Key
  • 31. In the differential amplifier design activity, what is the required gain specification?
A) 10
B) 50
C) 80dB
D) 100
  • 32. Which parameter correctly measures differential amplifier performance?
A) Slew rate
B) Input bias current
C) Gain bandwidth
D) CMRR
  • 33. Which approach properly analyzes power dissipation?
A) Power = V *1
B) Heat measurement
C) Energy calculation
D) .meas avg power = avg(V(n1)*I(R1))
  • 34. Which of the following is NOT one of the DC output voltages required for the regulated power supply in Activity 5?
A) 5V DC
B) -15V DC
C) +15V DC
D) 12V DC
  • 35. In Activity 2 in final lab, what type of power supply is being designed?
A) Linear regulator
B) Boost converter
C) Flyback converter
D) Buck converter
  • 36. What is the correct input voltage for the regulator circuit?
A) 24V
B) 12V
C) 9V
D) 15V
  • 37. What is the correct format for exporting netlists?
A) HTML format
B) XML format
C) Binary format
D) SPICE compatible text format
  • 38. What is the correct method for measuring frequency stability?
A) Long-term frequency drift measurement
B) Phase noise
C) RMS voltage
D) Peak amplitude
  • 39. Which oscillator type is specified in the lab guide?
A) Wien bridge
B) RC phase shift
C) Colpitts
D) Crystal
  • 40. What gain setting is specified for the non-inverting amplifier?
A) 15
B) 2
C) 10
D) 5
  • 41. Which approach correctly implements hierarchical designs?
A) Symbol creation with subcircuits
B) Component arrays
C) Multiple schematics
D) Linked files
  • 42. In LTSpice, what command key opens the component browser?
A) F3
B) F2
C) F4
D) F1
  • 43. Which power supply configuration is correct for the op-amp?
A) ±12V
B) ±15V
C) +5V only
D) +12V only
  • 44. What is the proper diode configuration for full-wave rectification?
A) Two diodes in series
B) Single diode setup
C) Center-tapped transformer
D) Bridge configuration with four diodes
  • 45. What is the required switching frequency for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 1MHz
B) 100kHz
C) 250kHz
D) 500kHz
  • 46. Which analysis command is used for time-domain simulation?
A) .op
B) .dc
C) .ac
D) .tran
  • 47. Which initial value setting is correct for the pulse source configuration?
A) 5V
B) -5V
C) 0V
D) 1V
  • 48. Which capacitor value is specified for filtering in the power supply?
A) 100μF
B) 470μF
C) 1000μF
D) 2200μF
  • 49. Which parameter properly controls simulation accuracy?
A) abstol 1e-12
B) vntol = 1e-6
C) reltol = 1e-3
D) itol = 1e-8
  • 50. Which command generates proper performance reports?
A) .print
B) .meas
C) .save
D) .plot
  • 51. Which approach properly documents simulation settings?
A) Reference manual
B) Verbal description
C) Separate text file
D) SPICE directives with comments
  • 52. What is the correct peak voltage for the AC source in rectifier simulation?
A) 10V
B) 12V
C) 5V
D) 15V
  • 53. What is the proper output voltage specification?
A) 6V
B) 5V
C) 3.3V
D) 9V
  • 54. Which technique correctly validates results?
A) Assumption
B) Visual estimation
C) Peer review
D) Theoretical calculation comparison
  • 55. What is the proper rise time setting for the pulse source?
A) 1ns
B) 100ns
C) 1μς
D) 10ns
  • 56. What is the correct inductor value for the buck converter?
A) 47μΗ
B) 1mH
C) 100μΗ
D) 220μΗ
  • 57. Which input signal is correct for testing the op-amp circuit?
A) 0.5V triangle wave
B) 2V square wave
C) 3V pulse
D) 1V sine wave
  • 58. What is the correct method for bandwidth measurement?
A) Frequency at -3dB point from midband gain
B) Maximum frequency of input signal
C) Cutoff frequency at OdB
D) Resonant frequency
  • 59. What is the correct method for frequency domain analysis?
A) .four
B) .tran fft
C) .fft V(out)
D) .ac analysis
  • 60. Which component provides proper amplitude stabilization?
A) Zener diode
B) AGC circuit with thermistor
C) Variable capacitor
D) Fixed resistor
  • 61. What defines the -3dB point in frequency response?
A) Half power point (0.707 of peak amplitude)
B) Zero crossing point
C) Quarter power point
D) Maximum amplitude point
  • 62. What is the correct phase shift at cutoff frequency?
A) -60 degrees
B) -90 degrees
C) -45 degrees
D) -180 degrees
  • 63. What is the correct method for component labeling?
A) Random numbers
B) Sequential only
C) Hierarchical prefix with functional description
D) Default names
  • 64. What is the correct file organization structure?
A) Separate folders for each analysis type
B) Mixed files
C) Single directory
D) Random storage
  • 65. Which naming convention is proper for simulation files?
A) Numeric only
B) Date_Time
C) Random string
D) ProjectName_CircuitType_Version
  • 66. What is the specified frequency for the oscillator in Activity 4?
A) 500kHz
B) 10MHz
C) 100kHz
D) 1MHz
  • 67. What is the input voltage specification for the switch-mode power supply in Activity 2 in finals lab?
A) 12V DC
B) 5V DC
C) 24V DC
D) 120V AC
  • 68. Which of the following is NOT listed as a documentation requirement for the laboratory activities?
A) Comparison with theoretical calculations
B) Simulation results
C) Video demonstration of circuit operation
D) Complete schematic file
  • 69. What is the proper method for identifying simulation errors?
A) Component replacement
B) Power cycling
C) Circuit restart
D) Error log analysis and stepping
  • 70. Which command correctly calculates RMS values?
A) .measure average
B) .save rms
C) .print rms
D) .meas tran rms RMS V(out)
  • 71. Which parameter properly indicates filter roll-off rate?
A) -30 dB/decade
B) 20 dB/decade
C) -60 dB/decade
D) -40 dB/decade
  • 72. Which analysis type is NOT mentioned as part of Activity 3's filter implementation?
A) Phase response analysis
B) AC analysis
C) Monte Carlo analysis
D) Transient analysis
  • 73. Which protection feature is NOT mentioned as a requirement for the regulated power supply design?
A) Under-voltage lockout
B) Over-current protection
C) Thermal shutdown
D) Soft-start circuit
  • 74. What is the required CMRR (Common Mode Rejection Ratio) for the differential amplifier in Activity 1?
A) >80dB
B) >40dB
C) >100dB
D) >60dB
  • 75. What is the correct method for setting initial conditions?
A) Startup switches
B) Reset circuit
C) External sources
D) .ic command with node voltages
  • 76. Which waveform represents correct capacitor charging behavior?
A) Linear increase
B) Step function
C) Exponential rise to steady state
D) Sinusoidal oscillation
  • 77. What is the maximum allowed Total Harmonic Distortion (THD) for the oscillator design?
A) <5%
B) <1%
C) <0.1%
D) <10%
  • 78. What type of filter is designed in Activity 3?
A) 3rd order Bessel filter
B) 5th order Elliptic filter
C) 2nd order Chebyshev filter
D) 4th order Butterworth filter
  • 79. What is the correct method for measuring differential gain?
A) Peak output voltage
B) Output voltage / differential input voltage
C) Average of both inputs
D) Total output / total input
  • 80. In Activity 5, what is the input voltage specification for the regulated power supply?
A) 240V AC
B) 24V DC
C) 120V AC
D) 12V DC
  • 81. What is the proper format for measurement expressions?
A) voltage(1,2)
B) V(node1)-V(node2)
C) measure(v1-v2)
D) diff(V1,V2)
  • 82. What is the correct damping ratio for optimal filter response?
A) 0.5
B) 0.25
C) 0.1
D) 0.707
  • 83. How many points per decade are specified for frequency analysis?
A) 200
B) 75
C) 100
D) 50
  • 84. Which parameter is NOT listed as one to analyze in the switch-mode power supply design?
A) Efficiency at different loads
B) Output ripple voltage
C) Input impedance
D) Transient response
  • 85. Which method properly verifies model accuracy?
A) Peer feedback
B) Comparison with datasheet specifications
C) Visual inspection
D) Assumption based
  • 86. Which method correctly exports waveform data?
A) Print screen
B) Right-click plot, export data as text
C) Save as image only
D) Copy to clipboard
  • 87. What implementation method is specified for the filter design in Activity 3?
A) Multiple feedback topology
B) Twin-T configuration
C) Cascaded Sallen-Key stages
D) State variable filter
  • 88. What is the maximum current specification per output for the regulated power supply in Activity 5?
A) 500mA
B) 3A
C) 1A
D) 2A
  • 89. What is the proper method for measuring efficiency?
A) Voltage ratio only
B) Current ratio only
C) Power loss calculation
D) (Pout/Pin) x 100%
  • 90. What is the correct method for version control?
A) No backup
B) Random copies
C) Single file override
D) Sequential backup with date stamps
  • 91. What is the correct method for creating custom components?
A) Symbol editor only
B) Modifying existing parts
C) Component wizard
D) Using.subckt definition
  • 92. What is the correct approach for handling convergence issues?
A) Increase maximum iterations
B) Change solver type
C) Reduce timestep
D) Modify gmin stepping
  • 93. What is the specified load current for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 1A
B) 500mA
C) 2A
D) 5A
  • 94. Which parameter indicates proper oscillator startup?
A) Immediate full amplitude
B) Random amplitude variation
C) Exponential amplitude growth to steady state
D) Linear amplitude increase
  • 95. What is the correct capacitor value specified for the transient analysis task?
A) 100μF
B) 1000μF
C) 220μF
D) 47μF
  • 96. What is the correct approach for debugging convergence issues?
A) Circuit simplification
B) Progressive component addition
C) Complete rebuild
D) Parameter randomization
  • 97. What is the specified passband ripple requirement for the filter in Activity 3?
A) <0.5dB
B) <0.1dB
C) <3dB
D) <1dB
  • 98. Which component value is used for R1 in the initial RC circuit analysis?
A) 2ΚΩ
B) 10ΚΩ
C) 1KΩ
D) 100Ω
  • 99. What is the specified switching frequency?
A) 75kHz
B) 50kHz
C) 200kHz
D) 100kHz
  • 100. What is the required output amplitude for the oscillator in Activity 4?
A) 5V peak-to-peak
B) 3.3V peak-to-peak
C) 10V peak-to-peak
D) 1V peak-to-peak
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