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COEDAD FINAL
Contributed by: Billo
  • 1. What is the correct simulation resolution setting?
A) Fixed timestep
B) Auto timestep
C) Minimum timestep
D) Maximum timestep = 1/100 of smallest time constant
  • 2. What is the proper method to measure capacitor charging time?
A) Measuring peak voltage only
B) Calculating from frequency response
C) Reading the voltage value at t=0
D) Using cursor differences in voltage vs. time plot
  • 3. What is the primary objective of the advanced circuit analysis laboratory activities?
A) Program microcontrollers
B) Build physical electronic circuits
C) Develop new electronic components
D) Master complex circuit simulation techniques in LTSpice
  • 4. Which plot type correctly shows frequency response?
A) Bode plot
B) Smith chart
C) Nyquist plot
D) Time domain plot
  • 5. What determines the RC circuit's time constant?
A) R-C
B) R+C
C) RxC
D) C/R
  • 6. Which load resistance value is specified for testing?
A) 220Ω
B) 100Ω
C) 47Ω
D) 1kΩ
  • 7. Which analysis type properly evaluates component variations?
A) DC sweep
B) Fourier
C) Monte Carlo
D) Transient
  • 8. What is the correct duration for running the transient analysis?
A) 5ms
B) 1ms
C) 10ms
D) 2ms
  • 9. What is the proper feedback resistor value for matched differential gain?
A) 5ΚΩ
B) 10ΚΩ
C) 15ΚΩ
D) 20kΩ
  • 10. What is the specified cutoff frequency for the second-order low-pass filter?
A) 1kHz
B) 10kHz
C) 500Hz
D) 2kHz
  • 11. What represents the correct stop frequency for AC analysis?
A) 2MHz
B) 1MHz
C) 100kHz
D) 500kHz
  • 12. What op-amp model is specified for the non-inverting amplifier?
A) LT1001
B) TL082
C) LM741
D) LM358
  • 13. What is the required stopband attenuation for the filter design in Activity 3?
A) >80dB
B) >60dB
C) >20dB
D) >40dB
  • 14. What parameter correctly indicates power supply efficiency?
A) Input power / Output power × 100%
B) Current out / Current in
C) Output power / Input power × 100%
D) Voltage out / Voltage in
  • 15. What is the required cutoff frequency for the filter in Activity 3?
A) 100kHz
B) 10kHz
C) 1kHz
D) 50kHz
  • 16. Which configuration best tests common-mode rejection?
A) Grounded input
B) Different signals on each input
C) Identical signals applied to both inputs
D) Single input signal only
  • 17. What determines the correct oscillation frequency?
A) Power supply frequency
B) LC resonance
C) RC time constant
D) External clock
  • 18. Which measurement technique correctly determines ripple voltage?
A) Instantaneous voltage
B) Average voltage
C) RMS calculation
D) Peak-to-peak voltage measurement
  • 19. What is the correct starting frequency for AC analysis?
A) 0.1Hz
B) 1Hz
C) 100Hz
D) 10Hz
  • 20. What type of components are specified to be used as matched pairs in the differential amplifier design?
A) Capacitors with 1% tolerance
B) Transistors with 5% tolerance
C) Inductors with 0.5% tolerance
D) Resistors with 0.1% tolerance
  • 21. Which control method is correct for the buck converter?
A) Voltage follower
B) Open loop control
C) Linear regulation
D) PWM feedback control
  • 22. What is the output voltage requirement for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 5V DC
B) 24V DC
C) 3.3V DC
D) 12V DC
  • 23. Which parameter correctly indicates transient response?
A) Input current
B) Output voltage settling time
C) Switching noise
D) Average power
  • 24. Which convergence setting is proper for complex circuits?
A) gmin = 1e-7
B) gmin = 1e-9
C) gmin = 1e-12
D) gmin = 1e-6
  • 25. What is the correct method for implementing current limiting?
A) Capacitive coupling
B) Voltage divider
C) Series sense resistor with feedback
D) Parallel resistor
  • 26. Which approach correctly verifies circuit operation?
A) Random probing
B) Systematic node voltage checking
C) Visual inspection
D) Component count
  • 27. What type of oscillator is designed in Activity 4?
A) Crystal oscillator
B) Colpitts oscillator
C) Wien bridge oscillator
D) Hartley oscillator
  • 28. What is the correct input resistor value for the differential amplifier?
A) 10ΚΩ
B) 1ΚΩ
C) 47kQ
D) 100ΚΩ
  • 29. Which parameter correctly measures load regulation?
A) AVin/AVout
B) AVout/AVin
C) Alout/AVout
D) AVout/Alload
  • 30. Which topology is specified for the active filter implementation?
A) Multiple feedback
B) Sallen-Key
C) Twin-T
D) State variable
  • 31. In the differential amplifier design activity, what is the required gain specification?
A) 10
B) 100
C) 80dB
D) 50
  • 32. Which parameter correctly measures differential amplifier performance?
A) Slew rate
B) Input bias current
C) Gain bandwidth
D) CMRR
  • 33. Which approach properly analyzes power dissipation?
A) Power = V *1
B) Heat measurement
C) Energy calculation
D) .meas avg power = avg(V(n1)*I(R1))
  • 34. Which of the following is NOT one of the DC output voltages required for the regulated power supply in Activity 5?
A) +15V DC
B) 12V DC
C) -15V DC
D) 5V DC
  • 35. In Activity 2 in final lab, what type of power supply is being designed?
A) Flyback converter
B) Buck converter
C) Linear regulator
D) Boost converter
  • 36. What is the correct input voltage for the regulator circuit?
A) 9V
B) 24V
C) 15V
D) 12V
  • 37. What is the correct format for exporting netlists?
A) SPICE compatible text format
B) XML format
C) Binary format
D) HTML format
  • 38. What is the correct method for measuring frequency stability?
A) Phase noise
B) Peak amplitude
C) RMS voltage
D) Long-term frequency drift measurement
  • 39. Which oscillator type is specified in the lab guide?
A) Crystal
B) RC phase shift
C) Wien bridge
D) Colpitts
  • 40. What gain setting is specified for the non-inverting amplifier?
A) 5
B) 15
C) 10
D) 2
  • 41. Which approach correctly implements hierarchical designs?
A) Multiple schematics
B) Linked files
C) Component arrays
D) Symbol creation with subcircuits
  • 42. In LTSpice, what command key opens the component browser?
A) F2
B) F4
C) F3
D) F1
  • 43. Which power supply configuration is correct for the op-amp?
A) +12V only
B) +5V only
C) ±15V
D) ±12V
  • 44. What is the proper diode configuration for full-wave rectification?
A) Center-tapped transformer
B) Two diodes in series
C) Single diode setup
D) Bridge configuration with four diodes
  • 45. What is the required switching frequency for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 100kHz
B) 250kHz
C) 1MHz
D) 500kHz
  • 46. Which analysis command is used for time-domain simulation?
A) .op
B) .ac
C) .tran
D) .dc
  • 47. Which initial value setting is correct for the pulse source configuration?
A) 5V
B) -5V
C) 1V
D) 0V
  • 48. Which capacitor value is specified for filtering in the power supply?
A) 2200μF
B) 100μF
C) 1000μF
D) 470μF
  • 49. Which parameter properly controls simulation accuracy?
A) abstol 1e-12
B) reltol = 1e-3
C) itol = 1e-8
D) vntol = 1e-6
  • 50. Which command generates proper performance reports?
A) .meas
B) .print
C) .save
D) .plot
  • 51. Which approach properly documents simulation settings?
A) Reference manual
B) SPICE directives with comments
C) Separate text file
D) Verbal description
  • 52. What is the correct peak voltage for the AC source in rectifier simulation?
A) 12V
B) 15V
C) 5V
D) 10V
  • 53. What is the proper output voltage specification?
A) 9V
B) 3.3V
C) 6V
D) 5V
  • 54. Which technique correctly validates results?
A) Visual estimation
B) Theoretical calculation comparison
C) Peer review
D) Assumption
  • 55. What is the proper rise time setting for the pulse source?
A) 1ns
B) 100ns
C) 10ns
D) 1μς
  • 56. What is the correct inductor value for the buck converter?
A) 100μΗ
B) 1mH
C) 47μΗ
D) 220μΗ
  • 57. Which input signal is correct for testing the op-amp circuit?
A) 0.5V triangle wave
B) 3V pulse
C) 2V square wave
D) 1V sine wave
  • 58. What is the correct method for bandwidth measurement?
A) Cutoff frequency at OdB
B) Frequency at -3dB point from midband gain
C) Resonant frequency
D) Maximum frequency of input signal
  • 59. What is the correct method for frequency domain analysis?
A) .tran fft
B) .four
C) .fft V(out)
D) .ac analysis
  • 60. Which component provides proper amplitude stabilization?
A) Zener diode
B) AGC circuit with thermistor
C) Variable capacitor
D) Fixed resistor
  • 61. What defines the -3dB point in frequency response?
A) Maximum amplitude point
B) Half power point (0.707 of peak amplitude)
C) Quarter power point
D) Zero crossing point
  • 62. What is the correct phase shift at cutoff frequency?
A) -45 degrees
B) -60 degrees
C) -180 degrees
D) -90 degrees
  • 63. What is the correct method for component labeling?
A) Sequential only
B) Random numbers
C) Hierarchical prefix with functional description
D) Default names
  • 64. What is the correct file organization structure?
A) Mixed files
B) Separate folders for each analysis type
C) Random storage
D) Single directory
  • 65. Which naming convention is proper for simulation files?
A) ProjectName_CircuitType_Version
B) Numeric only
C) Date_Time
D) Random string
  • 66. What is the specified frequency for the oscillator in Activity 4?
A) 1MHz
B) 10MHz
C) 500kHz
D) 100kHz
  • 67. What is the input voltage specification for the switch-mode power supply in Activity 2 in finals lab?
A) 5V DC
B) 12V DC
C) 120V AC
D) 24V DC
  • 68. Which of the following is NOT listed as a documentation requirement for the laboratory activities?
A) Comparison with theoretical calculations
B) Video demonstration of circuit operation
C) Simulation results
D) Complete schematic file
  • 69. What is the proper method for identifying simulation errors?
A) Power cycling
B) Component replacement
C) Circuit restart
D) Error log analysis and stepping
  • 70. Which command correctly calculates RMS values?
A) .measure average
B) .save rms
C) .meas tran rms RMS V(out)
D) .print rms
  • 71. Which parameter properly indicates filter roll-off rate?
A) -60 dB/decade
B) -40 dB/decade
C) 20 dB/decade
D) -30 dB/decade
  • 72. Which analysis type is NOT mentioned as part of Activity 3's filter implementation?
A) AC analysis
B) Monte Carlo analysis
C) Transient analysis
D) Phase response analysis
  • 73. Which protection feature is NOT mentioned as a requirement for the regulated power supply design?
A) Thermal shutdown
B) Under-voltage lockout
C) Over-current protection
D) Soft-start circuit
  • 74. What is the required CMRR (Common Mode Rejection Ratio) for the differential amplifier in Activity 1?
A) >100dB
B) >40dB
C) >60dB
D) >80dB
  • 75. What is the correct method for setting initial conditions?
A) .ic command with node voltages
B) External sources
C) Startup switches
D) Reset circuit
  • 76. Which waveform represents correct capacitor charging behavior?
A) Step function
B) Linear increase
C) Exponential rise to steady state
D) Sinusoidal oscillation
  • 77. What is the maximum allowed Total Harmonic Distortion (THD) for the oscillator design?
A) <10%
B) <0.1%
C) <1%
D) <5%
  • 78. What type of filter is designed in Activity 3?
A) 5th order Elliptic filter
B) 3rd order Bessel filter
C) 4th order Butterworth filter
D) 2nd order Chebyshev filter
  • 79. What is the correct method for measuring differential gain?
A) Average of both inputs
B) Peak output voltage
C) Total output / total input
D) Output voltage / differential input voltage
  • 80. In Activity 5, what is the input voltage specification for the regulated power supply?
A) 240V AC
B) 120V AC
C) 24V DC
D) 12V DC
  • 81. What is the proper format for measurement expressions?
A) voltage(1,2)
B) V(node1)-V(node2)
C) measure(v1-v2)
D) diff(V1,V2)
  • 82. What is the correct damping ratio for optimal filter response?
A) 0.1
B) 0.25
C) 0.707
D) 0.5
  • 83. How many points per decade are specified for frequency analysis?
A) 50
B) 75
C) 100
D) 200
  • 84. Which parameter is NOT listed as one to analyze in the switch-mode power supply design?
A) Transient response
B) Output ripple voltage
C) Efficiency at different loads
D) Input impedance
  • 85. Which method properly verifies model accuracy?
A) Visual inspection
B) Assumption based
C) Comparison with datasheet specifications
D) Peer feedback
  • 86. Which method correctly exports waveform data?
A) Save as image only
B) Copy to clipboard
C) Right-click plot, export data as text
D) Print screen
  • 87. What implementation method is specified for the filter design in Activity 3?
A) Twin-T configuration
B) State variable filter
C) Cascaded Sallen-Key stages
D) Multiple feedback topology
  • 88. What is the maximum current specification per output for the regulated power supply in Activity 5?
A) 1A
B) 500mA
C) 3A
D) 2A
  • 89. What is the proper method for measuring efficiency?
A) Voltage ratio only
B) Power loss calculation
C) Current ratio only
D) (Pout/Pin) x 100%
  • 90. What is the correct method for version control?
A) Single file override
B) Sequential backup with date stamps
C) Random copies
D) No backup
  • 91. What is the correct method for creating custom components?
A) Symbol editor only
B) Using.subckt definition
C) Component wizard
D) Modifying existing parts
  • 92. What is the correct approach for handling convergence issues?
A) Modify gmin stepping
B) Reduce timestep
C) Change solver type
D) Increase maximum iterations
  • 93. What is the specified load current for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 1A
B) 2A
C) 5A
D) 500mA
  • 94. Which parameter indicates proper oscillator startup?
A) Immediate full amplitude
B) Linear amplitude increase
C) Exponential amplitude growth to steady state
D) Random amplitude variation
  • 95. What is the correct capacitor value specified for the transient analysis task?
A) 1000μF
B) 47μF
C) 220μF
D) 100μF
  • 96. What is the correct approach for debugging convergence issues?
A) Circuit simplification
B) Complete rebuild
C) Parameter randomization
D) Progressive component addition
  • 97. What is the specified passband ripple requirement for the filter in Activity 3?
A) <0.5dB
B) <1dB
C) <0.1dB
D) <3dB
  • 98. Which component value is used for R1 in the initial RC circuit analysis?
A) 2ΚΩ
B) 1KΩ
C) 100Ω
D) 10ΚΩ
  • 99. What is the specified switching frequency?
A) 75kHz
B) 200kHz
C) 100kHz
D) 50kHz
  • 100. What is the required output amplitude for the oscillator in Activity 4?
A) 1V peak-to-peak
B) 3.3V peak-to-peak
C) 10V peak-to-peak
D) 5V peak-to-peak
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