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COEDAD FINAL
Contributed by: Billo
  • 1. What is the correct simulation resolution setting?
A) Maximum timestep = 1/100 of smallest time constant
B) Fixed timestep
C) Auto timestep
D) Minimum timestep
  • 2. What is the proper method to measure capacitor charging time?
A) Using cursor differences in voltage vs. time plot
B) Measuring peak voltage only
C) Calculating from frequency response
D) Reading the voltage value at t=0
  • 3. What is the primary objective of the advanced circuit analysis laboratory activities?
A) Program microcontrollers
B) Master complex circuit simulation techniques in LTSpice
C) Develop new electronic components
D) Build physical electronic circuits
  • 4. Which plot type correctly shows frequency response?
A) Bode plot
B) Nyquist plot
C) Time domain plot
D) Smith chart
  • 5. What determines the RC circuit's time constant?
A) R-C
B) RxC
C) R+C
D) C/R
  • 6. Which load resistance value is specified for testing?
A) 220Ω
B) 100Ω
C) 47Ω
D) 1kΩ
  • 7. Which analysis type properly evaluates component variations?
A) Transient
B) Fourier
C) Monte Carlo
D) DC sweep
  • 8. What is the correct duration for running the transient analysis?
A) 1ms
B) 5ms
C) 10ms
D) 2ms
  • 9. What is the proper feedback resistor value for matched differential gain?
A) 20kΩ
B) 15ΚΩ
C) 10ΚΩ
D) 5ΚΩ
  • 10. What is the specified cutoff frequency for the second-order low-pass filter?
A) 500Hz
B) 1kHz
C) 2kHz
D) 10kHz
  • 11. What represents the correct stop frequency for AC analysis?
A) 2MHz
B) 100kHz
C) 500kHz
D) 1MHz
  • 12. What op-amp model is specified for the non-inverting amplifier?
A) LM741
B) LT1001
C) LM358
D) TL082
  • 13. What is the required stopband attenuation for the filter design in Activity 3?
A) >80dB
B) >40dB
C) >60dB
D) >20dB
  • 14. What parameter correctly indicates power supply efficiency?
A) Current out / Current in
B) Output power / Input power × 100%
C) Voltage out / Voltage in
D) Input power / Output power × 100%
  • 15. What is the required cutoff frequency for the filter in Activity 3?
A) 1kHz
B) 100kHz
C) 50kHz
D) 10kHz
  • 16. Which configuration best tests common-mode rejection?
A) Different signals on each input
B) Single input signal only
C) Grounded input
D) Identical signals applied to both inputs
  • 17. What determines the correct oscillation frequency?
A) Power supply frequency
B) LC resonance
C) External clock
D) RC time constant
  • 18. Which measurement technique correctly determines ripple voltage?
A) Peak-to-peak voltage measurement
B) Average voltage
C) Instantaneous voltage
D) RMS calculation
  • 19. What is the correct starting frequency for AC analysis?
A) 10Hz
B) 1Hz
C) 0.1Hz
D) 100Hz
  • 20. What type of components are specified to be used as matched pairs in the differential amplifier design?
A) Capacitors with 1% tolerance
B) Inductors with 0.5% tolerance
C) Resistors with 0.1% tolerance
D) Transistors with 5% tolerance
  • 21. Which control method is correct for the buck converter?
A) Open loop control
B) Linear regulation
C) PWM feedback control
D) Voltage follower
  • 22. What is the output voltage requirement for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 24V DC
B) 5V DC
C) 12V DC
D) 3.3V DC
  • 23. Which parameter correctly indicates transient response?
A) Input current
B) Average power
C) Switching noise
D) Output voltage settling time
  • 24. Which convergence setting is proper for complex circuits?
A) gmin = 1e-12
B) gmin = 1e-6
C) gmin = 1e-9
D) gmin = 1e-7
  • 25. What is the correct method for implementing current limiting?
A) Capacitive coupling
B) Parallel resistor
C) Series sense resistor with feedback
D) Voltage divider
  • 26. Which approach correctly verifies circuit operation?
A) Component count
B) Random probing
C) Visual inspection
D) Systematic node voltage checking
  • 27. What type of oscillator is designed in Activity 4?
A) Hartley oscillator
B) Colpitts oscillator
C) Crystal oscillator
D) Wien bridge oscillator
  • 28. What is the correct input resistor value for the differential amplifier?
A) 100ΚΩ
B) 1ΚΩ
C) 10ΚΩ
D) 47kQ
  • 29. Which parameter correctly measures load regulation?
A) AVout/AVin
B) Alout/AVout
C) AVin/AVout
D) AVout/Alload
  • 30. Which topology is specified for the active filter implementation?
A) State variable
B) Sallen-Key
C) Multiple feedback
D) Twin-T
  • 31. In the differential amplifier design activity, what is the required gain specification?
A) 100
B) 50
C) 10
D) 80dB
  • 32. Which parameter correctly measures differential amplifier performance?
A) Input bias current
B) Gain bandwidth
C) CMRR
D) Slew rate
  • 33. Which approach properly analyzes power dissipation?
A) .meas avg power = avg(V(n1)*I(R1))
B) Heat measurement
C) Energy calculation
D) Power = V *1
  • 34. Which of the following is NOT one of the DC output voltages required for the regulated power supply in Activity 5?
A) +15V DC
B) -15V DC
C) 5V DC
D) 12V DC
  • 35. In Activity 2 in final lab, what type of power supply is being designed?
A) Boost converter
B) Flyback converter
C) Buck converter
D) Linear regulator
  • 36. What is the correct input voltage for the regulator circuit?
A) 9V
B) 24V
C) 12V
D) 15V
  • 37. What is the correct format for exporting netlists?
A) HTML format
B) XML format
C) Binary format
D) SPICE compatible text format
  • 38. What is the correct method for measuring frequency stability?
A) Long-term frequency drift measurement
B) Peak amplitude
C) Phase noise
D) RMS voltage
  • 39. Which oscillator type is specified in the lab guide?
A) RC phase shift
B) Wien bridge
C) Colpitts
D) Crystal
  • 40. What gain setting is specified for the non-inverting amplifier?
A) 15
B) 2
C) 5
D) 10
  • 41. Which approach correctly implements hierarchical designs?
A) Multiple schematics
B) Component arrays
C) Symbol creation with subcircuits
D) Linked files
  • 42. In LTSpice, what command key opens the component browser?
A) F4
B) F3
C) F1
D) F2
  • 43. Which power supply configuration is correct for the op-amp?
A) +5V only
B) ±15V
C) +12V only
D) ±12V
  • 44. What is the proper diode configuration for full-wave rectification?
A) Two diodes in series
B) Single diode setup
C) Bridge configuration with four diodes
D) Center-tapped transformer
  • 45. What is the required switching frequency for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 250kHz
B) 100kHz
C) 1MHz
D) 500kHz
  • 46. Which analysis command is used for time-domain simulation?
A) .dc
B) .op
C) .ac
D) .tran
  • 47. Which initial value setting is correct for the pulse source configuration?
A) -5V
B) 0V
C) 5V
D) 1V
  • 48. Which capacitor value is specified for filtering in the power supply?
A) 100μF
B) 2200μF
C) 470μF
D) 1000μF
  • 49. Which parameter properly controls simulation accuracy?
A) reltol = 1e-3
B) abstol 1e-12
C) vntol = 1e-6
D) itol = 1e-8
  • 50. Which command generates proper performance reports?
A) .plot
B) .save
C) .print
D) .meas
  • 51. Which approach properly documents simulation settings?
A) SPICE directives with comments
B) Separate text file
C) Verbal description
D) Reference manual
  • 52. What is the correct peak voltage for the AC source in rectifier simulation?
A) 10V
B) 12V
C) 15V
D) 5V
  • 53. What is the proper output voltage specification?
A) 5V
B) 3.3V
C) 6V
D) 9V
  • 54. Which technique correctly validates results?
A) Peer review
B) Theoretical calculation comparison
C) Assumption
D) Visual estimation
  • 55. What is the proper rise time setting for the pulse source?
A) 1μς
B) 1ns
C) 10ns
D) 100ns
  • 56. What is the correct inductor value for the buck converter?
A) 220μΗ
B) 47μΗ
C) 1mH
D) 100μΗ
  • 57. Which input signal is correct for testing the op-amp circuit?
A) 3V pulse
B) 0.5V triangle wave
C) 2V square wave
D) 1V sine wave
  • 58. What is the correct method for bandwidth measurement?
A) Frequency at -3dB point from midband gain
B) Resonant frequency
C) Maximum frequency of input signal
D) Cutoff frequency at OdB
  • 59. What is the correct method for frequency domain analysis?
A) .fft V(out)
B) .tran fft
C) .four
D) .ac analysis
  • 60. Which component provides proper amplitude stabilization?
A) Fixed resistor
B) AGC circuit with thermistor
C) Zener diode
D) Variable capacitor
  • 61. What defines the -3dB point in frequency response?
A) Quarter power point
B) Half power point (0.707 of peak amplitude)
C) Maximum amplitude point
D) Zero crossing point
  • 62. What is the correct phase shift at cutoff frequency?
A) -45 degrees
B) -180 degrees
C) -90 degrees
D) -60 degrees
  • 63. What is the correct method for component labeling?
A) Random numbers
B) Default names
C) Sequential only
D) Hierarchical prefix with functional description
  • 64. What is the correct file organization structure?
A) Separate folders for each analysis type
B) Single directory
C) Random storage
D) Mixed files
  • 65. Which naming convention is proper for simulation files?
A) Numeric only
B) ProjectName_CircuitType_Version
C) Date_Time
D) Random string
  • 66. What is the specified frequency for the oscillator in Activity 4?
A) 10MHz
B) 1MHz
C) 500kHz
D) 100kHz
  • 67. What is the input voltage specification for the switch-mode power supply in Activity 2 in finals lab?
A) 5V DC
B) 12V DC
C) 120V AC
D) 24V DC
  • 68. Which of the following is NOT listed as a documentation requirement for the laboratory activities?
A) Comparison with theoretical calculations
B) Simulation results
C) Complete schematic file
D) Video demonstration of circuit operation
  • 69. What is the proper method for identifying simulation errors?
A) Component replacement
B) Power cycling
C) Circuit restart
D) Error log analysis and stepping
  • 70. Which command correctly calculates RMS values?
A) .print rms
B) .save rms
C) .measure average
D) .meas tran rms RMS V(out)
  • 71. Which parameter properly indicates filter roll-off rate?
A) -40 dB/decade
B) -30 dB/decade
C) 20 dB/decade
D) -60 dB/decade
  • 72. Which analysis type is NOT mentioned as part of Activity 3's filter implementation?
A) Monte Carlo analysis
B) Transient analysis
C) Phase response analysis
D) AC analysis
  • 73. Which protection feature is NOT mentioned as a requirement for the regulated power supply design?
A) Under-voltage lockout
B) Thermal shutdown
C) Over-current protection
D) Soft-start circuit
  • 74. What is the required CMRR (Common Mode Rejection Ratio) for the differential amplifier in Activity 1?
A) >40dB
B) >100dB
C) >60dB
D) >80dB
  • 75. What is the correct method for setting initial conditions?
A) Startup switches
B) Reset circuit
C) .ic command with node voltages
D) External sources
  • 76. Which waveform represents correct capacitor charging behavior?
A) Step function
B) Linear increase
C) Exponential rise to steady state
D) Sinusoidal oscillation
  • 77. What is the maximum allowed Total Harmonic Distortion (THD) for the oscillator design?
A) <10%
B) <5%
C) <0.1%
D) <1%
  • 78. What type of filter is designed in Activity 3?
A) 5th order Elliptic filter
B) 3rd order Bessel filter
C) 2nd order Chebyshev filter
D) 4th order Butterworth filter
  • 79. What is the correct method for measuring differential gain?
A) Average of both inputs
B) Total output / total input
C) Output voltage / differential input voltage
D) Peak output voltage
  • 80. In Activity 5, what is the input voltage specification for the regulated power supply?
A) 24V DC
B) 120V AC
C) 12V DC
D) 240V AC
  • 81. What is the proper format for measurement expressions?
A) diff(V1,V2)
B) voltage(1,2)
C) measure(v1-v2)
D) V(node1)-V(node2)
  • 82. What is the correct damping ratio for optimal filter response?
A) 0.707
B) 0.25
C) 0.5
D) 0.1
  • 83. How many points per decade are specified for frequency analysis?
A) 200
B) 100
C) 50
D) 75
  • 84. Which parameter is NOT listed as one to analyze in the switch-mode power supply design?
A) Input impedance
B) Transient response
C) Output ripple voltage
D) Efficiency at different loads
  • 85. Which method properly verifies model accuracy?
A) Comparison with datasheet specifications
B) Peer feedback
C) Visual inspection
D) Assumption based
  • 86. Which method correctly exports waveform data?
A) Right-click plot, export data as text
B) Copy to clipboard
C) Save as image only
D) Print screen
  • 87. What implementation method is specified for the filter design in Activity 3?
A) Multiple feedback topology
B) Cascaded Sallen-Key stages
C) Twin-T configuration
D) State variable filter
  • 88. What is the maximum current specification per output for the regulated power supply in Activity 5?
A) 1A
B) 3A
C) 2A
D) 500mA
  • 89. What is the proper method for measuring efficiency?
A) (Pout/Pin) x 100%
B) Power loss calculation
C) Voltage ratio only
D) Current ratio only
  • 90. What is the correct method for version control?
A) Sequential backup with date stamps
B) Single file override
C) Random copies
D) No backup
  • 91. What is the correct method for creating custom components?
A) Modifying existing parts
B) Symbol editor only
C) Component wizard
D) Using.subckt definition
  • 92. What is the correct approach for handling convergence issues?
A) Reduce timestep
B) Modify gmin stepping
C) Change solver type
D) Increase maximum iterations
  • 93. What is the specified load current for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 2A
B) 500mA
C) 5A
D) 1A
  • 94. Which parameter indicates proper oscillator startup?
A) Random amplitude variation
B) Exponential amplitude growth to steady state
C) Linear amplitude increase
D) Immediate full amplitude
  • 95. What is the correct capacitor value specified for the transient analysis task?
A) 1000μF
B) 47μF
C) 100μF
D) 220μF
  • 96. What is the correct approach for debugging convergence issues?
A) Complete rebuild
B) Parameter randomization
C) Circuit simplification
D) Progressive component addition
  • 97. What is the specified passband ripple requirement for the filter in Activity 3?
A) <0.1dB
B) <3dB
C) <1dB
D) <0.5dB
  • 98. Which component value is used for R1 in the initial RC circuit analysis?
A) 10ΚΩ
B) 100Ω
C) 1KΩ
D) 2ΚΩ
  • 99. What is the specified switching frequency?
A) 50kHz
B) 200kHz
C) 75kHz
D) 100kHz
  • 100. What is the required output amplitude for the oscillator in Activity 4?
A) 1V peak-to-peak
B) 3.3V peak-to-peak
C) 10V peak-to-peak
D) 5V peak-to-peak
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