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ECHO 1_AREA2 - Quiz
Contributed by: Magbanua
  • 1. Which characteristic makes dental identification unique among other biological identifiers?
A) Teeth resist decomposition and extreme heat
B) Teeth provide genetic information directly
C) Teeth regenerate after severe trauma
D) Teeth change shape with age
  • 2. The Henry FBI Classification System primarily serves what purpose?
A) To measure ridge density
B) To detect forged fingerprints
C) To organize fingerprint cards for retrieval
D) To classify latent prints at crime scenes
  • 3. Why is dental charting superior during mass fatality incidents?
A) Dental charts contain compulsory genetic markers
B) Dentition is highly resistant to post-mortem damage
C) Dental features rarely match across victims
D) It requires no prior dental records
  • 4. In the Henry FBI system, what is the role of the Secondary Classification?
A) It refines the filing sequence using ridge patterns on index fingers
B) It determines which fingerprints are suitable for database entry
C) It identifies Level 3 pore characteristics
D) It classifies latent prints with insufficient ridge flow
  • 5. Which of the following best describes the purpose of descriptive biometric analysis (DBA)?
A) To measure body temperature variations post-mortem
B) To categorize fingerprints by their whorl values
C) To match physical traits when friction ridges are unavailable
D) To analyze DNA in partially decomposed bodies
  • 6. Why must classified fingerprint cards be arranged in numerical order?
A) It prevents contamination of fingerprint ink
B) It ensures standardized filing and efficient retrieval
C) It segregates fingerprints by ethnicity and age
D) It allows automatic destruction of old records
  • 7. A latent print contains clear bifurcations but lacks a visible core and delta. How should the examiner classify it?
A) As pattern-indeterminate
B) As an arch pattern
C) As a whorl pattern
D) As a loop pattern
  • 8. A fingerprint with two deltas and circular ridge flow should be classified as a:
A) Plain whorl
B) Composite pattern
C) Radial loop
D) Tented arch
  • 9. Two prints share equal ridge counts but differ significantly in ridge flow direction. What should the examiner apply?
A) Ridge count principle
B) Principle of permanence
C) Principle of individuality
D) Ridge density standard
  • 10. A loop fingerprint shows ridge irregularities due to surface distortion. How should the examiner evaluate these irregularities?
A) Reject the print based solely on the pattern
B) Evaluate minutiae configuration rather than the overall loop pattern
C) Convert the loop pattern into a whorl for easier analysis
D) Ignore minutiae and classify using pattern shape only
  • 11. Which principle justifies the admissibility of fingerprint evidence in court due to its unchanging nature?
A) Divergence
B) Universality
C) Multiplicity
D) Permanence
  • 12. Two fingerprints share ridge endings in the same area but differ in pore positions and ridge edge shapes. What conclusion is most accurate?
A) They belong to the same individual because ridge endings match
B) They can be considered identical after applying ridge counting
C) They are inconclusive due to lack of Level 1 detail
D) They originate from different individuals based on Level 3 differences
  • 13. A corpse has severely dried fingers. What method should be applied before taking prints?
A) Use rehydration or tissue-builder injection
B) Use iodine fuming before rolling
C) Cut the finger and discard the skin
D) Apply magnetic powder
  • 14. You must immediately develop latent prints on a smooth glass surface. What method is most suitable?
A) Powder dusting
B) Ninhydrin
C) Silver nitrate
D) Iodine fuming
  • 15. A rolled impression shows smudging due to downward pressure. How should the technician correct this?
A) Reduce pressure and allow natural rolling
B) Increase pressure to improve contrast
C) Use only plain impressions instead of rolled
D) Roll the finger faster to limit distortion
  • 16. A latent print on porous paper requires chemical development. Which sequence is best?
A) Powder → cyanoacrylate → magnetic powder
B) Ninhydrin → DFO → silver nitrate as needed
C) Superglue → black powder → ALS
D) DFO → ninhydrin → water rinse
  • 17. A latent print on rough, uneven wood must be preserved. What lifting method is appropriate?
A) Gel lifter
B) Adhesive tape
C) Heat transfer sheet
D) Ink transfer
  • 18. After cyanoacrylate fuming, ridge detail appears faint. Why does applying powder improve visibility?
A) Cyanoacrylate prevents any further enhancement
B) Powder chemically dissolves cyanoacrylate
C) The hardened cyanoacrylate surface enhances powder adhesion
D) Powder converts pores into visible white marks
  • 19. During the Analysis phase, you find a latent print with limited ridge clarity. What should you do?
A) Proceed directly to comparison
B) Decide whether the print is suitable before moving on
C) Immediately declare the print an identification
D) Skip analysis and ask for supervisor approval
  • 20. A verifier receives a fingerprint case already evaluated by another examiner. What method ensures objectivity?
A) Reprocessing the evidence using different chemicals
B) Rejecting the first examiner’s conclusion automatically
C) Reviewing the first examiner’s notes first
D) Conducting blind and independent verification
  • 21. Which principle of photography refers to arranging visual elements to create a balanced and meaningful image?
A) Composition
B) Spectral Quality
C) Exposure Value
D) Light Intensity
  • 22. What type of flash produces illumination directly toward the subject without redirection?
A) Bounce Flash
B) Rear-Curtain Flash
C) Direct Flash
D) Off-Camera Flash
  • 23. Hard light creates which characteristic effect on forensic photographs?
A) Soft blending of edges
B) Lower contrast on surfaces
C) Increased shadow definition
D) Minimal textural visibility
  • 24. Bounce flash is preferred in indoor crime scenes because it—
A) Enhances only reflective surfaces
B) Uses stronger wattage for sharp detail
C) Produces softer and more diffused illumination
D) Eliminates the need for a tripod
  • 25. Why is color temperature crucial in forensic documentation?
A) It avoids lens distortion
B) It ensures faithful representation of evidence colors
C) It limits the depth of field range
D) It determines the shutter speed accuracy
  • 26. The rule of thirds primarily helps the investigator achieve what goal?
A) Improve visual clarity and subject positioning
B) Ensure realistic color tones
C) Increase flash synchronization
D) Prevent overexposure
  • 27. An investigator photographs a low-light indoor scene without using flash. Which exposure adjustment is MOST appropriate to avoid motion blur?
A) Narrow the aperture to f/16
B) Use a slower shutter speed
C) Reduce ISO to 100
D) Increase ISO to a higher value
  • 28. When photographing a bloodstain pattern, the photographer must use a scale placed next to the stain. This procedural act demonstrates which forensic principle?
A) Exaggeration Prevention Rule
B) Horizontal Composition Rule
C) Background Neutralization
D) Evidence Size Documentation
  • 29. You must photograph a shoeprint at an oblique angle. Which camera setting will best enhance subtle surface details?
A) Slow shutter, high ISO
B) High ISO, fast shutter
C) Wide aperture, auto ISO
D) Small aperture, low ISO
  • 30. In photographing a dark outdoor crime scene, which action maximizes proper exposure without altering evidence?
A) Increasing shutter time using a tripod
B) Adjusting lens zoom to crop shadows
C) Moving the evidence closer to artificial light
D) Increasing flash power directly at the evidence
  • 31. During medium-range shots, the photographer must capture evidence relative to fixed surroundings. This ensures—
A) Scene orientation is established
B) Depth of field is minimized
C) Flash reflection is avoided
D) Light intensity remains constant
  • 32. When capturing fingerprints using an alternate light source, the photographer must adjust the camera to—
A) Use high ISO to enhance ambient background
B) Disable macro mode to avoid magnification
C) Match the wavelength with white balance settings
D) Increase shutter speed to darken fluorescence
  • 33. A crime scene photo appears overly bright with loss of detail on reflective surfaces. Which combination MOST likely caused the error?
A) Narrow aperture with rear flash
B) High ISO and wide aperture
C) Slow shutter with diffused lighting
D) Low ISO and fast shutter speed
  • 34. Two investigators photographed the same bullet trajectory. One used wide-angle; the other used telephoto. Which issue may arise in court?
A) Wide-angle may alter spatial relationships
B) Telephoto eliminates shadow accuracy
C) Wide-angle removes depth of field
D) Telephoto may distort the color temperature
  • 35. A digital camera fails to record images despite allowing shutter release. Which part should be checked FIRST?
A) Lens focusing ring
B) Memory card slot
C) ISO control
D) Image sensor
  • 36. When photographing very small fibers, which lens type ensures optimum magnification and detail?
A) Ultra-wide lens
B) Macro lens
C) Standard lens
D) Telephoto lens
  • 37. The investigator needs to minimize image noise while maintaining brightness. The most suitable action is—
A) Increase shutter speed
B) Raise ISO and narrow aperture
C) Lower ISO and widen aperture
D) Disable autofocus
  • 38. When using a manual/analogue camera in a dim room, which adjustment compensates for the absence of digital ISO controls?
A) Rotating memory dial
B) Changing film advance lever
C) Adjusting lens mount
D) Selecting higher ASA film
  • 39. A wide-angle lens produces slight edge distortion in scene photos. How may this affect forensic interpretation?
A) May increase exposure stability
B) May shift color temperature drastically
C) May remove shadow details entirely
D) May misrepresent the distance between objects
  • 40. A camera shows blurry close-up images despite proper lighting. Review indicates the photographer used a telephoto lens at minimum focusing distance. What is the likely cause?
A) Telephoto lenses cannot capture contrast
B) Minimum focusing distance exceeded
C) Shutter curtain failed to synchronize
D) Image sensor malfunctioned
  • 41. Which principle best explains why forensic chemists must use validated analytical procedures when examining seized chemical evidence?
A) To ensure evidence is stored in climate-controlled facilities
B) To guarantee results are reproducible and legally defensible
C) To prevent the need for confirmatory testing
D) To allow investigators to bypass the chain of custody
  • 42. The significance of toxicological findings in court primarily depends on which factor?
A) The interpretation of toxin concentration relative to physiological effects
B) The popularity of the analytical instrument used
C) The financial value of the toxic substance detected
D) The quantity of samples submitted by the investigator
  • 43. Which statement correctly differentiates preliminary from confirmatory tests in forensic chemistry?
A) Preliminary tests require accreditation, while confirmatory tests do not
B) Preliminary tests permanently identify a substance, while confirmatory tests only screen
C) Confirmatory tests rely on color changes, while preliminary tests use instrumentation
D) Preliminary tests are presumptive, while confirmatory tests specifically identify substances
  • 44. A crime scene technician performs a Kastle-Meyer test on a red stain and obtains a rapid pink color change. What is the MOST appropriate next step to ensure admissibility?
A) Collect only photographs since the test already confirmed blood
B) Disregard the sample due to possible contamination
C) Perform a confirmatory test, such as a Takayama or Teichmann test
D) Conclude immediately that the stain is human blood
  • 45. During the collection of semen evidence on fabric, which procedure BEST preserves its forensic value?
A) Air-drying the fabric and placing it in a breathable paper container
B) Folding the fabric tightly to secure the stain
C) Packaging the moist fabric in plastic to prevent air exposure
D) Applying heat to accelerate drying before packaging`
  • 46. While collecting glass fragments from a hit-and-run scene, which action MOST ensures accurate comparative analysis?
A) Placing fragments into cotton-filled plastic bags to minimize noise
B) Mixing all fragments from different areas into one container
C) Separating fragments by size and origin before sealing
D) Cleaning the fragments with water before packaging
  • 47. A victim is suspected of poisoning from an organophosphate pesticide. Which treatment is MOST appropriate to administer based on toxicological principles?
A) Activated charcoal only
B) High-dose vitamin K therapy
C) Atropine with pralidoxime (2-PAM)
D) Sodium bicarbonate infusion
  • 48. A forensic toxicologist must distinguish between cyanide poisoning and carbon monoxide poisoning. Which comparison is MOST forensically relevant?
A) Carbon monoxide smells like almonds, while cyanide has no odor
B) Cyanide causes cherry-red skin, while carbon monoxide does not
C) Carbon monoxide poisoning typically changes blood to greenish color
D) Cyanide inhibits cellular respiration, while carbon monoxide forms carboxyhemoglobin
  • 49. Which of the following is classified as a public document?
A) A company memo
B) A handwritten personal letter
C) A notarized affidavit
D) A personal diary
  • 50. Which equipment is primarily used to detect indented writing on a questioned document?
A) IR lamp
B) VSC
C) Stereomicroscope
D) ESDA
  • 51. A document examiner uses an infrared light source to evaluate a questioned contract. Which issue is this technique MOST suited to detect?
A) Paper fiber uniqueness
B) Chemical erasures or overwritten ink
C) Pen pressure inconsistencies
D) The presence of signature tremors
  • 52. A faded receipt is examined using a Video Spectral Comparator. What is the main advantage of this tool?
A) It detects the weight of ink residue
B) It magnifies handwriting strokes up to 1000x
C) It reveals erased or overwritten text using multi-spectral imaging
D) It measures paper thickness with high precision
  • 53. An altered bank document shows mismatched ink under UV light. This discrepancy indicates:
A) The paper is of inferior quality
B) Ink from different batches or pens was used
C) The document contains natural handwriting variation
D) The writer used excessive pressure when signing
  • 54. A signature shows slow movement, tremors, and unnatural pauses. What type of forgery is MOST likely present?
A) Natural variation
B) Forgery through tracing
C) Freehand imitation
D) Disguised signature
  • 55. A questioned signature shows heavy pen pressure at the beginning and end of strokes, uncommon in the writer’s known samples. What does this suggest?
A) The writer was in a hurry
B) The signature may be simulated
C) Ink used was incompatible
D) It is an authentic signature
  • 56. A handwriting expert compares known and questioned writings. He observes the same unique pen lift pattern before the letter "t." What principle is being applied?
A) Line quality analysis
B) Individual characteristics
C) Class characteristics
D) Natural variation
  • 57. A check shows altered numbers where the original ink reacts differently under IR examination. What is the conclusion?
A) The paper is counterfeit
B) The ink was exposed to moisture
C) The lighting technique was incorrect
D) Alteration likely occurred
  • 58. A forged document shows uniform spacing and mechanical alignment in the signature. This is characteristic of:
A) Signature stamp or machine signature
B) Simulation
C) Typewriter output
D) Freehand forgery
  • 59. The examiner notices baseline drift and inconsistent slant in a questioned handwritten note. What does this BEST indicate?
A) Habitual writing behavior
B) Impairment or loss of motor control
C) A natural signature variation
D) Possible disguise attempt
  • 60. A suspect denies authorship of a document. The examiner requests "extended handwriting specimens." Why?
A) To assess quality of ink
B) To observe fatigue in writing
C) To obtain a sufficient range of natural variation
D) To determine paper density
  • 61. A contract shows two lines written with identical flow, pressure, and shading but different pen tips under microscopic view. What does this imply?
A) A mechanical copying method was used
B) The writing is genuine
C) The paper absorbed ink unevenly
D) The writer used two pens intentionally
  • 62. A signature appears genuine in line quality but contradicts the writer’s usual habit of connecting letters. Microscopic analysis shows deliberate stops between strokes. What is the most reasonable conclusion?
A) The signature is authentic with natural variation
B) The writer was under stress
C) The ink has degraded over time
D) The signature is simulated
  • 63. A banknote passes the watermark test but fails the UV fluorescence test. What does this contrast MOST likely indicate?
A) It is a hybrid counterfeit using mixed materials
B) The security thread has naturally faded
C) The UV lamp is defective
D) The note is genuine but old
  • 64. A suspected fake ID shows correct hologram placement but inconsistent microprinting under magnification. What is the strongest conclusion?
A) Microprinting is naturally variable
B) The ID is authentic but worn out
C) The hologram was transferred from a real ID
D) The document was damaged by moisture
  • 65. Which of the following is a primary physiological indicator used in polygraph examinations?
A) Blood pressure
B) Eye color
C) Pupil dilation
D) Skin conductance
  • 66. Polygraph accuracy can be significantly affected by which factor?
A) Ambient room temperature only
B) Subject’s favorite color
C) Examiner skill and experience
D) Length of examination only
  • 67. Why are control questions used in polygraph tests?
A) To directly detect lies about the incident
B) To establish baseline physiological responses for comparison
C) To confuse the subject and induce errors
D) To determine the subject’s memory capacity
  • 68. How can a subject’s psychological state affect polygraph accuracy?
A) Anxiety or fear may exaggerate physiological responses
B) It has no measurable effect
C) It improves the detection of deception automatically
D) Only physical factors matter, not psychological
  • 69. During which phase of polygraph examination is the subject first interviewed?
A) Control phase
B) Post-test phase
C) Pre-test phase
D) In-test phase
  • 70. A sudden spike in galvanic skin response is observed on the chart. This is likely recorded using:
A) Cardiograph
B) Thermometer
C) Galvanometer
D) Pneumograph
  • 71. If a subject reacts strongly to a control question but minimally to a relevant question, the examiner should:
A) Consider the relevant question deceptive
B) Restart the entire test
C) Consider the control response valid and relevant response non-deceptive
D) Ignore both responses
  • 72. Which polygraph component measures respiration?
A) Galvanometer
B) Pneumograph
C) Cardio sensor
D) Computer software
  • 73. What is the purpose of irrelevant questions in a polygraph test?
A) To test memory retention
B) To confuse the subject
C) To directly confirm deception
D) To establish baseline physiological responses
  • 74. How should chart markings be interpreted during evaluation?
A) By ignoring baseline readings
B) Only by visual inspection
C) By comparing responses to relevant, control, and irrelevant questions
D) Only using computer software
  • 75. A polygraph examiner notes inconsistent heart rate changes across all question types. The next step is:
A) Ignore inconsistencies
B) Ask more irrelevant questions
C) Declare deception immediately
D) Re-evaluate data and consider external factors
  • 76. An examiner observes that a subject’s physiological responses are unusually flat. Which evaluation is most appropriate?
A) Consider possible countermeasures or medical conditions affecting accuracy
B) Ignore the responses and continue
C) Increase the number of relevant questions
D) Conclude deception automatically
  • 77. A polygraph test shows strong responses to irrelevant questions but mild responses to relevant questions. What can be inferred?
A) Subject is definitely truthful
B) Subject’s baseline responses are high, making relevant responses less conclusive
C) Subject is likely deceptive
D) Examiner should add more control questions
  • 78. Comparing reactions to control and relevant questions helps the examiner to:
A) Measure subject’s memory accuracy
B) Determine the subject’s emotional intelligence
C) Predict subject’s future behavior
D) Analyze physiological deviation and detect deception
  • 79. Which instrument is primarily used to compare the striations on two bullets?
A) Ballistic chronograph
B) Caliper
C) Rifling gauge
D) Comparison microscope
  • 80. Why is photographing ballistic evidence before collection important at a crime scene?
A) It ensures visual documentation of position and condition
B) It helps in measuring rifling impressions
C) It prevents contamination of evidence
D) It identifies the firearm used
  • 81. During crime scene processing, which procedure ensures proper chain of custody?
A) Photographing the suspect
B) Testing the firearm immediately
C) Documenting every transfer and storage of evidence
D) Comparing bullets in the laboratory
  • 82. Which of the following best explains the role of ballistic evidence presentation in court?
A) To show expert’s opinion without physical exhibits
B) To demonstrate internal ballistics to the jury
C) To determine the shooter’s intent
D) To illustrate the relationship between firearms, bullets, and cartridge cases
  • 83. What is the main purpose of using a ballistic chronograph in firearm examination?
A) To measure bullet speed and trajectory
B) To document cartridge case markings
C) To compare rifling impressions
D) To identify firearm serial numbers
  • 84. Which precaution is essential when presenting a firearm in court?
A) Testing bullets in front of the jury
B) Loading the firearm to demonstrate firing
C) Removing all ammunition and rendering it safe
D) Disassembling the firearm in open court
  • 85. A bullet recovered from a crime scene has rifling impressions matching a suspect’s firearm. This analysis demonstrates:
A) Class characteristics
B) Terminal ballistics
C) Internal ballistics
D) Individual characteristics
  • 86. A revolver is classified under which type of firearm?
A) Handgun
B) Rifle
C) Shotgun
D) Machine gun
  • 87. Which part of ammunition ignites the gunpowder when struck?
A) Cartridge case
B) Bullet
C) Firing pin
D) Primer
  • 88. Determining the trajectory of a bullet after it leaves the barrel is an example of:
A) Terminal ballistics
B) Forensic ballistics
C) Internal ballistics
D) External ballistics
  • 89. A fired cartridge case exhibits unique marks from the extractor and ejector. These are examples of:
A) Ammunition design
B) Internal ballistics
C) Class characteristics
D) Individual characteristics
  • 90. Identifying the make and model of a firearm based on caliber and rifling is an example of:
A) Individual characteristics
B) External ballistics
C) Terminal ballistics
D) Class characteristics
  • 91. Which branch of ballistics studies the effect of a bullet on a target?
A) Forensic ballistics
B) Internal ballistics
C) External ballistics
D) Terminal ballistics
  • 92. A semi-automatic rifle is fired, and the bullet path is traced to a tree. This investigation falls under:
A) Internal ballistics
B) Firearm classification
C) External ballistics
D) Terminal ballistics
  • 93. Which ammunition component determines the bullet’s size and fit within the barrel?
A) Primer
B) Bullet
C) Gunpowder
D) Cartridge case
  • 94. An expert concludes that multiple bullets came from the same firearm after analysis. This conclusion is most critical for:
A) Determining class characteristics
B) Establishing individual characteristics
C) Assessing external ballistics
D) Evaluating firearm classification
  • 95. What is the safest way to collect a firearm at a crime scene?
A) Remove ammunition and secure the firearm
B) Keep it loaded while packaging
C) Hand it to anyone nearby
D) Test fire before collection
  • 96. Why is assigning identification numbers to bullets and cartridge cases essential?
A) To determine firearm make and model
B) To maintain chain of custody and avoid confusion
C) To assess terminal ballistics
D) To measure bullet velocity accurately
  • 97. During evidence preservation, why must firearms be stored in controlled environments?
A) To load them for demonstration
B) To prevent corrosion and preserve markings
C) To analyze gunpowder separately
D) To test them before court
  • 98. Which factor is critical when handling fired cartridge cases to prevent contamination?
A) Wearing gloves and using appropriate packaging
B) Polishing them for clarity
C) Keeping them in open air
D) Cleaning them immediately
  • 99. You are tasked to create a forensic report for court presentation on a complex case involving multiple types of evidence. Which of the following approaches best ensures the report is both legally defensible and scientifically rigorous?
A) Limit technical explanations to avoid confusing the court.
B) Include only results that support the prosecution’s case to simplify reading.
C) Use highly technical language throughout to demonstrate expertise.
D) Organize the report systematically, include all findings, and provide clear interpretations.
  • 100. While handling a chemical sample in the laboratory, you notice a minor spill. What is the most appropriate immediate action according to standard laboratory safety procedures?
A) Call security personnel to remove the chemical immediately.
B) Contain and clean the spill following the laboratory’s spill protocol while wearing proper PPE.
C) Evacuate the laboratory and leave the spill unattended.
D) Continue the experiment and report the spill after finishing.
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