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ECHO 1_AREA2
Contributed by: Magbanua
  • 1. Which characteristic makes dental identification unique among other biological identifiers?
A) Teeth change shape with age
B) Teeth regenerate after severe trauma
C) Teeth resist decomposition and extreme heat
D) Teeth provide genetic information directly
  • 2. The Henry FBI Classification System primarily serves what purpose?
A) To organize fingerprint cards for retrieval
B) To classify latent prints at crime scenes
C) To detect forged fingerprints
D) To measure ridge density
  • 3. Why is dental charting superior during mass fatality incidents?
A) Dental charts contain compulsory genetic markers
B) Dental features rarely match across victims
C) It requires no prior dental records
D) Dentition is highly resistant to post-mortem damage
  • 4. In the Henry FBI system, what is the role of the Secondary Classification?
A) It determines which fingerprints are suitable for database entry
B) It refines the filing sequence using ridge patterns on index fingers
C) It identifies Level 3 pore characteristics
D) It classifies latent prints with insufficient ridge flow
  • 5. Which of the following best describes the purpose of descriptive biometric analysis (DBA)?
A) To analyze DNA in partially decomposed bodies
B) To categorize fingerprints by their whorl values
C) To match physical traits when friction ridges are unavailable
D) To measure body temperature variations post-mortem
  • 6. Why must classified fingerprint cards be arranged in numerical order?
A) It allows automatic destruction of old records
B) It segregates fingerprints by ethnicity and age
C) It prevents contamination of fingerprint ink
D) It ensures standardized filing and efficient retrieval
  • 7. A latent print contains clear bifurcations but lacks a visible core and delta. How should the examiner classify it?
A) As a loop pattern
B) As pattern-indeterminate
C) As a whorl pattern
D) As an arch pattern
  • 8. A fingerprint with two deltas and circular ridge flow should be classified as a:
A) Tented arch
B) Plain whorl
C) Radial loop
D) Composite pattern
  • 9. Two prints share equal ridge counts but differ significantly in ridge flow direction. What should the examiner apply?
A) Ridge count principle
B) Principle of permanence
C) Ridge density standard
D) Principle of individuality
  • 10. A loop fingerprint shows ridge irregularities due to surface distortion. How should the examiner evaluate these irregularities?
A) Evaluate minutiae configuration rather than the overall loop pattern
B) Convert the loop pattern into a whorl for easier analysis
C) Ignore minutiae and classify using pattern shape only
D) Reject the print based solely on the pattern
  • 11. Which principle justifies the admissibility of fingerprint evidence in court due to its unchanging nature?
A) Permanence
B) Multiplicity
C) Universality
D) Divergence
  • 12. Two fingerprints share ridge endings in the same area but differ in pore positions and ridge edge shapes. What conclusion is most accurate?
A) They originate from different individuals based on Level 3 differences
B) They belong to the same individual because ridge endings match
C) They are inconclusive due to lack of Level 1 detail
D) They can be considered identical after applying ridge counting
  • 13. A corpse has severely dried fingers. What method should be applied before taking prints?
A) Cut the finger and discard the skin
B) Use iodine fuming before rolling
C) Use rehydration or tissue-builder injection
D) Apply magnetic powder
  • 14. You must immediately develop latent prints on a smooth glass surface. What method is most suitable?
A) Ninhydrin
B) Iodine fuming
C) Powder dusting
D) Silver nitrate
  • 15. A rolled impression shows smudging due to downward pressure. How should the technician correct this?
A) Use only plain impressions instead of rolled
B) Reduce pressure and allow natural rolling
C) Roll the finger faster to limit distortion
D) Increase pressure to improve contrast
  • 16. A latent print on porous paper requires chemical development. Which sequence is best?
A) Powder → cyanoacrylate → magnetic powder
B) Superglue → black powder → ALS
C) Ninhydrin → DFO → silver nitrate as needed
D) DFO → ninhydrin → water rinse
  • 17. A latent print on rough, uneven wood must be preserved. What lifting method is appropriate?
A) Ink transfer
B) Gel lifter
C) Heat transfer sheet
D) Adhesive tape
  • 18. After cyanoacrylate fuming, ridge detail appears faint. Why does applying powder improve visibility?
A) Powder chemically dissolves cyanoacrylate
B) Cyanoacrylate prevents any further enhancement
C) Powder converts pores into visible white marks
D) The hardened cyanoacrylate surface enhances powder adhesion
  • 19. During the Analysis phase, you find a latent print with limited ridge clarity. What should you do?
A) Immediately declare the print an identification
B) Decide whether the print is suitable before moving on
C) Skip analysis and ask for supervisor approval
D) Proceed directly to comparison
  • 20. A verifier receives a fingerprint case already evaluated by another examiner. What method ensures objectivity?
A) Reviewing the first examiner’s notes first
B) Rejecting the first examiner’s conclusion automatically
C) Reprocessing the evidence using different chemicals
D) Conducting blind and independent verification
  • 21. Which principle of photography refers to arranging visual elements to create a balanced and meaningful image?
A) Spectral Quality
B) Exposure Value
C) Light Intensity
D) Composition
  • 22. What type of flash produces illumination directly toward the subject without redirection?
A) Rear-Curtain Flash
B) Direct Flash
C) Off-Camera Flash
D) Bounce Flash
  • 23. Hard light creates which characteristic effect on forensic photographs?
A) Minimal textural visibility
B) Soft blending of edges
C) Lower contrast on surfaces
D) Increased shadow definition
  • 24. Bounce flash is preferred in indoor crime scenes because it—
A) Uses stronger wattage for sharp detail
B) Produces softer and more diffused illumination
C) Eliminates the need for a tripod
D) Enhances only reflective surfaces
  • 25. Why is color temperature crucial in forensic documentation?
A) It ensures faithful representation of evidence colors
B) It determines the shutter speed accuracy
C) It avoids lens distortion
D) It limits the depth of field range
  • 26. The rule of thirds primarily helps the investigator achieve what goal?
A) Improve visual clarity and subject positioning
B) Prevent overexposure
C) Increase flash synchronization
D) Ensure realistic color tones
  • 27. An investigator photographs a low-light indoor scene without using flash. Which exposure adjustment is MOST appropriate to avoid motion blur?
A) Increase ISO to a higher value
B) Use a slower shutter speed
C) Reduce ISO to 100
D) Narrow the aperture to f/16
  • 28. When photographing a bloodstain pattern, the photographer must use a scale placed next to the stain. This procedural act demonstrates which forensic principle?
A) Exaggeration Prevention Rule
B) Evidence Size Documentation
C) Background Neutralization
D) Horizontal Composition Rule
  • 29. You must photograph a shoeprint at an oblique angle. Which camera setting will best enhance subtle surface details?
A) Slow shutter, high ISO
B) Small aperture, low ISO
C) Wide aperture, auto ISO
D) High ISO, fast shutter
  • 30. In photographing a dark outdoor crime scene, which action maximizes proper exposure without altering evidence?
A) Adjusting lens zoom to crop shadows
B) Moving the evidence closer to artificial light
C) Increasing shutter time using a tripod
D) Increasing flash power directly at the evidence
  • 31. During medium-range shots, the photographer must capture evidence relative to fixed surroundings. This ensures—
A) Depth of field is minimized
B) Flash reflection is avoided
C) Scene orientation is established
D) Light intensity remains constant
  • 32. When capturing fingerprints using an alternate light source, the photographer must adjust the camera to—
A) Match the wavelength with white balance settings
B) Increase shutter speed to darken fluorescence
C) Disable macro mode to avoid magnification
D) Use high ISO to enhance ambient background
  • 33. A crime scene photo appears overly bright with loss of detail on reflective surfaces. Which combination MOST likely caused the error?
A) Low ISO and fast shutter speed
B) Narrow aperture with rear flash
C) High ISO and wide aperture
D) Slow shutter with diffused lighting
  • 34. Two investigators photographed the same bullet trajectory. One used wide-angle; the other used telephoto. Which issue may arise in court?
A) Telephoto eliminates shadow accuracy
B) Wide-angle may alter spatial relationships
C) Telephoto may distort the color temperature
D) Wide-angle removes depth of field
  • 35. A digital camera fails to record images despite allowing shutter release. Which part should be checked FIRST?
A) Image sensor
B) Lens focusing ring
C) Memory card slot
D) ISO control
  • 36. When photographing very small fibers, which lens type ensures optimum magnification and detail?
A) Ultra-wide lens
B) Standard lens
C) Macro lens
D) Telephoto lens
  • 37. The investigator needs to minimize image noise while maintaining brightness. The most suitable action is—
A) Disable autofocus
B) Raise ISO and narrow aperture
C) Lower ISO and widen aperture
D) Increase shutter speed
  • 38. When using a manual/analogue camera in a dim room, which adjustment compensates for the absence of digital ISO controls?
A) Selecting higher ASA film
B) Rotating memory dial
C) Changing film advance lever
D) Adjusting lens mount
  • 39. A wide-angle lens produces slight edge distortion in scene photos. How may this affect forensic interpretation?
A) May increase exposure stability
B) May remove shadow details entirely
C) May shift color temperature drastically
D) May misrepresent the distance between objects
  • 40. A camera shows blurry close-up images despite proper lighting. Review indicates the photographer used a telephoto lens at minimum focusing distance. What is the likely cause?
A) Shutter curtain failed to synchronize
B) Minimum focusing distance exceeded
C) Telephoto lenses cannot capture contrast
D) Image sensor malfunctioned
  • 41. Which principle best explains why forensic chemists must use validated analytical procedures when examining seized chemical evidence?
A) To guarantee results are reproducible and legally defensible
B) To prevent the need for confirmatory testing
C) To ensure evidence is stored in climate-controlled facilities
D) To allow investigators to bypass the chain of custody
  • 42. The significance of toxicological findings in court primarily depends on which factor?
A) The interpretation of toxin concentration relative to physiological effects
B) The popularity of the analytical instrument used
C) The financial value of the toxic substance detected
D) The quantity of samples submitted by the investigator
  • 43. Which statement correctly differentiates preliminary from confirmatory tests in forensic chemistry?
A) Confirmatory tests rely on color changes, while preliminary tests use instrumentation
B) Preliminary tests are presumptive, while confirmatory tests specifically identify substances
C) Preliminary tests permanently identify a substance, while confirmatory tests only screen
D) Preliminary tests require accreditation, while confirmatory tests do not
  • 44. A crime scene technician performs a Kastle-Meyer test on a red stain and obtains a rapid pink color change. What is the MOST appropriate next step to ensure admissibility?
A) Perform a confirmatory test, such as a Takayama or Teichmann test
B) Collect only photographs since the test already confirmed blood
C) Disregard the sample due to possible contamination
D) Conclude immediately that the stain is human blood
  • 45. During the collection of semen evidence on fabric, which procedure BEST preserves its forensic value?
A) Packaging the moist fabric in plastic to prevent air exposure
B) Folding the fabric tightly to secure the stain
C) Applying heat to accelerate drying before packaging`
D) Air-drying the fabric and placing it in a breathable paper container
  • 46. While collecting glass fragments from a hit-and-run scene, which action MOST ensures accurate comparative analysis?
A) Separating fragments by size and origin before sealing
B) Placing fragments into cotton-filled plastic bags to minimize noise
C) Cleaning the fragments with water before packaging
D) Mixing all fragments from different areas into one container
  • 47. A victim is suspected of poisoning from an organophosphate pesticide. Which treatment is MOST appropriate to administer based on toxicological principles?
A) High-dose vitamin K therapy
B) Activated charcoal only
C) Atropine with pralidoxime (2-PAM)
D) Sodium bicarbonate infusion
  • 48. A forensic toxicologist must distinguish between cyanide poisoning and carbon monoxide poisoning. Which comparison is MOST forensically relevant?
A) Cyanide inhibits cellular respiration, while carbon monoxide forms carboxyhemoglobin
B) Cyanide causes cherry-red skin, while carbon monoxide does not
C) Carbon monoxide poisoning typically changes blood to greenish color
D) Carbon monoxide smells like almonds, while cyanide has no odor
  • 49. Which of the following is classified as a public document?
A) A notarized affidavit
B) A personal diary
C) A company memo
D) A handwritten personal letter
  • 50. Which equipment is primarily used to detect indented writing on a questioned document?
A) VSC
B) ESDA
C) IR lamp
D) Stereomicroscope
  • 51. A document examiner uses an infrared light source to evaluate a questioned contract. Which issue is this technique MOST suited to detect?
A) The presence of signature tremors
B) Paper fiber uniqueness
C) Chemical erasures or overwritten ink
D) Pen pressure inconsistencies
  • 52. A faded receipt is examined using a Video Spectral Comparator. What is the main advantage of this tool?
A) It magnifies handwriting strokes up to 1000x
B) It measures paper thickness with high precision
C) It reveals erased or overwritten text using multi-spectral imaging
D) It detects the weight of ink residue
  • 53. An altered bank document shows mismatched ink under UV light. This discrepancy indicates:
A) The writer used excessive pressure when signing
B) The document contains natural handwriting variation
C) The paper is of inferior quality
D) Ink from different batches or pens was used
  • 54. A signature shows slow movement, tremors, and unnatural pauses. What type of forgery is MOST likely present?
A) Disguised signature
B) Freehand imitation
C) Forgery through tracing
D) Natural variation
  • 55. A questioned signature shows heavy pen pressure at the beginning and end of strokes, uncommon in the writer’s known samples. What does this suggest?
A) It is an authentic signature
B) The signature may be simulated
C) The writer was in a hurry
D) Ink used was incompatible
  • 56. A handwriting expert compares known and questioned writings. He observes the same unique pen lift pattern before the letter "t." What principle is being applied?
A) Natural variation
B) Class characteristics
C) Individual characteristics
D) Line quality analysis
  • 57. A check shows altered numbers where the original ink reacts differently under IR examination. What is the conclusion?
A) Alteration likely occurred
B) The ink was exposed to moisture
C) The lighting technique was incorrect
D) The paper is counterfeit
  • 58. A forged document shows uniform spacing and mechanical alignment in the signature. This is characteristic of:
A) Simulation
B) Typewriter output
C) Signature stamp or machine signature
D) Freehand forgery
  • 59. The examiner notices baseline drift and inconsistent slant in a questioned handwritten note. What does this BEST indicate?
A) A natural signature variation
B) Impairment or loss of motor control
C) Possible disguise attempt
D) Habitual writing behavior
  • 60. A suspect denies authorship of a document. The examiner requests "extended handwriting specimens." Why?
A) To determine paper density
B) To assess quality of ink
C) To obtain a sufficient range of natural variation
D) To observe fatigue in writing
  • 61. A contract shows two lines written with identical flow, pressure, and shading but different pen tips under microscopic view. What does this imply?
A) The writer used two pens intentionally
B) The paper absorbed ink unevenly
C) A mechanical copying method was used
D) The writing is genuine
  • 62. A signature appears genuine in line quality but contradicts the writer’s usual habit of connecting letters. Microscopic analysis shows deliberate stops between strokes. What is the most reasonable conclusion?
A) The writer was under stress
B) The signature is simulated
C) The ink has degraded over time
D) The signature is authentic with natural variation
  • 63. A banknote passes the watermark test but fails the UV fluorescence test. What does this contrast MOST likely indicate?
A) It is a hybrid counterfeit using mixed materials
B) The note is genuine but old
C) The UV lamp is defective
D) The security thread has naturally faded
  • 64. A suspected fake ID shows correct hologram placement but inconsistent microprinting under magnification. What is the strongest conclusion?
A) The hologram was transferred from a real ID
B) The ID is authentic but worn out
C) Microprinting is naturally variable
D) The document was damaged by moisture
  • 65. Which of the following is a primary physiological indicator used in polygraph examinations?
A) Eye color
B) Skin conductance
C) Pupil dilation
D) Blood pressure
  • 66. Polygraph accuracy can be significantly affected by which factor?
A) Ambient room temperature only
B) Subject’s favorite color
C) Examiner skill and experience
D) Length of examination only
  • 67. Why are control questions used in polygraph tests?
A) To directly detect lies about the incident
B) To determine the subject’s memory capacity
C) To confuse the subject and induce errors
D) To establish baseline physiological responses for comparison
  • 68. How can a subject’s psychological state affect polygraph accuracy?
A) It has no measurable effect
B) It improves the detection of deception automatically
C) Only physical factors matter, not psychological
D) Anxiety or fear may exaggerate physiological responses
  • 69. During which phase of polygraph examination is the subject first interviewed?
A) In-test phase
B) Pre-test phase
C) Post-test phase
D) Control phase
  • 70. A sudden spike in galvanic skin response is observed on the chart. This is likely recorded using:
A) Thermometer
B) Pneumograph
C) Cardiograph
D) Galvanometer
  • 71. If a subject reacts strongly to a control question but minimally to a relevant question, the examiner should:
A) Restart the entire test
B) Ignore both responses
C) Consider the relevant question deceptive
D) Consider the control response valid and relevant response non-deceptive
  • 72. Which polygraph component measures respiration?
A) Cardio sensor
B) Pneumograph
C) Computer software
D) Galvanometer
  • 73. What is the purpose of irrelevant questions in a polygraph test?
A) To directly confirm deception
B) To test memory retention
C) To establish baseline physiological responses
D) To confuse the subject
  • 74. How should chart markings be interpreted during evaluation?
A) Only by visual inspection
B) Only using computer software
C) By ignoring baseline readings
D) By comparing responses to relevant, control, and irrelevant questions
  • 75. A polygraph examiner notes inconsistent heart rate changes across all question types. The next step is:
A) Declare deception immediately
B) Ignore inconsistencies
C) Re-evaluate data and consider external factors
D) Ask more irrelevant questions
  • 76. An examiner observes that a subject’s physiological responses are unusually flat. Which evaluation is most appropriate?
A) Increase the number of relevant questions
B) Consider possible countermeasures or medical conditions affecting accuracy
C) Conclude deception automatically
D) Ignore the responses and continue
  • 77. A polygraph test shows strong responses to irrelevant questions but mild responses to relevant questions. What can be inferred?
A) Subject’s baseline responses are high, making relevant responses less conclusive
B) Subject is likely deceptive
C) Examiner should add more control questions
D) Subject is definitely truthful
  • 78. Comparing reactions to control and relevant questions helps the examiner to:
A) Measure subject’s memory accuracy
B) Determine the subject’s emotional intelligence
C) Analyze physiological deviation and detect deception
D) Predict subject’s future behavior
  • 79. Which instrument is primarily used to compare the striations on two bullets?
A) Comparison microscope
B) Rifling gauge
C) Caliper
D) Ballistic chronograph
  • 80. Why is photographing ballistic evidence before collection important at a crime scene?
A) It helps in measuring rifling impressions
B) It identifies the firearm used
C) It prevents contamination of evidence
D) It ensures visual documentation of position and condition
  • 81. During crime scene processing, which procedure ensures proper chain of custody?
A) Comparing bullets in the laboratory
B) Documenting every transfer and storage of evidence
C) Photographing the suspect
D) Testing the firearm immediately
  • 82. Which of the following best explains the role of ballistic evidence presentation in court?
A) To determine the shooter’s intent
B) To illustrate the relationship between firearms, bullets, and cartridge cases
C) To demonstrate internal ballistics to the jury
D) To show expert’s opinion without physical exhibits
  • 83. What is the main purpose of using a ballistic chronograph in firearm examination?
A) To document cartridge case markings
B) To measure bullet speed and trajectory
C) To compare rifling impressions
D) To identify firearm serial numbers
  • 84. Which precaution is essential when presenting a firearm in court?
A) Removing all ammunition and rendering it safe
B) Loading the firearm to demonstrate firing
C) Disassembling the firearm in open court
D) Testing bullets in front of the jury
  • 85. A bullet recovered from a crime scene has rifling impressions matching a suspect’s firearm. This analysis demonstrates:
A) Individual characteristics
B) Internal ballistics
C) Class characteristics
D) Terminal ballistics
  • 86. A revolver is classified under which type of firearm?
A) Shotgun
B) Rifle
C) Machine gun
D) Handgun
  • 87. Which part of ammunition ignites the gunpowder when struck?
A) Cartridge case
B) Primer
C) Bullet
D) Firing pin
  • 88. Determining the trajectory of a bullet after it leaves the barrel is an example of:
A) Forensic ballistics
B) Internal ballistics
C) Terminal ballistics
D) External ballistics
  • 89. A fired cartridge case exhibits unique marks from the extractor and ejector. These are examples of:
A) Ammunition design
B) Class characteristics
C) Individual characteristics
D) Internal ballistics
  • 90. Identifying the make and model of a firearm based on caliber and rifling is an example of:
A) External ballistics
B) Class characteristics
C) Individual characteristics
D) Terminal ballistics
  • 91. Which branch of ballistics studies the effect of a bullet on a target?
A) Internal ballistics
B) Terminal ballistics
C) Forensic ballistics
D) External ballistics
  • 92. A semi-automatic rifle is fired, and the bullet path is traced to a tree. This investigation falls under:
A) Firearm classification
B) External ballistics
C) Internal ballistics
D) Terminal ballistics
  • 93. Which ammunition component determines the bullet’s size and fit within the barrel?
A) Cartridge case
B) Primer
C) Gunpowder
D) Bullet
  • 94. An expert concludes that multiple bullets came from the same firearm after analysis. This conclusion is most critical for:
A) Determining class characteristics
B) Assessing external ballistics
C) Establishing individual characteristics
D) Evaluating firearm classification
  • 95. What is the safest way to collect a firearm at a crime scene?
A) Remove ammunition and secure the firearm
B) Test fire before collection
C) Hand it to anyone nearby
D) Keep it loaded while packaging
  • 96. Why is assigning identification numbers to bullets and cartridge cases essential?
A) To maintain chain of custody and avoid confusion
B) To determine firearm make and model
C) To measure bullet velocity accurately
D) To assess terminal ballistics
  • 97. During evidence preservation, why must firearms be stored in controlled environments?
A) To prevent corrosion and preserve markings
B) To test them before court
C) To analyze gunpowder separately
D) To load them for demonstration
  • 98. Which factor is critical when handling fired cartridge cases to prevent contamination?
A) Keeping them in open air
B) Cleaning them immediately
C) Wearing gloves and using appropriate packaging
D) Polishing them for clarity
  • 99. You are tasked to create a forensic report for court presentation on a complex case involving multiple types of evidence. Which of the following approaches best ensures the report is both legally defensible and scientifically rigorous?
A) Limit technical explanations to avoid confusing the court.
B) Include only results that support the prosecution’s case to simplify reading.
C) Organize the report systematically, include all findings, and provide clear interpretations.
D) Use highly technical language throughout to demonstrate expertise.
  • 100. While handling a chemical sample in the laboratory, you notice a minor spill. What is the most appropriate immediate action according to standard laboratory safety procedures?
A) Evacuate the laboratory and leave the spill unattended.
B) Continue the experiment and report the spill after finishing.
C) Contain and clean the spill following the laboratory’s spill protocol while wearing proper PPE.
D) Call security personnel to remove the chemical immediately.
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