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ECHO 1_AREA2
Contributed by: Magbanua
  • 1. Which characteristic makes dental identification unique among other biological identifiers?
A) Teeth change shape with age
B) Teeth resist decomposition and extreme heat
C) Teeth provide genetic information directly
D) Teeth regenerate after severe trauma
  • 2. The Henry FBI Classification System primarily serves what purpose?
A) To measure ridge density
B) To detect forged fingerprints
C) To organize fingerprint cards for retrieval
D) To classify latent prints at crime scenes
  • 3. Why is dental charting superior during mass fatality incidents?
A) It requires no prior dental records
B) Dentition is highly resistant to post-mortem damage
C) Dental charts contain compulsory genetic markers
D) Dental features rarely match across victims
  • 4. In the Henry FBI system, what is the role of the Secondary Classification?
A) It determines which fingerprints are suitable for database entry
B) It identifies Level 3 pore characteristics
C) It refines the filing sequence using ridge patterns on index fingers
D) It classifies latent prints with insufficient ridge flow
  • 5. Which of the following best describes the purpose of descriptive biometric analysis (DBA)?
A) To categorize fingerprints by their whorl values
B) To analyze DNA in partially decomposed bodies
C) To measure body temperature variations post-mortem
D) To match physical traits when friction ridges are unavailable
  • 6. Why must classified fingerprint cards be arranged in numerical order?
A) It segregates fingerprints by ethnicity and age
B) It ensures standardized filing and efficient retrieval
C) It prevents contamination of fingerprint ink
D) It allows automatic destruction of old records
  • 7. A latent print contains clear bifurcations but lacks a visible core and delta. How should the examiner classify it?
A) As an arch pattern
B) As a whorl pattern
C) As pattern-indeterminate
D) As a loop pattern
  • 8. A fingerprint with two deltas and circular ridge flow should be classified as a:
A) Tented arch
B) Composite pattern
C) Plain whorl
D) Radial loop
  • 9. Two prints share equal ridge counts but differ significantly in ridge flow direction. What should the examiner apply?
A) Ridge density standard
B) Ridge count principle
C) Principle of permanence
D) Principle of individuality
  • 10. A loop fingerprint shows ridge irregularities due to surface distortion. How should the examiner evaluate these irregularities?
A) Ignore minutiae and classify using pattern shape only
B) Reject the print based solely on the pattern
C) Evaluate minutiae configuration rather than the overall loop pattern
D) Convert the loop pattern into a whorl for easier analysis
  • 11. Which principle justifies the admissibility of fingerprint evidence in court due to its unchanging nature?
A) Universality
B) Permanence
C) Multiplicity
D) Divergence
  • 12. Two fingerprints share ridge endings in the same area but differ in pore positions and ridge edge shapes. What conclusion is most accurate?
A) They can be considered identical after applying ridge counting
B) They belong to the same individual because ridge endings match
C) They originate from different individuals based on Level 3 differences
D) They are inconclusive due to lack of Level 1 detail
  • 13. A corpse has severely dried fingers. What method should be applied before taking prints?
A) Use rehydration or tissue-builder injection
B) Apply magnetic powder
C) Cut the finger and discard the skin
D) Use iodine fuming before rolling
  • 14. You must immediately develop latent prints on a smooth glass surface. What method is most suitable?
A) Powder dusting
B) Silver nitrate
C) Ninhydrin
D) Iodine fuming
  • 15. A rolled impression shows smudging due to downward pressure. How should the technician correct this?
A) Roll the finger faster to limit distortion
B) Increase pressure to improve contrast
C) Reduce pressure and allow natural rolling
D) Use only plain impressions instead of rolled
  • 16. A latent print on porous paper requires chemical development. Which sequence is best?
A) Powder → cyanoacrylate → magnetic powder
B) DFO → ninhydrin → water rinse
C) Ninhydrin → DFO → silver nitrate as needed
D) Superglue → black powder → ALS
  • 17. A latent print on rough, uneven wood must be preserved. What lifting method is appropriate?
A) Ink transfer
B) Gel lifter
C) Heat transfer sheet
D) Adhesive tape
  • 18. After cyanoacrylate fuming, ridge detail appears faint. Why does applying powder improve visibility?
A) Cyanoacrylate prevents any further enhancement
B) Powder chemically dissolves cyanoacrylate
C) The hardened cyanoacrylate surface enhances powder adhesion
D) Powder converts pores into visible white marks
  • 19. During the Analysis phase, you find a latent print with limited ridge clarity. What should you do?
A) Proceed directly to comparison
B) Immediately declare the print an identification
C) Decide whether the print is suitable before moving on
D) Skip analysis and ask for supervisor approval
  • 20. A verifier receives a fingerprint case already evaluated by another examiner. What method ensures objectivity?
A) Rejecting the first examiner’s conclusion automatically
B) Reprocessing the evidence using different chemicals
C) Conducting blind and independent verification
D) Reviewing the first examiner’s notes first
  • 21. Which principle of photography refers to arranging visual elements to create a balanced and meaningful image?
A) Light Intensity
B) Spectral Quality
C) Composition
D) Exposure Value
  • 22. What type of flash produces illumination directly toward the subject without redirection?
A) Direct Flash
B) Off-Camera Flash
C) Bounce Flash
D) Rear-Curtain Flash
  • 23. Hard light creates which characteristic effect on forensic photographs?
A) Lower contrast on surfaces
B) Minimal textural visibility
C) Soft blending of edges
D) Increased shadow definition
  • 24. Bounce flash is preferred in indoor crime scenes because it—
A) Enhances only reflective surfaces
B) Uses stronger wattage for sharp detail
C) Produces softer and more diffused illumination
D) Eliminates the need for a tripod
  • 25. Why is color temperature crucial in forensic documentation?
A) It avoids lens distortion
B) It determines the shutter speed accuracy
C) It limits the depth of field range
D) It ensures faithful representation of evidence colors
  • 26. The rule of thirds primarily helps the investigator achieve what goal?
A) Increase flash synchronization
B) Improve visual clarity and subject positioning
C) Ensure realistic color tones
D) Prevent overexposure
  • 27. An investigator photographs a low-light indoor scene without using flash. Which exposure adjustment is MOST appropriate to avoid motion blur?
A) Use a slower shutter speed
B) Reduce ISO to 100
C) Increase ISO to a higher value
D) Narrow the aperture to f/16
  • 28. When photographing a bloodstain pattern, the photographer must use a scale placed next to the stain. This procedural act demonstrates which forensic principle?
A) Exaggeration Prevention Rule
B) Evidence Size Documentation
C) Background Neutralization
D) Horizontal Composition Rule
  • 29. You must photograph a shoeprint at an oblique angle. Which camera setting will best enhance subtle surface details?
A) Small aperture, low ISO
B) Wide aperture, auto ISO
C) High ISO, fast shutter
D) Slow shutter, high ISO
  • 30. In photographing a dark outdoor crime scene, which action maximizes proper exposure without altering evidence?
A) Increasing shutter time using a tripod
B) Adjusting lens zoom to crop shadows
C) Moving the evidence closer to artificial light
D) Increasing flash power directly at the evidence
  • 31. During medium-range shots, the photographer must capture evidence relative to fixed surroundings. This ensures—
A) Flash reflection is avoided
B) Depth of field is minimized
C) Light intensity remains constant
D) Scene orientation is established
  • 32. When capturing fingerprints using an alternate light source, the photographer must adjust the camera to—
A) Disable macro mode to avoid magnification
B) Match the wavelength with white balance settings
C) Use high ISO to enhance ambient background
D) Increase shutter speed to darken fluorescence
  • 33. A crime scene photo appears overly bright with loss of detail on reflective surfaces. Which combination MOST likely caused the error?
A) Low ISO and fast shutter speed
B) Slow shutter with diffused lighting
C) High ISO and wide aperture
D) Narrow aperture with rear flash
  • 34. Two investigators photographed the same bullet trajectory. One used wide-angle; the other used telephoto. Which issue may arise in court?
A) Telephoto may distort the color temperature
B) Wide-angle removes depth of field
C) Telephoto eliminates shadow accuracy
D) Wide-angle may alter spatial relationships
  • 35. A digital camera fails to record images despite allowing shutter release. Which part should be checked FIRST?
A) Image sensor
B) Lens focusing ring
C) ISO control
D) Memory card slot
  • 36. When photographing very small fibers, which lens type ensures optimum magnification and detail?
A) Macro lens
B) Standard lens
C) Telephoto lens
D) Ultra-wide lens
  • 37. The investigator needs to minimize image noise while maintaining brightness. The most suitable action is—
A) Increase shutter speed
B) Raise ISO and narrow aperture
C) Disable autofocus
D) Lower ISO and widen aperture
  • 38. When using a manual/analogue camera in a dim room, which adjustment compensates for the absence of digital ISO controls?
A) Selecting higher ASA film
B) Adjusting lens mount
C) Rotating memory dial
D) Changing film advance lever
  • 39. A wide-angle lens produces slight edge distortion in scene photos. How may this affect forensic interpretation?
A) May increase exposure stability
B) May shift color temperature drastically
C) May remove shadow details entirely
D) May misrepresent the distance between objects
  • 40. A camera shows blurry close-up images despite proper lighting. Review indicates the photographer used a telephoto lens at minimum focusing distance. What is the likely cause?
A) Shutter curtain failed to synchronize
B) Telephoto lenses cannot capture contrast
C) Image sensor malfunctioned
D) Minimum focusing distance exceeded
  • 41. Which principle best explains why forensic chemists must use validated analytical procedures when examining seized chemical evidence?
A) To ensure evidence is stored in climate-controlled facilities
B) To prevent the need for confirmatory testing
C) To allow investigators to bypass the chain of custody
D) To guarantee results are reproducible and legally defensible
  • 42. The significance of toxicological findings in court primarily depends on which factor?
A) The financial value of the toxic substance detected
B) The interpretation of toxin concentration relative to physiological effects
C) The popularity of the analytical instrument used
D) The quantity of samples submitted by the investigator
  • 43. Which statement correctly differentiates preliminary from confirmatory tests in forensic chemistry?
A) Confirmatory tests rely on color changes, while preliminary tests use instrumentation
B) Preliminary tests are presumptive, while confirmatory tests specifically identify substances
C) Preliminary tests permanently identify a substance, while confirmatory tests only screen
D) Preliminary tests require accreditation, while confirmatory tests do not
  • 44. A crime scene technician performs a Kastle-Meyer test on a red stain and obtains a rapid pink color change. What is the MOST appropriate next step to ensure admissibility?
A) Disregard the sample due to possible contamination
B) Conclude immediately that the stain is human blood
C) Perform a confirmatory test, such as a Takayama or Teichmann test
D) Collect only photographs since the test already confirmed blood
  • 45. During the collection of semen evidence on fabric, which procedure BEST preserves its forensic value?
A) Packaging the moist fabric in plastic to prevent air exposure
B) Applying heat to accelerate drying before packaging`
C) Air-drying the fabric and placing it in a breathable paper container
D) Folding the fabric tightly to secure the stain
  • 46. While collecting glass fragments from a hit-and-run scene, which action MOST ensures accurate comparative analysis?
A) Placing fragments into cotton-filled plastic bags to minimize noise
B) Cleaning the fragments with water before packaging
C) Separating fragments by size and origin before sealing
D) Mixing all fragments from different areas into one container
  • 47. A victim is suspected of poisoning from an organophosphate pesticide. Which treatment is MOST appropriate to administer based on toxicological principles?
A) Sodium bicarbonate infusion
B) High-dose vitamin K therapy
C) Activated charcoal only
D) Atropine with pralidoxime (2-PAM)
  • 48. A forensic toxicologist must distinguish between cyanide poisoning and carbon monoxide poisoning. Which comparison is MOST forensically relevant?
A) Carbon monoxide poisoning typically changes blood to greenish color
B) Carbon monoxide smells like almonds, while cyanide has no odor
C) Cyanide causes cherry-red skin, while carbon monoxide does not
D) Cyanide inhibits cellular respiration, while carbon monoxide forms carboxyhemoglobin
  • 49. Which of the following is classified as a public document?
A) A handwritten personal letter
B) A personal diary
C) A company memo
D) A notarized affidavit
  • 50. Which equipment is primarily used to detect indented writing on a questioned document?
A) IR lamp
B) VSC
C) Stereomicroscope
D) ESDA
  • 51. A document examiner uses an infrared light source to evaluate a questioned contract. Which issue is this technique MOST suited to detect?
A) Pen pressure inconsistencies
B) Chemical erasures or overwritten ink
C) Paper fiber uniqueness
D) The presence of signature tremors
  • 52. A faded receipt is examined using a Video Spectral Comparator. What is the main advantage of this tool?
A) It magnifies handwriting strokes up to 1000x
B) It measures paper thickness with high precision
C) It detects the weight of ink residue
D) It reveals erased or overwritten text using multi-spectral imaging
  • 53. An altered bank document shows mismatched ink under UV light. This discrepancy indicates:
A) The paper is of inferior quality
B) The writer used excessive pressure when signing
C) Ink from different batches or pens was used
D) The document contains natural handwriting variation
  • 54. A signature shows slow movement, tremors, and unnatural pauses. What type of forgery is MOST likely present?
A) Natural variation
B) Forgery through tracing
C) Freehand imitation
D) Disguised signature
  • 55. A questioned signature shows heavy pen pressure at the beginning and end of strokes, uncommon in the writer’s known samples. What does this suggest?
A) Ink used was incompatible
B) The signature may be simulated
C) The writer was in a hurry
D) It is an authentic signature
  • 56. A handwriting expert compares known and questioned writings. He observes the same unique pen lift pattern before the letter "t." What principle is being applied?
A) Line quality analysis
B) Class characteristics
C) Individual characteristics
D) Natural variation
  • 57. A check shows altered numbers where the original ink reacts differently under IR examination. What is the conclusion?
A) The paper is counterfeit
B) The ink was exposed to moisture
C) The lighting technique was incorrect
D) Alteration likely occurred
  • 58. A forged document shows uniform spacing and mechanical alignment in the signature. This is characteristic of:
A) Freehand forgery
B) Simulation
C) Typewriter output
D) Signature stamp or machine signature
  • 59. The examiner notices baseline drift and inconsistent slant in a questioned handwritten note. What does this BEST indicate?
A) Habitual writing behavior
B) A natural signature variation
C) Possible disguise attempt
D) Impairment or loss of motor control
  • 60. A suspect denies authorship of a document. The examiner requests "extended handwriting specimens." Why?
A) To obtain a sufficient range of natural variation
B) To observe fatigue in writing
C) To determine paper density
D) To assess quality of ink
  • 61. A contract shows two lines written with identical flow, pressure, and shading but different pen tips under microscopic view. What does this imply?
A) A mechanical copying method was used
B) The writing is genuine
C) The writer used two pens intentionally
D) The paper absorbed ink unevenly
  • 62. A signature appears genuine in line quality but contradicts the writer’s usual habit of connecting letters. Microscopic analysis shows deliberate stops between strokes. What is the most reasonable conclusion?
A) The signature is authentic with natural variation
B) The writer was under stress
C) The ink has degraded over time
D) The signature is simulated
  • 63. A banknote passes the watermark test but fails the UV fluorescence test. What does this contrast MOST likely indicate?
A) The note is genuine but old
B) The security thread has naturally faded
C) It is a hybrid counterfeit using mixed materials
D) The UV lamp is defective
  • 64. A suspected fake ID shows correct hologram placement but inconsistent microprinting under magnification. What is the strongest conclusion?
A) Microprinting is naturally variable
B) The document was damaged by moisture
C) The hologram was transferred from a real ID
D) The ID is authentic but worn out
  • 65. Which of the following is a primary physiological indicator used in polygraph examinations?
A) Skin conductance
B) Blood pressure
C) Eye color
D) Pupil dilation
  • 66. Polygraph accuracy can be significantly affected by which factor?
A) Examiner skill and experience
B) Subject’s favorite color
C) Length of examination only
D) Ambient room temperature only
  • 67. Why are control questions used in polygraph tests?
A) To confuse the subject and induce errors
B) To determine the subject’s memory capacity
C) To establish baseline physiological responses for comparison
D) To directly detect lies about the incident
  • 68. How can a subject’s psychological state affect polygraph accuracy?
A) It improves the detection of deception automatically
B) It has no measurable effect
C) Anxiety or fear may exaggerate physiological responses
D) Only physical factors matter, not psychological
  • 69. During which phase of polygraph examination is the subject first interviewed?
A) Post-test phase
B) Control phase
C) Pre-test phase
D) In-test phase
  • 70. A sudden spike in galvanic skin response is observed on the chart. This is likely recorded using:
A) Pneumograph
B) Thermometer
C) Cardiograph
D) Galvanometer
  • 71. If a subject reacts strongly to a control question but minimally to a relevant question, the examiner should:
A) Consider the relevant question deceptive
B) Consider the control response valid and relevant response non-deceptive
C) Restart the entire test
D) Ignore both responses
  • 72. Which polygraph component measures respiration?
A) Galvanometer
B) Cardio sensor
C) Pneumograph
D) Computer software
  • 73. What is the purpose of irrelevant questions in a polygraph test?
A) To establish baseline physiological responses
B) To test memory retention
C) To directly confirm deception
D) To confuse the subject
  • 74. How should chart markings be interpreted during evaluation?
A) Only using computer software
B) By ignoring baseline readings
C) Only by visual inspection
D) By comparing responses to relevant, control, and irrelevant questions
  • 75. A polygraph examiner notes inconsistent heart rate changes across all question types. The next step is:
A) Ignore inconsistencies
B) Declare deception immediately
C) Ask more irrelevant questions
D) Re-evaluate data and consider external factors
  • 76. An examiner observes that a subject’s physiological responses are unusually flat. Which evaluation is most appropriate?
A) Increase the number of relevant questions
B) Conclude deception automatically
C) Consider possible countermeasures or medical conditions affecting accuracy
D) Ignore the responses and continue
  • 77. A polygraph test shows strong responses to irrelevant questions but mild responses to relevant questions. What can be inferred?
A) Subject’s baseline responses are high, making relevant responses less conclusive
B) Subject is definitely truthful
C) Examiner should add more control questions
D) Subject is likely deceptive
  • 78. Comparing reactions to control and relevant questions helps the examiner to:
A) Determine the subject’s emotional intelligence
B) Predict subject’s future behavior
C) Analyze physiological deviation and detect deception
D) Measure subject’s memory accuracy
  • 79. Which instrument is primarily used to compare the striations on two bullets?
A) Caliper
B) Rifling gauge
C) Comparison microscope
D) Ballistic chronograph
  • 80. Why is photographing ballistic evidence before collection important at a crime scene?
A) It helps in measuring rifling impressions
B) It ensures visual documentation of position and condition
C) It prevents contamination of evidence
D) It identifies the firearm used
  • 81. During crime scene processing, which procedure ensures proper chain of custody?
A) Documenting every transfer and storage of evidence
B) Testing the firearm immediately
C) Comparing bullets in the laboratory
D) Photographing the suspect
  • 82. Which of the following best explains the role of ballistic evidence presentation in court?
A) To determine the shooter’s intent
B) To demonstrate internal ballistics to the jury
C) To show expert’s opinion without physical exhibits
D) To illustrate the relationship between firearms, bullets, and cartridge cases
  • 83. What is the main purpose of using a ballistic chronograph in firearm examination?
A) To compare rifling impressions
B) To document cartridge case markings
C) To identify firearm serial numbers
D) To measure bullet speed and trajectory
  • 84. Which precaution is essential when presenting a firearm in court?
A) Loading the firearm to demonstrate firing
B) Removing all ammunition and rendering it safe
C) Testing bullets in front of the jury
D) Disassembling the firearm in open court
  • 85. A bullet recovered from a crime scene has rifling impressions matching a suspect’s firearm. This analysis demonstrates:
A) Internal ballistics
B) Terminal ballistics
C) Individual characteristics
D) Class characteristics
  • 86. A revolver is classified under which type of firearm?
A) Machine gun
B) Rifle
C) Shotgun
D) Handgun
  • 87. Which part of ammunition ignites the gunpowder when struck?
A) Primer
B) Bullet
C) Cartridge case
D) Firing pin
  • 88. Determining the trajectory of a bullet after it leaves the barrel is an example of:
A) Forensic ballistics
B) Internal ballistics
C) External ballistics
D) Terminal ballistics
  • 89. A fired cartridge case exhibits unique marks from the extractor and ejector. These are examples of:
A) Individual characteristics
B) Internal ballistics
C) Class characteristics
D) Ammunition design
  • 90. Identifying the make and model of a firearm based on caliber and rifling is an example of:
A) External ballistics
B) Individual characteristics
C) Terminal ballistics
D) Class characteristics
  • 91. Which branch of ballistics studies the effect of a bullet on a target?
A) Forensic ballistics
B) Terminal ballistics
C) Internal ballistics
D) External ballistics
  • 92. A semi-automatic rifle is fired, and the bullet path is traced to a tree. This investigation falls under:
A) Firearm classification
B) Terminal ballistics
C) External ballistics
D) Internal ballistics
  • 93. Which ammunition component determines the bullet’s size and fit within the barrel?
A) Bullet
B) Primer
C) Gunpowder
D) Cartridge case
  • 94. An expert concludes that multiple bullets came from the same firearm after analysis. This conclusion is most critical for:
A) Evaluating firearm classification
B) Assessing external ballistics
C) Establishing individual characteristics
D) Determining class characteristics
  • 95. What is the safest way to collect a firearm at a crime scene?
A) Keep it loaded while packaging
B) Remove ammunition and secure the firearm
C) Hand it to anyone nearby
D) Test fire before collection
  • 96. Why is assigning identification numbers to bullets and cartridge cases essential?
A) To determine firearm make and model
B) To assess terminal ballistics
C) To maintain chain of custody and avoid confusion
D) To measure bullet velocity accurately
  • 97. During evidence preservation, why must firearms be stored in controlled environments?
A) To test them before court
B) To load them for demonstration
C) To analyze gunpowder separately
D) To prevent corrosion and preserve markings
  • 98. Which factor is critical when handling fired cartridge cases to prevent contamination?
A) Cleaning them immediately
B) Wearing gloves and using appropriate packaging
C) Keeping them in open air
D) Polishing them for clarity
  • 99. You are tasked to create a forensic report for court presentation on a complex case involving multiple types of evidence. Which of the following approaches best ensures the report is both legally defensible and scientifically rigorous?
A) Use highly technical language throughout to demonstrate expertise.
B) Limit technical explanations to avoid confusing the court.
C) Include only results that support the prosecution’s case to simplify reading.
D) Organize the report systematically, include all findings, and provide clear interpretations.
  • 100. While handling a chemical sample in the laboratory, you notice a minor spill. What is the most appropriate immediate action according to standard laboratory safety procedures?
A) Evacuate the laboratory and leave the spill unattended.
B) Contain and clean the spill following the laboratory’s spill protocol while wearing proper PPE.
C) Call security personnel to remove the chemical immediately.
D) Continue the experiment and report the spill after finishing.
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