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ECHO 1_AREA2
Contributed by: Magbanua
  • 1. Which characteristic makes dental identification unique among other biological identifiers?
A) Teeth provide genetic information directly
B) Teeth resist decomposition and extreme heat
C) Teeth change shape with age
D) Teeth regenerate after severe trauma
  • 2. The Henry FBI Classification System primarily serves what purpose?
A) To detect forged fingerprints
B) To measure ridge density
C) To organize fingerprint cards for retrieval
D) To classify latent prints at crime scenes
  • 3. Why is dental charting superior during mass fatality incidents?
A) Dental charts contain compulsory genetic markers
B) Dental features rarely match across victims
C) Dentition is highly resistant to post-mortem damage
D) It requires no prior dental records
  • 4. In the Henry FBI system, what is the role of the Secondary Classification?
A) It classifies latent prints with insufficient ridge flow
B) It determines which fingerprints are suitable for database entry
C) It identifies Level 3 pore characteristics
D) It refines the filing sequence using ridge patterns on index fingers
  • 5. Which of the following best describes the purpose of descriptive biometric analysis (DBA)?
A) To analyze DNA in partially decomposed bodies
B) To match physical traits when friction ridges are unavailable
C) To categorize fingerprints by their whorl values
D) To measure body temperature variations post-mortem
  • 6. Why must classified fingerprint cards be arranged in numerical order?
A) It segregates fingerprints by ethnicity and age
B) It ensures standardized filing and efficient retrieval
C) It allows automatic destruction of old records
D) It prevents contamination of fingerprint ink
  • 7. A latent print contains clear bifurcations but lacks a visible core and delta. How should the examiner classify it?
A) As a loop pattern
B) As an arch pattern
C) As pattern-indeterminate
D) As a whorl pattern
  • 8. A fingerprint with two deltas and circular ridge flow should be classified as a:
A) Composite pattern
B) Plain whorl
C) Radial loop
D) Tented arch
  • 9. Two prints share equal ridge counts but differ significantly in ridge flow direction. What should the examiner apply?
A) Principle of individuality
B) Principle of permanence
C) Ridge density standard
D) Ridge count principle
  • 10. A loop fingerprint shows ridge irregularities due to surface distortion. How should the examiner evaluate these irregularities?
A) Ignore minutiae and classify using pattern shape only
B) Convert the loop pattern into a whorl for easier analysis
C) Evaluate minutiae configuration rather than the overall loop pattern
D) Reject the print based solely on the pattern
  • 11. Which principle justifies the admissibility of fingerprint evidence in court due to its unchanging nature?
A) Divergence
B) Permanence
C) Universality
D) Multiplicity
  • 12. Two fingerprints share ridge endings in the same area but differ in pore positions and ridge edge shapes. What conclusion is most accurate?
A) They are inconclusive due to lack of Level 1 detail
B) They belong to the same individual because ridge endings match
C) They originate from different individuals based on Level 3 differences
D) They can be considered identical after applying ridge counting
  • 13. A corpse has severely dried fingers. What method should be applied before taking prints?
A) Apply magnetic powder
B) Cut the finger and discard the skin
C) Use iodine fuming before rolling
D) Use rehydration or tissue-builder injection
  • 14. You must immediately develop latent prints on a smooth glass surface. What method is most suitable?
A) Silver nitrate
B) Powder dusting
C) Ninhydrin
D) Iodine fuming
  • 15. A rolled impression shows smudging due to downward pressure. How should the technician correct this?
A) Use only plain impressions instead of rolled
B) Roll the finger faster to limit distortion
C) Reduce pressure and allow natural rolling
D) Increase pressure to improve contrast
  • 16. A latent print on porous paper requires chemical development. Which sequence is best?
A) Powder → cyanoacrylate → magnetic powder
B) Ninhydrin → DFO → silver nitrate as needed
C) Superglue → black powder → ALS
D) DFO → ninhydrin → water rinse
  • 17. A latent print on rough, uneven wood must be preserved. What lifting method is appropriate?
A) Gel lifter
B) Ink transfer
C) Heat transfer sheet
D) Adhesive tape
  • 18. After cyanoacrylate fuming, ridge detail appears faint. Why does applying powder improve visibility?
A) Cyanoacrylate prevents any further enhancement
B) The hardened cyanoacrylate surface enhances powder adhesion
C) Powder chemically dissolves cyanoacrylate
D) Powder converts pores into visible white marks
  • 19. During the Analysis phase, you find a latent print with limited ridge clarity. What should you do?
A) Proceed directly to comparison
B) Decide whether the print is suitable before moving on
C) Immediately declare the print an identification
D) Skip analysis and ask for supervisor approval
  • 20. A verifier receives a fingerprint case already evaluated by another examiner. What method ensures objectivity?
A) Conducting blind and independent verification
B) Reprocessing the evidence using different chemicals
C) Reviewing the first examiner’s notes first
D) Rejecting the first examiner’s conclusion automatically
  • 21. Which principle of photography refers to arranging visual elements to create a balanced and meaningful image?
A) Spectral Quality
B) Light Intensity
C) Exposure Value
D) Composition
  • 22. What type of flash produces illumination directly toward the subject without redirection?
A) Bounce Flash
B) Direct Flash
C) Rear-Curtain Flash
D) Off-Camera Flash
  • 23. Hard light creates which characteristic effect on forensic photographs?
A) Lower contrast on surfaces
B) Soft blending of edges
C) Increased shadow definition
D) Minimal textural visibility
  • 24. Bounce flash is preferred in indoor crime scenes because it—
A) Uses stronger wattage for sharp detail
B) Enhances only reflective surfaces
C) Eliminates the need for a tripod
D) Produces softer and more diffused illumination
  • 25. Why is color temperature crucial in forensic documentation?
A) It avoids lens distortion
B) It limits the depth of field range
C) It determines the shutter speed accuracy
D) It ensures faithful representation of evidence colors
  • 26. The rule of thirds primarily helps the investigator achieve what goal?
A) Prevent overexposure
B) Increase flash synchronization
C) Improve visual clarity and subject positioning
D) Ensure realistic color tones
  • 27. An investigator photographs a low-light indoor scene without using flash. Which exposure adjustment is MOST appropriate to avoid motion blur?
A) Increase ISO to a higher value
B) Narrow the aperture to f/16
C) Reduce ISO to 100
D) Use a slower shutter speed
  • 28. When photographing a bloodstain pattern, the photographer must use a scale placed next to the stain. This procedural act demonstrates which forensic principle?
A) Evidence Size Documentation
B) Background Neutralization
C) Exaggeration Prevention Rule
D) Horizontal Composition Rule
  • 29. You must photograph a shoeprint at an oblique angle. Which camera setting will best enhance subtle surface details?
A) Wide aperture, auto ISO
B) Slow shutter, high ISO
C) Small aperture, low ISO
D) High ISO, fast shutter
  • 30. In photographing a dark outdoor crime scene, which action maximizes proper exposure without altering evidence?
A) Increasing shutter time using a tripod
B) Adjusting lens zoom to crop shadows
C) Increasing flash power directly at the evidence
D) Moving the evidence closer to artificial light
  • 31. During medium-range shots, the photographer must capture evidence relative to fixed surroundings. This ensures—
A) Scene orientation is established
B) Depth of field is minimized
C) Light intensity remains constant
D) Flash reflection is avoided
  • 32. When capturing fingerprints using an alternate light source, the photographer must adjust the camera to—
A) Increase shutter speed to darken fluorescence
B) Match the wavelength with white balance settings
C) Disable macro mode to avoid magnification
D) Use high ISO to enhance ambient background
  • 33. A crime scene photo appears overly bright with loss of detail on reflective surfaces. Which combination MOST likely caused the error?
A) Slow shutter with diffused lighting
B) High ISO and wide aperture
C) Narrow aperture with rear flash
D) Low ISO and fast shutter speed
  • 34. Two investigators photographed the same bullet trajectory. One used wide-angle; the other used telephoto. Which issue may arise in court?
A) Telephoto eliminates shadow accuracy
B) Telephoto may distort the color temperature
C) Wide-angle may alter spatial relationships
D) Wide-angle removes depth of field
  • 35. A digital camera fails to record images despite allowing shutter release. Which part should be checked FIRST?
A) Lens focusing ring
B) ISO control
C) Image sensor
D) Memory card slot
  • 36. When photographing very small fibers, which lens type ensures optimum magnification and detail?
A) Telephoto lens
B) Ultra-wide lens
C) Macro lens
D) Standard lens
  • 37. The investigator needs to minimize image noise while maintaining brightness. The most suitable action is—
A) Increase shutter speed
B) Disable autofocus
C) Raise ISO and narrow aperture
D) Lower ISO and widen aperture
  • 38. When using a manual/analogue camera in a dim room, which adjustment compensates for the absence of digital ISO controls?
A) Changing film advance lever
B) Selecting higher ASA film
C) Rotating memory dial
D) Adjusting lens mount
  • 39. A wide-angle lens produces slight edge distortion in scene photos. How may this affect forensic interpretation?
A) May shift color temperature drastically
B) May remove shadow details entirely
C) May increase exposure stability
D) May misrepresent the distance between objects
  • 40. A camera shows blurry close-up images despite proper lighting. Review indicates the photographer used a telephoto lens at minimum focusing distance. What is the likely cause?
A) Image sensor malfunctioned
B) Telephoto lenses cannot capture contrast
C) Minimum focusing distance exceeded
D) Shutter curtain failed to synchronize
  • 41. Which principle best explains why forensic chemists must use validated analytical procedures when examining seized chemical evidence?
A) To ensure evidence is stored in climate-controlled facilities
B) To prevent the need for confirmatory testing
C) To allow investigators to bypass the chain of custody
D) To guarantee results are reproducible and legally defensible
  • 42. The significance of toxicological findings in court primarily depends on which factor?
A) The interpretation of toxin concentration relative to physiological effects
B) The popularity of the analytical instrument used
C) The financial value of the toxic substance detected
D) The quantity of samples submitted by the investigator
  • 43. Which statement correctly differentiates preliminary from confirmatory tests in forensic chemistry?
A) Preliminary tests require accreditation, while confirmatory tests do not
B) Preliminary tests permanently identify a substance, while confirmatory tests only screen
C) Confirmatory tests rely on color changes, while preliminary tests use instrumentation
D) Preliminary tests are presumptive, while confirmatory tests specifically identify substances
  • 44. A crime scene technician performs a Kastle-Meyer test on a red stain and obtains a rapid pink color change. What is the MOST appropriate next step to ensure admissibility?
A) Disregard the sample due to possible contamination
B) Perform a confirmatory test, such as a Takayama or Teichmann test
C) Conclude immediately that the stain is human blood
D) Collect only photographs since the test already confirmed blood
  • 45. During the collection of semen evidence on fabric, which procedure BEST preserves its forensic value?
A) Applying heat to accelerate drying before packaging`
B) Folding the fabric tightly to secure the stain
C) Air-drying the fabric and placing it in a breathable paper container
D) Packaging the moist fabric in plastic to prevent air exposure
  • 46. While collecting glass fragments from a hit-and-run scene, which action MOST ensures accurate comparative analysis?
A) Cleaning the fragments with water before packaging
B) Mixing all fragments from different areas into one container
C) Separating fragments by size and origin before sealing
D) Placing fragments into cotton-filled plastic bags to minimize noise
  • 47. A victim is suspected of poisoning from an organophosphate pesticide. Which treatment is MOST appropriate to administer based on toxicological principles?
A) Activated charcoal only
B) Atropine with pralidoxime (2-PAM)
C) Sodium bicarbonate infusion
D) High-dose vitamin K therapy
  • 48. A forensic toxicologist must distinguish between cyanide poisoning and carbon monoxide poisoning. Which comparison is MOST forensically relevant?
A) Carbon monoxide poisoning typically changes blood to greenish color
B) Cyanide causes cherry-red skin, while carbon monoxide does not
C) Carbon monoxide smells like almonds, while cyanide has no odor
D) Cyanide inhibits cellular respiration, while carbon monoxide forms carboxyhemoglobin
  • 49. Which of the following is classified as a public document?
A) A handwritten personal letter
B) A notarized affidavit
C) A personal diary
D) A company memo
  • 50. Which equipment is primarily used to detect indented writing on a questioned document?
A) VSC
B) Stereomicroscope
C) IR lamp
D) ESDA
  • 51. A document examiner uses an infrared light source to evaluate a questioned contract. Which issue is this technique MOST suited to detect?
A) The presence of signature tremors
B) Chemical erasures or overwritten ink
C) Paper fiber uniqueness
D) Pen pressure inconsistencies
  • 52. A faded receipt is examined using a Video Spectral Comparator. What is the main advantage of this tool?
A) It detects the weight of ink residue
B) It magnifies handwriting strokes up to 1000x
C) It reveals erased or overwritten text using multi-spectral imaging
D) It measures paper thickness with high precision
  • 53. An altered bank document shows mismatched ink under UV light. This discrepancy indicates:
A) Ink from different batches or pens was used
B) The writer used excessive pressure when signing
C) The paper is of inferior quality
D) The document contains natural handwriting variation
  • 54. A signature shows slow movement, tremors, and unnatural pauses. What type of forgery is MOST likely present?
A) Natural variation
B) Disguised signature
C) Forgery through tracing
D) Freehand imitation
  • 55. A questioned signature shows heavy pen pressure at the beginning and end of strokes, uncommon in the writer’s known samples. What does this suggest?
A) The signature may be simulated
B) It is an authentic signature
C) Ink used was incompatible
D) The writer was in a hurry
  • 56. A handwriting expert compares known and questioned writings. He observes the same unique pen lift pattern before the letter "t." What principle is being applied?
A) Class characteristics
B) Natural variation
C) Line quality analysis
D) Individual characteristics
  • 57. A check shows altered numbers where the original ink reacts differently under IR examination. What is the conclusion?
A) The ink was exposed to moisture
B) The paper is counterfeit
C) Alteration likely occurred
D) The lighting technique was incorrect
  • 58. A forged document shows uniform spacing and mechanical alignment in the signature. This is characteristic of:
A) Typewriter output
B) Freehand forgery
C) Simulation
D) Signature stamp or machine signature
  • 59. The examiner notices baseline drift and inconsistent slant in a questioned handwritten note. What does this BEST indicate?
A) Habitual writing behavior
B) Impairment or loss of motor control
C) A natural signature variation
D) Possible disguise attempt
  • 60. A suspect denies authorship of a document. The examiner requests "extended handwriting specimens." Why?
A) To determine paper density
B) To obtain a sufficient range of natural variation
C) To assess quality of ink
D) To observe fatigue in writing
  • 61. A contract shows two lines written with identical flow, pressure, and shading but different pen tips under microscopic view. What does this imply?
A) The writer used two pens intentionally
B) A mechanical copying method was used
C) The paper absorbed ink unevenly
D) The writing is genuine
  • 62. A signature appears genuine in line quality but contradicts the writer’s usual habit of connecting letters. Microscopic analysis shows deliberate stops between strokes. What is the most reasonable conclusion?
A) The writer was under stress
B) The ink has degraded over time
C) The signature is simulated
D) The signature is authentic with natural variation
  • 63. A banknote passes the watermark test but fails the UV fluorescence test. What does this contrast MOST likely indicate?
A) The security thread has naturally faded
B) It is a hybrid counterfeit using mixed materials
C) The note is genuine but old
D) The UV lamp is defective
  • 64. A suspected fake ID shows correct hologram placement but inconsistent microprinting under magnification. What is the strongest conclusion?
A) Microprinting is naturally variable
B) The document was damaged by moisture
C) The ID is authentic but worn out
D) The hologram was transferred from a real ID
  • 65. Which of the following is a primary physiological indicator used in polygraph examinations?
A) Blood pressure
B) Skin conductance
C) Eye color
D) Pupil dilation
  • 66. Polygraph accuracy can be significantly affected by which factor?
A) Subject’s favorite color
B) Length of examination only
C) Ambient room temperature only
D) Examiner skill and experience
  • 67. Why are control questions used in polygraph tests?
A) To confuse the subject and induce errors
B) To establish baseline physiological responses for comparison
C) To directly detect lies about the incident
D) To determine the subject’s memory capacity
  • 68. How can a subject’s psychological state affect polygraph accuracy?
A) Only physical factors matter, not psychological
B) It has no measurable effect
C) It improves the detection of deception automatically
D) Anxiety or fear may exaggerate physiological responses
  • 69. During which phase of polygraph examination is the subject first interviewed?
A) Control phase
B) In-test phase
C) Pre-test phase
D) Post-test phase
  • 70. A sudden spike in galvanic skin response is observed on the chart. This is likely recorded using:
A) Thermometer
B) Galvanometer
C) Pneumograph
D) Cardiograph
  • 71. If a subject reacts strongly to a control question but minimally to a relevant question, the examiner should:
A) Ignore both responses
B) Consider the control response valid and relevant response non-deceptive
C) Consider the relevant question deceptive
D) Restart the entire test
  • 72. Which polygraph component measures respiration?
A) Computer software
B) Cardio sensor
C) Galvanometer
D) Pneumograph
  • 73. What is the purpose of irrelevant questions in a polygraph test?
A) To directly confirm deception
B) To confuse the subject
C) To test memory retention
D) To establish baseline physiological responses
  • 74. How should chart markings be interpreted during evaluation?
A) By comparing responses to relevant, control, and irrelevant questions
B) Only by visual inspection
C) Only using computer software
D) By ignoring baseline readings
  • 75. A polygraph examiner notes inconsistent heart rate changes across all question types. The next step is:
A) Ask more irrelevant questions
B) Declare deception immediately
C) Re-evaluate data and consider external factors
D) Ignore inconsistencies
  • 76. An examiner observes that a subject’s physiological responses are unusually flat. Which evaluation is most appropriate?
A) Consider possible countermeasures or medical conditions affecting accuracy
B) Ignore the responses and continue
C) Increase the number of relevant questions
D) Conclude deception automatically
  • 77. A polygraph test shows strong responses to irrelevant questions but mild responses to relevant questions. What can be inferred?
A) Subject is definitely truthful
B) Subject’s baseline responses are high, making relevant responses less conclusive
C) Subject is likely deceptive
D) Examiner should add more control questions
  • 78. Comparing reactions to control and relevant questions helps the examiner to:
A) Determine the subject’s emotional intelligence
B) Analyze physiological deviation and detect deception
C) Measure subject’s memory accuracy
D) Predict subject’s future behavior
  • 79. Which instrument is primarily used to compare the striations on two bullets?
A) Ballistic chronograph
B) Rifling gauge
C) Caliper
D) Comparison microscope
  • 80. Why is photographing ballistic evidence before collection important at a crime scene?
A) It helps in measuring rifling impressions
B) It prevents contamination of evidence
C) It ensures visual documentation of position and condition
D) It identifies the firearm used
  • 81. During crime scene processing, which procedure ensures proper chain of custody?
A) Documenting every transfer and storage of evidence
B) Comparing bullets in the laboratory
C) Photographing the suspect
D) Testing the firearm immediately
  • 82. Which of the following best explains the role of ballistic evidence presentation in court?
A) To show expert’s opinion without physical exhibits
B) To illustrate the relationship between firearms, bullets, and cartridge cases
C) To demonstrate internal ballistics to the jury
D) To determine the shooter’s intent
  • 83. What is the main purpose of using a ballistic chronograph in firearm examination?
A) To compare rifling impressions
B) To identify firearm serial numbers
C) To measure bullet speed and trajectory
D) To document cartridge case markings
  • 84. Which precaution is essential when presenting a firearm in court?
A) Disassembling the firearm in open court
B) Loading the firearm to demonstrate firing
C) Removing all ammunition and rendering it safe
D) Testing bullets in front of the jury
  • 85. A bullet recovered from a crime scene has rifling impressions matching a suspect’s firearm. This analysis demonstrates:
A) Class characteristics
B) Internal ballistics
C) Individual characteristics
D) Terminal ballistics
  • 86. A revolver is classified under which type of firearm?
A) Handgun
B) Rifle
C) Shotgun
D) Machine gun
  • 87. Which part of ammunition ignites the gunpowder when struck?
A) Cartridge case
B) Primer
C) Bullet
D) Firing pin
  • 88. Determining the trajectory of a bullet after it leaves the barrel is an example of:
A) Terminal ballistics
B) External ballistics
C) Internal ballistics
D) Forensic ballistics
  • 89. A fired cartridge case exhibits unique marks from the extractor and ejector. These are examples of:
A) Internal ballistics
B) Individual characteristics
C) Ammunition design
D) Class characteristics
  • 90. Identifying the make and model of a firearm based on caliber and rifling is an example of:
A) Class characteristics
B) External ballistics
C) Individual characteristics
D) Terminal ballistics
  • 91. Which branch of ballistics studies the effect of a bullet on a target?
A) Internal ballistics
B) External ballistics
C) Forensic ballistics
D) Terminal ballistics
  • 92. A semi-automatic rifle is fired, and the bullet path is traced to a tree. This investigation falls under:
A) Internal ballistics
B) Firearm classification
C) Terminal ballistics
D) External ballistics
  • 93. Which ammunition component determines the bullet’s size and fit within the barrel?
A) Cartridge case
B) Gunpowder
C) Primer
D) Bullet
  • 94. An expert concludes that multiple bullets came from the same firearm after analysis. This conclusion is most critical for:
A) Determining class characteristics
B) Evaluating firearm classification
C) Establishing individual characteristics
D) Assessing external ballistics
  • 95. What is the safest way to collect a firearm at a crime scene?
A) Remove ammunition and secure the firearm
B) Keep it loaded while packaging
C) Hand it to anyone nearby
D) Test fire before collection
  • 96. Why is assigning identification numbers to bullets and cartridge cases essential?
A) To maintain chain of custody and avoid confusion
B) To assess terminal ballistics
C) To determine firearm make and model
D) To measure bullet velocity accurately
  • 97. During evidence preservation, why must firearms be stored in controlled environments?
A) To test them before court
B) To prevent corrosion and preserve markings
C) To analyze gunpowder separately
D) To load them for demonstration
  • 98. Which factor is critical when handling fired cartridge cases to prevent contamination?
A) Polishing them for clarity
B) Cleaning them immediately
C) Wearing gloves and using appropriate packaging
D) Keeping them in open air
  • 99. You are tasked to create a forensic report for court presentation on a complex case involving multiple types of evidence. Which of the following approaches best ensures the report is both legally defensible and scientifically rigorous?
A) Include only results that support the prosecution’s case to simplify reading.
B) Organize the report systematically, include all findings, and provide clear interpretations.
C) Use highly technical language throughout to demonstrate expertise.
D) Limit technical explanations to avoid confusing the court.
  • 100. While handling a chemical sample in the laboratory, you notice a minor spill. What is the most appropriate immediate action according to standard laboratory safety procedures?
A) Contain and clean the spill following the laboratory’s spill protocol while wearing proper PPE.
B) Call security personnel to remove the chemical immediately.
C) Evacuate the laboratory and leave the spill unattended.
D) Continue the experiment and report the spill after finishing.
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