- 1. 1. is the method fixed by law for the apprehension and prosecution of one who is charged with a criminal offense and for his punishment if found guilty. It is the legal mode prescribed for the apprehension, prosecution, and punishment (or acquittal) of a person accused of having committed a crime.
A) Criminal law
B) Criminal procedure
C) Due process
D) Criminal jurisdiction
- 2. 2. That branch of the law which declares what acts are crimes, and prescribes the punishment for committing them.
A) Criminal procedure
B) Criminal law
C) Due process
D) Criminal procedure
- 3. 3. The authority to hear and decide a particular offense and impose punishment for it, if conviction results.
A) Due process
B) Criminal law
C) Criminal jurisdiction
D) Criminal procedure
- 4. 4. Jurisdiction is determined by:
A) The place of the commission of the offense
B) The allegations in the complaint or information
- 5. 5. The offended party may recover the damages he sustained twice in a criminal case and civil case.
A) False
B) Maybe
C) Yes
D) True
- 6. 6. Jurisdiction over the person of the accused may be acquired by the court by:
A) The arrest of the accused or his voluntary surrender
B) By the rendition of the judgment of conviction
- 7. 7. Jurisdiction is provide or conferred by:
A) Law
B) The court
C) The judge
D) Due process
- 8. 8. It is a written accusation subscribed by the prosecutor.
A) Warrant of arrest
B) Information
C) Complaint
D) Subpoena
- 9. 9. Criminal prosecutions involve the obligation of the State to prove the elements of crime:
A) Burden of proof
B) Beyond reasonable doubt
C) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
D) With reasonable certainty
- 10. 10. The inherent or intrinsic compliance of the law with the Bill of Rights or the the prohibition against ex post facto law or the bill of attainder pertains to:
A) Substantive due process
B) Constitutional due process
C) Due process
D) Criminal procedure
- 11. 11. It is " a generic term to describe the network of laws and rules which governs the procedural administration of justice."
A) Criminal procedure
B) Law
C) Criminal Jurisdiction
D) Criminal law
- 12. 12. It has the ultimate goal of harmonizing the governmental functions of maintaining peace and order and protecting the constitutional rights of its citizens.
A) Due process
B) Criminal law
C) Criminal procedure
D) Criminal jurisdiction
- 13. 13. Cases involving graft and corruption are filed before what court?
A) Sandiganbayan
B) Court
C) Barangay
D) Ombudsman
- 14. 14. What court has jurisdiction over a case of acts of lasciviousness which was committed in Cuyo, Palawan by a tourist from Australia?
A) Municpal Trial Court of Puerto Princesa City
B) Regional trial court
C) Supreme court
D) Municipal Circuit Trial Court of Cuy0-Agutaya & Magsaysay, Palawan
- 15. 15. If the information or complaint is defective such that it charges more than one offense, the remedy is:
A) Murder
B) Demurrer
C) Motion to Quash
D) Motion to move
- 16. 16. If the complaint or information filed has formal defects like lack of sufficient details to allow the accused to controvert, what remedy may be filed?
A) Hearing
B) Trial
C) Motion for Bill of Particulars
D) Arraignment
- 17. 17. If before his arraignment, the accused escapes, the court has no authority to try him in absentia.
A) Yes
B) No
C) False
D) True
- 18. 18. Under existing law, the period to appeal is within____days from notice of the judgement or final order.
A) 10
B) 15
C) 5
D) 20
- 19. 19. The frisking of the accused, the taking of his mug shots, other personal information, etc. takes place at what step in the processing of a criminal case?
A) Report of the crime
B) Booking
C) Pre-arrest investigation
D) Arrest
- 20. 20. The counsel or lawyer representing the State or People in a criminal case before the trial court.
A) Fiscalizer
B) Private prosecutor
C) Lawyer
D) Public prosecutor
- 21. 21. X appealed the judgment rendered against him by the MTC. Unfortunately, his appeal was denied. He wanted to avail of the probation law. If he were to ask your advice, what advice would you give him?
A) His having filed an appeal resulted to his abandonment of the privilege of probation
B) All of these
- 22. 22. It is the formal mode and manner of implementing the constitutional right of an accused to be informed of the nature and cause of the accusation against him.
A) Trial
B) Pre-trial
C) Hearing
D) Arraignment
- 23. 23. Without jurisdiction over the person of the accused, no valid judgment may be rendered against the accused
A) Maybe false
B) False
C) Maybe true
D) True
- 24. 24. Which of the following are not essential ingredients of a complaint or information?
A) Acts constituting the offense
B) Name of the investigating officer
- 25. 25. This system of criminal procedure allows the detection of law violators by the law enforcers themselves and they may resort to violence and torture to obtain confession.
A) Accusatorial system
B) Inquisitorial system
C) Mixed system
- 26. 26. It is a written accusation subscribed by the prosecutor.
A) Information
B) Complaint
C) Police report
D) Booking
- 27. 27. One of the most common ways in which law enforcement agencies apprehend persons accused of illegal sale of drugs is through____operations.
A) Operation
B) Modus operandi
C) Bust
D) Buy bust operations
- 28. 28. is a form of entrapment, whereby a police agent disguised as a buyer of illegal drugs undertakes a sales transaction with a seller.
A) Buy bust operation
B) Operation
C) Modus operandi
D) Oplan tokhang
- 29. 29. in criminal law, evidence is received from a witness "who has actually seen an event and can so testify in court".
A) Background
B) Witnesses
C) Identity
D) Eyewitness identification
- 30. 30. (in American English) or identity parade (in British English) is a process by which a crime victim or witness's putative identification of a suspect is confirmed to a level that can count as evidence at trial.
A) Police investigation
B) Preliminary investigation
C) Pre-investigation
D) Police lineup
- 31. 31. The criminal justice process begins when police authorities receive information on the possible commission of a crime. This may be obtained either through their own observation or from reports of interested persons.
A) Report of the crime
B) Booking
C) Pre-arrest investigation
D) Arrest
- 32. 32. Upon being informed the police authorities determine whether, (a) whether the crime was actually committed, and (b) if so, whether sufficient grounds exist justifying the arrest of a suspect.
A) Report of the crime
B) Arrest
C) Booking
D) Pre-arrest investigation
- 33. 33. Once the police authorities have obtained sufficient information against a particular suspect, his arrest is ordinarily the next step in the criminal justice process
A) Booking
B) Report of the crime
C) Arrest
D) Pre-arrest investigation
- 34. 34. Immediately after the arrest, the arresting officer will usually search the arrestee's person and remove any weapons, contraband, or evidence relating to the crime. Initially, the arrestee's name, the time of his arrival, and the offense for which he was arrested are noted in the "police blotter" or "log".
A) Booking
B) Report of the crime
C) Arrest
D) Pre-arrest investigation
- 35. 35. . In other situations, police will utilize many of the same kinds of investigation procedures as are used before arrest (e.g., interviewing witnesses, searching the suspect's home, and viewing the scene of the crime.)
A) Post -arrest investigation
B) Preliminary investigation
C) Pre-arrest investigation
D) Investigation
- 36. 36. Is a proceeding to determine whether there is sufficient ground to engender a well-founded belief that a crime has been committed and that the respondent is probably guilty thereof.
A) Post-arrest investigation
B) Arraignment and plea
C) Pre trial
D) Preliminary investigation
- 37. 37. To expedite the trial, upon agreement of the accused and his counsel, the court shall conduct a pre-trial conference to consider plea bargaining, stipulation of facts, marking or identification of evidence of the parties, waiver of objections to evidence, and such other matters as will promote a fair and expeditious trial.
A) Preliminary investigation
B) Trial
C) Post-arrest investigation
D) Pre-trial
- 38. 38. Upon termination of pre-trial, the case is set for trial and the parties given at least two (2) days notice.
A) Hearing
B) Arraignment
C) Trial
D) Pre-trial
- 39. 39. After the information has been filed, the accused is arraigned. He is brought before the court, formally informed of the charges against him, and asked to enter a plea of guilty or not guilty.
A) Pre-trial
B) Preliminary investigation
C) Arraignment and plea
D) Post-arrest investigation
- 40. 40. The judge may either acquit or convict the accused. If acquitted, the accused is ordered released unless he is being held for another case.
A) Guilty
B) Judgment
C) Beyond reasonable doubt
D) With reasonable certainty
- 41. 41. After a judgment of conviction, the accused may or may not appeal.
A) Acquitted
B) Judgment
C) Appeal
D) Guilty
- 42. 42. is a sworn written statement charging a person with an offense executed and subscribed by the offended party, any peace officer, or other public officer charged with the enforcement of the law violated]. May be filed in the prosecutor's office or directly to the court.
A) Complaint
B) Memorandum
C) Subpoena
D) Information
- 43. 43. involves any questioning initiated by law enforcement officers after a person has been taken into custody or otherwise deprived of his freedom of action in any significant way
A) Interview
B) Investigation
C) Interrogation
D) Custodial investigation
- 44. 44. custodial investigation includes the practice of issuing an "invitation" to a person who is investigated in connection with an offense he is suspected to have committed. This shall be without prejudice to the liability of the "inviting" officer for any violation of law.
A) RA 748
B) RA 778
C) RA 7438
D) RA 7348
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