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Risk management - Quiz
Contributed by: Morrison
  • 1. Which organization identifies the principles for risk management mentioned in the text?
A) Benoit Mandelbrot Foundation
B) International Organization for Standardization
C) ISO 31000 Committee on Standards
D) World Health Organization
  • 2. What is the ISO principle regarding resource expenditure in risk management?
A) Resources expended to mitigate risk should be less than the consequence of inaction.
B) Resources expended must equal the total value of the assets being protected.
C) Mitigation costs are irrelevant as long as the risk is completely removed.
D) Expenditures should focus strictly on eliminating 100 percent of all identified threats.
  • 3. According to ISO principles, risk management should be what in relation to organizational processes?
A) An integral part
B) A completely separate department
C) A temporary trial phase
D) An optional external review
  • 4. What should risk management explicitly address according to the ISO principles?
A) Employee satisfaction and retention
B) Marketing strategies and competitor pricing
C) Financial profits and shareholder dividends
D) Uncertainty and assumptions
  • 5. Which information should be used when following the ISO principles for risk management?
A) Exclusively internal company records
B) The best available information
C) Information provided solely by external consultants
D) Historical data older than ten years
  • 6. How should risk management adapt to changes, based on the ISO principles?
A) Remain fixed and unchangeable once established
B) Be dynamic, iterative and responsive to change
C) Alter its core goals every single week
D) Change only during annual corporate restructuring
  • 7. Who distinguished between 'mild' and 'wild' risk?
A) Benoit Mandelbrot
B) Standard ISO 31000 authors
C) ISO standards committee
D) An anonymous group of actuaries
  • 8. What type of probability distribution does mild risk follow?
A) Infinite variance distributions
B) Pareto or power-law distributions
C) Fat-tailed distributions
D) Normal or near-normal probability distributions
  • 9. Why is mild risk relatively predictable?
A) It is managed entirely by government regulators.
B) It never changes over time.
C) It always results in zero financial loss.
D) It is subject to regression to the mean and the law of large numbers.
  • 10. What type of probability distribution does wild risk follow?
A) Normal or near-normal distributions
B) Strictly uniform distributions
C) Bell-curve distributions with finite variance
D) Fat-tailed distributions, e.g., Pareto or power-law distributions
  • 11. Why is wild risk difficult or impossible to predict?
A) It is subject to regression to the tail, rendering the law of large numbers ineffective.
B) It follows standard normal probability curves.
C) It has a predictable mean that never shifts.
D) It only occurs in completely unregulated markets.
  • 12. What is a common error in risk assessment and management regarding mild and wild risk?
A) To use power-law distributions for simple everyday events
B) To treat mild risk as if it could destroy the entire organization
C) To ignore normal distributions entirely in favor of Pareto distributions
D) To underestimate the wildness of risk, assuming it to be mild when it is wild
  • 13. Which standard outlines the risk management process consisting of several steps?
A) ISO 9001
B) ISO 27001
C) ISO 31000
D) ISO 14001
  • 14. What is the first step in the risk management process according to ISO 31000?
A) Risk identification
B) Establishing the context
C) Source analysis
D) Problem analysis
  • 15. Establishing the context involves observing what?
A) Only the internal financial records
B) The environment of the organization
C) The personal lives of all employees
D) Competitor stock prices exclusively
  • 16. When establishing the context, what needs to be defined regarding stakeholders?
A) Their voting records in national elections
B) Their home addresses and phone numbers
C) Their personal credit scores
D) Their identity and objectives
  • 17. After establishing the context, what is the next step in the risk management process?
A) Identify potential risks
B) Execute immediate mitigation strategies
C) Purchase insurance policies
D) Dismiss all project stakeholders
  • 18. What do risks concern when they are triggered?
A) Mandatory structural reorganizations
B) Guaranteed legal penalties
C) Only catastrophic financial failures
D) Events that cause problems or benefits
  • 19. Where may risk sources be located relative to the system being targeted?
A) Exclusively external to the organization
B) Strictly internal to the system
C) Only within legislative bodies
D) Internal or external to the system
  • 20. Why does the text suggest using mitigation instead of management for risk?
A) Management is a legally trademarked term.
B) Management implies that risks can be completely eliminated.
C) Mitigation sounds more professional in business reports.
D) Risk deals with factors of decision-making that cannot be managed.
  • 21. What are some examples of risk sources provided in the text?
A) Government regulations, tax policies, and trade tariffs
B) Stakeholders of a project, employees of a company, or the weather over an airport
C) Accounting software errors, server crashes, and power outages
D) Stock market crashes, inflation rates, and global pandemics
  • 22. What are risks related to in problem analysis?
A) Unidentified random occurrences
B) Guaranteed positive outcomes
C) Identified threats
D) Planned organizational changes
  • 23. With which entities do threats most importantly exist according to problem analysis?
A) Shareholders, customers, and legislative bodies such as the government
B) Suppliers, distributors, and logistics partners
C) Consultants, auditors, and external contractors
D) Competitors, media outlets, and general publics
  • 24. What risk event is illustrated by stakeholders withdrawing during a project?
A) It guarantees an immediate increase in profits
B) It forces the government to take over operations
C) It will automatically improve employee morale
D) It may endanger funding of the project
  • 25. What risk event is illustrated by confidential information being handled improperly?
A) It becomes public property automatically
B) It loses all value to competitors
C) It will be safely encrypted by external hackers
D) It may be stolen by employees even within a closed network
  • 26. What risk event is illustrated by lightning striking an aircraft during takeoff?
A) It causes a minor delay in flight schedules
B) It improves the navigational equipment
C) It recharges the aircraft's emergency batteries
D) It may make all people on board immediate casualties
  • 27. What factors may the chosen method of identifying risks depend on?
A) Stock exchange listings and marketing budgets
B) Daily weather conditions and employee turnover
C) Culture, industry practice, and compliance
D) Company size, office location, and CEO preference
  • 28. In objectives-based risk identification, what is identified as a risk?
A) Any change in government tax laws
B) Any event that increases the speed of daily operations
C) Any event that may prevent an objective from being achieved
D) Any decision made by executive management
  • 29. In scenario-based risk identification, what is created?
A) Legal compliance contracts
B) Different scenarios
C) Financial balance sheets
D) Employee performance reviews
  • 30. What is the taxonomy in taxonomy-based risk identification?
A) A breakdown of possible risk sources
B) A classification of software bugs
C) A database of historical financial losses
D) A hierarchical list of corporate job titles
  • 31. How are risks revealed in taxonomy-based risk identification?
A) Through random audits conducted by external consultants
B) By analyzing daily social media mentions
C) By reviewing quarterly tax filings
D) Through answers to a questionnaire compiled from the taxonomy and best practices
  • 32. What is common-risk checking?
A) Comparing company expenses with industry averages
B) Checking available lists of known risks for application to a particular situation
C) Testing software code for basic syntax errors
D) Asking employees to guess what might go wrong each morning
  • 33. What does risk charting combine?
A) Tax rates, legal regulations, and government policies
B) Profit margins, employee counts, and office sizes
C) Resources at risk, threats, modifying factors, and consequences
D) Marketing strategies, customer feedback, and sales data
  • 34. What can be created by listing resources, threats, modifying factors, and consequences in a matrix?
A) A public relations crisis management plan
B) An automated employee payroll system
C) A binding legal contract for insurance
D) A variety of approaches for risk identification
  • 35. According to the ISO principles, should risk management be capable of continual improvement?
A) Only when mandated by external regulatory bodies
B) Yes, it should be capable of continual improvement and enhancement
C) No, it should remain standardized and never be modified
D) Only during periods of severe financial loss
  • 36. Which human element must be taken into account according to ISO principles?
A) Human factors
B) Personal political beliefs
C) Employee salary expectations
D) Union membership numbers
  • 37. How should the risk management process be described regarding transparency?
A) Hidden from lower-level employees
B) Confidential to board members
C) Secretive and executive-only
D) Transparent and inclusive
  • 38. What statistical law becomes invalid or ineffective for wild risk?
A) Murphy's law
B) The law of supply and demand
C) The law of large numbers
D) Moore's law
  • 39. What kind of mean or variance does wild risk exhibit?
A) Zero mean and zero variance
B) Fixed mean with normal distribution
C) Infinite mean or variance
D) Constant and predictable variance
  • 40. What term describes the phenomenon where wild risk is subject to movement toward the extreme tails?
A) Standard deviation shift
B) Regression to the tail
C) Regression to the mean
D) Central limit theorem
  • 41. When did opportunities first appear in academic research or management books?
A) 1970s
B) 1990s
C) 2000s
D) 1980s
  • 42. Did the first PMBoK Project Management Body of Knowledge draft of 1987 mention opportunities?
A) Implicitly
B) Yes
C) No
D) Only briefly
  • 43. When were opportunities included in project management literature like PMBoK?
A) Since the 1970s
B) Since the 1980s
C) Since the 1990s
D) Since the 2000s
  • 44. When did opportunities become a significant part of project risk management?
A) 1980s
B) 2010s
C) 1990s
D) 2000s
  • 45. What are positive risks called?
A) Opportunities
B) Vulnerabilities
C) Threats
D) Liabilities
  • 46. In practice, how are risks usually considered?
A) Usually positive
B) Always beneficial
C) Always neutral
D) Usually negative
  • 47. Focusing significantly more on threats than on opportunities can lead to what negative phenomenon?
A) Groupthink
B) Analysis paralysis
C) Target fixation
D) Scope creep
  • 48. In which PMBoK edition was Implement Risk Responses included as an activity in the Monitor and Control process?
A) 1st Ed.
B) 4th Ed.
C) 3rd Ed.
D) 6th Ed.
  • 49. In which PMBoK edition was Implement Risk Responses separated as a distinct process?
A) 6th Ed.
B) 1st Ed.
C) 4th Ed.
D) 2nd Ed.
  • 50. What does the Monitor Risks process involve?
A) Numerical analysis of effects
B) Monitoring the implementation
C) Identifying threats
D) Implementing agreed-upon plans
  • 51. Which of the following is a source of risk mentioned in the text?
A) Guaranteed market profits
B) Consistent decision-making
C) Political instability
D) Fixed percentage sizing
  • 52. Which strategy is typically used to manage threats?
A) Maximizing negative effects
B) Ignoring potential consequences
C) Avoiding the threat
D) Increasing the probability of the threat
  • 53. Since approximately when has risk management appeared in scientific and management literature?
A) The 1980s
B) The 1920s
C) The 1950s
D) The 1900s
  • 54. When did risk management become a formal science?
A) The 1950s
B) The 2000s
C) The 1920s
D) The 1970s
  • 55. What does assessing overall risk often prove to be in practice?
A) Tricky
B) Irrelevant
C) Simple and straightforward
D) Fully automated
  • 56. What represents a unique challenge for risk managers?
A) Opportunity cost
B) Fixed asset depreciation
C) Employee turnover
D) Market inflation
  • 57. What does ideal risk management optimize?
A) Office space
B) Resource usage
C) Employee headcount
D) Advertising budgets
  • 58. Evaluating the severity of consequences is often quite difficult for which type of assets?
A) Intangible assets
B) Cash reserves
C) Inventory in warehouses
D) Buildings and vehicles
  • 59. Who proposed a formula for presenting risks in financial terms in 1970 at IBM?
A) Bill Gates
B) Isaac Newton
C) Albert Einstein
D) Robert Courtney Jr.
  • 60. What does the acronym ALE stand for in the context of the Courtney formula?
A) Actual loss evaluation
B) Annual ledger expense
C) Annualized loss expectancy
D) Assessed liability estimate
  • 61. Which agency type accepted the Courtney formula as the official risk analysis method?
A) European banking institutions
B) US governmental agencies
C) Private tech startups
D) Global health organizations
  • 62. What must be addressed alongside evaluating the severity of consequences for intangible assets?
A) Asset valuation
B) Employee holiday schedules
C) Building architectural designs
D) Office furniture colors
  • 63. How many essential techniques does risk management planning use?
A) Two
B) Five
C) Three
D) Four
  • 64. Which technique involves intentionally assuming risks without financial protections?
A) Transfer
B) Avoidance
C) Reduction
D) Acceptance
  • 65. Which approach shields a business from losses by shifting risks to a third party?
A) Avoidance
B) Reduction
C) Transfer
D) Acceptance
  • 66. In the transfer approach, what is frequently given in exchange for shifting risks?
A) A guarantee
B) A fee
C) An asset
D) A penalty
  • 67. What strategy avoids losses by choosing not to participate in high-risk ventures?
A) Reduction
B) Acceptance
C) Avoidance
D) Transfer
  • 68. By using the avoidance strategy, what else does the business lose out on besides avoiding losses?
A) Third-party fees
B) Insurance policies
C) Financial assets
D) Possibilities
  • 69. Which approach lowers risks by implementing strategies like insurance?
A) Reduction
B) Transfer
C) Avoidance
D) Acceptance
  • 70. What does insurance guarantee in the event of losses?
A) Enhancement
B) Acquisition
C) Reimbursement
D) Exploitation
  • 71. What is another meaning of the acronym ACAT used in US Defense industry procurements?
A) Asset Control and Transfer
B) Avoidance and Control Allocation Technique
C) Accepted Contingency Asset Transfer
D) Acquisition Category
  • 72. What are the specific mitigation strategies for opportunities mentioned in the text?
A) Exploit, share, enhance, ignore
B) Avoid, control, accept, transfer
C) Eliminate, mitigate, insure, budget
D) Accept, transfer, avoid, reduce
  • 73. What was a major problem with early software development methodologies?
A) They only delivered software in the final phase
B) They avoided treating high-risk patients
C) They had prohibitive Halon system costs
D) They used water sprinklers that caused damage
  • 74. How may insurance be described more accurately than as a risk transfer?
A) A pre-event prevention strategy
B) A post-event compensatory mechanism
C) A complete hazard eradication tool
D) A risk-retention pool
  • 75. Who remains the person who has been in the accident according to the text's car example?
A) The court judge
B) The insurance agent
C) The policyholder
D) The third-party contractor
  • 76. How do methods of managing risk fall?
A) Into multiple categories
B) Exclusively into risk transfer
C) Into a single mandatory category
D) Strictly into bankruptcy proceedings
  • 77. What type of insurance falls into the category of risk retention?
A) True self-insurance
B) Commercial property insurance
C) Mandatory liability insurance
D) State-mandated health insurance
  • 78. Which of the following is given as an example of a risk that is retained by default?
A) Minor office property damage
B) Routine employee turnover
C) War
D) Common computer viruses
  • 79. Which management level should decide on a risk concerning the image of the organization?
A) Junior staff
B) Facility management
C) Top management
D) IT management
  • 80. What is the second basic step of a risk management plan mentioned in the text?
A) Impact assessment
B) Risk treatment planning
C) Vulnerability assessment
D) Threat assessment
  • 81. What is the third basic step of a risk management plan mentioned in the text?
A) Vulnerability assessment
B) Control implementation
C) Impact assessment
D) Risk mitigation strategy development
  • 82. What is done with risks that are decided to be transferred during implementation?
A) Reporting them to external regulators.
B) Absorbing them entirely without coverage.
C) Ignoring them completely.
D) Purchasing insurance policies.
  • 83. How often should risk analysis results and management plans be updated?
A) Only after a major corporate failure.
B) On a daily basis without exception.
C) Periodically.
D) Once every decade.
  • 84. What do ERM systems usually focus on safeguarding?
A) Employee benefit packages.
B) Reputation.
C) Physical office buildings.
D) Short-term profits.
  • 85. What framework governs the parallel regulatory capital requirements, including for operational risk?
A) Dodd-Frank
B) Basel I
C) Bretton Woods
D) Basel III
  • 86. What do fund managers use to protect their fund value?
A) Indemnification provisions
B) Various strategies
C) Standard contract language
D) Limitation of liability clauses
  • 87. Who defined 'contractual risk management' as a practical, proactive and systematical contracting method?
A) CH2M Hill
B) Petri Keskitalo
C) Samuel Greengard
D) La Gorce Country Club
  • 88. What nationality is the academic Petri Keskitalo?
A) American
B) Swedish
C) British
D) Norwegian
  • 89. In what year was Samuel Greengard's article mentioning two US legal cases published?
A) 2020
B) 2015
C) 2005
D) 2010
  • 90. Which US legal case deals with the risk to a professional advisor who signs an indemnification provision?
A) Keskitalo v. UDC
B) Witt v. La Gorce Country Club
C) Basel v. Greengard
D) UDC v. CH2M Hill
  • 91. Which US legal case deals with the effectiveness of a limitation of liability clause?
A) Keskitalo v. Greengard
B) Witt v. La Gorce Country Club
C) Basel v. La Gorce
D) UDC v. CH2M Hill
  • 92. What did Samuel Greengard recommend using as much as possible to reduce risk?
A) Jurisdiction-specific indemnification clauses
B) Industry-standard contract language
C) Verbal agreements between parties
D) Novel and customized legal terminology
  • 93. Which risk analysis technique requires diagramming software according to the text?
A) Failure mode and effects analysis
B) Hazard analysis
C) Hazard and operability study
D) Fault tree analysis
  • 94. Which tool can be used to perform failure mode and effects analysis (FMEA)?
A) A spreadsheet program
B) Customs risk management frameworks
C) Diagramming software only
D) Safety assurance case generators
  • 95. What method did the FDA introduce through a draft guidance for medical device safety assurance analysis?
A) Fault Tree Analysis
B) Failure Mode and Effects Analysis
C) Hazard and Operability Study
D) Safety Assurance Case
  • 96. For which type of devices is a safety assurance case expected as part of pre-market clearance submission like 510(k)?
A) Safety critical devices
B) All types of medical devices without exception
C) Customs inspection equipment
D) Only non-implantable administrative devices
  • 97. What is a typical characteristic of a risk officer?
A) Lack of experience
B) A healthy skepticism
C) Extreme optimism
D) Total indifference
  • 98. Which of the following is an attribute of each risk in the database?
A) Project profit margin
B) Customer satisfaction score
C) Employee salary
D) Opening date
  • 99. What are megaprojects also sometimes called?
A) Minor tasks
B) Major programs
C) Standard assignments
D) Micro initiatives
  • 100. Which of the following is an example of a megaproject?
A) Local bicycle racks
B) Residential sheds
C) Neighborhood parks
D) Major bridges
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