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IASEC2 MIDTERM REVIEWER: MORALLY QUESTIONABLE EDITION - Quiz
Contributed by: Fernandez
  • 1. 2 + 2 =?
A) 4
B) may kaliwa ba sa right? may kanan ba sa left?
C) hmmm depende kung 3 yan kasi kung 3 yan edi 5
D) Sure ka sa mga question na toh?
E) are you gagoing me?
  • 2. What is the main purpose of application security testing (AST)?
A) To reduce hosting costs
B) To design the user interface
C) To make applications more resistant to security threats by identifying security weaknesses and vulnerabilities in the source code
D) To increase the number of users
E) To make applications run faster
  • 3. Which of the following best describes Static Application Security Testing (SAST)?
A) A white-box method that scans source code, bytecode, or binaries for security flaws without actually running the program
B) A tool that blocks network traffic
C) A method that attacks a running application
D) A backup strategy
E) A way to monitor user behavior
  • 4. Which of the following best describes Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST)?
A) A type of firewall
B) A way to train employees
C) A method that only reads source code
D) A tool for managing passwords
E) A black-box method that evaluates a running application from the outside by simulating real-world hacker attacks to find live vulnerabilities
  • 5. What makes Interactive Application Security Testing (IAST) different from SAST and DAST?
A) It only works on printed documents
B) It tests only network cables
C) It is used only after the software is retired
D) It does not test applications at all
E) It combines features of both by placing security agents inside a running application's environment to monitor code execution in real time
  • 6. A developer wants to know whether the open-source libraries used in their project have known vulnerabilities. Which testing type should be used?
A) DAST
B) Software Composition Analysis (SCA), which scans third-party libraries and open-source dependencies for known vulnerabilities or licensing issues
C) SAST
D) Wi-Fi scanning
E) IAST
  • 7. Which tool is an open-source web application security testing tool used to identify vulnerabilities in web applications?
A) Wireshark
B) Nessus
C) OWASP ZAP, which automatically sends test requests to the application and analyzes the responses for vulnerabilities
D) Microsoft Word
E) SonarQube
  • 8. A tester wants to intercept a request, change its values, and send it again to see how the server responds. Which tool is the best fit?
A) A web browser
B) Burp Suite, an intercepting proxy that lets the tester view, modify, and resend HTTP requests
C) A spreadsheet
D) SonarQube
E) Nessus
  • 9. What does SonarQube do?
A) It intercepts HTTP requests
B) It scans Wi-Fi networks
C) It manages user accounts
D) It encrypts files
E) It analyzes source code to detect security vulnerabilities, bugs, code smells, and poor coding practices
  • 10. An admin needs to scan a server, a network device, and an application for weaknesses and get a report with Critical, High, Medium, and Low risk levels. Which tool fits?
A) SonarQube
B) A file archiver
C) Nessus, which compares scan results with a database of known vulnerabilities and generates a report with risk levels
D) A password manager
E) A word processor
  • 11. True or False: In the application security testing process, Reporting comes before Vulnerability Identification.
A) True
B) False
  • 12. What is the main purpose of Network Access Control (NAC)?
A) To speed up the network
B) To control and monitor who can access a network by allowing only verified users and compliant devices, enforcing security rules before access is granted
C) To track employee attendance
D) To design websites
E) To store backups of files
  • 13. When does Pre-Admission NAC take place?
A) After the device has left the network
B) At the end of every month
C) Only during system backups
D) Only when a virus is found
E) Before a device joins the network, when its identity and compliance are evaluated during the connection request
  • 14. A compromised device is already inside the network and tries to reach a sensitive area. Which NAC type helps stop this?
A) A screen saver
B) A printer driver
C) Pre-Admission NAC
D) Post-Admission NAC, which restricts lateral movement by requiring re-authentication for sensitive areas
E) A guest Wi-Fi password
  • 15. What does the Policy Server do in NAC?
A) It prints network reports
B) It determines the access level based on identity, permissions, device posture, and request type, then authorizes, restricts, or denies access
C) It cools the server room
D) It writes source code
E) It sells network devices
  • 16. Which of the following describes an Access Requestor (AR) in NAC?
A) A network cable
B) A firewall rule
C) Any device, user, or process requesting network access, such as laptops, servers, IP cameras, printers, and IoT devices
D) A software license
E) A backup tape
  • 17. A remote employee connects to the company network through a VPN gateway. Which NAC element serves as the access control point?
A) The Wi-Fi password
B) The employee's email
C) The company logo
D) The office printer
E) The Network Access Server (NAS), which provides secure entry to internal networks for remote employees
  • 18. Which of the following is a limitation of NAC?
A) It has low visibility and control over IoT devices or endpoints without specific user identities
B) It works only on paper
C) It cannot block any device
D) It increases network speed
E) It has no policies
  • 19. True or False: According to the slides, NAC protects against threats that originate within the network, such as insider attacks.
A) True
B) False
  • 20. What is the main goal of the Secure Software Development Life Cycle (SSDLC)?
A) To replace all developers
B) To remove testing from development
C) To finish projects faster than planned
D) To produce software that is reliable, secure, and resistant to cyberattacks while maintaining functionality and performance
E) To make software cheaper than competitors
  • 21. What happens during the Planning Phase of the SSDLC?
A) The project team identifies business goals, security objectives, potential risks, and compliance requirements
B) The software is released
C) The code is written
D) Bugs are patched
E) Penetration testing is performed
  • 22. A team writes down that the system must support user authentication, access control, encryption, and audit logging. Which SSDLC phase is this?
A) The Testing Phase
B) The Maintenance Phase
C) The Deployment Phase
D) The Requirements Phase, where both functional and security requirements are gathered and documented
E) The Retirement Phase
  • 23. What is done during the Design Phase of the SSDLC?
A) Users are trained
B) The software is retired
C) Patches are applied
D) A secure system architecture is created, and threat modeling is performed to identify possible attacks and weaknesses
E) Backups are deleted
  • 24. What is done during the Testing Phase of the SSDLC?
A) Business goals are set
B) The code is written
C) Requirements are collected
D) The software is deployed
E) Security testing verifies that the application is protected against threats, including vulnerability assessments, penetration testing, SAST, and DAST
  • 25. What happens during the Deployment Phase of the SSDLC?
A) The software is thrown away
B) Threat models are drawn
C) The project idea is proposed
D) Requirements are collected
E) The application is configured securely and released, with access controls, monitoring systems, and backup strategies in place
  • 26. Why is the Maintenance Phase needed in the SSDLC?
A) Because the software must be continuously monitored and updated with security patches to stay protected from newly discovered threats
B) Because it reduces user trust
C) Because design is finished
D) Because testing is not allowed
E) Because software never changes
  • 27. True or False: The Secure Software Development Life Cycle extends the traditional SDLC by adding security-focused practices.
A) True
B) False
  • 28. What is the main purpose of a Denial of Service (DoS) attack?
A) To make a computer, website, or network resource unavailable to its legitimate users
B) To improve website speed
C) To encrypt all data
D) To update software
E) To quietly steal passwords
  • 29. How does a flood attack cause denial of service?
A) It installs a new browser
B) It changes the website colors
C) It saturates the targeted server with an overwhelming amount of packets so legitimate users cannot reach it
D) It sends a single small email
E) It deletes the user's account
  • 30. Which of the following is a method used to help prevent DoS attacks?
A) Sharing admin passwords
B) Ignoring unusual traffic
C) Turning off logging
D) Using a cloud mitigation provider, which is more effective than relying on a firewall alone
E) Disabling the firewall
  • 31. What is SQL Injection?
A) A way to back up a database
B) A method of encrypting databases
C) A vulnerability where attackers inject malicious SQL queries through user inputs to manipulate the backend database
D) A tool for designing tables
E) A type of Wi-Fi attack
  • 32. A website's login form lets users type SQL code that the database then runs. What is the best way to prevent this?
A) Remove the login form
B) Display detailed database errors
C) Trust all user input
D) Use prepared statements and parameterized queries, and validate and restrict user input
E) Give all users full privileges
  • 33. Which type of SQL injection forces the database to generate an error message to reveal information?
A) DOM-based XSS
B) Union-based SQL injection
C) Blind SQL injection
D) Stored XSS
E) Error-based SQL injection, where the attacker intentionally causes the database to generate an error message
  • 34. What is Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)?
A) A fake email asking for passwords
B) A vulnerability where an attacker injects malicious client-side scripts, usually JavaScript, into a trusted website that then run in other users' browsers
C) A hardware failure
D) A database backup
E) An attack that floods a server with packets
  • 35. Which type of XSS permanently stores malicious input in the application and executes it whenever users visit the page?
A) Union-based injection
B) Reflected XSS
C) Stored XSS, where the malicious input is permanently saved by the application and runs for every visitor
D) Blind SQL injection
E) DOM-based XSS
  • 36. How does a Content Security Policy (CSP) help against XSS?
A) It speeds up scripts
B) It blocks all users
C) It encrypts the database
D) It reduces the impact of XSS by restricting the sources from which scripts are allowed to execute
E) It deletes cookies
  • 37. What is phishing?
A) A way to back up files
B) A kind of antivirus
C) A method for speeding up the internet
D) A cyberattack where criminals pretend to be a trusted person or organization to trick victims into sharing information, clicking bad links, or downloading malware
E) A type of fishing app
  • 38. A user receives an email that looks like it is from their bank and asks for their one-time password (OTP). What should they do?
A) Click the link quickly
B) Reply with the OTP
C) Forward it to friends
D) Avoid clicking links or sharing the OTP, verify the sender through official channels, and turn on Multi-Factor Authentication
E) Ignore all security tools
  • 39. True or False: CSRF tokens and SameSite cookies are listed as ways to prevent CSRF.
A) False
B) True
  • 40. What does the Computer Fraud and Abuse Act (CFAA) do?
A) It regulates online ads
B) It protects patient health records
C) It sets rules for credit cards
D) It criminalizes unauthorized access to computer systems in the United States
E) It governs children's websites
  • 41. A hospital must protect the privacy and security of patient health data. Which U.S. law sets these standards?
A) HIPAA, the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
B) COPPA
C) GLBA
D) SOX
E) CFAA
  • 42. Which U.S. law requires financial institutions to protect customers' personal information?
A) FISMA
B) SOX
C) COPPA
D) The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA), which applies to financial institutions
E) HIPAA
  • 43. Which U.S. law governs data practices for online services aimed at children?
A) HIPAA
B) SOX
C) CFAA
D) The Children's Online Privacy Protection Act (COPPA), which regulates how services handle children's data
E) GLBA
  • 44. Which U.S. agency regulates cybersecurity through its authority over unfair or deceptive trade practices?
A) The DHS
B) The FBI
C) The NIST
D) The Department of Agriculture
E) The Federal Trade Commission (FTC), through its authority over unfair or deceptive trade practices
  • 45. A California resident asks a company to delete their personal data and stop selling it. Which law gives them this right?
A) SOX
B) The California Consumer Privacy Act and California Privacy Rights Act (CCPA/CPRA)
C) HIPAA
D) FISMA
E) COPPA
  • 46. Which standard provides protocols and guidelines that secure credit and debit card transactions?
A) CMMC
B) SOX
C) PCI-DSS, the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard
D) COPPA
E) HIPAA
  • 47. True or False: The NIST Cybersecurity Framework is a law.
A) False
B) True
  • 48. What is ethical hacking?
A) Selling stolen passwords
B) Hacking done secretly to steal data
C) Hacking done with permission to find security weaknesses and help improve security, following rules and agreements
D) Breaking into accounts for fun
E) Hacking done to harm users
  • 49. What does data privacy mean?
A) Protecting personal and sensitive information so it is not accessed or shared without proper authorization
B) Deleting all data daily
C) Collecting as much data as possible
D) Making data public
E) Sharing data with everyone
  • 50. Which of the following is a responsibility of a cybersecurity professional?
A) Using weak passwords
B) Keeping information confidential, following company policies, avoiding conflicts of interest, and reporting incidents properly
C) Ignoring policies
D) Sharing client data publicly
E) Hiding incidents
  • 51. A security analyst logs into a coworker's account without permission just to look around. How is this viewed?
A) It is a safety measure
B) It is considered illegal and unethical because accessing an account without permission is unauthorized access
C) It is a normal part of the job
D) It is ethical hacking
E) It is allowed if no data is taken
  • 52. True or False: Hacking into a system without permission is illegal.
A) True
B) False
  • 53. What is Wireless Network Security?
A) Installing more routers
B) Selling wireless devices
C) Extending the signal range
D) The protection of wireless networks, such as Wi-Fi, from unauthorized access, cyber threats, and data theft
E) Making Wi-Fi faster
  • 54. Which encryption standards are recommended for securing a Wi-Fi network?
A) A shared public password
B) WPA2 or WPA3, because they protect wireless access with strong encryption
C) No encryption
D) Plain text
E) An open network
  • 55. A fake Wi-Fi network appears with a name nearly identical to a cafĂ©'s real network. Which threat is this?
A) Eavesdropping
B) A guest network
C) A firmware update
D) A rogue or fake access point, which is an unauthorized network that imitates a legitimate one
E) A strong password
  • 56. A new router has just been installed. Which security measure is recommended?
A) Keep the default password
B) Disable all security
C) Turn off encryption
D) Change the default administrator password and keep devices updated with security updates
E) Share the password publicly
  • 57. Which practice helps keep different groups of users separate on a wireless network?
A) Removing all passwords
B) Creating separate guest, student, and staff networks so each group has only the access it needs
C) Turning off the router
D) Using one shared network for all
E) Giving guests the staff password
  • 58. Why are weak passwords a risk to wireless networks?
A) They erase saved data
B) They make the signal weaker
C) They slow down the router
D) They reduce battery life
E) Easy-to-guess passwords increase the risk of unauthorized access to the network
  • 59. What is the main purpose of a Virtual Private Network (VPN)?
A) To block all advertisements
B) To store files online
C) To create an encrypted tunnel between your device and a VPN server that protects your data and hides your real IP address
D) To make websites load faster
E) To increase Wi-Fi range
  • 60. How does a VPN affect your IP address?
A) It publishes it online
B) It leaves it unchanged
C) It sells it
D) The VPN server replaces your real IP address with its own public IP address
E) It deletes your device
  • 61. An employee works from home and needs secure access to company files. Which VPN type fits best?
A) No VPN at all
B) A Double VPN
C) A Site-to-Site VPN
D) A wireless printer
E) A Remote Access VPN, which connects individual users securely to a remote private network
  • 62. A large business wants to connect multiple branch offices into one private network using routers. Which VPN type fits?
A) A Personal VPN
B) A Remote Access VPN
C) A Site-to-Site VPN, which connects entire networks using routers instead of apps on user devices
D) A Double VPN
E) A Mobile VPN
  • 63. Which VPN type is optimized for smartphones and tablets?
A) A Cloud VPN
B) A Double VPN
C) A Personal VPN
D) A Mobile VPN, which is designed to stay secure as the user switches between networks
E) A Site-to-Site VPN
  • 64. What is a Double VPN?
A) A VPN with two passwords
B) A VPN that routes and encrypts traffic through two separate servers instead of just one
C) Two phones on one VPN
D) A VPN that encrypts half the data
E) A VPN that links two offices
  • 65. Which VPN protocol is open-source, highly configurable, and considered the industry standard for maximum security?
A) SSTP
B) PPTP
C) OpenVPN, which is open-source and highly configurable
D) SSH
E) L2TP
  • 66. Which VPN protocol is lightweight and has a much smaller code base than older protocols?
A) PPTP
B) L2TP
C) SSTP
D) IKEv2
E) WireGuard, a newer protocol with a much smaller code base
  • 67. Which VPN protocol does not encrypt data on its own and is almost always paired with IPSec?
A) WireGuard
B) IKEv2
C) L2TP, which relies on IPSec to provide the encryption
D) OpenVPN
E) SSTP
  • 68. True or False: According to the VPN conclusion, a VPN makes you entirely anonymous online.
A) True
B) False
  • 69. In the CIA triad, what does Confidentiality mean?
A) Only authorized users can access the information, keeping sensitive data protected from unauthorized people
B) Everyone can view data
C) Data is deleted often
D) Systems never go down
E) Data is always backed up
  • 70. In the CIA triad, what does Integrity mean?
A) Data is deleted daily
B) Users are always logged in
C) Data remains accurate and unaltered whether it is in transit or in storage
D) Systems are always online
E) Data is hidden from everyone
  • 71. In the CIA triad, what does Availability mean?
A) Data is kept secret
B) Data is never changed
C) Only admins can log in
D) Systems shut down at night
E) Systems and data are accessible whenever they are legitimately needed by authorized users
  • 72. What is defense in depth?
A) Using a single password
B) Using multiple, overlapping layers of security so that if one layer fails, others still protect the system
C) Trusting all internal users
D) Relying on one strong firewall
E) Protecting only the perimeter
  • 73. An employee is given only the minimum access they need to do their job. Which security principle is being applied?
A) Least privilege, where users, apps, and devices receive only the access they need
B) Defense in depth
C) Open access
D) Zero access
E) Redundancy
  • 74. What is network segmentation used for?
A) Dividing the network into zones, such as VLANs and subnets, to limit how far an attacker can move
B) Storing backups
C) Making Wi-Fi faster
D) Increasing the number of users
E) Removing firewalls
  • 75. What is the main idea of Zero Trust?
A) Trust everyone inside the network
B) Trust only the firewall
C) Trust verified devices forever
D) Trust all employees
E) Never trust, always verify: every user and device must be authenticated and authorized for each access request
  • 76. A company wants to place its public web services in a buffer zone, separate from its internal network. Which component fits?
A) A DMZ, which acts as a buffer zone for public services
B) A SIEM
C) A VPN client
D) A backup tape
E) A password
  • 77. What does a SIEM platform do?
A) It collects logs from every zone, correlates events, detects anomalies, and supports incident response
B) It repairs hardware
C) It creates user accounts
D) It encrypts disks
E) It prints reports
  • 78. In AAA, what does Accounting do?
A) It encrypts data
B) It verifies who the user is
C) It blocks traffic
D) It grants permissions
E) It logs activity for audit and forensics so that actions can be traced later
  • 79. True or False: The NIST Cybersecurity Framework has five functions: Identify, Protect, Detect, Respond, and Recover.
A) True
B) False
  • 80. What is the main focus of Network Application Security?
A) Identifying and fixing vulnerabilities in applications, which correspond to Common Weakness Enumerations (CWEs)
B) Managing office printers
C) Selling licenses
D) Designing logos
E) Fixing broken cables
  • 81. Which tools are listed for Network Application Security?
A) Firewalls only
B) Backups only
C) Routers and switches
D) SAST, DAST, and IAST, which analyze application code and behavior for vulnerabilities
E) Wireshark and AirCrack
  • 82. Which tools are listed for traditional Network Security?
A) Burp Suite only
B) SonarQube only
C) SAST and DAST
D) IAST only
E) Wireshark, AirCrack, and Metasploit, which focus on network-level testing
  • 83. Which risk is ranked #1 on the OWASP Top 10 as presented?
A) SSRF
B) Insecure Design
C) Broken Access Control, where users can act outside their intended permissions
D) Cryptographic Failures
E) Injection
  • 84. Which OWASP risk involves sensitive data not being properly protected in transit or at rest?
A) Broken Access Control
B) Cryptographic Failures, which can lead to exposure of passwords, health records, and personal data
C) SSRF
D) Insecure Design
E) Injection
  • 85. What is Server-Side Request Forgery (SSRF)?
A) A faulty server fan
B) A stolen password
C) A flaw where a web app pulls data from a remote resource without validating the user-supplied URL
D) An email scam
E) A broken login page
  • 86. What does a Web Application Firewall (WAF) do?
A) It scans physical devices
B) It encrypts email
C) It repairs software
D) It manages passwords
E) It monitors and filters HTTP traffic at OSI layer 7, working like a reverse proxy that shields the server
  • 87. What does Runtime Application Self-Protection (RASP) do?
A) It writes source code
B) It scans Wi-Fi networks
C) It installs updates
D) It analyzes user behavior and application traffic at runtime and can terminate sessions that exploit weaknesses
E) It backs up databases
  • 88. What is a Software Bill of Materials (SBOM)?
A) A comprehensive list of a software's components, including open-source and proprietary libraries and modules
B) A set of firewall rules
C) A copy of the source code
D) A list of staff members
E) A list of project costs
  • 89. What does "shift left" mean in DevSecOps?
A) Moving security to the end
B) Skipping testing
C) Removing developers
D) Integrating security earlier in the software development life cycle so vulnerabilities are cheaper and easier to fix
E) Testing only in production
  • 90. A vulnerable open-source library has a high CVSS score, but the application never invokes the vulnerable code. What do the slides say about its risk?
A) It means a breach occurred
B) It must always be fixed first
C) It must be ignored forever
D) The application must go offline
E) The CVSS score carries no real risk because the vulnerable code is not actually used
  • 91. True or False: Gray box testing uses limited internal access, such as a signed-in user's login credentials.
A) True
B) False
  • 92. What does OWASP stand for?
A) Open Wireless App Standard
B) Open Worldwide Application Security Project
C) Open Web Server Policy
D) Official Web Safety Panel
E) Online Web Access Security Plan
  • 93. What is the common mistake in input validation?
A) Checking input only in the browser and not validating it again on the server
B) Validating on the server
C) Checking the year entered
D) Rejecting invalid input
E) Using strong passwords
  • 94. What is the purpose of output encoding?
A) To make user data safe before it is displayed on a webpage so it cannot run as code
B) To back up databases
C) To hash passwords
D) To check logins
E) To create sessions
  • 95. What is a common mistake in authentication and password management?
A) Verifying credentials
B) Storing passwords in plain text instead of protecting them with appropriate password-hashing practices
C) Using secure sessions
D) Hashing passwords
E) Using strong passwords
  • 96. A student can view their own enrollment but cannot approve another student's enrollment. Which secure coding practice enforces this?
A) Access Control, which checks what an authenticated user is allowed to do
B) Input Validation
C) Output Encoding
D) Error Handling
E) Cryptography
  • 97. What is a common mistake in error handling and logging?
A) Logging failed logins
B) Showing a safe error message
C) Recording useful events
D) Failing safely
E) Showing stack traces, database details, or other sensitive technical information to users
  • 98. A production server still uses default credentials, unnecessary services, and development settings. Which practice has been ignored?
A) Input Validation
B) Session Management
C) Access Control
D) System Configuration, which secures the environment the application runs in
E) Output Encoding
  • 99. What is a common mistake in session management?
A) Validating the session
B) Using timeouts
C) Ending sessions after logout
D) Leaving sessions active unnecessarily or failing to protect session identifiers
E) Creating a protected session
  • 100. What is a common mistake in cryptographic practices?
A) Understanding the goal
B) Using secure channels
C) Protecting data
D) Managing keys securely
E) Inventing your own encryption instead of using established, suitable cryptographic protection
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