ThatQuiz Test Library Take this test now
CLJ1
Contributed by: Montoya
  • 1. During a cyber-enabled drug trafficking case, PDEA requests assistance from the NBI. What is the best rationale for involving the NBI?
A) PNP is constitutionally barred from drug enforcement
B) PDEA is limited to drug rehabilitation programs.
C) BI possesses specialized forensic and cyber-investigation capability needed for transnational cases.
D) NBI has exclusive power over cybercrime investigations.
  • 2. Which situation illustrates the preventive role of the PNP most accurately?
A) Establishing community patrol visibility to deter crime.
B) Conducting custodial interrogation.
C) Arresting suspects after a robbery
D) Prosecuting accused individuals.
  • 3. Which principle is best safeguarded when the PDEA leads anti-drug operations but deputizes the PNP for tactical support?
A) Inter-agency collaboration and operational efficiency
B) Jurisdictional supremacy
C) Absolute independence of agencies
D) Non-delegation of powers
  • 4. Which principle is best safeguarded when the PDEA leads anti-drug operations but deputizes the PNP for tactical support? A commercial complex failed to comply with fire code requirements. A fire later occurs, causing multiple casualties. From the lens of criminal justice, which evaluative issue arises against the BFP?
A) Negligence in preventive regulatory enforcement
B) Procedural delay in criminal prosecution
C) Overstepping PNP jurisdiction
D) Failure in community policing
  • 5. Which distinction most clearly separates the mandates of the PNP and the NBI?
A) PNP manages prosecutions, while NBI supervises corrections.
B) PNP enforces all laws nationwide, while NBI investigates only corruption cases.
C) PNP investigates graft, while NBI handles only barangay crimes.
D) PNP handles general law enforcement, while NBI focuses on technical, complex, and high-profile investigations.
  • 6. Why is chain of custody crucial in PNP-handled drug cases?
A) It allows evidence to be freely transferred between agencies.
B) It ensures that evidence integrity is preserved for admissibility in court.
C) It applies only in NBI laboratories, not in PNP operations.
D) It gives judges discretion to disregard rules of evidence.
  • 7. After a suspicious fire, the BFP submits a technical report indicating arson. How does this role affect criminal proceedings?
A) It provides admissible forensic evidence supporting prosecution.
B) It allows BFP to automatically prosecute the offender.
C) It replaces the need for police investigation
D) It grants the BFP jurisdiction over sentencing.
  • 8. Which case scenario properly falls under the NBI’s jurisdiction rather than the PNP’s?
A) Barangay disturbance between neighbors
B) Theft in a barangay sari-sari store
C) Traffic violations along EDSA
D) Syndicated estafa involving high-ranking officials and foreign entities
  • 9. A PNP-led buy-bust operation is dismissed in court because it was conducted without PDEA coordination. What principle is compromised?
A) Due process and proper jurisdictional mandate
B) Separation of powers
C) Judicial independence
D) Proportionality in sentencing
  • 10. Which BFP function most directly reflects its preventive contribution to criminal justice?
A) Prohibiting building permits
B) Investigating graft and corruption cases
C) Arresting suspects in arson cases
D) Enforcing fire safety codes and conducting inspections
  • 11. Which evaluative advantage does the PNP hold compared to NBI in the grassroots application of criminal justice?
A) Mandate over international law enforcement
B) Exclusive power over anti-drug operations
C) Broader barangay presence and patrol-based deterrence
D) Superior cyber-investigation facilities
  • 12. A prosecutor notes conflicting complaints separately filed by PNP and NBI in the same case. Which evaluative issue arises?
A) Chain of custody
B) Redundancy and lack of inter-agency coordination
C) Separation of powers
D) Collaborative governance
  • 13. During an inquest, it was found that PNP did not document the evidence properly. What is the likely legal impact?
A) BFP conducts secondary investigation.
B) The suspect is automatically acquitted.
C) Evidence may be excluded, weakening prosecution.
D) PDEA assumes jurisdiction.
  • 14. In cases of suspected arson, why is BFP’s role essential even after fire suppression?
A) It provides legal representation for suspects.
B) It prevents further police intervention.
C) It conducts forensic analysis necessary for criminal liability determination.
D) It adjudicates liability of building owners.
  • 15. Which agency has the authority to deputize other law enforcement bodies for anti-drug operations?
A) DOJ
B) PDEA
C) BFP
D) NBI
  • 16. What principle is promoted when PNP secures the perimeter, NBI handles cyber evidence, and PDEA leads the raid in a drug bust?
A) Collaborative governance and complementarity of mandates
B) Unity of command
C) Overstepping of authority
D) Procedural redundancy
  • 17. What is the primary evaluative reason that PNP is often called the “backbone” of law enforcement in the criminal justice system?
A) They supervise prison corrections.
B) Their widespread presence allows immediate response and preventive policing.
C) They provide legal defense for the accused.
D) They control the courts.
  • 18. Which NBI function most strengthens its credibility in high-profile investigations?
A) Nationwide precinct deployment
B) Forensic and technical divisions specializing in advanced evidence analysis
C) Fire suppression capability
D) Barangay patrol assistance
  • 19. A large-scale anti-drug operation fails because PDEA and PNP conducted overlapping operations separately. Which consequence arises?
A) Automatic conviction of suspects.
B) Media coverage is reduced.
C) BFP assumes jurisdiction.
D) Evidence handling and prosecution are compromised.
  • 20. Which statement best evaluates BFP’s link to the “community” pillar of justice?
A) It eliminates LGU functions during calamities.
B) It prosecutes arsonists directly on behalf of barangays
C) Its enforcement of fire codes prevents disasters that could escalate into criminal negligence affecting communities.
D) It supervises barangay elections.
  • 21. A prosecutor dismisses a complaint because the arrest was illegal, and no valid warrantless arrest exception applied. What is being safeguarded?
A) Prosecutorial discretion
B) Legality of arrest and personal liberty
C) Efficiency of case disposal
D) Integrity of judicial process
  • 22. What best explains why prosecutors cannot delegate the determination of probable cause to the police?
A) Police officers lack training in evidence handling
B) Courts do not trust police testimony
C) Delegation violates separation of powers
D) Probable cause is a quasi-judicial function reserved for prosecutors
  • 23. In an inquest proceeding, why is it important that the prosecutor evaluates whether the arrest falls under Rule 113, Sec. 5 (warrantless arrests)?
A) To reduce the workload of judges
B) To avoid filing cases based on illegal arrests, which could later be quashed
C) To protect prosecutors from liability
D) To ensure cases are filed quickly
  • 24. If a prosecutor files an information despite weak evidence, what is the most likely impact on the justice system?
A) It undermines the rights of the accused and clogs court dockets
B) It strengthens police credibility
C) It expedites justice delivery
D) Courts will automatically convict
  • 25. In preliminary investigations, why is it necessary to require counter-affidavits from the respondents?
A) To delay filing of cases until evidence is complete
B) To shift responsibility to defense counsel
C) To comply with due process and ensure a balanced evaluation of evidence
D) To shorten the prosecutor’s workload
  • 26. If during an inquest, evidence clearly shows a person was caught in flagrante delicto, what should the prosecutor do?
A) File the appropriate information in court without preliminary investigation
B) Release the suspect immediately
C) Refer the case to the DOJ Secretary
D) Wait for the suspect’s motion for bail
  • 27. A prosecutor finds inconsistencies in the complainant’s affidavit but strong corroborating physical evidence exists. How should this be evaluated?
A) Defer to the judge for determination
B) Dismiss the case outright
C) Still establish probable cause based on the totality of evidenc
D) Require additional police affidavits only
  • 28. What principle justifies the prosecutor’s authority to decide whether to file a case in court?
A) Legislative intent
B) Prosecutorial independence
C) Judicial discretion
D) Police authority in law enforcement
  • 29. Which scenario reflects the proper exercise of prosecutorial discretion in preliminary investigation?
A) Filing a case despite no prima facie evidence to avoid criticism
B) Dismissing a complaint due to insufficient probable cause
C) Automatically endorsing all complaints to the DOJ Secretary
D) Leaving evidence evaluation to the judge
  • 30. If a prosecutor files a case based on inadmissible evidence (illegally obtained), what is the likely consequence in court?
A) Conviction due to presumption of regularity
B) Mistrial
C) Acquittal or dismissal due to exclusionary rule
D) Automatic appeal to DOJ
  • 31. Why is the prosecutor considered the 'gatekeeper' of the courts in criminal proceedings?
A) They decide on guilt or innocence
B) They approve police promotions
C) They supervise correctional facilities
D) They determine which cases merit judicial trial through preliminary investigation
  • 32. A suspect is arrested without a warrant for murder but the prosecutor finds no probable cause during inquest. What should the prosecutor do?
A) Suspend proceedings until further evidence is gathered
B) Order the suspect’s immediate release
C) Endorse the case to the Ombudsman
D) File the case anyway and let the court decide
  • 33. In conducting preliminary investigation, why must prosecutors avoid relying solely on police recommendations?
A) Courts demand police neutrality
B) Police may exaggerate findings
C) DOJ circulars prohibit it
D) The Constitution requires independent and impartial evaluation of evidence
  • 34. Which of the following best evaluates the role of the prosecutor in protecting the accused’s right to liberty?
A) By dismissing all weak cases regardless of evidence
B) By automatically recommending bail
C) By conducting speedy trials
D) By ensuring probable cause exists before a person is haled into court
  • 35. What is the critical evaluative function of inquest proceedings compared to preliminary investigation?
A) Inquest is optional, while preliminary investigation is mandatory
B) Inquest is conducted only after conviction
C) Inquest determines validity of warrantless arrests, while preliminary
D) Both serve only as police procedures
  • 36. When prosecutors conduct inquest proceedings immediately after arrest, what constitutional principle is primarily observed?
A) Right to free counsel
B) Right against double jeopardy
C) Right to equal protection
D) Right to speedy disposition of cases
  • 37. A prosecutor ignores an accused’s request to submit a counter-affidavit in preliminary investigation. What is the most probable legal outcome?
A) Evidence will be considered waived
B) The case will automatically be dismissed
C) The case proceeds unaffected
D) Accused may question the prosecutor’s action via certiorari for denial of due process
  • 38. A prosecutor dismisses a complaint after finding that the evidence presented is based only on hearsay affidavits. Which principle is the prosecutor upholding?
A) Inquisitorial principle
B) Res judicata
C) Adversarial principle
D) Probable cause requirement
  • 39. During a preliminary investigation, the prosecutor evaluates the sufficiency of evidence. What is the correct evaluative standard to determine probable cause?
A) Such evidence as would lead a reasonably prudent person to believe a crime was committed
B) Substantial evidence
C) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
D) Mere suspicion or belief
  • 40. If a prosecutor conducts an inquest proceeding without affording the arrested person the chance to explain or submit evidence, which constitutional right is violated?
A) Right to bail
B) Right to equal protection of the laws
C) Right to due process
D) Right against double jeopardy
  • 41. Which of the following best describes the role of the Supreme Court in the Philippine judicial hierarchy?
A) It primarily serves as a trial court for criminal cases.
B) It only hears cases endorsed by the President.
C) It directly hears all cases filed by the public without restriction
D) It exercises appellate jurisdiction and has the power of judicial review over all lower courts.
  • 42. Why is it important to maintain a hierarchy of courts in the Philippine judicial system?
A) To limit the number of lawyers who can appear in trial courts.
B) To ensure orderly administration of justice and prevent forum shopping.
C) To expand the power of barangay courts.
D) To allow parties to skip lower courts for faster results.
  • 43. Which trial court has original jurisdiction over cases of illegal possession of dangerous drugs involving small quantities?
A) Court of Appeals
B) Municipal Trial Court (MTC)
C) Sandiganbayan
D) Regional Trial Court (RTC)
  • 44. What is the primary evaluative distinction between the Sandiganbayan and the Regional Trial Courts?
A) RTCs only handle barangay-level disputes, while Sandiganbayan hears all national cases.
B) Sandiganbayan handles cases involving public officials, while RTCs handle general criminal and civil cases.
C) Both share identical jurisdictions.
D) Both A and C
  • 45. The doctrine of hierarchy of courts requires what procedural rule when filing petitions for extraordinary writs?
A) Petitions should generally be filed in the lowest court with concurrent jurisdiction.
B) Parties are free to choose any court.
C) Petitions must always be filed first in the Supreme Court.
D) Petitions must always be filed first in the Supreme Court.
  • 46. Which of the following cases falls under the exclusive jurisdiction of the Sandiganbayan?
A) Graft and corruption by a provincial governor
B) Family disputes involving annulment.
C) Estafa committed by a private individual.
D) Cybercrime by a private company.
  • 47. Which principle explains why the Supreme Court cannot be burdened with all trial-level cases?
A) Principle of Judicial Economy
B) Principle of Judicial Hierarchy
C) Principle of Judicial Activism
D) Principle of Collegiality
  • 48. Which trial court has jurisdiction over civil cases where the value of the property does not exceed ₱300,000 (outside Metro Manila)?
A) Supreme Court
B) Court of Appeals
C) Regional Trial Court
D) Municipal Trial Court
  • 49. The Court of Appeals primarily serves what function in the hierarchy of courts?
A) It acts as an appellate court reviewing decisions of RTCs and quasi-judicial agencies.
B) It enforces laws passed by Congress.
C) It directly tries barangay disputes.
D) It serves as the first-level trial court for minor offenses.
  • 50. A public official charged with plunder must be tried before which court?
A) Court of Appeals
B) Municipal Trial Court
C) Regional Trial Court
D) Sandiganbayan
  • 51. Why are Municipal Trial Courts considered the “first level courts”?
A) They try less serious offenses and small claims to decongest higher courts.
B) They serve as administrative bodies only.
C) They handle the heaviest caseload in the system.
D) They have the same power as the Supreme Court.
  • 52. Which case would properly fall within the jurisdiction of the Regional Trial Court?
A) Violation of traffic rules
B) Murder
C) Barangay conciliation disputes
D) Theft involving ₱5,000
  • 53. Which doctrine guides the Supreme Court in refusing to act on petitions directly filed before it without first exhausting lower remedies?
A) Doctrine of Stare Decisis
B) Doctrine of Judicial Review
C) Doctrine of Hierarchy of Courts
D) Doctrine of Judicial Restraint
  • 54. Why is the Sandiganbayan considered a special court within the hierarchy?
A) Because it handles electoral disputes.
B) Because it handles marriage annulments.
C) Because it focuses on crimes involving graft and corruption by public officials.
D) Because it hears all appeals from the RTC.
  • 55. Which of the following is an exception to the doctrine of hierarchy of courts?
A) When the RTC is unavailable due to vacancy.
B) When barangay officials decline to mediate.
C) When an MTC judge is absent.
D) When there are novel constitutional issues of transcendental importance.
  • 56. Which is true of the relationship between the Supreme Court and the Court of Appeals?
A) The Court of Appeals acts as an intermediate appellate body whose decisions are reviewable by the Supreme Court.
B) The Court of Appeals has no appellate power at all.
C) The Supreme Court directly supervises case raffling in the Court of Appeals.
D) The Supreme Court can only review CA cases involving traffic violations.
  • 57. Which of the following scenarios demonstrates a violation of the doctrine of hierarchy of courts?
A) Appealing an RTC decision to the Court of Appeals.
B) Elevating a CA decision to the Supreme Court for review.
C) Filing a small claims case in an MTC.
D) Filing a petition for certiorari directly with the Supreme Court despite available remedies in the Court of Appeals.
  • 58. The jurisdiction of Shari’a courts is limited to what type of cases?
A) Criminal cases involving Muslims
B) Civil cases relating to marriage, divorce, and inheritance among Muslims
C) All cases in Mindanao
D) All graft cases committed in Muslim areas
  • 59. Which court has exclusive appellate jurisdiction over all decisions of the Municipal Trial Courts?
A) Regional Trial Court
B) Sandiganbayan
C) Court of Appeals
D) Supreme Court
  • 60. A case of homicide committed in Quezon City should first be filed before which court?
A) Municipal Trial Court
B) Sandiganbayan
C) Court of Appeals
D) Regional Trial Court
  • 61. Which principle justifies BJMP’s responsibility to improve conditions despite limited resources?
A) Retribution
B) Human rights protection
C) Administrative convenience
D) Expediency
  • 62. Which evaluative distinction best explains why BJMP facilities are considered temporary compared to BuCor institutions?
A) Nature of detainees’ custody
B) Jurisdictional funding
C) Size of facilities
D) Geographic scope
  • 63. Why is the transfer of inmates from BJMP to BuCor custody upon final conviction important?
A) To reduce congestion only
B) To assign custody to the proper agency
C) To punish detainees further
D) To delay enforcement of judgment
  • 64. Which role of BuCor most directly reflects its rehabilitative mandate under RA 10575?
A) Crime investigation
B) Reformation programs
C) Issuing warrants
D) Maintaining jails
  • 65. If BJMP fails to provide humane conditions for detainees, what constitutional right is most compromised?
A) Right to speedy trial
B) Right to bail
C) Right against cruel punishment
D) Right to property
  • 66. A convict sentenced to reclusion perpetua is mistakenly kept under BJMP custody. What evaluative failure occurred?
A) Judicial oversight
B) Jurisdictional custody
C) Prosecutorial lapse
D) Administrative error
  • 67. The BuCor uses classification systems for inmates (minimum, medium, maximum security). This serves primarily to:
A) Delay reintegration
B) Manage risks and rehabilitation
C) Reduce costs
D) Punish more severely
  • 68. Which evaluative factor best explains why BJMP is under DILG while BuCor is under DOJ?
A) Funding allocation
B) Distinction between local jails and national prisons
C) Geographic scope
D) Political mandate
  • 69. Which of the following situations demonstrates a gap in BJMP’s mandate compared to BuCor?
A) Handling warrants
B) Administrative budgeting
C) Managing short-term detainees
D) Lack of rehabilitation for long-term detainees
  • 70. What is the significance of BuCor’s reformation programs to national security?
A) They replace judicial proceedings
B) They reduce recidivism
C) They reduce jail congestion
D) They provide employment to jail staff
  • 71. In terms of the five pillars of the criminal justice system, BJMP and BuCor belong to which pillar?
A) Corrections
B) Judiciary
C) Prosecution
D) Law enforcement
  • 72. Which evaluative issue is most commonly associated with BJMP facilities compared to BuCor institutions?
A) Excessive budgets
B) Political interference
C) National classification
D) Overcrowding
  • 73. A BJMP official implements livelihood training for detainees. This function demonstrates which broader role?
A) Humanitarian function of jails
B) Judicial oversight
C) Prosecutorial support
D) Sentencing
  • 74. The Board of Pardons and Parole works closely with BuCor because:
A) Courts automatically release parolees
B) Prisoners eligible for release are under BuCor custody
C) Prosecutors direct parole decisions
D) BJMP manages parolee monitoring
  • 75. Why is inter-agency coordination between BJMP and BuCor critical after final judgment?
A) To increase BJMP budget
B) To delay transfer of convicts
C) To punish detainees twice
D) To ensure proper transfer of custody
  • 76. Which principle of penology is most at stake when BuCor fails to implement effective rehabilitation programs?
A) Deterrence
B) Reformation
C) Retribution
D) Isolation
  • 77. Which of the following demonstrates BJMP’s role in ensuring access to justice?
A) Drafting laws
B) Conducting criminal investigations
C) Issuing arrest warrants
D) Safeguarding detainees’ right to attend trial
  • 78. The modernization of BuCor under RA 10575 emphasized which evaluative reform?
A) Professionalization and rehabilitation
B) Expansion of local jails
C) Political independence
D) Privatization
  • 79. If BuCor fails to classify prisoners properly, what risk increases?
A) Violence and security breaches
B) Faster reintegration
C) Judicial appeals
D) Higher operational costs
  • 80. Which of the following represents a shared challenge for both BJMP and BuCor?
A) Duplication of parole power
B) Lack of judicial authority
C) Overcrowding
D) Geographic limitation
  • 81. Which evaluative conclusion best explains the complementary role of BJMP and BuCor in corrections?
A) They both issue arrest warrants
B) They divide custody between temporary detention and long-term imprisonment
C) They both adjudicate disputes
D) They both prosecute criminal cases
  • 82. Which demonstrates BuCor’s reintegration role after release of prisoners?
A) Post-release monitoring and livelihood suppor
B) Managing trial schedules
C) Supervising prosecutors
D) Issuing criminal warrants
  • 83. A detainee sentenced to 2 years imprisonment remains under BJMP custody. Why is this correct?
A) BuCor refuses custody
B) Court orders override rules
C) DOJ lacks authority
D) BJMP handles sentences below 3 years
  • 84. What is the evaluative function of BuCor’s therapeutic community programs?
A) Ensure longer detention
B) Reduce state expenses
C) Increase judicial backlog
D) Facilitate rehabilitation and reintegration
  • 85. Which rationale explains why BJMP cannot impose retributive punishment on detainees?
A) Courts control BJMP
B) BuCor has exclusive authority
C) Detainees are presumed innocent
D) BJMP lacks resources
  • 86. Which of the following best demonstrates the evaluative function of the doctrine of judicial hierarchy?
A) It allows parties to choose the fastest court.
B) It ensures that all courts have equal power.
C) It prevents overburdening of higher courts by routing cases first to proper trial
D) It abolishes trial courts in favor of the Supreme Court.
  • 87. Why does the Constitution vest the Supreme Court with both original and appellate jurisdiction?
A) To avoid the Court of Appeals’ role.
B) To directly handle barangay disputes.
C) To reduce the power of trial courts.
D) To ensure flexibility in resolving cases of national significance.
  • 88. The principle that “jurisdiction is conferred by law” means what in practice?
A) Jurisdiction is strictly defined by statute and cannot be assumed at will
B) Jurisdiction of a court depends only on the agreement of the parties
C) Courts may expand their own jurisdiction when necessary.
D) Jurisdiction can be granted by barangay officials.
  • 89. Which of the following demonstrates proper application of jurisdictional rules?
A) An annulment case filed before the Sandiganbayan.
B) A small claims case exceeding ₱1,000,000 filed before the MTC.
C) A murder case filed before the RTC.
D) A graft case against a mayor filed before the MTC.
  • 90. Which evaluative statement best explains the function of trial courts in the criminal justice system?
A) They determine guilt or innocence based on evidence presented
B) They create laws for implementation.
C) They exercise only appellate functions.
D) They act as advisory bodies to the President.
  • 91. Which of the following reflects the PDEA’s strategic role under RA 9165?
A) Supervising barangay justice systems
B) Implementing the National Anti-Drug Plan of Action and leading drug enforcement policy
C) Managing correctional rehabilitation centers
D) Handling cybercrimes independently
  • 92. Why is inter-agency training between PNP, NBI, BFP, and PDEA essential?
A) To create uniform operational knowledge and enhance coordination in joint operations
B) To reduce agency manpower
C) To centralize all powers in one body
D) To replace judicial oversight
  • 93. When PNP evidence is consistently dismissed in court, what evaluative issue should be reviewed?
A) Lack of PDEA authority
B) Influence of the suspects
C) Possible recurring lapses in evidence handling and procedure
D) Judges’ impartiality
  • 94. Why is law enforcement considered the “first pillar” of the Philippine criminal justice system?
A) It determines guilt or innocence.
B) It enforces the law, gathers evidence, and initiates case build-up for prosecution.
C) It supervises post-conviction reintegration.
D) It rehabilitates offenders.
  • 95. What evaluative failure occurs when BFP neglects fire safety inspections, resulting in deaths from a preventable fire?
A) Procedural redundancy
B) Failure of preventive function leading to potential criminal negligence
C) Overstepping PNP jurisdiction
D) Failure in custodial investigation
  • 96. What evaluative factor distinguishes preliminary investigation from judicial trial?
A) Judicial trial is conducted only by prosecutors
B) Preliminary investigation already decides guilt or innocence
C) Preliminary investigation is inquisitorial, focusing only on existence of probable cause
D) Preliminary investigation requires proof beyond reasonable doubt
  • 97. Why is DOJ supervision over prosecutors important in preliminary investigation?
A) It relieves prosecutors of accountability
B) It centralizes police power in the DOJ
C) It ensures national consistency and prevents abuse of discretion
D) It allows judges to review every complaint
  • 98. Which illustrates prosecutorial abuse of discretion during inquest?
A) Ordering release due to lack of evidence
B) Dismissing a case due to absence of probable cause
C) Filing a case without verifying legality of arrest
D) Referring the case to higher prosecutors for review
  • 99. What is the practical effect of a prosecutor’s resolution finding no probable cause?
A) Respondent cannot be charged unless reversed on review
B) Court may still conduct trial
C) Police may refile the same case without additional evidence
D) Case is automatically filed in court
  • 100. Which best explains the importance of prosecutors in the administration of justice?
A) They ensure all police cases proceed to trial
B) They balance the rights of the State to prosecute and the rights of the accused to due process
C) They lead all criminal investigations
D) They determine penalties imposed by courts
Created with That Quiz — where test making and test taking are made easy for math and other subject areas.