ThatQuiz Test Library Take this test now
CLJ1
Contributed by: Montoya
  • 1. During a cyber-enabled drug trafficking case, PDEA requests assistance from the NBI. What is the best rationale for involving the NBI?
A) PDEA is limited to drug rehabilitation programs.
B) BI possesses specialized forensic and cyber-investigation capability needed for transnational cases.
C) PNP is constitutionally barred from drug enforcement
D) NBI has exclusive power over cybercrime investigations.
  • 2. Which situation illustrates the preventive role of the PNP most accurately?
A) Arresting suspects after a robbery
B) Conducting custodial interrogation.
C) Prosecuting accused individuals.
D) Establishing community patrol visibility to deter crime.
  • 3. Which principle is best safeguarded when the PDEA leads anti-drug operations but deputizes the PNP for tactical support?
A) Jurisdictional supremacy
B) Inter-agency collaboration and operational efficiency
C) Non-delegation of powers
D) Absolute independence of agencies
  • 4. Which principle is best safeguarded when the PDEA leads anti-drug operations but deputizes the PNP for tactical support? A commercial complex failed to comply with fire code requirements. A fire later occurs, causing multiple casualties. From the lens of criminal justice, which evaluative issue arises against the BFP?
A) Overstepping PNP jurisdiction
B) Negligence in preventive regulatory enforcement
C) Failure in community policing
D) Procedural delay in criminal prosecution
  • 5. Which distinction most clearly separates the mandates of the PNP and the NBI?
A) PNP investigates graft, while NBI handles only barangay crimes.
B) PNP manages prosecutions, while NBI supervises corrections.
C) PNP enforces all laws nationwide, while NBI investigates only corruption cases.
D) PNP handles general law enforcement, while NBI focuses on technical, complex, and high-profile investigations.
  • 6. Why is chain of custody crucial in PNP-handled drug cases?
A) It applies only in NBI laboratories, not in PNP operations.
B) It allows evidence to be freely transferred between agencies.
C) It gives judges discretion to disregard rules of evidence.
D) It ensures that evidence integrity is preserved for admissibility in court.
  • 7. After a suspicious fire, the BFP submits a technical report indicating arson. How does this role affect criminal proceedings?
A) It grants the BFP jurisdiction over sentencing.
B) It allows BFP to automatically prosecute the offender.
C) It replaces the need for police investigation
D) It provides admissible forensic evidence supporting prosecution.
  • 8. Which case scenario properly falls under the NBI’s jurisdiction rather than the PNP’s?
A) Barangay disturbance between neighbors
B) Theft in a barangay sari-sari store
C) Syndicated estafa involving high-ranking officials and foreign entities
D) Traffic violations along EDSA
  • 9. A PNP-led buy-bust operation is dismissed in court because it was conducted without PDEA coordination. What principle is compromised?
A) Judicial independence
B) Proportionality in sentencing
C) Separation of powers
D) Due process and proper jurisdictional mandate
  • 10. Which BFP function most directly reflects its preventive contribution to criminal justice?
A) Enforcing fire safety codes and conducting inspections
B) Prohibiting building permits
C) Investigating graft and corruption cases
D) Arresting suspects in arson cases
  • 11. Which evaluative advantage does the PNP hold compared to NBI in the grassroots application of criminal justice?
A) Exclusive power over anti-drug operations
B) Mandate over international law enforcement
C) Superior cyber-investigation facilities
D) Broader barangay presence and patrol-based deterrence
  • 12. A prosecutor notes conflicting complaints separately filed by PNP and NBI in the same case. Which evaluative issue arises?
A) Collaborative governance
B) Redundancy and lack of inter-agency coordination
C) Separation of powers
D) Chain of custody
  • 13. During an inquest, it was found that PNP did not document the evidence properly. What is the likely legal impact?
A) Evidence may be excluded, weakening prosecution.
B) The suspect is automatically acquitted.
C) PDEA assumes jurisdiction.
D) BFP conducts secondary investigation.
  • 14. In cases of suspected arson, why is BFP’s role essential even after fire suppression?
A) It provides legal representation for suspects.
B) It prevents further police intervention.
C) It adjudicates liability of building owners.
D) It conducts forensic analysis necessary for criminal liability determination.
  • 15. Which agency has the authority to deputize other law enforcement bodies for anti-drug operations?
A) DOJ
B) BFP
C) PDEA
D) NBI
  • 16. What principle is promoted when PNP secures the perimeter, NBI handles cyber evidence, and PDEA leads the raid in a drug bust?
A) Unity of command
B) Procedural redundancy
C) Overstepping of authority
D) Collaborative governance and complementarity of mandates
  • 17. What is the primary evaluative reason that PNP is often called the “backbone” of law enforcement in the criminal justice system?
A) They supervise prison corrections.
B) They provide legal defense for the accused.
C) Their widespread presence allows immediate response and preventive policing.
D) They control the courts.
  • 18. Which NBI function most strengthens its credibility in high-profile investigations?
A) Barangay patrol assistance
B) Forensic and technical divisions specializing in advanced evidence analysis
C) Nationwide precinct deployment
D) Fire suppression capability
  • 19. A large-scale anti-drug operation fails because PDEA and PNP conducted overlapping operations separately. Which consequence arises?
A) Automatic conviction of suspects.
B) Evidence handling and prosecution are compromised.
C) BFP assumes jurisdiction.
D) Media coverage is reduced.
  • 20. Which statement best evaluates BFP’s link to the “community” pillar of justice?
A) It eliminates LGU functions during calamities.
B) It supervises barangay elections.
C) Its enforcement of fire codes prevents disasters that could escalate into criminal negligence affecting communities.
D) It prosecutes arsonists directly on behalf of barangays
  • 21. A prosecutor dismisses a complaint because the arrest was illegal, and no valid warrantless arrest exception applied. What is being safeguarded?
A) Efficiency of case disposal
B) Legality of arrest and personal liberty
C) Prosecutorial discretion
D) Integrity of judicial process
  • 22. What best explains why prosecutors cannot delegate the determination of probable cause to the police?
A) Delegation violates separation of powers
B) Police officers lack training in evidence handling
C) Probable cause is a quasi-judicial function reserved for prosecutors
D) Courts do not trust police testimony
  • 23. In an inquest proceeding, why is it important that the prosecutor evaluates whether the arrest falls under Rule 113, Sec. 5 (warrantless arrests)?
A) To avoid filing cases based on illegal arrests, which could later be quashed
B) To ensure cases are filed quickly
C) To reduce the workload of judges
D) To protect prosecutors from liability
  • 24. If a prosecutor files an information despite weak evidence, what is the most likely impact on the justice system?
A) It expedites justice delivery
B) It undermines the rights of the accused and clogs court dockets
C) Courts will automatically convict
D) It strengthens police credibility
  • 25. In preliminary investigations, why is it necessary to require counter-affidavits from the respondents?
A) To shift responsibility to defense counsel
B) To shorten the prosecutor’s workload
C) To comply with due process and ensure a balanced evaluation of evidence
D) To delay filing of cases until evidence is complete
  • 26. If during an inquest, evidence clearly shows a person was caught in flagrante delicto, what should the prosecutor do?
A) Refer the case to the DOJ Secretary
B) Release the suspect immediately
C) Wait for the suspect’s motion for bail
D) File the appropriate information in court without preliminary investigation
  • 27. A prosecutor finds inconsistencies in the complainant’s affidavit but strong corroborating physical evidence exists. How should this be evaluated?
A) Dismiss the case outright
B) Still establish probable cause based on the totality of evidenc
C) Defer to the judge for determination
D) Require additional police affidavits only
  • 28. What principle justifies the prosecutor’s authority to decide whether to file a case in court?
A) Police authority in law enforcement
B) Legislative intent
C) Prosecutorial independence
D) Judicial discretion
  • 29. Which scenario reflects the proper exercise of prosecutorial discretion in preliminary investigation?
A) Filing a case despite no prima facie evidence to avoid criticism
B) Leaving evidence evaluation to the judge
C) Dismissing a complaint due to insufficient probable cause
D) Automatically endorsing all complaints to the DOJ Secretary
  • 30. If a prosecutor files a case based on inadmissible evidence (illegally obtained), what is the likely consequence in court?
A) Conviction due to presumption of regularity
B) Automatic appeal to DOJ
C) Acquittal or dismissal due to exclusionary rule
D) Mistrial
  • 31. Why is the prosecutor considered the 'gatekeeper' of the courts in criminal proceedings?
A) They approve police promotions
B) They decide on guilt or innocence
C) They determine which cases merit judicial trial through preliminary investigation
D) They supervise correctional facilities
  • 32. A suspect is arrested without a warrant for murder but the prosecutor finds no probable cause during inquest. What should the prosecutor do?
A) File the case anyway and let the court decide
B) Order the suspect’s immediate release
C) Endorse the case to the Ombudsman
D) Suspend proceedings until further evidence is gathered
  • 33. In conducting preliminary investigation, why must prosecutors avoid relying solely on police recommendations?
A) Police may exaggerate findings
B) DOJ circulars prohibit it
C) The Constitution requires independent and impartial evaluation of evidence
D) Courts demand police neutrality
  • 34. Which of the following best evaluates the role of the prosecutor in protecting the accused’s right to liberty?
A) By conducting speedy trials
B) By automatically recommending bail
C) By dismissing all weak cases regardless of evidence
D) By ensuring probable cause exists before a person is haled into court
  • 35. What is the critical evaluative function of inquest proceedings compared to preliminary investigation?
A) Inquest is optional, while preliminary investigation is mandatory
B) Inquest determines validity of warrantless arrests, while preliminary
C) Both serve only as police procedures
D) Inquest is conducted only after conviction
  • 36. When prosecutors conduct inquest proceedings immediately after arrest, what constitutional principle is primarily observed?
A) Right to equal protection
B) Right to speedy disposition of cases
C) Right to free counsel
D) Right against double jeopardy
  • 37. A prosecutor ignores an accused’s request to submit a counter-affidavit in preliminary investigation. What is the most probable legal outcome?
A) Accused may question the prosecutor’s action via certiorari for denial of due process
B) The case proceeds unaffected
C) The case will automatically be dismissed
D) Evidence will be considered waived
  • 38. A prosecutor dismisses a complaint after finding that the evidence presented is based only on hearsay affidavits. Which principle is the prosecutor upholding?
A) Adversarial principle
B) Res judicata
C) Inquisitorial principle
D) Probable cause requirement
  • 39. During a preliminary investigation, the prosecutor evaluates the sufficiency of evidence. What is the correct evaluative standard to determine probable cause?
A) Substantial evidence
B) Such evidence as would lead a reasonably prudent person to believe a crime was committed
C) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
D) Mere suspicion or belief
  • 40. If a prosecutor conducts an inquest proceeding without affording the arrested person the chance to explain or submit evidence, which constitutional right is violated?
A) Right to bail
B) Right against double jeopardy
C) Right to due process
D) Right to equal protection of the laws
  • 41. Which of the following best describes the role of the Supreme Court in the Philippine judicial hierarchy?
A) It directly hears all cases filed by the public without restriction
B) It exercises appellate jurisdiction and has the power of judicial review over all lower courts.
C) It primarily serves as a trial court for criminal cases.
D) It only hears cases endorsed by the President.
  • 42. Why is it important to maintain a hierarchy of courts in the Philippine judicial system?
A) To limit the number of lawyers who can appear in trial courts.
B) To ensure orderly administration of justice and prevent forum shopping.
C) To expand the power of barangay courts.
D) To allow parties to skip lower courts for faster results.
  • 43. Which trial court has original jurisdiction over cases of illegal possession of dangerous drugs involving small quantities?
A) Court of Appeals
B) Regional Trial Court (RTC)
C) Municipal Trial Court (MTC)
D) Sandiganbayan
  • 44. What is the primary evaluative distinction between the Sandiganbayan and the Regional Trial Courts?
A) Both A and C
B) Sandiganbayan handles cases involving public officials, while RTCs handle general criminal and civil cases.
C) RTCs only handle barangay-level disputes, while Sandiganbayan hears all national cases.
D) Both share identical jurisdictions.
  • 45. The doctrine of hierarchy of courts requires what procedural rule when filing petitions for extraordinary writs?
A) Petitions must always be filed first in the Supreme Court.
B) Petitions must always be filed first in the Supreme Court.
C) Petitions should generally be filed in the lowest court with concurrent jurisdiction.
D) Parties are free to choose any court.
  • 46. Which of the following cases falls under the exclusive jurisdiction of the Sandiganbayan?
A) Graft and corruption by a provincial governor
B) Estafa committed by a private individual.
C) Cybercrime by a private company.
D) Family disputes involving annulment.
  • 47. Which principle explains why the Supreme Court cannot be burdened with all trial-level cases?
A) Principle of Judicial Hierarchy
B) Principle of Collegiality
C) Principle of Judicial Activism
D) Principle of Judicial Economy
  • 48. Which trial court has jurisdiction over civil cases where the value of the property does not exceed ₱300,000 (outside Metro Manila)?
A) Court of Appeals
B) Municipal Trial Court
C) Regional Trial Court
D) Supreme Court
  • 49. The Court of Appeals primarily serves what function in the hierarchy of courts?
A) It serves as the first-level trial court for minor offenses.
B) It enforces laws passed by Congress.
C) It directly tries barangay disputes.
D) It acts as an appellate court reviewing decisions of RTCs and quasi-judicial agencies.
  • 50. A public official charged with plunder must be tried before which court?
A) Municipal Trial Court
B) Court of Appeals
C) Regional Trial Court
D) Sandiganbayan
  • 51. Why are Municipal Trial Courts considered the “first level courts”?
A) They have the same power as the Supreme Court.
B) They handle the heaviest caseload in the system.
C) They try less serious offenses and small claims to decongest higher courts.
D) They serve as administrative bodies only.
  • 52. Which case would properly fall within the jurisdiction of the Regional Trial Court?
A) Theft involving ₱5,000
B) Murder
C) Violation of traffic rules
D) Barangay conciliation disputes
  • 53. Which doctrine guides the Supreme Court in refusing to act on petitions directly filed before it without first exhausting lower remedies?
A) Doctrine of Stare Decisis
B) Doctrine of Judicial Review
C) Doctrine of Judicial Restraint
D) Doctrine of Hierarchy of Courts
  • 54. Why is the Sandiganbayan considered a special court within the hierarchy?
A) Because it handles marriage annulments.
B) Because it handles electoral disputes.
C) Because it focuses on crimes involving graft and corruption by public officials.
D) Because it hears all appeals from the RTC.
  • 55. Which of the following is an exception to the doctrine of hierarchy of courts?
A) When there are novel constitutional issues of transcendental importance.
B) When barangay officials decline to mediate.
C) When the RTC is unavailable due to vacancy.
D) When an MTC judge is absent.
  • 56. Which is true of the relationship between the Supreme Court and the Court of Appeals?
A) The Supreme Court can only review CA cases involving traffic violations.
B) The Court of Appeals acts as an intermediate appellate body whose decisions are reviewable by the Supreme Court.
C) The Supreme Court directly supervises case raffling in the Court of Appeals.
D) The Court of Appeals has no appellate power at all.
  • 57. Which of the following scenarios demonstrates a violation of the doctrine of hierarchy of courts?
A) Elevating a CA decision to the Supreme Court for review.
B) Filing a petition for certiorari directly with the Supreme Court despite available remedies in the Court of Appeals.
C) Filing a small claims case in an MTC.
D) Appealing an RTC decision to the Court of Appeals.
  • 58. The jurisdiction of Shari’a courts is limited to what type of cases?
A) All graft cases committed in Muslim areas
B) All cases in Mindanao
C) Criminal cases involving Muslims
D) Civil cases relating to marriage, divorce, and inheritance among Muslims
  • 59. Which court has exclusive appellate jurisdiction over all decisions of the Municipal Trial Courts?
A) Supreme Court
B) Regional Trial Court
C) Sandiganbayan
D) Court of Appeals
  • 60. A case of homicide committed in Quezon City should first be filed before which court?
A) Municipal Trial Court
B) Regional Trial Court
C) Court of Appeals
D) Sandiganbayan
  • 61. Which principle justifies BJMP’s responsibility to improve conditions despite limited resources?
A) Administrative convenience
B) Expediency
C) Human rights protection
D) Retribution
  • 62. Which evaluative distinction best explains why BJMP facilities are considered temporary compared to BuCor institutions?
A) Geographic scope
B) Jurisdictional funding
C) Nature of detainees’ custody
D) Size of facilities
  • 63. Why is the transfer of inmates from BJMP to BuCor custody upon final conviction important?
A) To punish detainees further
B) To reduce congestion only
C) To delay enforcement of judgment
D) To assign custody to the proper agency
  • 64. Which role of BuCor most directly reflects its rehabilitative mandate under RA 10575?
A) Maintaining jails
B) Crime investigation
C) Issuing warrants
D) Reformation programs
  • 65. If BJMP fails to provide humane conditions for detainees, what constitutional right is most compromised?
A) Right to property
B) Right to speedy trial
C) Right against cruel punishment
D) Right to bail
  • 66. A convict sentenced to reclusion perpetua is mistakenly kept under BJMP custody. What evaluative failure occurred?
A) Prosecutorial lapse
B) Jurisdictional custody
C) Administrative error
D) Judicial oversight
  • 67. The BuCor uses classification systems for inmates (minimum, medium, maximum security). This serves primarily to:
A) Punish more severely
B) Delay reintegration
C) Manage risks and rehabilitation
D) Reduce costs
  • 68. Which evaluative factor best explains why BJMP is under DILG while BuCor is under DOJ?
A) Distinction between local jails and national prisons
B) Geographic scope
C) Funding allocation
D) Political mandate
  • 69. Which of the following situations demonstrates a gap in BJMP’s mandate compared to BuCor?
A) Lack of rehabilitation for long-term detainees
B) Administrative budgeting
C) Managing short-term detainees
D) Handling warrants
  • 70. What is the significance of BuCor’s reformation programs to national security?
A) They reduce jail congestion
B) They provide employment to jail staff
C) They replace judicial proceedings
D) They reduce recidivism
  • 71. In terms of the five pillars of the criminal justice system, BJMP and BuCor belong to which pillar?
A) Judiciary
B) Prosecution
C) Corrections
D) Law enforcement
  • 72. Which evaluative issue is most commonly associated with BJMP facilities compared to BuCor institutions?
A) Political interference
B) National classification
C) Excessive budgets
D) Overcrowding
  • 73. A BJMP official implements livelihood training for detainees. This function demonstrates which broader role?
A) Prosecutorial support
B) Sentencing
C) Judicial oversight
D) Humanitarian function of jails
  • 74. The Board of Pardons and Parole works closely with BuCor because:
A) Courts automatically release parolees
B) BJMP manages parolee monitoring
C) Prisoners eligible for release are under BuCor custody
D) Prosecutors direct parole decisions
  • 75. Why is inter-agency coordination between BJMP and BuCor critical after final judgment?
A) To increase BJMP budget
B) To punish detainees twice
C) To delay transfer of convicts
D) To ensure proper transfer of custody
  • 76. Which principle of penology is most at stake when BuCor fails to implement effective rehabilitation programs?
A) Reformation
B) Retribution
C) Deterrence
D) Isolation
  • 77. Which of the following demonstrates BJMP’s role in ensuring access to justice?
A) Safeguarding detainees’ right to attend trial
B) Drafting laws
C) Conducting criminal investigations
D) Issuing arrest warrants
  • 78. The modernization of BuCor under RA 10575 emphasized which evaluative reform?
A) Privatization
B) Professionalization and rehabilitation
C) Political independence
D) Expansion of local jails
  • 79. If BuCor fails to classify prisoners properly, what risk increases?
A) Judicial appeals
B) Faster reintegration
C) Higher operational costs
D) Violence and security breaches
  • 80. Which of the following represents a shared challenge for both BJMP and BuCor?
A) Geographic limitation
B) Duplication of parole power
C) Overcrowding
D) Lack of judicial authority
  • 81. Which evaluative conclusion best explains the complementary role of BJMP and BuCor in corrections?
A) They both adjudicate disputes
B) They divide custody between temporary detention and long-term imprisonment
C) They both prosecute criminal cases
D) They both issue arrest warrants
  • 82. Which demonstrates BuCor’s reintegration role after release of prisoners?
A) Supervising prosecutors
B) Post-release monitoring and livelihood suppor
C) Managing trial schedules
D) Issuing criminal warrants
  • 83. A detainee sentenced to 2 years imprisonment remains under BJMP custody. Why is this correct?
A) BJMP handles sentences below 3 years
B) BuCor refuses custody
C) DOJ lacks authority
D) Court orders override rules
  • 84. What is the evaluative function of BuCor’s therapeutic community programs?
A) Reduce state expenses
B) Increase judicial backlog
C) Facilitate rehabilitation and reintegration
D) Ensure longer detention
  • 85. Which rationale explains why BJMP cannot impose retributive punishment on detainees?
A) Detainees are presumed innocent
B) BJMP lacks resources
C) BuCor has exclusive authority
D) Courts control BJMP
  • 86. Which of the following best demonstrates the evaluative function of the doctrine of judicial hierarchy?
A) It allows parties to choose the fastest court.
B) It ensures that all courts have equal power.
C) It abolishes trial courts in favor of the Supreme Court.
D) It prevents overburdening of higher courts by routing cases first to proper trial
  • 87. Why does the Constitution vest the Supreme Court with both original and appellate jurisdiction?
A) To directly handle barangay disputes.
B) To ensure flexibility in resolving cases of national significance.
C) To avoid the Court of Appeals’ role.
D) To reduce the power of trial courts.
  • 88. The principle that “jurisdiction is conferred by law” means what in practice?
A) Courts may expand their own jurisdiction when necessary.
B) Jurisdiction of a court depends only on the agreement of the parties
C) Jurisdiction is strictly defined by statute and cannot be assumed at will
D) Jurisdiction can be granted by barangay officials.
  • 89. Which of the following demonstrates proper application of jurisdictional rules?
A) An annulment case filed before the Sandiganbayan.
B) A murder case filed before the RTC.
C) A graft case against a mayor filed before the MTC.
D) A small claims case exceeding ₱1,000,000 filed before the MTC.
  • 90. Which evaluative statement best explains the function of trial courts in the criminal justice system?
A) They act as advisory bodies to the President.
B) They exercise only appellate functions.
C) They create laws for implementation.
D) They determine guilt or innocence based on evidence presented
  • 91. Which of the following reflects the PDEA’s strategic role under RA 9165?
A) Supervising barangay justice systems
B) Managing correctional rehabilitation centers
C) Handling cybercrimes independently
D) Implementing the National Anti-Drug Plan of Action and leading drug enforcement policy
  • 92. Why is inter-agency training between PNP, NBI, BFP, and PDEA essential?
A) To replace judicial oversight
B) To reduce agency manpower
C) To create uniform operational knowledge and enhance coordination in joint operations
D) To centralize all powers in one body
  • 93. When PNP evidence is consistently dismissed in court, what evaluative issue should be reviewed?
A) Lack of PDEA authority
B) Judges’ impartiality
C) Influence of the suspects
D) Possible recurring lapses in evidence handling and procedure
  • 94. Why is law enforcement considered the “first pillar” of the Philippine criminal justice system?
A) It enforces the law, gathers evidence, and initiates case build-up for prosecution.
B) It rehabilitates offenders.
C) It supervises post-conviction reintegration.
D) It determines guilt or innocence.
  • 95. What evaluative failure occurs when BFP neglects fire safety inspections, resulting in deaths from a preventable fire?
A) Overstepping PNP jurisdiction
B) Procedural redundancy
C) Failure of preventive function leading to potential criminal negligence
D) Failure in custodial investigation
  • 96. What evaluative factor distinguishes preliminary investigation from judicial trial?
A) Preliminary investigation already decides guilt or innocence
B) Preliminary investigation is inquisitorial, focusing only on existence of probable cause
C) Judicial trial is conducted only by prosecutors
D) Preliminary investigation requires proof beyond reasonable doubt
  • 97. Why is DOJ supervision over prosecutors important in preliminary investigation?
A) It centralizes police power in the DOJ
B) It allows judges to review every complaint
C) It ensures national consistency and prevents abuse of discretion
D) It relieves prosecutors of accountability
  • 98. Which illustrates prosecutorial abuse of discretion during inquest?
A) Dismissing a case due to absence of probable cause
B) Ordering release due to lack of evidence
C) Filing a case without verifying legality of arrest
D) Referring the case to higher prosecutors for review
  • 99. What is the practical effect of a prosecutor’s resolution finding no probable cause?
A) Police may refile the same case without additional evidence
B) Respondent cannot be charged unless reversed on review
C) Court may still conduct trial
D) Case is automatically filed in court
  • 100. Which best explains the importance of prosecutors in the administration of justice?
A) They lead all criminal investigations
B) They ensure all police cases proceed to trial
C) They balance the rights of the State to prosecute and the rights of the accused to due process
D) They determine penalties imposed by courts
Created with That Quiz — where test making and test taking are made easy for math and other subject areas.