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CLJ1
Contributed by: Montoya
  • 1. During a cyber-enabled drug trafficking case, PDEA requests assistance from the NBI. What is the best rationale for involving the NBI?
A) PDEA is limited to drug rehabilitation programs.
B) NBI has exclusive power over cybercrime investigations.
C) BI possesses specialized forensic and cyber-investigation capability needed for transnational cases.
D) PNP is constitutionally barred from drug enforcement
  • 2. Which situation illustrates the preventive role of the PNP most accurately?
A) Arresting suspects after a robbery
B) Conducting custodial interrogation.
C) Establishing community patrol visibility to deter crime.
D) Prosecuting accused individuals.
  • 3. Which principle is best safeguarded when the PDEA leads anti-drug operations but deputizes the PNP for tactical support?
A) Absolute independence of agencies
B) Non-delegation of powers
C) Jurisdictional supremacy
D) Inter-agency collaboration and operational efficiency
  • 4. Which principle is best safeguarded when the PDEA leads anti-drug operations but deputizes the PNP for tactical support? A commercial complex failed to comply with fire code requirements. A fire later occurs, causing multiple casualties. From the lens of criminal justice, which evaluative issue arises against the BFP?
A) Procedural delay in criminal prosecution
B) Negligence in preventive regulatory enforcement
C) Failure in community policing
D) Overstepping PNP jurisdiction
  • 5. Which distinction most clearly separates the mandates of the PNP and the NBI?
A) PNP handles general law enforcement, while NBI focuses on technical, complex, and high-profile investigations.
B) PNP enforces all laws nationwide, while NBI investigates only corruption cases.
C) PNP investigates graft, while NBI handles only barangay crimes.
D) PNP manages prosecutions, while NBI supervises corrections.
  • 6. Why is chain of custody crucial in PNP-handled drug cases?
A) It gives judges discretion to disregard rules of evidence.
B) It applies only in NBI laboratories, not in PNP operations.
C) It ensures that evidence integrity is preserved for admissibility in court.
D) It allows evidence to be freely transferred between agencies.
  • 7. After a suspicious fire, the BFP submits a technical report indicating arson. How does this role affect criminal proceedings?
A) It allows BFP to automatically prosecute the offender.
B) It provides admissible forensic evidence supporting prosecution.
C) It replaces the need for police investigation
D) It grants the BFP jurisdiction over sentencing.
  • 8. Which case scenario properly falls under the NBI’s jurisdiction rather than the PNP’s?
A) Traffic violations along EDSA
B) Theft in a barangay sari-sari store
C) Barangay disturbance between neighbors
D) Syndicated estafa involving high-ranking officials and foreign entities
  • 9. A PNP-led buy-bust operation is dismissed in court because it was conducted without PDEA coordination. What principle is compromised?
A) Due process and proper jurisdictional mandate
B) Judicial independence
C) Separation of powers
D) Proportionality in sentencing
  • 10. Which BFP function most directly reflects its preventive contribution to criminal justice?
A) Enforcing fire safety codes and conducting inspections
B) Investigating graft and corruption cases
C) Prohibiting building permits
D) Arresting suspects in arson cases
  • 11. Which evaluative advantage does the PNP hold compared to NBI in the grassroots application of criminal justice?
A) Exclusive power over anti-drug operations
B) Broader barangay presence and patrol-based deterrence
C) Mandate over international law enforcement
D) Superior cyber-investigation facilities
  • 12. A prosecutor notes conflicting complaints separately filed by PNP and NBI in the same case. Which evaluative issue arises?
A) Separation of powers
B) Collaborative governance
C) Chain of custody
D) Redundancy and lack of inter-agency coordination
  • 13. During an inquest, it was found that PNP did not document the evidence properly. What is the likely legal impact?
A) BFP conducts secondary investigation.
B) Evidence may be excluded, weakening prosecution.
C) PDEA assumes jurisdiction.
D) The suspect is automatically acquitted.
  • 14. In cases of suspected arson, why is BFP’s role essential even after fire suppression?
A) It adjudicates liability of building owners.
B) It conducts forensic analysis necessary for criminal liability determination.
C) It prevents further police intervention.
D) It provides legal representation for suspects.
  • 15. Which agency has the authority to deputize other law enforcement bodies for anti-drug operations?
A) NBI
B) DOJ
C) BFP
D) PDEA
  • 16. What principle is promoted when PNP secures the perimeter, NBI handles cyber evidence, and PDEA leads the raid in a drug bust?
A) Unity of command
B) Procedural redundancy
C) Collaborative governance and complementarity of mandates
D) Overstepping of authority
  • 17. What is the primary evaluative reason that PNP is often called the “backbone” of law enforcement in the criminal justice system?
A) They supervise prison corrections.
B) Their widespread presence allows immediate response and preventive policing.
C) They control the courts.
D) They provide legal defense for the accused.
  • 18. Which NBI function most strengthens its credibility in high-profile investigations?
A) Fire suppression capability
B) Nationwide precinct deployment
C) Barangay patrol assistance
D) Forensic and technical divisions specializing in advanced evidence analysis
  • 19. A large-scale anti-drug operation fails because PDEA and PNP conducted overlapping operations separately. Which consequence arises?
A) Evidence handling and prosecution are compromised.
B) BFP assumes jurisdiction.
C) Automatic conviction of suspects.
D) Media coverage is reduced.
  • 20. Which statement best evaluates BFP’s link to the “community” pillar of justice?
A) It eliminates LGU functions during calamities.
B) It supervises barangay elections.
C) Its enforcement of fire codes prevents disasters that could escalate into criminal negligence affecting communities.
D) It prosecutes arsonists directly on behalf of barangays
  • 21. A prosecutor dismisses a complaint because the arrest was illegal, and no valid warrantless arrest exception applied. What is being safeguarded?
A) Prosecutorial discretion
B) Integrity of judicial process
C) Legality of arrest and personal liberty
D) Efficiency of case disposal
  • 22. What best explains why prosecutors cannot delegate the determination of probable cause to the police?
A) Courts do not trust police testimony
B) Probable cause is a quasi-judicial function reserved for prosecutors
C) Police officers lack training in evidence handling
D) Delegation violates separation of powers
  • 23. In an inquest proceeding, why is it important that the prosecutor evaluates whether the arrest falls under Rule 113, Sec. 5 (warrantless arrests)?
A) To avoid filing cases based on illegal arrests, which could later be quashed
B) To protect prosecutors from liability
C) To reduce the workload of judges
D) To ensure cases are filed quickly
  • 24. If a prosecutor files an information despite weak evidence, what is the most likely impact on the justice system?
A) It undermines the rights of the accused and clogs court dockets
B) It strengthens police credibility
C) It expedites justice delivery
D) Courts will automatically convict
  • 25. In preliminary investigations, why is it necessary to require counter-affidavits from the respondents?
A) To shift responsibility to defense counsel
B) To shorten the prosecutor’s workload
C) To comply with due process and ensure a balanced evaluation of evidence
D) To delay filing of cases until evidence is complete
  • 26. If during an inquest, evidence clearly shows a person was caught in flagrante delicto, what should the prosecutor do?
A) File the appropriate information in court without preliminary investigation
B) Wait for the suspect’s motion for bail
C) Release the suspect immediately
D) Refer the case to the DOJ Secretary
  • 27. A prosecutor finds inconsistencies in the complainant’s affidavit but strong corroborating physical evidence exists. How should this be evaluated?
A) Require additional police affidavits only
B) Still establish probable cause based on the totality of evidenc
C) Dismiss the case outright
D) Defer to the judge for determination
  • 28. What principle justifies the prosecutor’s authority to decide whether to file a case in court?
A) Legislative intent
B) Prosecutorial independence
C) Police authority in law enforcement
D) Judicial discretion
  • 29. Which scenario reflects the proper exercise of prosecutorial discretion in preliminary investigation?
A) Leaving evidence evaluation to the judge
B) Dismissing a complaint due to insufficient probable cause
C) Automatically endorsing all complaints to the DOJ Secretary
D) Filing a case despite no prima facie evidence to avoid criticism
  • 30. If a prosecutor files a case based on inadmissible evidence (illegally obtained), what is the likely consequence in court?
A) Acquittal or dismissal due to exclusionary rule
B) Conviction due to presumption of regularity
C) Mistrial
D) Automatic appeal to DOJ
  • 31. Why is the prosecutor considered the 'gatekeeper' of the courts in criminal proceedings?
A) They supervise correctional facilities
B) They determine which cases merit judicial trial through preliminary investigation
C) They approve police promotions
D) They decide on guilt or innocence
  • 32. A suspect is arrested without a warrant for murder but the prosecutor finds no probable cause during inquest. What should the prosecutor do?
A) Endorse the case to the Ombudsman
B) Order the suspect’s immediate release
C) Suspend proceedings until further evidence is gathered
D) File the case anyway and let the court decide
  • 33. In conducting preliminary investigation, why must prosecutors avoid relying solely on police recommendations?
A) The Constitution requires independent and impartial evaluation of evidence
B) Police may exaggerate findings
C) DOJ circulars prohibit it
D) Courts demand police neutrality
  • 34. Which of the following best evaluates the role of the prosecutor in protecting the accused’s right to liberty?
A) By dismissing all weak cases regardless of evidence
B) By ensuring probable cause exists before a person is haled into court
C) By conducting speedy trials
D) By automatically recommending bail
  • 35. What is the critical evaluative function of inquest proceedings compared to preliminary investigation?
A) Inquest determines validity of warrantless arrests, while preliminary
B) Inquest is conducted only after conviction
C) Inquest is optional, while preliminary investigation is mandatory
D) Both serve only as police procedures
  • 36. When prosecutors conduct inquest proceedings immediately after arrest, what constitutional principle is primarily observed?
A) Right to equal protection
B) Right to speedy disposition of cases
C) Right to free counsel
D) Right against double jeopardy
  • 37. A prosecutor ignores an accused’s request to submit a counter-affidavit in preliminary investigation. What is the most probable legal outcome?
A) The case will automatically be dismissed
B) Evidence will be considered waived
C) The case proceeds unaffected
D) Accused may question the prosecutor’s action via certiorari for denial of due process
  • 38. A prosecutor dismisses a complaint after finding that the evidence presented is based only on hearsay affidavits. Which principle is the prosecutor upholding?
A) Res judicata
B) Probable cause requirement
C) Inquisitorial principle
D) Adversarial principle
  • 39. During a preliminary investigation, the prosecutor evaluates the sufficiency of evidence. What is the correct evaluative standard to determine probable cause?
A) Substantial evidence
B) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
C) Mere suspicion or belief
D) Such evidence as would lead a reasonably prudent person to believe a crime was committed
  • 40. If a prosecutor conducts an inquest proceeding without affording the arrested person the chance to explain or submit evidence, which constitutional right is violated?
A) Right against double jeopardy
B) Right to equal protection of the laws
C) Right to due process
D) Right to bail
  • 41. Which of the following best describes the role of the Supreme Court in the Philippine judicial hierarchy?
A) It only hears cases endorsed by the President.
B) It primarily serves as a trial court for criminal cases.
C) It directly hears all cases filed by the public without restriction
D) It exercises appellate jurisdiction and has the power of judicial review over all lower courts.
  • 42. Why is it important to maintain a hierarchy of courts in the Philippine judicial system?
A) To expand the power of barangay courts.
B) To allow parties to skip lower courts for faster results.
C) To ensure orderly administration of justice and prevent forum shopping.
D) To limit the number of lawyers who can appear in trial courts.
  • 43. Which trial court has original jurisdiction over cases of illegal possession of dangerous drugs involving small quantities?
A) Regional Trial Court (RTC)
B) Court of Appeals
C) Sandiganbayan
D) Municipal Trial Court (MTC)
  • 44. What is the primary evaluative distinction between the Sandiganbayan and the Regional Trial Courts?
A) RTCs only handle barangay-level disputes, while Sandiganbayan hears all national cases.
B) Both share identical jurisdictions.
C) Both A and C
D) Sandiganbayan handles cases involving public officials, while RTCs handle general criminal and civil cases.
  • 45. The doctrine of hierarchy of courts requires what procedural rule when filing petitions for extraordinary writs?
A) Petitions must always be filed first in the Supreme Court.
B) Petitions must always be filed first in the Supreme Court.
C) Parties are free to choose any court.
D) Petitions should generally be filed in the lowest court with concurrent jurisdiction.
  • 46. Which of the following cases falls under the exclusive jurisdiction of the Sandiganbayan?
A) Graft and corruption by a provincial governor
B) Estafa committed by a private individual.
C) Cybercrime by a private company.
D) Family disputes involving annulment.
  • 47. Which principle explains why the Supreme Court cannot be burdened with all trial-level cases?
A) Principle of Judicial Economy
B) Principle of Judicial Activism
C) Principle of Judicial Hierarchy
D) Principle of Collegiality
  • 48. Which trial court has jurisdiction over civil cases where the value of the property does not exceed ₱300,000 (outside Metro Manila)?
A) Regional Trial Court
B) Court of Appeals
C) Supreme Court
D) Municipal Trial Court
  • 49. The Court of Appeals primarily serves what function in the hierarchy of courts?
A) It directly tries barangay disputes.
B) It enforces laws passed by Congress.
C) It serves as the first-level trial court for minor offenses.
D) It acts as an appellate court reviewing decisions of RTCs and quasi-judicial agencies.
  • 50. A public official charged with plunder must be tried before which court?
A) Municipal Trial Court
B) Sandiganbayan
C) Regional Trial Court
D) Court of Appeals
  • 51. Why are Municipal Trial Courts considered the “first level courts”?
A) They serve as administrative bodies only.
B) They have the same power as the Supreme Court.
C) They try less serious offenses and small claims to decongest higher courts.
D) They handle the heaviest caseload in the system.
  • 52. Which case would properly fall within the jurisdiction of the Regional Trial Court?
A) Barangay conciliation disputes
B) Theft involving ₱5,000
C) Murder
D) Violation of traffic rules
  • 53. Which doctrine guides the Supreme Court in refusing to act on petitions directly filed before it without first exhausting lower remedies?
A) Doctrine of Stare Decisis
B) Doctrine of Hierarchy of Courts
C) Doctrine of Judicial Restraint
D) Doctrine of Judicial Review
  • 54. Why is the Sandiganbayan considered a special court within the hierarchy?
A) Because it handles marriage annulments.
B) Because it focuses on crimes involving graft and corruption by public officials.
C) Because it hears all appeals from the RTC.
D) Because it handles electoral disputes.
  • 55. Which of the following is an exception to the doctrine of hierarchy of courts?
A) When there are novel constitutional issues of transcendental importance.
B) When barangay officials decline to mediate.
C) When the RTC is unavailable due to vacancy.
D) When an MTC judge is absent.
  • 56. Which is true of the relationship between the Supreme Court and the Court of Appeals?
A) The Supreme Court directly supervises case raffling in the Court of Appeals.
B) The Court of Appeals acts as an intermediate appellate body whose decisions are reviewable by the Supreme Court.
C) The Supreme Court can only review CA cases involving traffic violations.
D) The Court of Appeals has no appellate power at all.
  • 57. Which of the following scenarios demonstrates a violation of the doctrine of hierarchy of courts?
A) Filing a petition for certiorari directly with the Supreme Court despite available remedies in the Court of Appeals.
B) Appealing an RTC decision to the Court of Appeals.
C) Elevating a CA decision to the Supreme Court for review.
D) Filing a small claims case in an MTC.
  • 58. The jurisdiction of Shari’a courts is limited to what type of cases?
A) All graft cases committed in Muslim areas
B) Criminal cases involving Muslims
C) All cases in Mindanao
D) Civil cases relating to marriage, divorce, and inheritance among Muslims
  • 59. Which court has exclusive appellate jurisdiction over all decisions of the Municipal Trial Courts?
A) Regional Trial Court
B) Court of Appeals
C) Supreme Court
D) Sandiganbayan
  • 60. A case of homicide committed in Quezon City should first be filed before which court?
A) Court of Appeals
B) Regional Trial Court
C) Municipal Trial Court
D) Sandiganbayan
  • 61. Which principle justifies BJMP’s responsibility to improve conditions despite limited resources?
A) Administrative convenience
B) Retribution
C) Human rights protection
D) Expediency
  • 62. Which evaluative distinction best explains why BJMP facilities are considered temporary compared to BuCor institutions?
A) Jurisdictional funding
B) Size of facilities
C) Geographic scope
D) Nature of detainees’ custody
  • 63. Why is the transfer of inmates from BJMP to BuCor custody upon final conviction important?
A) To reduce congestion only
B) To delay enforcement of judgment
C) To assign custody to the proper agency
D) To punish detainees further
  • 64. Which role of BuCor most directly reflects its rehabilitative mandate under RA 10575?
A) Crime investigation
B) Issuing warrants
C) Reformation programs
D) Maintaining jails
  • 65. If BJMP fails to provide humane conditions for detainees, what constitutional right is most compromised?
A) Right to bail
B) Right against cruel punishment
C) Right to property
D) Right to speedy trial
  • 66. A convict sentenced to reclusion perpetua is mistakenly kept under BJMP custody. What evaluative failure occurred?
A) Jurisdictional custody
B) Judicial oversight
C) Administrative error
D) Prosecutorial lapse
  • 67. The BuCor uses classification systems for inmates (minimum, medium, maximum security). This serves primarily to:
A) Manage risks and rehabilitation
B) Delay reintegration
C) Punish more severely
D) Reduce costs
  • 68. Which evaluative factor best explains why BJMP is under DILG while BuCor is under DOJ?
A) Funding allocation
B) Distinction between local jails and national prisons
C) Geographic scope
D) Political mandate
  • 69. Which of the following situations demonstrates a gap in BJMP’s mandate compared to BuCor?
A) Handling warrants
B) Lack of rehabilitation for long-term detainees
C) Administrative budgeting
D) Managing short-term detainees
  • 70. What is the significance of BuCor’s reformation programs to national security?
A) They reduce jail congestion
B) They replace judicial proceedings
C) They provide employment to jail staff
D) They reduce recidivism
  • 71. In terms of the five pillars of the criminal justice system, BJMP and BuCor belong to which pillar?
A) Prosecution
B) Judiciary
C) Corrections
D) Law enforcement
  • 72. Which evaluative issue is most commonly associated with BJMP facilities compared to BuCor institutions?
A) National classification
B) Overcrowding
C) Political interference
D) Excessive budgets
  • 73. A BJMP official implements livelihood training for detainees. This function demonstrates which broader role?
A) Judicial oversight
B) Humanitarian function of jails
C) Sentencing
D) Prosecutorial support
  • 74. The Board of Pardons and Parole works closely with BuCor because:
A) Prisoners eligible for release are under BuCor custody
B) Courts automatically release parolees
C) BJMP manages parolee monitoring
D) Prosecutors direct parole decisions
  • 75. Why is inter-agency coordination between BJMP and BuCor critical after final judgment?
A) To ensure proper transfer of custody
B) To delay transfer of convicts
C) To punish detainees twice
D) To increase BJMP budget
  • 76. Which principle of penology is most at stake when BuCor fails to implement effective rehabilitation programs?
A) Reformation
B) Retribution
C) Deterrence
D) Isolation
  • 77. Which of the following demonstrates BJMP’s role in ensuring access to justice?
A) Issuing arrest warrants
B) Safeguarding detainees’ right to attend trial
C) Conducting criminal investigations
D) Drafting laws
  • 78. The modernization of BuCor under RA 10575 emphasized which evaluative reform?
A) Privatization
B) Expansion of local jails
C) Professionalization and rehabilitation
D) Political independence
  • 79. If BuCor fails to classify prisoners properly, what risk increases?
A) Faster reintegration
B) Judicial appeals
C) Violence and security breaches
D) Higher operational costs
  • 80. Which of the following represents a shared challenge for both BJMP and BuCor?
A) Lack of judicial authority
B) Overcrowding
C) Duplication of parole power
D) Geographic limitation
  • 81. Which evaluative conclusion best explains the complementary role of BJMP and BuCor in corrections?
A) They both prosecute criminal cases
B) They divide custody between temporary detention and long-term imprisonment
C) They both adjudicate disputes
D) They both issue arrest warrants
  • 82. Which demonstrates BuCor’s reintegration role after release of prisoners?
A) Post-release monitoring and livelihood suppor
B) Issuing criminal warrants
C) Managing trial schedules
D) Supervising prosecutors
  • 83. A detainee sentenced to 2 years imprisonment remains under BJMP custody. Why is this correct?
A) BJMP handles sentences below 3 years
B) DOJ lacks authority
C) Court orders override rules
D) BuCor refuses custody
  • 84. What is the evaluative function of BuCor’s therapeutic community programs?
A) Facilitate rehabilitation and reintegration
B) Increase judicial backlog
C) Ensure longer detention
D) Reduce state expenses
  • 85. Which rationale explains why BJMP cannot impose retributive punishment on detainees?
A) Courts control BJMP
B) BJMP lacks resources
C) BuCor has exclusive authority
D) Detainees are presumed innocent
  • 86. Which of the following best demonstrates the evaluative function of the doctrine of judicial hierarchy?
A) It allows parties to choose the fastest court.
B) It ensures that all courts have equal power.
C) It abolishes trial courts in favor of the Supreme Court.
D) It prevents overburdening of higher courts by routing cases first to proper trial
  • 87. Why does the Constitution vest the Supreme Court with both original and appellate jurisdiction?
A) To directly handle barangay disputes.
B) To ensure flexibility in resolving cases of national significance.
C) To avoid the Court of Appeals’ role.
D) To reduce the power of trial courts.
  • 88. The principle that “jurisdiction is conferred by law” means what in practice?
A) Courts may expand their own jurisdiction when necessary.
B) Jurisdiction is strictly defined by statute and cannot be assumed at will
C) Jurisdiction of a court depends only on the agreement of the parties
D) Jurisdiction can be granted by barangay officials.
  • 89. Which of the following demonstrates proper application of jurisdictional rules?
A) An annulment case filed before the Sandiganbayan.
B) A small claims case exceeding ₱1,000,000 filed before the MTC.
C) A murder case filed before the RTC.
D) A graft case against a mayor filed before the MTC.
  • 90. Which evaluative statement best explains the function of trial courts in the criminal justice system?
A) They act as advisory bodies to the President.
B) They exercise only appellate functions.
C) They create laws for implementation.
D) They determine guilt or innocence based on evidence presented
  • 91. Which of the following reflects the PDEA’s strategic role under RA 9165?
A) Implementing the National Anti-Drug Plan of Action and leading drug enforcement policy
B) Handling cybercrimes independently
C) Managing correctional rehabilitation centers
D) Supervising barangay justice systems
  • 92. Why is inter-agency training between PNP, NBI, BFP, and PDEA essential?
A) To create uniform operational knowledge and enhance coordination in joint operations
B) To centralize all powers in one body
C) To reduce agency manpower
D) To replace judicial oversight
  • 93. When PNP evidence is consistently dismissed in court, what evaluative issue should be reviewed?
A) Possible recurring lapses in evidence handling and procedure
B) Judges’ impartiality
C) Influence of the suspects
D) Lack of PDEA authority
  • 94. Why is law enforcement considered the “first pillar” of the Philippine criminal justice system?
A) It rehabilitates offenders.
B) It determines guilt or innocence.
C) It supervises post-conviction reintegration.
D) It enforces the law, gathers evidence, and initiates case build-up for prosecution.
  • 95. What evaluative failure occurs when BFP neglects fire safety inspections, resulting in deaths from a preventable fire?
A) Overstepping PNP jurisdiction
B) Failure in custodial investigation
C) Failure of preventive function leading to potential criminal negligence
D) Procedural redundancy
  • 96. What evaluative factor distinguishes preliminary investigation from judicial trial?
A) Preliminary investigation requires proof beyond reasonable doubt
B) Preliminary investigation is inquisitorial, focusing only on existence of probable cause
C) Preliminary investigation already decides guilt or innocence
D) Judicial trial is conducted only by prosecutors
  • 97. Why is DOJ supervision over prosecutors important in preliminary investigation?
A) It allows judges to review every complaint
B) It ensures national consistency and prevents abuse of discretion
C) It centralizes police power in the DOJ
D) It relieves prosecutors of accountability
  • 98. Which illustrates prosecutorial abuse of discretion during inquest?
A) Ordering release due to lack of evidence
B) Filing a case without verifying legality of arrest
C) Referring the case to higher prosecutors for review
D) Dismissing a case due to absence of probable cause
  • 99. What is the practical effect of a prosecutor’s resolution finding no probable cause?
A) Police may refile the same case without additional evidence
B) Respondent cannot be charged unless reversed on review
C) Case is automatically filed in court
D) Court may still conduct trial
  • 100. Which best explains the importance of prosecutors in the administration of justice?
A) They ensure all police cases proceed to trial
B) They lead all criminal investigations
C) They balance the rights of the State to prosecute and the rights of the accused to due process
D) They determine penalties imposed by courts
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