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CLJ1
Contributed by: Montoya
  • 1. During a cyber-enabled drug trafficking case, PDEA requests assistance from the NBI. What is the best rationale for involving the NBI?
A) PDEA is limited to drug rehabilitation programs.
B) BI possesses specialized forensic and cyber-investigation capability needed for transnational cases.
C) PNP is constitutionally barred from drug enforcement
D) NBI has exclusive power over cybercrime investigations.
  • 2. Which situation illustrates the preventive role of the PNP most accurately?
A) Arresting suspects after a robbery
B) Conducting custodial interrogation.
C) Prosecuting accused individuals.
D) Establishing community patrol visibility to deter crime.
  • 3. Which principle is best safeguarded when the PDEA leads anti-drug operations but deputizes the PNP for tactical support?
A) Absolute independence of agencies
B) Non-delegation of powers
C) Jurisdictional supremacy
D) Inter-agency collaboration and operational efficiency
  • 4. Which principle is best safeguarded when the PDEA leads anti-drug operations but deputizes the PNP for tactical support? A commercial complex failed to comply with fire code requirements. A fire later occurs, causing multiple casualties. From the lens of criminal justice, which evaluative issue arises against the BFP?
A) Negligence in preventive regulatory enforcement
B) Overstepping PNP jurisdiction
C) Procedural delay in criminal prosecution
D) Failure in community policing
  • 5. Which distinction most clearly separates the mandates of the PNP and the NBI?
A) PNP manages prosecutions, while NBI supervises corrections.
B) PNP investigates graft, while NBI handles only barangay crimes.
C) PNP handles general law enforcement, while NBI focuses on technical, complex, and high-profile investigations.
D) PNP enforces all laws nationwide, while NBI investigates only corruption cases.
  • 6. Why is chain of custody crucial in PNP-handled drug cases?
A) It ensures that evidence integrity is preserved for admissibility in court.
B) It applies only in NBI laboratories, not in PNP operations.
C) It gives judges discretion to disregard rules of evidence.
D) It allows evidence to be freely transferred between agencies.
  • 7. After a suspicious fire, the BFP submits a technical report indicating arson. How does this role affect criminal proceedings?
A) It replaces the need for police investigation
B) It grants the BFP jurisdiction over sentencing.
C) It allows BFP to automatically prosecute the offender.
D) It provides admissible forensic evidence supporting prosecution.
  • 8. Which case scenario properly falls under the NBI’s jurisdiction rather than the PNP’s?
A) Traffic violations along EDSA
B) Barangay disturbance between neighbors
C) Theft in a barangay sari-sari store
D) Syndicated estafa involving high-ranking officials and foreign entities
  • 9. A PNP-led buy-bust operation is dismissed in court because it was conducted without PDEA coordination. What principle is compromised?
A) Separation of powers
B) Proportionality in sentencing
C) Judicial independence
D) Due process and proper jurisdictional mandate
  • 10. Which BFP function most directly reflects its preventive contribution to criminal justice?
A) Investigating graft and corruption cases
B) Enforcing fire safety codes and conducting inspections
C) Arresting suspects in arson cases
D) Prohibiting building permits
  • 11. Which evaluative advantage does the PNP hold compared to NBI in the grassroots application of criminal justice?
A) Superior cyber-investigation facilities
B) Mandate over international law enforcement
C) Exclusive power over anti-drug operations
D) Broader barangay presence and patrol-based deterrence
  • 12. A prosecutor notes conflicting complaints separately filed by PNP and NBI in the same case. Which evaluative issue arises?
A) Redundancy and lack of inter-agency coordination
B) Collaborative governance
C) Chain of custody
D) Separation of powers
  • 13. During an inquest, it was found that PNP did not document the evidence properly. What is the likely legal impact?
A) The suspect is automatically acquitted.
B) PDEA assumes jurisdiction.
C) Evidence may be excluded, weakening prosecution.
D) BFP conducts secondary investigation.
  • 14. In cases of suspected arson, why is BFP’s role essential even after fire suppression?
A) It adjudicates liability of building owners.
B) It prevents further police intervention.
C) It conducts forensic analysis necessary for criminal liability determination.
D) It provides legal representation for suspects.
  • 15. Which agency has the authority to deputize other law enforcement bodies for anti-drug operations?
A) NBI
B) BFP
C) PDEA
D) DOJ
  • 16. What principle is promoted when PNP secures the perimeter, NBI handles cyber evidence, and PDEA leads the raid in a drug bust?
A) Collaborative governance and complementarity of mandates
B) Overstepping of authority
C) Unity of command
D) Procedural redundancy
  • 17. What is the primary evaluative reason that PNP is often called the “backbone” of law enforcement in the criminal justice system?
A) Their widespread presence allows immediate response and preventive policing.
B) They supervise prison corrections.
C) They provide legal defense for the accused.
D) They control the courts.
  • 18. Which NBI function most strengthens its credibility in high-profile investigations?
A) Barangay patrol assistance
B) Fire suppression capability
C) Forensic and technical divisions specializing in advanced evidence analysis
D) Nationwide precinct deployment
  • 19. A large-scale anti-drug operation fails because PDEA and PNP conducted overlapping operations separately. Which consequence arises?
A) Automatic conviction of suspects.
B) Evidence handling and prosecution are compromised.
C) BFP assumes jurisdiction.
D) Media coverage is reduced.
  • 20. Which statement best evaluates BFP’s link to the “community” pillar of justice?
A) It supervises barangay elections.
B) It eliminates LGU functions during calamities.
C) Its enforcement of fire codes prevents disasters that could escalate into criminal negligence affecting communities.
D) It prosecutes arsonists directly on behalf of barangays
  • 21. A prosecutor dismisses a complaint because the arrest was illegal, and no valid warrantless arrest exception applied. What is being safeguarded?
A) Efficiency of case disposal
B) Prosecutorial discretion
C) Integrity of judicial process
D) Legality of arrest and personal liberty
  • 22. What best explains why prosecutors cannot delegate the determination of probable cause to the police?
A) Probable cause is a quasi-judicial function reserved for prosecutors
B) Delegation violates separation of powers
C) Police officers lack training in evidence handling
D) Courts do not trust police testimony
  • 23. In an inquest proceeding, why is it important that the prosecutor evaluates whether the arrest falls under Rule 113, Sec. 5 (warrantless arrests)?
A) To avoid filing cases based on illegal arrests, which could later be quashed
B) To protect prosecutors from liability
C) To reduce the workload of judges
D) To ensure cases are filed quickly
  • 24. If a prosecutor files an information despite weak evidence, what is the most likely impact on the justice system?
A) Courts will automatically convict
B) It expedites justice delivery
C) It undermines the rights of the accused and clogs court dockets
D) It strengthens police credibility
  • 25. In preliminary investigations, why is it necessary to require counter-affidavits from the respondents?
A) To comply with due process and ensure a balanced evaluation of evidence
B) To delay filing of cases until evidence is complete
C) To shorten the prosecutor’s workload
D) To shift responsibility to defense counsel
  • 26. If during an inquest, evidence clearly shows a person was caught in flagrante delicto, what should the prosecutor do?
A) Release the suspect immediately
B) File the appropriate information in court without preliminary investigation
C) Wait for the suspect’s motion for bail
D) Refer the case to the DOJ Secretary
  • 27. A prosecutor finds inconsistencies in the complainant’s affidavit but strong corroborating physical evidence exists. How should this be evaluated?
A) Still establish probable cause based on the totality of evidenc
B) Require additional police affidavits only
C) Dismiss the case outright
D) Defer to the judge for determination
  • 28. What principle justifies the prosecutor’s authority to decide whether to file a case in court?
A) Judicial discretion
B) Prosecutorial independence
C) Legislative intent
D) Police authority in law enforcement
  • 29. Which scenario reflects the proper exercise of prosecutorial discretion in preliminary investigation?
A) Filing a case despite no prima facie evidence to avoid criticism
B) Leaving evidence evaluation to the judge
C) Dismissing a complaint due to insufficient probable cause
D) Automatically endorsing all complaints to the DOJ Secretary
  • 30. If a prosecutor files a case based on inadmissible evidence (illegally obtained), what is the likely consequence in court?
A) Conviction due to presumption of regularity
B) Acquittal or dismissal due to exclusionary rule
C) Mistrial
D) Automatic appeal to DOJ
  • 31. Why is the prosecutor considered the 'gatekeeper' of the courts in criminal proceedings?
A) They approve police promotions
B) They decide on guilt or innocence
C) They supervise correctional facilities
D) They determine which cases merit judicial trial through preliminary investigation
  • 32. A suspect is arrested without a warrant for murder but the prosecutor finds no probable cause during inquest. What should the prosecutor do?
A) Suspend proceedings until further evidence is gathered
B) Endorse the case to the Ombudsman
C) File the case anyway and let the court decide
D) Order the suspect’s immediate release
  • 33. In conducting preliminary investigation, why must prosecutors avoid relying solely on police recommendations?
A) DOJ circulars prohibit it
B) Police may exaggerate findings
C) The Constitution requires independent and impartial evaluation of evidence
D) Courts demand police neutrality
  • 34. Which of the following best evaluates the role of the prosecutor in protecting the accused’s right to liberty?
A) By dismissing all weak cases regardless of evidence
B) By automatically recommending bail
C) By conducting speedy trials
D) By ensuring probable cause exists before a person is haled into court
  • 35. What is the critical evaluative function of inquest proceedings compared to preliminary investigation?
A) Inquest determines validity of warrantless arrests, while preliminary
B) Inquest is optional, while preliminary investigation is mandatory
C) Inquest is conducted only after conviction
D) Both serve only as police procedures
  • 36. When prosecutors conduct inquest proceedings immediately after arrest, what constitutional principle is primarily observed?
A) Right against double jeopardy
B) Right to equal protection
C) Right to speedy disposition of cases
D) Right to free counsel
  • 37. A prosecutor ignores an accused’s request to submit a counter-affidavit in preliminary investigation. What is the most probable legal outcome?
A) The case proceeds unaffected
B) Evidence will be considered waived
C) Accused may question the prosecutor’s action via certiorari for denial of due process
D) The case will automatically be dismissed
  • 38. A prosecutor dismisses a complaint after finding that the evidence presented is based only on hearsay affidavits. Which principle is the prosecutor upholding?
A) Probable cause requirement
B) Res judicata
C) Adversarial principle
D) Inquisitorial principle
  • 39. During a preliminary investigation, the prosecutor evaluates the sufficiency of evidence. What is the correct evaluative standard to determine probable cause?
A) Such evidence as would lead a reasonably prudent person to believe a crime was committed
B) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
C) Substantial evidence
D) Mere suspicion or belief
  • 40. If a prosecutor conducts an inquest proceeding without affording the arrested person the chance to explain or submit evidence, which constitutional right is violated?
A) Right to equal protection of the laws
B) Right to bail
C) Right to due process
D) Right against double jeopardy
  • 41. Which of the following best describes the role of the Supreme Court in the Philippine judicial hierarchy?
A) It directly hears all cases filed by the public without restriction
B) It only hears cases endorsed by the President.
C) It primarily serves as a trial court for criminal cases.
D) It exercises appellate jurisdiction and has the power of judicial review over all lower courts.
  • 42. Why is it important to maintain a hierarchy of courts in the Philippine judicial system?
A) To ensure orderly administration of justice and prevent forum shopping.
B) To limit the number of lawyers who can appear in trial courts.
C) To expand the power of barangay courts.
D) To allow parties to skip lower courts for faster results.
  • 43. Which trial court has original jurisdiction over cases of illegal possession of dangerous drugs involving small quantities?
A) Regional Trial Court (RTC)
B) Municipal Trial Court (MTC)
C) Sandiganbayan
D) Court of Appeals
  • 44. What is the primary evaluative distinction between the Sandiganbayan and the Regional Trial Courts?
A) RTCs only handle barangay-level disputes, while Sandiganbayan hears all national cases.
B) Both A and C
C) Sandiganbayan handles cases involving public officials, while RTCs handle general criminal and civil cases.
D) Both share identical jurisdictions.
  • 45. The doctrine of hierarchy of courts requires what procedural rule when filing petitions for extraordinary writs?
A) Petitions must always be filed first in the Supreme Court.
B) Parties are free to choose any court.
C) Petitions must always be filed first in the Supreme Court.
D) Petitions should generally be filed in the lowest court with concurrent jurisdiction.
  • 46. Which of the following cases falls under the exclusive jurisdiction of the Sandiganbayan?
A) Graft and corruption by a provincial governor
B) Family disputes involving annulment.
C) Cybercrime by a private company.
D) Estafa committed by a private individual.
  • 47. Which principle explains why the Supreme Court cannot be burdened with all trial-level cases?
A) Principle of Judicial Hierarchy
B) Principle of Judicial Economy
C) Principle of Collegiality
D) Principle of Judicial Activism
  • 48. Which trial court has jurisdiction over civil cases where the value of the property does not exceed ₱300,000 (outside Metro Manila)?
A) Regional Trial Court
B) Municipal Trial Court
C) Supreme Court
D) Court of Appeals
  • 49. The Court of Appeals primarily serves what function in the hierarchy of courts?
A) It enforces laws passed by Congress.
B) It acts as an appellate court reviewing decisions of RTCs and quasi-judicial agencies.
C) It directly tries barangay disputes.
D) It serves as the first-level trial court for minor offenses.
  • 50. A public official charged with plunder must be tried before which court?
A) Municipal Trial Court
B) Sandiganbayan
C) Court of Appeals
D) Regional Trial Court
  • 51. Why are Municipal Trial Courts considered the “first level courts”?
A) They try less serious offenses and small claims to decongest higher courts.
B) They serve as administrative bodies only.
C) They have the same power as the Supreme Court.
D) They handle the heaviest caseload in the system.
  • 52. Which case would properly fall within the jurisdiction of the Regional Trial Court?
A) Murder
B) Barangay conciliation disputes
C) Violation of traffic rules
D) Theft involving ₱5,000
  • 53. Which doctrine guides the Supreme Court in refusing to act on petitions directly filed before it without first exhausting lower remedies?
A) Doctrine of Judicial Review
B) Doctrine of Hierarchy of Courts
C) Doctrine of Stare Decisis
D) Doctrine of Judicial Restraint
  • 54. Why is the Sandiganbayan considered a special court within the hierarchy?
A) Because it focuses on crimes involving graft and corruption by public officials.
B) Because it handles marriage annulments.
C) Because it hears all appeals from the RTC.
D) Because it handles electoral disputes.
  • 55. Which of the following is an exception to the doctrine of hierarchy of courts?
A) When the RTC is unavailable due to vacancy.
B) When barangay officials decline to mediate.
C) When there are novel constitutional issues of transcendental importance.
D) When an MTC judge is absent.
  • 56. Which is true of the relationship between the Supreme Court and the Court of Appeals?
A) The Court of Appeals has no appellate power at all.
B) The Court of Appeals acts as an intermediate appellate body whose decisions are reviewable by the Supreme Court.
C) The Supreme Court directly supervises case raffling in the Court of Appeals.
D) The Supreme Court can only review CA cases involving traffic violations.
  • 57. Which of the following scenarios demonstrates a violation of the doctrine of hierarchy of courts?
A) Filing a small claims case in an MTC.
B) Filing a petition for certiorari directly with the Supreme Court despite available remedies in the Court of Appeals.
C) Appealing an RTC decision to the Court of Appeals.
D) Elevating a CA decision to the Supreme Court for review.
  • 58. The jurisdiction of Shari’a courts is limited to what type of cases?
A) All graft cases committed in Muslim areas
B) Criminal cases involving Muslims
C) All cases in Mindanao
D) Civil cases relating to marriage, divorce, and inheritance among Muslims
  • 59. Which court has exclusive appellate jurisdiction over all decisions of the Municipal Trial Courts?
A) Supreme Court
B) Sandiganbayan
C) Court of Appeals
D) Regional Trial Court
  • 60. A case of homicide committed in Quezon City should first be filed before which court?
A) Regional Trial Court
B) Municipal Trial Court
C) Sandiganbayan
D) Court of Appeals
  • 61. Which principle justifies BJMP’s responsibility to improve conditions despite limited resources?
A) Administrative convenience
B) Retribution
C) Human rights protection
D) Expediency
  • 62. Which evaluative distinction best explains why BJMP facilities are considered temporary compared to BuCor institutions?
A) Nature of detainees’ custody
B) Jurisdictional funding
C) Size of facilities
D) Geographic scope
  • 63. Why is the transfer of inmates from BJMP to BuCor custody upon final conviction important?
A) To delay enforcement of judgment
B) To assign custody to the proper agency
C) To punish detainees further
D) To reduce congestion only
  • 64. Which role of BuCor most directly reflects its rehabilitative mandate under RA 10575?
A) Maintaining jails
B) Issuing warrants
C) Crime investigation
D) Reformation programs
  • 65. If BJMP fails to provide humane conditions for detainees, what constitutional right is most compromised?
A) Right to bail
B) Right to property
C) Right against cruel punishment
D) Right to speedy trial
  • 66. A convict sentenced to reclusion perpetua is mistakenly kept under BJMP custody. What evaluative failure occurred?
A) Prosecutorial lapse
B) Administrative error
C) Jurisdictional custody
D) Judicial oversight
  • 67. The BuCor uses classification systems for inmates (minimum, medium, maximum security). This serves primarily to:
A) Punish more severely
B) Delay reintegration
C) Manage risks and rehabilitation
D) Reduce costs
  • 68. Which evaluative factor best explains why BJMP is under DILG while BuCor is under DOJ?
A) Funding allocation
B) Geographic scope
C) Distinction between local jails and national prisons
D) Political mandate
  • 69. Which of the following situations demonstrates a gap in BJMP’s mandate compared to BuCor?
A) Lack of rehabilitation for long-term detainees
B) Managing short-term detainees
C) Handling warrants
D) Administrative budgeting
  • 70. What is the significance of BuCor’s reformation programs to national security?
A) They provide employment to jail staff
B) They reduce recidivism
C) They replace judicial proceedings
D) They reduce jail congestion
  • 71. In terms of the five pillars of the criminal justice system, BJMP and BuCor belong to which pillar?
A) Prosecution
B) Corrections
C) Law enforcement
D) Judiciary
  • 72. Which evaluative issue is most commonly associated with BJMP facilities compared to BuCor institutions?
A) Overcrowding
B) Excessive budgets
C) National classification
D) Political interference
  • 73. A BJMP official implements livelihood training for detainees. This function demonstrates which broader role?
A) Judicial oversight
B) Prosecutorial support
C) Humanitarian function of jails
D) Sentencing
  • 74. The Board of Pardons and Parole works closely with BuCor because:
A) BJMP manages parolee monitoring
B) Prisoners eligible for release are under BuCor custody
C) Prosecutors direct parole decisions
D) Courts automatically release parolees
  • 75. Why is inter-agency coordination between BJMP and BuCor critical after final judgment?
A) To ensure proper transfer of custody
B) To punish detainees twice
C) To delay transfer of convicts
D) To increase BJMP budget
  • 76. Which principle of penology is most at stake when BuCor fails to implement effective rehabilitation programs?
A) Deterrence
B) Retribution
C) Isolation
D) Reformation
  • 77. Which of the following demonstrates BJMP’s role in ensuring access to justice?
A) Issuing arrest warrants
B) Conducting criminal investigations
C) Drafting laws
D) Safeguarding detainees’ right to attend trial
  • 78. The modernization of BuCor under RA 10575 emphasized which evaluative reform?
A) Privatization
B) Political independence
C) Professionalization and rehabilitation
D) Expansion of local jails
  • 79. If BuCor fails to classify prisoners properly, what risk increases?
A) Higher operational costs
B) Faster reintegration
C) Violence and security breaches
D) Judicial appeals
  • 80. Which of the following represents a shared challenge for both BJMP and BuCor?
A) Overcrowding
B) Duplication of parole power
C) Lack of judicial authority
D) Geographic limitation
  • 81. Which evaluative conclusion best explains the complementary role of BJMP and BuCor in corrections?
A) They divide custody between temporary detention and long-term imprisonment
B) They both adjudicate disputes
C) They both prosecute criminal cases
D) They both issue arrest warrants
  • 82. Which demonstrates BuCor’s reintegration role after release of prisoners?
A) Supervising prosecutors
B) Issuing criminal warrants
C) Post-release monitoring and livelihood suppor
D) Managing trial schedules
  • 83. A detainee sentenced to 2 years imprisonment remains under BJMP custody. Why is this correct?
A) Court orders override rules
B) DOJ lacks authority
C) BuCor refuses custody
D) BJMP handles sentences below 3 years
  • 84. What is the evaluative function of BuCor’s therapeutic community programs?
A) Ensure longer detention
B) Reduce state expenses
C) Facilitate rehabilitation and reintegration
D) Increase judicial backlog
  • 85. Which rationale explains why BJMP cannot impose retributive punishment on detainees?
A) Detainees are presumed innocent
B) Courts control BJMP
C) BuCor has exclusive authority
D) BJMP lacks resources
  • 86. Which of the following best demonstrates the evaluative function of the doctrine of judicial hierarchy?
A) It abolishes trial courts in favor of the Supreme Court.
B) It allows parties to choose the fastest court.
C) It ensures that all courts have equal power.
D) It prevents overburdening of higher courts by routing cases first to proper trial
  • 87. Why does the Constitution vest the Supreme Court with both original and appellate jurisdiction?
A) To ensure flexibility in resolving cases of national significance.
B) To avoid the Court of Appeals’ role.
C) To directly handle barangay disputes.
D) To reduce the power of trial courts.
  • 88. The principle that “jurisdiction is conferred by law” means what in practice?
A) Jurisdiction can be granted by barangay officials.
B) Courts may expand their own jurisdiction when necessary.
C) Jurisdiction is strictly defined by statute and cannot be assumed at will
D) Jurisdiction of a court depends only on the agreement of the parties
  • 89. Which of the following demonstrates proper application of jurisdictional rules?
A) A small claims case exceeding ₱1,000,000 filed before the MTC.
B) A murder case filed before the RTC.
C) An annulment case filed before the Sandiganbayan.
D) A graft case against a mayor filed before the MTC.
  • 90. Which evaluative statement best explains the function of trial courts in the criminal justice system?
A) They create laws for implementation.
B) They act as advisory bodies to the President.
C) They exercise only appellate functions.
D) They determine guilt or innocence based on evidence presented
  • 91. Which of the following reflects the PDEA’s strategic role under RA 9165?
A) Handling cybercrimes independently
B) Implementing the National Anti-Drug Plan of Action and leading drug enforcement policy
C) Managing correctional rehabilitation centers
D) Supervising barangay justice systems
  • 92. Why is inter-agency training between PNP, NBI, BFP, and PDEA essential?
A) To reduce agency manpower
B) To create uniform operational knowledge and enhance coordination in joint operations
C) To replace judicial oversight
D) To centralize all powers in one body
  • 93. When PNP evidence is consistently dismissed in court, what evaluative issue should be reviewed?
A) Lack of PDEA authority
B) Influence of the suspects
C) Judges’ impartiality
D) Possible recurring lapses in evidence handling and procedure
  • 94. Why is law enforcement considered the “first pillar” of the Philippine criminal justice system?
A) It enforces the law, gathers evidence, and initiates case build-up for prosecution.
B) It rehabilitates offenders.
C) It determines guilt or innocence.
D) It supervises post-conviction reintegration.
  • 95. What evaluative failure occurs when BFP neglects fire safety inspections, resulting in deaths from a preventable fire?
A) Failure of preventive function leading to potential criminal negligence
B) Overstepping PNP jurisdiction
C) Procedural redundancy
D) Failure in custodial investigation
  • 96. What evaluative factor distinguishes preliminary investigation from judicial trial?
A) Judicial trial is conducted only by prosecutors
B) Preliminary investigation already decides guilt or innocence
C) Preliminary investigation requires proof beyond reasonable doubt
D) Preliminary investigation is inquisitorial, focusing only on existence of probable cause
  • 97. Why is DOJ supervision over prosecutors important in preliminary investigation?
A) It ensures national consistency and prevents abuse of discretion
B) It relieves prosecutors of accountability
C) It allows judges to review every complaint
D) It centralizes police power in the DOJ
  • 98. Which illustrates prosecutorial abuse of discretion during inquest?
A) Dismissing a case due to absence of probable cause
B) Ordering release due to lack of evidence
C) Referring the case to higher prosecutors for review
D) Filing a case without verifying legality of arrest
  • 99. What is the practical effect of a prosecutor’s resolution finding no probable cause?
A) Respondent cannot be charged unless reversed on review
B) Court may still conduct trial
C) Case is automatically filed in court
D) Police may refile the same case without additional evidence
  • 100. Which best explains the importance of prosecutors in the administration of justice?
A) They balance the rights of the State to prosecute and the rights of the accused to due process
B) They determine penalties imposed by courts
C) They ensure all police cases proceed to trial
D) They lead all criminal investigations
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