ThatQuiz Test Library Take this test now
CLJ1
Contributed by: Montoya
  • 1. During a cyber-enabled drug trafficking case, PDEA requests assistance from the NBI. What is the best rationale for involving the NBI?
A) PDEA is limited to drug rehabilitation programs.
B) PNP is constitutionally barred from drug enforcement
C) NBI has exclusive power over cybercrime investigations.
D) BI possesses specialized forensic and cyber-investigation capability needed for transnational cases.
  • 2. Which situation illustrates the preventive role of the PNP most accurately?
A) Prosecuting accused individuals.
B) Establishing community patrol visibility to deter crime.
C) Arresting suspects after a robbery
D) Conducting custodial interrogation.
  • 3. Which principle is best safeguarded when the PDEA leads anti-drug operations but deputizes the PNP for tactical support?
A) Absolute independence of agencies
B) Non-delegation of powers
C) Inter-agency collaboration and operational efficiency
D) Jurisdictional supremacy
  • 4. Which principle is best safeguarded when the PDEA leads anti-drug operations but deputizes the PNP for tactical support? A commercial complex failed to comply with fire code requirements. A fire later occurs, causing multiple casualties. From the lens of criminal justice, which evaluative issue arises against the BFP?
A) Negligence in preventive regulatory enforcement
B) Failure in community policing
C) Procedural delay in criminal prosecution
D) Overstepping PNP jurisdiction
  • 5. Which distinction most clearly separates the mandates of the PNP and the NBI?
A) PNP manages prosecutions, while NBI supervises corrections.
B) PNP enforces all laws nationwide, while NBI investigates only corruption cases.
C) PNP handles general law enforcement, while NBI focuses on technical, complex, and high-profile investigations.
D) PNP investigates graft, while NBI handles only barangay crimes.
  • 6. Why is chain of custody crucial in PNP-handled drug cases?
A) It gives judges discretion to disregard rules of evidence.
B) It allows evidence to be freely transferred between agencies.
C) It ensures that evidence integrity is preserved for admissibility in court.
D) It applies only in NBI laboratories, not in PNP operations.
  • 7. After a suspicious fire, the BFP submits a technical report indicating arson. How does this role affect criminal proceedings?
A) It grants the BFP jurisdiction over sentencing.
B) It provides admissible forensic evidence supporting prosecution.
C) It allows BFP to automatically prosecute the offender.
D) It replaces the need for police investigation
  • 8. Which case scenario properly falls under the NBI’s jurisdiction rather than the PNP’s?
A) Theft in a barangay sari-sari store
B) Barangay disturbance between neighbors
C) Traffic violations along EDSA
D) Syndicated estafa involving high-ranking officials and foreign entities
  • 9. A PNP-led buy-bust operation is dismissed in court because it was conducted without PDEA coordination. What principle is compromised?
A) Due process and proper jurisdictional mandate
B) Judicial independence
C) Separation of powers
D) Proportionality in sentencing
  • 10. Which BFP function most directly reflects its preventive contribution to criminal justice?
A) Prohibiting building permits
B) Arresting suspects in arson cases
C) Investigating graft and corruption cases
D) Enforcing fire safety codes and conducting inspections
  • 11. Which evaluative advantage does the PNP hold compared to NBI in the grassroots application of criminal justice?
A) Mandate over international law enforcement
B) Broader barangay presence and patrol-based deterrence
C) Superior cyber-investigation facilities
D) Exclusive power over anti-drug operations
  • 12. A prosecutor notes conflicting complaints separately filed by PNP and NBI in the same case. Which evaluative issue arises?
A) Collaborative governance
B) Separation of powers
C) Chain of custody
D) Redundancy and lack of inter-agency coordination
  • 13. During an inquest, it was found that PNP did not document the evidence properly. What is the likely legal impact?
A) Evidence may be excluded, weakening prosecution.
B) The suspect is automatically acquitted.
C) PDEA assumes jurisdiction.
D) BFP conducts secondary investigation.
  • 14. In cases of suspected arson, why is BFP’s role essential even after fire suppression?
A) It conducts forensic analysis necessary for criminal liability determination.
B) It provides legal representation for suspects.
C) It adjudicates liability of building owners.
D) It prevents further police intervention.
  • 15. Which agency has the authority to deputize other law enforcement bodies for anti-drug operations?
A) NBI
B) DOJ
C) BFP
D) PDEA
  • 16. What principle is promoted when PNP secures the perimeter, NBI handles cyber evidence, and PDEA leads the raid in a drug bust?
A) Overstepping of authority
B) Procedural redundancy
C) Unity of command
D) Collaborative governance and complementarity of mandates
  • 17. What is the primary evaluative reason that PNP is often called the “backbone” of law enforcement in the criminal justice system?
A) Their widespread presence allows immediate response and preventive policing.
B) They provide legal defense for the accused.
C) They supervise prison corrections.
D) They control the courts.
  • 18. Which NBI function most strengthens its credibility in high-profile investigations?
A) Barangay patrol assistance
B) Nationwide precinct deployment
C) Forensic and technical divisions specializing in advanced evidence analysis
D) Fire suppression capability
  • 19. A large-scale anti-drug operation fails because PDEA and PNP conducted overlapping operations separately. Which consequence arises?
A) Evidence handling and prosecution are compromised.
B) Media coverage is reduced.
C) BFP assumes jurisdiction.
D) Automatic conviction of suspects.
  • 20. Which statement best evaluates BFP’s link to the “community” pillar of justice?
A) It prosecutes arsonists directly on behalf of barangays
B) It supervises barangay elections.
C) It eliminates LGU functions during calamities.
D) Its enforcement of fire codes prevents disasters that could escalate into criminal negligence affecting communities.
  • 21. A prosecutor dismisses a complaint because the arrest was illegal, and no valid warrantless arrest exception applied. What is being safeguarded?
A) Legality of arrest and personal liberty
B) Integrity of judicial process
C) Prosecutorial discretion
D) Efficiency of case disposal
  • 22. What best explains why prosecutors cannot delegate the determination of probable cause to the police?
A) Probable cause is a quasi-judicial function reserved for prosecutors
B) Courts do not trust police testimony
C) Police officers lack training in evidence handling
D) Delegation violates separation of powers
  • 23. In an inquest proceeding, why is it important that the prosecutor evaluates whether the arrest falls under Rule 113, Sec. 5 (warrantless arrests)?
A) To avoid filing cases based on illegal arrests, which could later be quashed
B) To protect prosecutors from liability
C) To ensure cases are filed quickly
D) To reduce the workload of judges
  • 24. If a prosecutor files an information despite weak evidence, what is the most likely impact on the justice system?
A) It undermines the rights of the accused and clogs court dockets
B) It strengthens police credibility
C) Courts will automatically convict
D) It expedites justice delivery
  • 25. In preliminary investigations, why is it necessary to require counter-affidavits from the respondents?
A) To shift responsibility to defense counsel
B) To delay filing of cases until evidence is complete
C) To shorten the prosecutor’s workload
D) To comply with due process and ensure a balanced evaluation of evidence
  • 26. If during an inquest, evidence clearly shows a person was caught in flagrante delicto, what should the prosecutor do?
A) Release the suspect immediately
B) File the appropriate information in court without preliminary investigation
C) Wait for the suspect’s motion for bail
D) Refer the case to the DOJ Secretary
  • 27. A prosecutor finds inconsistencies in the complainant’s affidavit but strong corroborating physical evidence exists. How should this be evaluated?
A) Still establish probable cause based on the totality of evidenc
B) Defer to the judge for determination
C) Require additional police affidavits only
D) Dismiss the case outright
  • 28. What principle justifies the prosecutor’s authority to decide whether to file a case in court?
A) Judicial discretion
B) Legislative intent
C) Prosecutorial independence
D) Police authority in law enforcement
  • 29. Which scenario reflects the proper exercise of prosecutorial discretion in preliminary investigation?
A) Dismissing a complaint due to insufficient probable cause
B) Leaving evidence evaluation to the judge
C) Automatically endorsing all complaints to the DOJ Secretary
D) Filing a case despite no prima facie evidence to avoid criticism
  • 30. If a prosecutor files a case based on inadmissible evidence (illegally obtained), what is the likely consequence in court?
A) Automatic appeal to DOJ
B) Conviction due to presumption of regularity
C) Acquittal or dismissal due to exclusionary rule
D) Mistrial
  • 31. Why is the prosecutor considered the 'gatekeeper' of the courts in criminal proceedings?
A) They determine which cases merit judicial trial through preliminary investigation
B) They approve police promotions
C) They supervise correctional facilities
D) They decide on guilt or innocence
  • 32. A suspect is arrested without a warrant for murder but the prosecutor finds no probable cause during inquest. What should the prosecutor do?
A) Suspend proceedings until further evidence is gathered
B) File the case anyway and let the court decide
C) Endorse the case to the Ombudsman
D) Order the suspect’s immediate release
  • 33. In conducting preliminary investigation, why must prosecutors avoid relying solely on police recommendations?
A) Courts demand police neutrality
B) The Constitution requires independent and impartial evaluation of evidence
C) DOJ circulars prohibit it
D) Police may exaggerate findings
  • 34. Which of the following best evaluates the role of the prosecutor in protecting the accused’s right to liberty?
A) By ensuring probable cause exists before a person is haled into court
B) By dismissing all weak cases regardless of evidence
C) By conducting speedy trials
D) By automatically recommending bail
  • 35. What is the critical evaluative function of inquest proceedings compared to preliminary investigation?
A) Inquest is conducted only after conviction
B) Both serve only as police procedures
C) Inquest determines validity of warrantless arrests, while preliminary
D) Inquest is optional, while preliminary investigation is mandatory
  • 36. When prosecutors conduct inquest proceedings immediately after arrest, what constitutional principle is primarily observed?
A) Right to equal protection
B) Right against double jeopardy
C) Right to free counsel
D) Right to speedy disposition of cases
  • 37. A prosecutor ignores an accused’s request to submit a counter-affidavit in preliminary investigation. What is the most probable legal outcome?
A) The case will automatically be dismissed
B) Accused may question the prosecutor’s action via certiorari for denial of due process
C) Evidence will be considered waived
D) The case proceeds unaffected
  • 38. A prosecutor dismisses a complaint after finding that the evidence presented is based only on hearsay affidavits. Which principle is the prosecutor upholding?
A) Adversarial principle
B) Res judicata
C) Inquisitorial principle
D) Probable cause requirement
  • 39. During a preliminary investigation, the prosecutor evaluates the sufficiency of evidence. What is the correct evaluative standard to determine probable cause?
A) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
B) Mere suspicion or belief
C) Such evidence as would lead a reasonably prudent person to believe a crime was committed
D) Substantial evidence
  • 40. If a prosecutor conducts an inquest proceeding without affording the arrested person the chance to explain or submit evidence, which constitutional right is violated?
A) Right to due process
B) Right to bail
C) Right against double jeopardy
D) Right to equal protection of the laws
  • 41. Which of the following best describes the role of the Supreme Court in the Philippine judicial hierarchy?
A) It only hears cases endorsed by the President.
B) It primarily serves as a trial court for criminal cases.
C) It exercises appellate jurisdiction and has the power of judicial review over all lower courts.
D) It directly hears all cases filed by the public without restriction
  • 42. Why is it important to maintain a hierarchy of courts in the Philippine judicial system?
A) To expand the power of barangay courts.
B) To allow parties to skip lower courts for faster results.
C) To limit the number of lawyers who can appear in trial courts.
D) To ensure orderly administration of justice and prevent forum shopping.
  • 43. Which trial court has original jurisdiction over cases of illegal possession of dangerous drugs involving small quantities?
A) Court of Appeals
B) Municipal Trial Court (MTC)
C) Sandiganbayan
D) Regional Trial Court (RTC)
  • 44. What is the primary evaluative distinction between the Sandiganbayan and the Regional Trial Courts?
A) Both share identical jurisdictions.
B) Sandiganbayan handles cases involving public officials, while RTCs handle general criminal and civil cases.
C) Both A and C
D) RTCs only handle barangay-level disputes, while Sandiganbayan hears all national cases.
  • 45. The doctrine of hierarchy of courts requires what procedural rule when filing petitions for extraordinary writs?
A) Petitions must always be filed first in the Supreme Court.
B) Petitions should generally be filed in the lowest court with concurrent jurisdiction.
C) Parties are free to choose any court.
D) Petitions must always be filed first in the Supreme Court.
  • 46. Which of the following cases falls under the exclusive jurisdiction of the Sandiganbayan?
A) Estafa committed by a private individual.
B) Graft and corruption by a provincial governor
C) Family disputes involving annulment.
D) Cybercrime by a private company.
  • 47. Which principle explains why the Supreme Court cannot be burdened with all trial-level cases?
A) Principle of Judicial Economy
B) Principle of Judicial Activism
C) Principle of Judicial Hierarchy
D) Principle of Collegiality
  • 48. Which trial court has jurisdiction over civil cases where the value of the property does not exceed ₱300,000 (outside Metro Manila)?
A) Municipal Trial Court
B) Court of Appeals
C) Regional Trial Court
D) Supreme Court
  • 49. The Court of Appeals primarily serves what function in the hierarchy of courts?
A) It enforces laws passed by Congress.
B) It serves as the first-level trial court for minor offenses.
C) It directly tries barangay disputes.
D) It acts as an appellate court reviewing decisions of RTCs and quasi-judicial agencies.
  • 50. A public official charged with plunder must be tried before which court?
A) Municipal Trial Court
B) Regional Trial Court
C) Court of Appeals
D) Sandiganbayan
  • 51. Why are Municipal Trial Courts considered the “first level courts”?
A) They handle the heaviest caseload in the system.
B) They try less serious offenses and small claims to decongest higher courts.
C) They serve as administrative bodies only.
D) They have the same power as the Supreme Court.
  • 52. Which case would properly fall within the jurisdiction of the Regional Trial Court?
A) Violation of traffic rules
B) Murder
C) Barangay conciliation disputes
D) Theft involving ₱5,000
  • 53. Which doctrine guides the Supreme Court in refusing to act on petitions directly filed before it without first exhausting lower remedies?
A) Doctrine of Judicial Review
B) Doctrine of Judicial Restraint
C) Doctrine of Hierarchy of Courts
D) Doctrine of Stare Decisis
  • 54. Why is the Sandiganbayan considered a special court within the hierarchy?
A) Because it focuses on crimes involving graft and corruption by public officials.
B) Because it hears all appeals from the RTC.
C) Because it handles electoral disputes.
D) Because it handles marriage annulments.
  • 55. Which of the following is an exception to the doctrine of hierarchy of courts?
A) When an MTC judge is absent.
B) When the RTC is unavailable due to vacancy.
C) When there are novel constitutional issues of transcendental importance.
D) When barangay officials decline to mediate.
  • 56. Which is true of the relationship between the Supreme Court and the Court of Appeals?
A) The Court of Appeals has no appellate power at all.
B) The Court of Appeals acts as an intermediate appellate body whose decisions are reviewable by the Supreme Court.
C) The Supreme Court can only review CA cases involving traffic violations.
D) The Supreme Court directly supervises case raffling in the Court of Appeals.
  • 57. Which of the following scenarios demonstrates a violation of the doctrine of hierarchy of courts?
A) Elevating a CA decision to the Supreme Court for review.
B) Filing a small claims case in an MTC.
C) Filing a petition for certiorari directly with the Supreme Court despite available remedies in the Court of Appeals.
D) Appealing an RTC decision to the Court of Appeals.
  • 58. The jurisdiction of Shari’a courts is limited to what type of cases?
A) All cases in Mindanao
B) Civil cases relating to marriage, divorce, and inheritance among Muslims
C) All graft cases committed in Muslim areas
D) Criminal cases involving Muslims
  • 59. Which court has exclusive appellate jurisdiction over all decisions of the Municipal Trial Courts?
A) Sandiganbayan
B) Supreme Court
C) Regional Trial Court
D) Court of Appeals
  • 60. A case of homicide committed in Quezon City should first be filed before which court?
A) Sandiganbayan
B) Regional Trial Court
C) Municipal Trial Court
D) Court of Appeals
  • 61. Which principle justifies BJMP’s responsibility to improve conditions despite limited resources?
A) Expediency
B) Retribution
C) Human rights protection
D) Administrative convenience
  • 62. Which evaluative distinction best explains why BJMP facilities are considered temporary compared to BuCor institutions?
A) Jurisdictional funding
B) Nature of detainees’ custody
C) Size of facilities
D) Geographic scope
  • 63. Why is the transfer of inmates from BJMP to BuCor custody upon final conviction important?
A) To delay enforcement of judgment
B) To assign custody to the proper agency
C) To punish detainees further
D) To reduce congestion only
  • 64. Which role of BuCor most directly reflects its rehabilitative mandate under RA 10575?
A) Issuing warrants
B) Crime investigation
C) Reformation programs
D) Maintaining jails
  • 65. If BJMP fails to provide humane conditions for detainees, what constitutional right is most compromised?
A) Right to speedy trial
B) Right against cruel punishment
C) Right to bail
D) Right to property
  • 66. A convict sentenced to reclusion perpetua is mistakenly kept under BJMP custody. What evaluative failure occurred?
A) Prosecutorial lapse
B) Administrative error
C) Judicial oversight
D) Jurisdictional custody
  • 67. The BuCor uses classification systems for inmates (minimum, medium, maximum security). This serves primarily to:
A) Punish more severely
B) Delay reintegration
C) Reduce costs
D) Manage risks and rehabilitation
  • 68. Which evaluative factor best explains why BJMP is under DILG while BuCor is under DOJ?
A) Geographic scope
B) Distinction between local jails and national prisons
C) Funding allocation
D) Political mandate
  • 69. Which of the following situations demonstrates a gap in BJMP’s mandate compared to BuCor?
A) Lack of rehabilitation for long-term detainees
B) Administrative budgeting
C) Handling warrants
D) Managing short-term detainees
  • 70. What is the significance of BuCor’s reformation programs to national security?
A) They replace judicial proceedings
B) They reduce recidivism
C) They provide employment to jail staff
D) They reduce jail congestion
  • 71. In terms of the five pillars of the criminal justice system, BJMP and BuCor belong to which pillar?
A) Judiciary
B) Prosecution
C) Law enforcement
D) Corrections
  • 72. Which evaluative issue is most commonly associated with BJMP facilities compared to BuCor institutions?
A) Overcrowding
B) National classification
C) Excessive budgets
D) Political interference
  • 73. A BJMP official implements livelihood training for detainees. This function demonstrates which broader role?
A) Humanitarian function of jails
B) Prosecutorial support
C) Judicial oversight
D) Sentencing
  • 74. The Board of Pardons and Parole works closely with BuCor because:
A) BJMP manages parolee monitoring
B) Prisoners eligible for release are under BuCor custody
C) Prosecutors direct parole decisions
D) Courts automatically release parolees
  • 75. Why is inter-agency coordination between BJMP and BuCor critical after final judgment?
A) To delay transfer of convicts
B) To increase BJMP budget
C) To punish detainees twice
D) To ensure proper transfer of custody
  • 76. Which principle of penology is most at stake when BuCor fails to implement effective rehabilitation programs?
A) Reformation
B) Retribution
C) Isolation
D) Deterrence
  • 77. Which of the following demonstrates BJMP’s role in ensuring access to justice?
A) Drafting laws
B) Conducting criminal investigations
C) Issuing arrest warrants
D) Safeguarding detainees’ right to attend trial
  • 78. The modernization of BuCor under RA 10575 emphasized which evaluative reform?
A) Political independence
B) Expansion of local jails
C) Professionalization and rehabilitation
D) Privatization
  • 79. If BuCor fails to classify prisoners properly, what risk increases?
A) Higher operational costs
B) Violence and security breaches
C) Faster reintegration
D) Judicial appeals
  • 80. Which of the following represents a shared challenge for both BJMP and BuCor?
A) Overcrowding
B) Geographic limitation
C) Duplication of parole power
D) Lack of judicial authority
  • 81. Which evaluative conclusion best explains the complementary role of BJMP and BuCor in corrections?
A) They both adjudicate disputes
B) They divide custody between temporary detention and long-term imprisonment
C) They both prosecute criminal cases
D) They both issue arrest warrants
  • 82. Which demonstrates BuCor’s reintegration role after release of prisoners?
A) Supervising prosecutors
B) Post-release monitoring and livelihood suppor
C) Managing trial schedules
D) Issuing criminal warrants
  • 83. A detainee sentenced to 2 years imprisonment remains under BJMP custody. Why is this correct?
A) BJMP handles sentences below 3 years
B) DOJ lacks authority
C) BuCor refuses custody
D) Court orders override rules
  • 84. What is the evaluative function of BuCor’s therapeutic community programs?
A) Ensure longer detention
B) Reduce state expenses
C) Increase judicial backlog
D) Facilitate rehabilitation and reintegration
  • 85. Which rationale explains why BJMP cannot impose retributive punishment on detainees?
A) Courts control BJMP
B) BuCor has exclusive authority
C) Detainees are presumed innocent
D) BJMP lacks resources
  • 86. Which of the following best demonstrates the evaluative function of the doctrine of judicial hierarchy?
A) It prevents overburdening of higher courts by routing cases first to proper trial
B) It abolishes trial courts in favor of the Supreme Court.
C) It ensures that all courts have equal power.
D) It allows parties to choose the fastest court.
  • 87. Why does the Constitution vest the Supreme Court with both original and appellate jurisdiction?
A) To reduce the power of trial courts.
B) To ensure flexibility in resolving cases of national significance.
C) To avoid the Court of Appeals’ role.
D) To directly handle barangay disputes.
  • 88. The principle that “jurisdiction is conferred by law” means what in practice?
A) Jurisdiction can be granted by barangay officials.
B) Courts may expand their own jurisdiction when necessary.
C) Jurisdiction is strictly defined by statute and cannot be assumed at will
D) Jurisdiction of a court depends only on the agreement of the parties
  • 89. Which of the following demonstrates proper application of jurisdictional rules?
A) A small claims case exceeding ₱1,000,000 filed before the MTC.
B) An annulment case filed before the Sandiganbayan.
C) A graft case against a mayor filed before the MTC.
D) A murder case filed before the RTC.
  • 90. Which evaluative statement best explains the function of trial courts in the criminal justice system?
A) They exercise only appellate functions.
B) They create laws for implementation.
C) They determine guilt or innocence based on evidence presented
D) They act as advisory bodies to the President.
  • 91. Which of the following reflects the PDEA’s strategic role under RA 9165?
A) Managing correctional rehabilitation centers
B) Handling cybercrimes independently
C) Supervising barangay justice systems
D) Implementing the National Anti-Drug Plan of Action and leading drug enforcement policy
  • 92. Why is inter-agency training between PNP, NBI, BFP, and PDEA essential?
A) To replace judicial oversight
B) To create uniform operational knowledge and enhance coordination in joint operations
C) To centralize all powers in one body
D) To reduce agency manpower
  • 93. When PNP evidence is consistently dismissed in court, what evaluative issue should be reviewed?
A) Judges’ impartiality
B) Possible recurring lapses in evidence handling and procedure
C) Influence of the suspects
D) Lack of PDEA authority
  • 94. Why is law enforcement considered the “first pillar” of the Philippine criminal justice system?
A) It determines guilt or innocence.
B) It supervises post-conviction reintegration.
C) It rehabilitates offenders.
D) It enforces the law, gathers evidence, and initiates case build-up for prosecution.
  • 95. What evaluative failure occurs when BFP neglects fire safety inspections, resulting in deaths from a preventable fire?
A) Failure in custodial investigation
B) Overstepping PNP jurisdiction
C) Failure of preventive function leading to potential criminal negligence
D) Procedural redundancy
  • 96. What evaluative factor distinguishes preliminary investigation from judicial trial?
A) Preliminary investigation is inquisitorial, focusing only on existence of probable cause
B) Preliminary investigation requires proof beyond reasonable doubt
C) Preliminary investigation already decides guilt or innocence
D) Judicial trial is conducted only by prosecutors
  • 97. Why is DOJ supervision over prosecutors important in preliminary investigation?
A) It relieves prosecutors of accountability
B) It ensures national consistency and prevents abuse of discretion
C) It centralizes police power in the DOJ
D) It allows judges to review every complaint
  • 98. Which illustrates prosecutorial abuse of discretion during inquest?
A) Referring the case to higher prosecutors for review
B) Filing a case without verifying legality of arrest
C) Ordering release due to lack of evidence
D) Dismissing a case due to absence of probable cause
  • 99. What is the practical effect of a prosecutor’s resolution finding no probable cause?
A) Court may still conduct trial
B) Police may refile the same case without additional evidence
C) Respondent cannot be charged unless reversed on review
D) Case is automatically filed in court
  • 100. Which best explains the importance of prosecutors in the administration of justice?
A) They balance the rights of the State to prosecute and the rights of the accused to due process
B) They ensure all police cases proceed to trial
C) They determine penalties imposed by courts
D) They lead all criminal investigations
Created with That Quiz — where test making and test taking are made easy for math and other subject areas.