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CLJ1
Contributed by: Montoya
  • 1. During a cyber-enabled drug trafficking case, PDEA requests assistance from the NBI. What is the best rationale for involving the NBI?
A) PDEA is limited to drug rehabilitation programs.
B) PNP is constitutionally barred from drug enforcement
C) BI possesses specialized forensic and cyber-investigation capability needed for transnational cases.
D) NBI has exclusive power over cybercrime investigations.
  • 2. Which situation illustrates the preventive role of the PNP most accurately?
A) Establishing community patrol visibility to deter crime.
B) Arresting suspects after a robbery
C) Prosecuting accused individuals.
D) Conducting custodial interrogation.
  • 3. Which principle is best safeguarded when the PDEA leads anti-drug operations but deputizes the PNP for tactical support?
A) Absolute independence of agencies
B) Inter-agency collaboration and operational efficiency
C) Jurisdictional supremacy
D) Non-delegation of powers
  • 4. Which principle is best safeguarded when the PDEA leads anti-drug operations but deputizes the PNP for tactical support? A commercial complex failed to comply with fire code requirements. A fire later occurs, causing multiple casualties. From the lens of criminal justice, which evaluative issue arises against the BFP?
A) Failure in community policing
B) Negligence in preventive regulatory enforcement
C) Overstepping PNP jurisdiction
D) Procedural delay in criminal prosecution
  • 5. Which distinction most clearly separates the mandates of the PNP and the NBI?
A) PNP manages prosecutions, while NBI supervises corrections.
B) PNP handles general law enforcement, while NBI focuses on technical, complex, and high-profile investigations.
C) PNP investigates graft, while NBI handles only barangay crimes.
D) PNP enforces all laws nationwide, while NBI investigates only corruption cases.
  • 6. Why is chain of custody crucial in PNP-handled drug cases?
A) It gives judges discretion to disregard rules of evidence.
B) It allows evidence to be freely transferred between agencies.
C) It applies only in NBI laboratories, not in PNP operations.
D) It ensures that evidence integrity is preserved for admissibility in court.
  • 7. After a suspicious fire, the BFP submits a technical report indicating arson. How does this role affect criminal proceedings?
A) It provides admissible forensic evidence supporting prosecution.
B) It replaces the need for police investigation
C) It grants the BFP jurisdiction over sentencing.
D) It allows BFP to automatically prosecute the offender.
  • 8. Which case scenario properly falls under the NBI’s jurisdiction rather than the PNP’s?
A) Traffic violations along EDSA
B) Syndicated estafa involving high-ranking officials and foreign entities
C) Theft in a barangay sari-sari store
D) Barangay disturbance between neighbors
  • 9. A PNP-led buy-bust operation is dismissed in court because it was conducted without PDEA coordination. What principle is compromised?
A) Judicial independence
B) Proportionality in sentencing
C) Separation of powers
D) Due process and proper jurisdictional mandate
  • 10. Which BFP function most directly reflects its preventive contribution to criminal justice?
A) Prohibiting building permits
B) Enforcing fire safety codes and conducting inspections
C) Investigating graft and corruption cases
D) Arresting suspects in arson cases
  • 11. Which evaluative advantage does the PNP hold compared to NBI in the grassroots application of criminal justice?
A) Broader barangay presence and patrol-based deterrence
B) Exclusive power over anti-drug operations
C) Superior cyber-investigation facilities
D) Mandate over international law enforcement
  • 12. A prosecutor notes conflicting complaints separately filed by PNP and NBI in the same case. Which evaluative issue arises?
A) Redundancy and lack of inter-agency coordination
B) Chain of custody
C) Collaborative governance
D) Separation of powers
  • 13. During an inquest, it was found that PNP did not document the evidence properly. What is the likely legal impact?
A) The suspect is automatically acquitted.
B) BFP conducts secondary investigation.
C) Evidence may be excluded, weakening prosecution.
D) PDEA assumes jurisdiction.
  • 14. In cases of suspected arson, why is BFP’s role essential even after fire suppression?
A) It conducts forensic analysis necessary for criminal liability determination.
B) It provides legal representation for suspects.
C) It prevents further police intervention.
D) It adjudicates liability of building owners.
  • 15. Which agency has the authority to deputize other law enforcement bodies for anti-drug operations?
A) NBI
B) PDEA
C) DOJ
D) BFP
  • 16. What principle is promoted when PNP secures the perimeter, NBI handles cyber evidence, and PDEA leads the raid in a drug bust?
A) Overstepping of authority
B) Collaborative governance and complementarity of mandates
C) Procedural redundancy
D) Unity of command
  • 17. What is the primary evaluative reason that PNP is often called the “backbone” of law enforcement in the criminal justice system?
A) They supervise prison corrections.
B) Their widespread presence allows immediate response and preventive policing.
C) They provide legal defense for the accused.
D) They control the courts.
  • 18. Which NBI function most strengthens its credibility in high-profile investigations?
A) Forensic and technical divisions specializing in advanced evidence analysis
B) Fire suppression capability
C) Nationwide precinct deployment
D) Barangay patrol assistance
  • 19. A large-scale anti-drug operation fails because PDEA and PNP conducted overlapping operations separately. Which consequence arises?
A) Evidence handling and prosecution are compromised.
B) Media coverage is reduced.
C) BFP assumes jurisdiction.
D) Automatic conviction of suspects.
  • 20. Which statement best evaluates BFP’s link to the “community” pillar of justice?
A) It supervises barangay elections.
B) It eliminates LGU functions during calamities.
C) It prosecutes arsonists directly on behalf of barangays
D) Its enforcement of fire codes prevents disasters that could escalate into criminal negligence affecting communities.
  • 21. A prosecutor dismisses a complaint because the arrest was illegal, and no valid warrantless arrest exception applied. What is being safeguarded?
A) Legality of arrest and personal liberty
B) Integrity of judicial process
C) Efficiency of case disposal
D) Prosecutorial discretion
  • 22. What best explains why prosecutors cannot delegate the determination of probable cause to the police?
A) Delegation violates separation of powers
B) Probable cause is a quasi-judicial function reserved for prosecutors
C) Courts do not trust police testimony
D) Police officers lack training in evidence handling
  • 23. In an inquest proceeding, why is it important that the prosecutor evaluates whether the arrest falls under Rule 113, Sec. 5 (warrantless arrests)?
A) To ensure cases are filed quickly
B) To reduce the workload of judges
C) To protect prosecutors from liability
D) To avoid filing cases based on illegal arrests, which could later be quashed
  • 24. If a prosecutor files an information despite weak evidence, what is the most likely impact on the justice system?
A) Courts will automatically convict
B) It expedites justice delivery
C) It undermines the rights of the accused and clogs court dockets
D) It strengthens police credibility
  • 25. In preliminary investigations, why is it necessary to require counter-affidavits from the respondents?
A) To comply with due process and ensure a balanced evaluation of evidence
B) To delay filing of cases until evidence is complete
C) To shorten the prosecutor’s workload
D) To shift responsibility to defense counsel
  • 26. If during an inquest, evidence clearly shows a person was caught in flagrante delicto, what should the prosecutor do?
A) Release the suspect immediately
B) Wait for the suspect’s motion for bail
C) File the appropriate information in court without preliminary investigation
D) Refer the case to the DOJ Secretary
  • 27. A prosecutor finds inconsistencies in the complainant’s affidavit but strong corroborating physical evidence exists. How should this be evaluated?
A) Defer to the judge for determination
B) Still establish probable cause based on the totality of evidenc
C) Require additional police affidavits only
D) Dismiss the case outright
  • 28. What principle justifies the prosecutor’s authority to decide whether to file a case in court?
A) Judicial discretion
B) Prosecutorial independence
C) Police authority in law enforcement
D) Legislative intent
  • 29. Which scenario reflects the proper exercise of prosecutorial discretion in preliminary investigation?
A) Leaving evidence evaluation to the judge
B) Dismissing a complaint due to insufficient probable cause
C) Automatically endorsing all complaints to the DOJ Secretary
D) Filing a case despite no prima facie evidence to avoid criticism
  • 30. If a prosecutor files a case based on inadmissible evidence (illegally obtained), what is the likely consequence in court?
A) Automatic appeal to DOJ
B) Conviction due to presumption of regularity
C) Acquittal or dismissal due to exclusionary rule
D) Mistrial
  • 31. Why is the prosecutor considered the 'gatekeeper' of the courts in criminal proceedings?
A) They decide on guilt or innocence
B) They supervise correctional facilities
C) They determine which cases merit judicial trial through preliminary investigation
D) They approve police promotions
  • 32. A suspect is arrested without a warrant for murder but the prosecutor finds no probable cause during inquest. What should the prosecutor do?
A) Suspend proceedings until further evidence is gathered
B) Endorse the case to the Ombudsman
C) File the case anyway and let the court decide
D) Order the suspect’s immediate release
  • 33. In conducting preliminary investigation, why must prosecutors avoid relying solely on police recommendations?
A) Police may exaggerate findings
B) Courts demand police neutrality
C) DOJ circulars prohibit it
D) The Constitution requires independent and impartial evaluation of evidence
  • 34. Which of the following best evaluates the role of the prosecutor in protecting the accused’s right to liberty?
A) By dismissing all weak cases regardless of evidence
B) By ensuring probable cause exists before a person is haled into court
C) By conducting speedy trials
D) By automatically recommending bail
  • 35. What is the critical evaluative function of inquest proceedings compared to preliminary investigation?
A) Both serve only as police procedures
B) Inquest is optional, while preliminary investigation is mandatory
C) Inquest is conducted only after conviction
D) Inquest determines validity of warrantless arrests, while preliminary
  • 36. When prosecutors conduct inquest proceedings immediately after arrest, what constitutional principle is primarily observed?
A) Right to equal protection
B) Right to free counsel
C) Right to speedy disposition of cases
D) Right against double jeopardy
  • 37. A prosecutor ignores an accused’s request to submit a counter-affidavit in preliminary investigation. What is the most probable legal outcome?
A) Evidence will be considered waived
B) The case proceeds unaffected
C) Accused may question the prosecutor’s action via certiorari for denial of due process
D) The case will automatically be dismissed
  • 38. A prosecutor dismisses a complaint after finding that the evidence presented is based only on hearsay affidavits. Which principle is the prosecutor upholding?
A) Probable cause requirement
B) Inquisitorial principle
C) Adversarial principle
D) Res judicata
  • 39. During a preliminary investigation, the prosecutor evaluates the sufficiency of evidence. What is the correct evaluative standard to determine probable cause?
A) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
B) Substantial evidence
C) Mere suspicion or belief
D) Such evidence as would lead a reasonably prudent person to believe a crime was committed
  • 40. If a prosecutor conducts an inquest proceeding without affording the arrested person the chance to explain or submit evidence, which constitutional right is violated?
A) Right against double jeopardy
B) Right to bail
C) Right to due process
D) Right to equal protection of the laws
  • 41. Which of the following best describes the role of the Supreme Court in the Philippine judicial hierarchy?
A) It exercises appellate jurisdiction and has the power of judicial review over all lower courts.
B) It directly hears all cases filed by the public without restriction
C) It primarily serves as a trial court for criminal cases.
D) It only hears cases endorsed by the President.
  • 42. Why is it important to maintain a hierarchy of courts in the Philippine judicial system?
A) To ensure orderly administration of justice and prevent forum shopping.
B) To expand the power of barangay courts.
C) To allow parties to skip lower courts for faster results.
D) To limit the number of lawyers who can appear in trial courts.
  • 43. Which trial court has original jurisdiction over cases of illegal possession of dangerous drugs involving small quantities?
A) Regional Trial Court (RTC)
B) Court of Appeals
C) Municipal Trial Court (MTC)
D) Sandiganbayan
  • 44. What is the primary evaluative distinction between the Sandiganbayan and the Regional Trial Courts?
A) RTCs only handle barangay-level disputes, while Sandiganbayan hears all national cases.
B) Sandiganbayan handles cases involving public officials, while RTCs handle general criminal and civil cases.
C) Both A and C
D) Both share identical jurisdictions.
  • 45. The doctrine of hierarchy of courts requires what procedural rule when filing petitions for extraordinary writs?
A) Petitions should generally be filed in the lowest court with concurrent jurisdiction.
B) Petitions must always be filed first in the Supreme Court.
C) Parties are free to choose any court.
D) Petitions must always be filed first in the Supreme Court.
  • 46. Which of the following cases falls under the exclusive jurisdiction of the Sandiganbayan?
A) Graft and corruption by a provincial governor
B) Estafa committed by a private individual.
C) Cybercrime by a private company.
D) Family disputes involving annulment.
  • 47. Which principle explains why the Supreme Court cannot be burdened with all trial-level cases?
A) Principle of Collegiality
B) Principle of Judicial Hierarchy
C) Principle of Judicial Activism
D) Principle of Judicial Economy
  • 48. Which trial court has jurisdiction over civil cases where the value of the property does not exceed ₱300,000 (outside Metro Manila)?
A) Regional Trial Court
B) Municipal Trial Court
C) Supreme Court
D) Court of Appeals
  • 49. The Court of Appeals primarily serves what function in the hierarchy of courts?
A) It acts as an appellate court reviewing decisions of RTCs and quasi-judicial agencies.
B) It enforces laws passed by Congress.
C) It serves as the first-level trial court for minor offenses.
D) It directly tries barangay disputes.
  • 50. A public official charged with plunder must be tried before which court?
A) Sandiganbayan
B) Regional Trial Court
C) Court of Appeals
D) Municipal Trial Court
  • 51. Why are Municipal Trial Courts considered the “first level courts”?
A) They handle the heaviest caseload in the system.
B) They have the same power as the Supreme Court.
C) They try less serious offenses and small claims to decongest higher courts.
D) They serve as administrative bodies only.
  • 52. Which case would properly fall within the jurisdiction of the Regional Trial Court?
A) Violation of traffic rules
B) Barangay conciliation disputes
C) Theft involving ₱5,000
D) Murder
  • 53. Which doctrine guides the Supreme Court in refusing to act on petitions directly filed before it without first exhausting lower remedies?
A) Doctrine of Judicial Restraint
B) Doctrine of Stare Decisis
C) Doctrine of Hierarchy of Courts
D) Doctrine of Judicial Review
  • 54. Why is the Sandiganbayan considered a special court within the hierarchy?
A) Because it handles electoral disputes.
B) Because it focuses on crimes involving graft and corruption by public officials.
C) Because it handles marriage annulments.
D) Because it hears all appeals from the RTC.
  • 55. Which of the following is an exception to the doctrine of hierarchy of courts?
A) When barangay officials decline to mediate.
B) When the RTC is unavailable due to vacancy.
C) When there are novel constitutional issues of transcendental importance.
D) When an MTC judge is absent.
  • 56. Which is true of the relationship between the Supreme Court and the Court of Appeals?
A) The Court of Appeals has no appellate power at all.
B) The Supreme Court directly supervises case raffling in the Court of Appeals.
C) The Supreme Court can only review CA cases involving traffic violations.
D) The Court of Appeals acts as an intermediate appellate body whose decisions are reviewable by the Supreme Court.
  • 57. Which of the following scenarios demonstrates a violation of the doctrine of hierarchy of courts?
A) Filing a petition for certiorari directly with the Supreme Court despite available remedies in the Court of Appeals.
B) Elevating a CA decision to the Supreme Court for review.
C) Filing a small claims case in an MTC.
D) Appealing an RTC decision to the Court of Appeals.
  • 58. The jurisdiction of Shari’a courts is limited to what type of cases?
A) Civil cases relating to marriage, divorce, and inheritance among Muslims
B) All cases in Mindanao
C) Criminal cases involving Muslims
D) All graft cases committed in Muslim areas
  • 59. Which court has exclusive appellate jurisdiction over all decisions of the Municipal Trial Courts?
A) Court of Appeals
B) Sandiganbayan
C) Regional Trial Court
D) Supreme Court
  • 60. A case of homicide committed in Quezon City should first be filed before which court?
A) Sandiganbayan
B) Regional Trial Court
C) Municipal Trial Court
D) Court of Appeals
  • 61. Which principle justifies BJMP’s responsibility to improve conditions despite limited resources?
A) Expediency
B) Human rights protection
C) Administrative convenience
D) Retribution
  • 62. Which evaluative distinction best explains why BJMP facilities are considered temporary compared to BuCor institutions?
A) Jurisdictional funding
B) Geographic scope
C) Nature of detainees’ custody
D) Size of facilities
  • 63. Why is the transfer of inmates from BJMP to BuCor custody upon final conviction important?
A) To punish detainees further
B) To assign custody to the proper agency
C) To reduce congestion only
D) To delay enforcement of judgment
  • 64. Which role of BuCor most directly reflects its rehabilitative mandate under RA 10575?
A) Issuing warrants
B) Reformation programs
C) Crime investigation
D) Maintaining jails
  • 65. If BJMP fails to provide humane conditions for detainees, what constitutional right is most compromised?
A) Right to property
B) Right against cruel punishment
C) Right to bail
D) Right to speedy trial
  • 66. A convict sentenced to reclusion perpetua is mistakenly kept under BJMP custody. What evaluative failure occurred?
A) Judicial oversight
B) Prosecutorial lapse
C) Jurisdictional custody
D) Administrative error
  • 67. The BuCor uses classification systems for inmates (minimum, medium, maximum security). This serves primarily to:
A) Delay reintegration
B) Punish more severely
C) Reduce costs
D) Manage risks and rehabilitation
  • 68. Which evaluative factor best explains why BJMP is under DILG while BuCor is under DOJ?
A) Funding allocation
B) Political mandate
C) Geographic scope
D) Distinction between local jails and national prisons
  • 69. Which of the following situations demonstrates a gap in BJMP’s mandate compared to BuCor?
A) Managing short-term detainees
B) Handling warrants
C) Lack of rehabilitation for long-term detainees
D) Administrative budgeting
  • 70. What is the significance of BuCor’s reformation programs to national security?
A) They reduce recidivism
B) They replace judicial proceedings
C) They provide employment to jail staff
D) They reduce jail congestion
  • 71. In terms of the five pillars of the criminal justice system, BJMP and BuCor belong to which pillar?
A) Prosecution
B) Judiciary
C) Corrections
D) Law enforcement
  • 72. Which evaluative issue is most commonly associated with BJMP facilities compared to BuCor institutions?
A) Political interference
B) Excessive budgets
C) National classification
D) Overcrowding
  • 73. A BJMP official implements livelihood training for detainees. This function demonstrates which broader role?
A) Humanitarian function of jails
B) Sentencing
C) Judicial oversight
D) Prosecutorial support
  • 74. The Board of Pardons and Parole works closely with BuCor because:
A) Prosecutors direct parole decisions
B) Prisoners eligible for release are under BuCor custody
C) Courts automatically release parolees
D) BJMP manages parolee monitoring
  • 75. Why is inter-agency coordination between BJMP and BuCor critical after final judgment?
A) To punish detainees twice
B) To ensure proper transfer of custody
C) To delay transfer of convicts
D) To increase BJMP budget
  • 76. Which principle of penology is most at stake when BuCor fails to implement effective rehabilitation programs?
A) Reformation
B) Retribution
C) Deterrence
D) Isolation
  • 77. Which of the following demonstrates BJMP’s role in ensuring access to justice?
A) Safeguarding detainees’ right to attend trial
B) Issuing arrest warrants
C) Drafting laws
D) Conducting criminal investigations
  • 78. The modernization of BuCor under RA 10575 emphasized which evaluative reform?
A) Privatization
B) Professionalization and rehabilitation
C) Political independence
D) Expansion of local jails
  • 79. If BuCor fails to classify prisoners properly, what risk increases?
A) Faster reintegration
B) Judicial appeals
C) Higher operational costs
D) Violence and security breaches
  • 80. Which of the following represents a shared challenge for both BJMP and BuCor?
A) Overcrowding
B) Geographic limitation
C) Duplication of parole power
D) Lack of judicial authority
  • 81. Which evaluative conclusion best explains the complementary role of BJMP and BuCor in corrections?
A) They both issue arrest warrants
B) They both adjudicate disputes
C) They both prosecute criminal cases
D) They divide custody between temporary detention and long-term imprisonment
  • 82. Which demonstrates BuCor’s reintegration role after release of prisoners?
A) Post-release monitoring and livelihood suppor
B) Managing trial schedules
C) Issuing criminal warrants
D) Supervising prosecutors
  • 83. A detainee sentenced to 2 years imprisonment remains under BJMP custody. Why is this correct?
A) BJMP handles sentences below 3 years
B) DOJ lacks authority
C) Court orders override rules
D) BuCor refuses custody
  • 84. What is the evaluative function of BuCor’s therapeutic community programs?
A) Ensure longer detention
B) Increase judicial backlog
C) Reduce state expenses
D) Facilitate rehabilitation and reintegration
  • 85. Which rationale explains why BJMP cannot impose retributive punishment on detainees?
A) BJMP lacks resources
B) BuCor has exclusive authority
C) Detainees are presumed innocent
D) Courts control BJMP
  • 86. Which of the following best demonstrates the evaluative function of the doctrine of judicial hierarchy?
A) It prevents overburdening of higher courts by routing cases first to proper trial
B) It ensures that all courts have equal power.
C) It allows parties to choose the fastest court.
D) It abolishes trial courts in favor of the Supreme Court.
  • 87. Why does the Constitution vest the Supreme Court with both original and appellate jurisdiction?
A) To ensure flexibility in resolving cases of national significance.
B) To directly handle barangay disputes.
C) To avoid the Court of Appeals’ role.
D) To reduce the power of trial courts.
  • 88. The principle that “jurisdiction is conferred by law” means what in practice?
A) Jurisdiction can be granted by barangay officials.
B) Jurisdiction of a court depends only on the agreement of the parties
C) Jurisdiction is strictly defined by statute and cannot be assumed at will
D) Courts may expand their own jurisdiction when necessary.
  • 89. Which of the following demonstrates proper application of jurisdictional rules?
A) A graft case against a mayor filed before the MTC.
B) A murder case filed before the RTC.
C) A small claims case exceeding ₱1,000,000 filed before the MTC.
D) An annulment case filed before the Sandiganbayan.
  • 90. Which evaluative statement best explains the function of trial courts in the criminal justice system?
A) They act as advisory bodies to the President.
B) They exercise only appellate functions.
C) They determine guilt or innocence based on evidence presented
D) They create laws for implementation.
  • 91. Which of the following reflects the PDEA’s strategic role under RA 9165?
A) Managing correctional rehabilitation centers
B) Implementing the National Anti-Drug Plan of Action and leading drug enforcement policy
C) Supervising barangay justice systems
D) Handling cybercrimes independently
  • 92. Why is inter-agency training between PNP, NBI, BFP, and PDEA essential?
A) To create uniform operational knowledge and enhance coordination in joint operations
B) To replace judicial oversight
C) To reduce agency manpower
D) To centralize all powers in one body
  • 93. When PNP evidence is consistently dismissed in court, what evaluative issue should be reviewed?
A) Lack of PDEA authority
B) Judges’ impartiality
C) Possible recurring lapses in evidence handling and procedure
D) Influence of the suspects
  • 94. Why is law enforcement considered the “first pillar” of the Philippine criminal justice system?
A) It supervises post-conviction reintegration.
B) It enforces the law, gathers evidence, and initiates case build-up for prosecution.
C) It rehabilitates offenders.
D) It determines guilt or innocence.
  • 95. What evaluative failure occurs when BFP neglects fire safety inspections, resulting in deaths from a preventable fire?
A) Overstepping PNP jurisdiction
B) Failure in custodial investigation
C) Failure of preventive function leading to potential criminal negligence
D) Procedural redundancy
  • 96. What evaluative factor distinguishes preliminary investigation from judicial trial?
A) Preliminary investigation already decides guilt or innocence
B) Preliminary investigation requires proof beyond reasonable doubt
C) Preliminary investigation is inquisitorial, focusing only on existence of probable cause
D) Judicial trial is conducted only by prosecutors
  • 97. Why is DOJ supervision over prosecutors important in preliminary investigation?
A) It relieves prosecutors of accountability
B) It centralizes police power in the DOJ
C) It allows judges to review every complaint
D) It ensures national consistency and prevents abuse of discretion
  • 98. Which illustrates prosecutorial abuse of discretion during inquest?
A) Filing a case without verifying legality of arrest
B) Referring the case to higher prosecutors for review
C) Ordering release due to lack of evidence
D) Dismissing a case due to absence of probable cause
  • 99. What is the practical effect of a prosecutor’s resolution finding no probable cause?
A) Respondent cannot be charged unless reversed on review
B) Police may refile the same case without additional evidence
C) Court may still conduct trial
D) Case is automatically filed in court
  • 100. Which best explains the importance of prosecutors in the administration of justice?
A) They ensure all police cases proceed to trial
B) They balance the rights of the State to prosecute and the rights of the accused to due process
C) They determine penalties imposed by courts
D) They lead all criminal investigations
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