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CLJ1
Contributed by: Montoya
  • 1. During a cyber-enabled drug trafficking case, PDEA requests assistance from the NBI. What is the best rationale for involving the NBI?
A) PNP is constitutionally barred from drug enforcement
B) PDEA is limited to drug rehabilitation programs.
C) BI possesses specialized forensic and cyber-investigation capability needed for transnational cases.
D) NBI has exclusive power over cybercrime investigations.
  • 2. Which situation illustrates the preventive role of the PNP most accurately?
A) Prosecuting accused individuals.
B) Establishing community patrol visibility to deter crime.
C) Conducting custodial interrogation.
D) Arresting suspects after a robbery
  • 3. Which principle is best safeguarded when the PDEA leads anti-drug operations but deputizes the PNP for tactical support?
A) Inter-agency collaboration and operational efficiency
B) Jurisdictional supremacy
C) Absolute independence of agencies
D) Non-delegation of powers
  • 4. Which principle is best safeguarded when the PDEA leads anti-drug operations but deputizes the PNP for tactical support? A commercial complex failed to comply with fire code requirements. A fire later occurs, causing multiple casualties. From the lens of criminal justice, which evaluative issue arises against the BFP?
A) Negligence in preventive regulatory enforcement
B) Failure in community policing
C) Procedural delay in criminal prosecution
D) Overstepping PNP jurisdiction
  • 5. Which distinction most clearly separates the mandates of the PNP and the NBI?
A) PNP enforces all laws nationwide, while NBI investigates only corruption cases.
B) PNP investigates graft, while NBI handles only barangay crimes.
C) PNP manages prosecutions, while NBI supervises corrections.
D) PNP handles general law enforcement, while NBI focuses on technical, complex, and high-profile investigations.
  • 6. Why is chain of custody crucial in PNP-handled drug cases?
A) It allows evidence to be freely transferred between agencies.
B) It applies only in NBI laboratories, not in PNP operations.
C) It gives judges discretion to disregard rules of evidence.
D) It ensures that evidence integrity is preserved for admissibility in court.
  • 7. After a suspicious fire, the BFP submits a technical report indicating arson. How does this role affect criminal proceedings?
A) It allows BFP to automatically prosecute the offender.
B) It grants the BFP jurisdiction over sentencing.
C) It replaces the need for police investigation
D) It provides admissible forensic evidence supporting prosecution.
  • 8. Which case scenario properly falls under the NBI’s jurisdiction rather than the PNP’s?
A) Theft in a barangay sari-sari store
B) Syndicated estafa involving high-ranking officials and foreign entities
C) Barangay disturbance between neighbors
D) Traffic violations along EDSA
  • 9. A PNP-led buy-bust operation is dismissed in court because it was conducted without PDEA coordination. What principle is compromised?
A) Proportionality in sentencing
B) Judicial independence
C) Separation of powers
D) Due process and proper jurisdictional mandate
  • 10. Which BFP function most directly reflects its preventive contribution to criminal justice?
A) Investigating graft and corruption cases
B) Prohibiting building permits
C) Enforcing fire safety codes and conducting inspections
D) Arresting suspects in arson cases
  • 11. Which evaluative advantage does the PNP hold compared to NBI in the grassroots application of criminal justice?
A) Superior cyber-investigation facilities
B) Broader barangay presence and patrol-based deterrence
C) Exclusive power over anti-drug operations
D) Mandate over international law enforcement
  • 12. A prosecutor notes conflicting complaints separately filed by PNP and NBI in the same case. Which evaluative issue arises?
A) Chain of custody
B) Collaborative governance
C) Separation of powers
D) Redundancy and lack of inter-agency coordination
  • 13. During an inquest, it was found that PNP did not document the evidence properly. What is the likely legal impact?
A) PDEA assumes jurisdiction.
B) The suspect is automatically acquitted.
C) BFP conducts secondary investigation.
D) Evidence may be excluded, weakening prosecution.
  • 14. In cases of suspected arson, why is BFP’s role essential even after fire suppression?
A) It provides legal representation for suspects.
B) It adjudicates liability of building owners.
C) It prevents further police intervention.
D) It conducts forensic analysis necessary for criminal liability determination.
  • 15. Which agency has the authority to deputize other law enforcement bodies for anti-drug operations?
A) DOJ
B) NBI
C) BFP
D) PDEA
  • 16. What principle is promoted when PNP secures the perimeter, NBI handles cyber evidence, and PDEA leads the raid in a drug bust?
A) Procedural redundancy
B) Overstepping of authority
C) Unity of command
D) Collaborative governance and complementarity of mandates
  • 17. What is the primary evaluative reason that PNP is often called the “backbone” of law enforcement in the criminal justice system?
A) They provide legal defense for the accused.
B) They supervise prison corrections.
C) They control the courts.
D) Their widespread presence allows immediate response and preventive policing.
  • 18. Which NBI function most strengthens its credibility in high-profile investigations?
A) Fire suppression capability
B) Forensic and technical divisions specializing in advanced evidence analysis
C) Barangay patrol assistance
D) Nationwide precinct deployment
  • 19. A large-scale anti-drug operation fails because PDEA and PNP conducted overlapping operations separately. Which consequence arises?
A) BFP assumes jurisdiction.
B) Media coverage is reduced.
C) Evidence handling and prosecution are compromised.
D) Automatic conviction of suspects.
  • 20. Which statement best evaluates BFP’s link to the “community” pillar of justice?
A) It eliminates LGU functions during calamities.
B) It prosecutes arsonists directly on behalf of barangays
C) Its enforcement of fire codes prevents disasters that could escalate into criminal negligence affecting communities.
D) It supervises barangay elections.
  • 21. A prosecutor dismisses a complaint because the arrest was illegal, and no valid warrantless arrest exception applied. What is being safeguarded?
A) Prosecutorial discretion
B) Efficiency of case disposal
C) Legality of arrest and personal liberty
D) Integrity of judicial process
  • 22. What best explains why prosecutors cannot delegate the determination of probable cause to the police?
A) Delegation violates separation of powers
B) Police officers lack training in evidence handling
C) Probable cause is a quasi-judicial function reserved for prosecutors
D) Courts do not trust police testimony
  • 23. In an inquest proceeding, why is it important that the prosecutor evaluates whether the arrest falls under Rule 113, Sec. 5 (warrantless arrests)?
A) To protect prosecutors from liability
B) To ensure cases are filed quickly
C) To reduce the workload of judges
D) To avoid filing cases based on illegal arrests, which could later be quashed
  • 24. If a prosecutor files an information despite weak evidence, what is the most likely impact on the justice system?
A) It strengthens police credibility
B) It expedites justice delivery
C) It undermines the rights of the accused and clogs court dockets
D) Courts will automatically convict
  • 25. In preliminary investigations, why is it necessary to require counter-affidavits from the respondents?
A) To shorten the prosecutor’s workload
B) To comply with due process and ensure a balanced evaluation of evidence
C) To delay filing of cases until evidence is complete
D) To shift responsibility to defense counsel
  • 26. If during an inquest, evidence clearly shows a person was caught in flagrante delicto, what should the prosecutor do?
A) Wait for the suspect’s motion for bail
B) Release the suspect immediately
C) Refer the case to the DOJ Secretary
D) File the appropriate information in court without preliminary investigation
  • 27. A prosecutor finds inconsistencies in the complainant’s affidavit but strong corroborating physical evidence exists. How should this be evaluated?
A) Still establish probable cause based on the totality of evidenc
B) Require additional police affidavits only
C) Dismiss the case outright
D) Defer to the judge for determination
  • 28. What principle justifies the prosecutor’s authority to decide whether to file a case in court?
A) Judicial discretion
B) Police authority in law enforcement
C) Legislative intent
D) Prosecutorial independence
  • 29. Which scenario reflects the proper exercise of prosecutorial discretion in preliminary investigation?
A) Automatically endorsing all complaints to the DOJ Secretary
B) Filing a case despite no prima facie evidence to avoid criticism
C) Leaving evidence evaluation to the judge
D) Dismissing a complaint due to insufficient probable cause
  • 30. If a prosecutor files a case based on inadmissible evidence (illegally obtained), what is the likely consequence in court?
A) Mistrial
B) Automatic appeal to DOJ
C) Conviction due to presumption of regularity
D) Acquittal or dismissal due to exclusionary rule
  • 31. Why is the prosecutor considered the 'gatekeeper' of the courts in criminal proceedings?
A) They supervise correctional facilities
B) They decide on guilt or innocence
C) They approve police promotions
D) They determine which cases merit judicial trial through preliminary investigation
  • 32. A suspect is arrested without a warrant for murder but the prosecutor finds no probable cause during inquest. What should the prosecutor do?
A) Endorse the case to the Ombudsman
B) Order the suspect’s immediate release
C) File the case anyway and let the court decide
D) Suspend proceedings until further evidence is gathered
  • 33. In conducting preliminary investigation, why must prosecutors avoid relying solely on police recommendations?
A) Police may exaggerate findings
B) Courts demand police neutrality
C) The Constitution requires independent and impartial evaluation of evidence
D) DOJ circulars prohibit it
  • 34. Which of the following best evaluates the role of the prosecutor in protecting the accused’s right to liberty?
A) By ensuring probable cause exists before a person is haled into court
B) By automatically recommending bail
C) By conducting speedy trials
D) By dismissing all weak cases regardless of evidence
  • 35. What is the critical evaluative function of inquest proceedings compared to preliminary investigation?
A) Inquest is optional, while preliminary investigation is mandatory
B) Inquest is conducted only after conviction
C) Both serve only as police procedures
D) Inquest determines validity of warrantless arrests, while preliminary
  • 36. When prosecutors conduct inquest proceedings immediately after arrest, what constitutional principle is primarily observed?
A) Right to equal protection
B) Right against double jeopardy
C) Right to speedy disposition of cases
D) Right to free counsel
  • 37. A prosecutor ignores an accused’s request to submit a counter-affidavit in preliminary investigation. What is the most probable legal outcome?
A) The case will automatically be dismissed
B) Accused may question the prosecutor’s action via certiorari for denial of due process
C) Evidence will be considered waived
D) The case proceeds unaffected
  • 38. A prosecutor dismisses a complaint after finding that the evidence presented is based only on hearsay affidavits. Which principle is the prosecutor upholding?
A) Adversarial principle
B) Probable cause requirement
C) Inquisitorial principle
D) Res judicata
  • 39. During a preliminary investigation, the prosecutor evaluates the sufficiency of evidence. What is the correct evaluative standard to determine probable cause?
A) Such evidence as would lead a reasonably prudent person to believe a crime was committed
B) Substantial evidence
C) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
D) Mere suspicion or belief
  • 40. If a prosecutor conducts an inquest proceeding without affording the arrested person the chance to explain or submit evidence, which constitutional right is violated?
A) Right against double jeopardy
B) Right to bail
C) Right to due process
D) Right to equal protection of the laws
  • 41. Which of the following best describes the role of the Supreme Court in the Philippine judicial hierarchy?
A) It directly hears all cases filed by the public without restriction
B) It primarily serves as a trial court for criminal cases.
C) It only hears cases endorsed by the President.
D) It exercises appellate jurisdiction and has the power of judicial review over all lower courts.
  • 42. Why is it important to maintain a hierarchy of courts in the Philippine judicial system?
A) To allow parties to skip lower courts for faster results.
B) To ensure orderly administration of justice and prevent forum shopping.
C) To expand the power of barangay courts.
D) To limit the number of lawyers who can appear in trial courts.
  • 43. Which trial court has original jurisdiction over cases of illegal possession of dangerous drugs involving small quantities?
A) Court of Appeals
B) Regional Trial Court (RTC)
C) Municipal Trial Court (MTC)
D) Sandiganbayan
  • 44. What is the primary evaluative distinction between the Sandiganbayan and the Regional Trial Courts?
A) Both A and C
B) RTCs only handle barangay-level disputes, while Sandiganbayan hears all national cases.
C) Sandiganbayan handles cases involving public officials, while RTCs handle general criminal and civil cases.
D) Both share identical jurisdictions.
  • 45. The doctrine of hierarchy of courts requires what procedural rule when filing petitions for extraordinary writs?
A) Petitions must always be filed first in the Supreme Court.
B) Petitions should generally be filed in the lowest court with concurrent jurisdiction.
C) Parties are free to choose any court.
D) Petitions must always be filed first in the Supreme Court.
  • 46. Which of the following cases falls under the exclusive jurisdiction of the Sandiganbayan?
A) Estafa committed by a private individual.
B) Graft and corruption by a provincial governor
C) Family disputes involving annulment.
D) Cybercrime by a private company.
  • 47. Which principle explains why the Supreme Court cannot be burdened with all trial-level cases?
A) Principle of Judicial Hierarchy
B) Principle of Judicial Activism
C) Principle of Collegiality
D) Principle of Judicial Economy
  • 48. Which trial court has jurisdiction over civil cases where the value of the property does not exceed ₱300,000 (outside Metro Manila)?
A) Municipal Trial Court
B) Supreme Court
C) Court of Appeals
D) Regional Trial Court
  • 49. The Court of Appeals primarily serves what function in the hierarchy of courts?
A) It serves as the first-level trial court for minor offenses.
B) It enforces laws passed by Congress.
C) It acts as an appellate court reviewing decisions of RTCs and quasi-judicial agencies.
D) It directly tries barangay disputes.
  • 50. A public official charged with plunder must be tried before which court?
A) Court of Appeals
B) Regional Trial Court
C) Sandiganbayan
D) Municipal Trial Court
  • 51. Why are Municipal Trial Courts considered the “first level courts”?
A) They try less serious offenses and small claims to decongest higher courts.
B) They handle the heaviest caseload in the system.
C) They serve as administrative bodies only.
D) They have the same power as the Supreme Court.
  • 52. Which case would properly fall within the jurisdiction of the Regional Trial Court?
A) Barangay conciliation disputes
B) Theft involving ₱5,000
C) Violation of traffic rules
D) Murder
  • 53. Which doctrine guides the Supreme Court in refusing to act on petitions directly filed before it without first exhausting lower remedies?
A) Doctrine of Judicial Review
B) Doctrine of Hierarchy of Courts
C) Doctrine of Judicial Restraint
D) Doctrine of Stare Decisis
  • 54. Why is the Sandiganbayan considered a special court within the hierarchy?
A) Because it focuses on crimes involving graft and corruption by public officials.
B) Because it handles electoral disputes.
C) Because it hears all appeals from the RTC.
D) Because it handles marriage annulments.
  • 55. Which of the following is an exception to the doctrine of hierarchy of courts?
A) When an MTC judge is absent.
B) When barangay officials decline to mediate.
C) When there are novel constitutional issues of transcendental importance.
D) When the RTC is unavailable due to vacancy.
  • 56. Which is true of the relationship between the Supreme Court and the Court of Appeals?
A) The Supreme Court directly supervises case raffling in the Court of Appeals.
B) The Court of Appeals acts as an intermediate appellate body whose decisions are reviewable by the Supreme Court.
C) The Court of Appeals has no appellate power at all.
D) The Supreme Court can only review CA cases involving traffic violations.
  • 57. Which of the following scenarios demonstrates a violation of the doctrine of hierarchy of courts?
A) Filing a petition for certiorari directly with the Supreme Court despite available remedies in the Court of Appeals.
B) Filing a small claims case in an MTC.
C) Appealing an RTC decision to the Court of Appeals.
D) Elevating a CA decision to the Supreme Court for review.
  • 58. The jurisdiction of Shari’a courts is limited to what type of cases?
A) All cases in Mindanao
B) Civil cases relating to marriage, divorce, and inheritance among Muslims
C) All graft cases committed in Muslim areas
D) Criminal cases involving Muslims
  • 59. Which court has exclusive appellate jurisdiction over all decisions of the Municipal Trial Courts?
A) Supreme Court
B) Regional Trial Court
C) Court of Appeals
D) Sandiganbayan
  • 60. A case of homicide committed in Quezon City should first be filed before which court?
A) Regional Trial Court
B) Court of Appeals
C) Municipal Trial Court
D) Sandiganbayan
  • 61. Which principle justifies BJMP’s responsibility to improve conditions despite limited resources?
A) Expediency
B) Administrative convenience
C) Human rights protection
D) Retribution
  • 62. Which evaluative distinction best explains why BJMP facilities are considered temporary compared to BuCor institutions?
A) Size of facilities
B) Geographic scope
C) Nature of detainees’ custody
D) Jurisdictional funding
  • 63. Why is the transfer of inmates from BJMP to BuCor custody upon final conviction important?
A) To delay enforcement of judgment
B) To reduce congestion only
C) To punish detainees further
D) To assign custody to the proper agency
  • 64. Which role of BuCor most directly reflects its rehabilitative mandate under RA 10575?
A) Reformation programs
B) Crime investigation
C) Issuing warrants
D) Maintaining jails
  • 65. If BJMP fails to provide humane conditions for detainees, what constitutional right is most compromised?
A) Right to property
B) Right to speedy trial
C) Right against cruel punishment
D) Right to bail
  • 66. A convict sentenced to reclusion perpetua is mistakenly kept under BJMP custody. What evaluative failure occurred?
A) Judicial oversight
B) Prosecutorial lapse
C) Jurisdictional custody
D) Administrative error
  • 67. The BuCor uses classification systems for inmates (minimum, medium, maximum security). This serves primarily to:
A) Punish more severely
B) Manage risks and rehabilitation
C) Reduce costs
D) Delay reintegration
  • 68. Which evaluative factor best explains why BJMP is under DILG while BuCor is under DOJ?
A) Distinction between local jails and national prisons
B) Funding allocation
C) Political mandate
D) Geographic scope
  • 69. Which of the following situations demonstrates a gap in BJMP’s mandate compared to BuCor?
A) Lack of rehabilitation for long-term detainees
B) Administrative budgeting
C) Managing short-term detainees
D) Handling warrants
  • 70. What is the significance of BuCor’s reformation programs to national security?
A) They provide employment to jail staff
B) They reduce recidivism
C) They replace judicial proceedings
D) They reduce jail congestion
  • 71. In terms of the five pillars of the criminal justice system, BJMP and BuCor belong to which pillar?
A) Judiciary
B) Corrections
C) Law enforcement
D) Prosecution
  • 72. Which evaluative issue is most commonly associated with BJMP facilities compared to BuCor institutions?
A) Political interference
B) Overcrowding
C) Excessive budgets
D) National classification
  • 73. A BJMP official implements livelihood training for detainees. This function demonstrates which broader role?
A) Judicial oversight
B) Prosecutorial support
C) Sentencing
D) Humanitarian function of jails
  • 74. The Board of Pardons and Parole works closely with BuCor because:
A) BJMP manages parolee monitoring
B) Prisoners eligible for release are under BuCor custody
C) Courts automatically release parolees
D) Prosecutors direct parole decisions
  • 75. Why is inter-agency coordination between BJMP and BuCor critical after final judgment?
A) To ensure proper transfer of custody
B) To delay transfer of convicts
C) To punish detainees twice
D) To increase BJMP budget
  • 76. Which principle of penology is most at stake when BuCor fails to implement effective rehabilitation programs?
A) Reformation
B) Isolation
C) Deterrence
D) Retribution
  • 77. Which of the following demonstrates BJMP’s role in ensuring access to justice?
A) Conducting criminal investigations
B) Drafting laws
C) Issuing arrest warrants
D) Safeguarding detainees’ right to attend trial
  • 78. The modernization of BuCor under RA 10575 emphasized which evaluative reform?
A) Professionalization and rehabilitation
B) Expansion of local jails
C) Privatization
D) Political independence
  • 79. If BuCor fails to classify prisoners properly, what risk increases?
A) Faster reintegration
B) Higher operational costs
C) Judicial appeals
D) Violence and security breaches
  • 80. Which of the following represents a shared challenge for both BJMP and BuCor?
A) Geographic limitation
B) Lack of judicial authority
C) Overcrowding
D) Duplication of parole power
  • 81. Which evaluative conclusion best explains the complementary role of BJMP and BuCor in corrections?
A) They both prosecute criminal cases
B) They both adjudicate disputes
C) They both issue arrest warrants
D) They divide custody between temporary detention and long-term imprisonment
  • 82. Which demonstrates BuCor’s reintegration role after release of prisoners?
A) Post-release monitoring and livelihood suppor
B) Supervising prosecutors
C) Issuing criminal warrants
D) Managing trial schedules
  • 83. A detainee sentenced to 2 years imprisonment remains under BJMP custody. Why is this correct?
A) Court orders override rules
B) BuCor refuses custody
C) DOJ lacks authority
D) BJMP handles sentences below 3 years
  • 84. What is the evaluative function of BuCor’s therapeutic community programs?
A) Reduce state expenses
B) Ensure longer detention
C) Increase judicial backlog
D) Facilitate rehabilitation and reintegration
  • 85. Which rationale explains why BJMP cannot impose retributive punishment on detainees?
A) BuCor has exclusive authority
B) Courts control BJMP
C) Detainees are presumed innocent
D) BJMP lacks resources
  • 86. Which of the following best demonstrates the evaluative function of the doctrine of judicial hierarchy?
A) It ensures that all courts have equal power.
B) It allows parties to choose the fastest court.
C) It abolishes trial courts in favor of the Supreme Court.
D) It prevents overburdening of higher courts by routing cases first to proper trial
  • 87. Why does the Constitution vest the Supreme Court with both original and appellate jurisdiction?
A) To avoid the Court of Appeals’ role.
B) To ensure flexibility in resolving cases of national significance.
C) To reduce the power of trial courts.
D) To directly handle barangay disputes.
  • 88. The principle that “jurisdiction is conferred by law” means what in practice?
A) Jurisdiction is strictly defined by statute and cannot be assumed at will
B) Jurisdiction of a court depends only on the agreement of the parties
C) Courts may expand their own jurisdiction when necessary.
D) Jurisdiction can be granted by barangay officials.
  • 89. Which of the following demonstrates proper application of jurisdictional rules?
A) An annulment case filed before the Sandiganbayan.
B) A graft case against a mayor filed before the MTC.
C) A small claims case exceeding ₱1,000,000 filed before the MTC.
D) A murder case filed before the RTC.
  • 90. Which evaluative statement best explains the function of trial courts in the criminal justice system?
A) They determine guilt or innocence based on evidence presented
B) They exercise only appellate functions.
C) They act as advisory bodies to the President.
D) They create laws for implementation.
  • 91. Which of the following reflects the PDEA’s strategic role under RA 9165?
A) Implementing the National Anti-Drug Plan of Action and leading drug enforcement policy
B) Managing correctional rehabilitation centers
C) Handling cybercrimes independently
D) Supervising barangay justice systems
  • 92. Why is inter-agency training between PNP, NBI, BFP, and PDEA essential?
A) To reduce agency manpower
B) To centralize all powers in one body
C) To create uniform operational knowledge and enhance coordination in joint operations
D) To replace judicial oversight
  • 93. When PNP evidence is consistently dismissed in court, what evaluative issue should be reviewed?
A) Influence of the suspects
B) Possible recurring lapses in evidence handling and procedure
C) Judges’ impartiality
D) Lack of PDEA authority
  • 94. Why is law enforcement considered the “first pillar” of the Philippine criminal justice system?
A) It rehabilitates offenders.
B) It determines guilt or innocence.
C) It supervises post-conviction reintegration.
D) It enforces the law, gathers evidence, and initiates case build-up for prosecution.
  • 95. What evaluative failure occurs when BFP neglects fire safety inspections, resulting in deaths from a preventable fire?
A) Failure in custodial investigation
B) Procedural redundancy
C) Failure of preventive function leading to potential criminal negligence
D) Overstepping PNP jurisdiction
  • 96. What evaluative factor distinguishes preliminary investigation from judicial trial?
A) Preliminary investigation is inquisitorial, focusing only on existence of probable cause
B) Preliminary investigation requires proof beyond reasonable doubt
C) Judicial trial is conducted only by prosecutors
D) Preliminary investigation already decides guilt or innocence
  • 97. Why is DOJ supervision over prosecutors important in preliminary investigation?
A) It allows judges to review every complaint
B) It ensures national consistency and prevents abuse of discretion
C) It relieves prosecutors of accountability
D) It centralizes police power in the DOJ
  • 98. Which illustrates prosecutorial abuse of discretion during inquest?
A) Filing a case without verifying legality of arrest
B) Ordering release due to lack of evidence
C) Referring the case to higher prosecutors for review
D) Dismissing a case due to absence of probable cause
  • 99. What is the practical effect of a prosecutor’s resolution finding no probable cause?
A) Case is automatically filed in court
B) Police may refile the same case without additional evidence
C) Respondent cannot be charged unless reversed on review
D) Court may still conduct trial
  • 100. Which best explains the importance of prosecutors in the administration of justice?
A) They balance the rights of the State to prosecute and the rights of the accused to due process
B) They ensure all police cases proceed to trial
C) They determine penalties imposed by courts
D) They lead all criminal investigations
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