A) Legal Medicine B) All of the Above C) Medical Jurisprudence D) Forensic Medicine
A) Medico - legal Expert B) Medical Jurist C) All of the Above D) Medical Examiner
A) Member of the medical staff of accredited hospitals B) Health officers C) all of these D) Medical officers of law enforcement agencies
A) Autopsy/ Necropsy B) Medico legal autopsy C) Clinical Autopsy D) Autopsic
A) Clinical Autopsy B) Autopsic C) Medico legal autopsy D) Autopsy/ Necropsy
A) Medico-legal autopsy B) Clinical Autopsy C) Autopsy/Necropsy D) Autoptic
A) Criminal law B) Special law C) Remedial law D) Civil Law
A) Crimes against chastity B) Crimes against person C) Circumstances affecting criminal liability D) Crimes against property
A) Livor Mortis B) Algor Mortis C) Flaccidity D) Rigor Mortis
A) Rigor Mortis B) Algor Mortis C) Flaccidity D) Livor Mortis
A) Flaccidity B) Rigor Mortis C) Livor Mortis D) Algor Mortis
A) Corroborative Evidence B) Proma Facie Evidence C) Material Evidence D) Corpus Delicti
A) Acid hematin B) Alkaline test C) Albumin test D) Precipitin test
A) Photographing it B) Memories C) Tape recording them D) Written interrogatories
A) Corpus delicti or facts that crime was committed B) Cordon the area C) Identity of the suspect D) Method of operation's of the suspect
A) Hematoma B) Punchured C) Abrasion D) Contusion
A) Hematoma B) Abrasion C) Punchured wound D) Contusion
A) Abrasion B) Punctured wound C) Hematoma D) Contusion
A) Contusion B) Hematoma C) Abrasion D) Punctured wound
A) Armed Robbery B) Arrest C) Homicide D) Robbery
A) Abdomen distended, skin of hands and feet come off with the nails like a glove B) Skin wrinkled, scrotum, and penis distended with gas, nails and hair still intact C) Skin on the hands and feet become swollen and bleached D) The face appears softened
A) Incised wound B) Justifying circumstances C) Lacerated wound D) Defense wound
A) Slight physical injury B) Less serious physical injury C) Mutilation D) Serious physical injury
A) Rigor mortis B) Diffusion Livility C) Hypostatics Livility D) Hyper Livility
A) Demi-virginity B) Moral virginity C) Physical virginity D) Virgo-intacta
A) 48 hours death B) Primary flaccidity C) 24 hour after death, unless the health officer allows extension D) Livor mortis
A) 45-60 minutes B) 15-30 minutes C) 30-45 minutes D) 10-15 minutes
A) Carbolization B) Saponification C) Livor mortis D) Putrefaction
A) 12 hours B) 36 hours C) 48 hours D) 24 hours
A) Physical injuries and death B) Death, property damage C) Slight, less serious, serious physical injuries D) Fatal, non fatal, property damage
A) yellow B) Pink C) Bright red D) Violet
A) Electrical burn B) Friction burn C) Thermal burn D) Radiation burn
A) 13 years old B) 15 years old C) 12 years old D) 14 years old
A) All of these B) A non-resisting victim C) A non- aggressive assailant D) Limitations of the forensic examination
A) Tenor B) Calor C) Rubor D) Dolor
A) Vital Reaction B) Vital Infliction C) Vital Deactivation D) Vital Infection
A) Non-Mortal Wounds B) Mortal Wounds C) Closed Wounds D) Open Wounds
A) Stab Wound B) Inscised Wound C) Lacerated Wound D) Punctured Wound
A) 6-8 hours B) 3-4 hours C) 1-2 hours D) 5-7 hours
A) Saponification B) Purge C) Mummification D) Maceration
A) Sadism B) Sado-masochism C) Masochism D) Fornication
A) Coup Contre-Coup Injur B) Contre-Coup Injury C) Locus Minoris Resistancia D) Coup Injury
A) Infanticide B) Homicide C) Parricide D) Murder
A) Homicide B) Murder C) Infanticide D) Parricide
A) Homicide B) Murder C) Infanticide D) Parricide
A) Must be turned over to the police as evidence B) All of the above C) Must be described and inventoried D) Must be buried or cremated with body
A) Passive Euthanasia B) Euthanasia C) Mercy Killing D) Active Euthanasia
A) 8 hours B) 6 hours C) 12 hours D) 3 hours
A) Suffocation B) Hanging C) Strangulation D) Asphyxia
A) Abrasion B) Hematoma C) Incised Wound D) Contusion
A) Defloration B) Moral Virginity C) Virginity D) Carnal Knowledge
A) Contusion B) Close Wound C) Petechiae D) Hematoma
A) 12 inches B) More than 25 inches C) Near contact to 6 inches D) More than 6 inches up to 24 inches
A) All of the above B) Witness accounts C) Circumstances of the death D) Last medical history
A) Dried at the lab and packaged in paper B) Dried at the lab and packaged in plastic C) Dried at the scene and packaged in plastic D) Dried at the scene and packaged in paper
A) Rule of Court B) Real C) Evidence D) Autoptic
A) Fetishism B) Oralism C) Sadism D) Masochism
A) Mannikinism B) Vampirism C) Pygmalionism D) Narcissism
A) Autosexual B) Gerontophilia C) Necrophilia D) Bestosexual
A) 4 to 5 hours B) 2 to 3 hours C) 3 to 4 hours D) 5 to 6 hours
A) All of the above B) Medical officers of law enforcement agencies C) Health officers D) Members of the medical staff of accredited hospitals
A) Post-mortem investigation B) Crime scene investigation C) Autopsy D) Exhumation
A) Charring B) Exhumation C) Pounding D) Cremation
A) Red B) Black C) Reddish-brown D) Clay
A) Phenolphthalein Test B) Barberio Test C) Takayama Test D) Florence Test
A) Deoxyribonucleic acid B) Deoxy nucleic acid C) Dematuralized acid D) Deonatural acid
A) False Physical Virginity B) Physical Virginity C) Demi-Virginity D) True Physical Virginity
A) To formally release the scene to the evidence custodian. B) To immediately begin the evidence collection process. C) To allow the media and VIPs to observe from a safe distance. D) To establish the boundaries of the crime scene to effectively preserve it.
A) The discoverer's initials are placed on the knife, and it is then turned over to the evidence custodian. B) The knife is immediately collected, then photographed and measured at the evidence station. C) The knife is photographed, measured, and its location sketched before it is touched or moved. D) A chain of custody form is prepared first, followed by photography of the knife.
A) Mutt and Jeff B) Extenuation C) Shifting the Blame D) Pretense of Physical Evidence
A) Tracing Evidence B) Corpus Delicti C) Associative Evidence D) Circumstantial Evidence
A) Yes, because the confession was made spontaneously and voluntarily to a private person, not during a questioning by law enforcement. B) No, because any confession made during custodial investigation requires the presence of competent and independent counsel to be admissible. C) No, because a priest, like a law enforcement officer, is required to give the Miranda warnings. D) Yes, because the suspect's moral obligation to tell the truth to a priest outweighs the constitutional requirement for counsel.
A) That it has been properly identified, and the chain of custody has been proved. B) That it is material and relevant to the case. C) That it was collected by the team leader of the SOCO. D) That it was the only evidence recovered from the scene.
A) How to conduct surveillance of a place. B) Qualities of a good surveillant. C) How to detect foot surveillance D) Methods of shadowing.
A) Mercenary Informant B) Double-Crosser Informant C) Legitimate Informant D) Anonymous Informant
A) Associative Evidence B) Corpus Delicti C) Modus Operandi (MO) D) Tracing Evidence
A) Release the crime scene to the property owner. B) Take the sworn statements of all witnesses on the scene. C) Make a general assessment and develop a theory of the crime. D) Immediately begin the collection of all visible evidence.
A) Rectangular Coordinates Method B) Triangulation Method C) Compass Point Method D) Baseline Method
A) Corroborative Evidence B) Direct Evidence C) Circumstantial Evidence D) Positive Evidence
A) Admission B) Dying Declaration C) Excited Utterance D) Confession
A) Create an accurate, objective visual record before any item is moved. B) Identify the suspect through artistic composition. C) Serve as a substitute for a detailed crime scene sketch. D) Create a sensational visual record for media release.
A) Make an Opening Statement on the purpose of the interview. B) Identify himself by name, rank, and agency. C) Allow the witness to Narrate their story without interruption. D) Establish Rapport with the witness.
A) Comply with local traffic regulations. B) Ensure they reach their destination on time. C) Assist the surveillants in maintaining cover. D) Detect if they are under surveillance.
A) The declarant's death is the subject of the inquiry. B) The declaration concerns the cause and surrounding circumstances of the declarant's death. C) The declaration must be corroborated by at least two other witnesses. D) The declarant is conscious of his impending death and has no hope of recovery.
A) The suspect is isolated and falsely informed that their accomplice has confessed. B) Two agents play the roles of a relentless investigator and a kind-hearted one. C) The investigator pretends to have conclusive physical evidence. D) The investigator shifts the blame away from the suspect's character.
A) Modus Operandi B) Corpus Delicti C) Miranda Doctrine D) Locard's Exchange Principle
A) Corroborated by at least one piece of physical evidence. B) Made in the presence of the victim's family. C) Corroborated by at least one piece of physical evidence. D) Made with the assistance of competent and independent counsel.
A) It replaces the need for a full crime scene investigation. B) It is the only statement that does not require corroboration. C) It is an opportunity to obtain a statement that may become admissible evidence if the victim dies. D) It allows the investigator to shift from interview to interrogation immediately.
A) Title B) Compass Direction (North) C) Legend D) Scale
A) The vigorous questioning of a reluctant suspect. B) A search method for large, open areas. C) A method where the investigator's official identity is concealed. D) The secret observation of persons and places from a fixed point.
A) The hierarchy of witnesses presented in court. B) The sequence of commands from the team leader to the evidence collector. C) The legal chain required to secure an arrest warrant. D) The number of persons who handled the evidence from collection to final disposition.
A) Comply with the mandatory pre-trial publicity rule. B) Intimidate the suspect into confessing. C) Eliminate the power of suggestion on the witness. D) Allow the media to photograph the suspect.
A) Who, What, Where, When, Why, and How. B) What, Why, Where, How, If, and Then. C) Who, What, When, How, Which, and Whom. D) When, Where, Why, How, Whether, and Whom.
A) Database of modus operandi. B) Library of ballistic fingerprints. C) File of photographic images of known criminals. D) Collection of artist sketches.
A) There is more than one suspect. B) There is only one suspect. C) The suspect is a hardened criminal. D) The suspect has already requested a lawyer.
A) Draft the final report for the prosecutor. B) Brief the media on the investigation's progress. C) Make a final review to determine if processing is complete. D) Interrogate the primary suspect in situ.
A) Official police databases. B) Government records and news items. C) Information gathered upon the investigator's own initiative from informants and vendors. D) Information from prisoners and ex-convicts.
A) Mark a location for a future meeting. B) Communicate with an accomplice. C) Detect if they are under surveillance. D) Dispose of incriminating evidence.
A) Revised Penal Code. B) Code of Conduct for Law Enforcement Officials. C) Anti-Wiretapping Law. D) Rules on Electronic Evidence.
A) A rectangular-shaped warehouse. B) An approximately circular or oval open field. C) long, narrow road. D) multi-story building divided into zones. |