A) Forensic Medicine B) All of the Above C) Medical Jurisprudence D) Legal Medicine
A) Medical Jurist B) Medical Examiner C) All of the Above D) Medico - legal Expert
A) all of these B) Medical officers of law enforcement agencies C) Health officers D) Member of the medical staff of accredited hospitals
A) Clinical Autopsy B) Medico legal autopsy C) Autopsic D) Autopsy/ Necropsy
A) Medico legal autopsy B) Autopsic C) Clinical Autopsy D) Autopsy/ Necropsy
A) Medico-legal autopsy B) Autoptic C) Autopsy/Necropsy D) Clinical Autopsy
A) Special law B) Civil Law C) Criminal law D) Remedial law
A) Circumstances affecting criminal liability B) Crimes against property C) Crimes against person D) Crimes against chastity
A) Livor Mortis B) Rigor Mortis C) Flaccidity D) Algor Mortis
A) Rigor Mortis B) Flaccidity C) Algor Mortis D) Livor Mortis
A) Rigor Mortis B) Algor Mortis C) Livor Mortis D) Flaccidity
A) Proma Facie Evidence B) Material Evidence C) Corpus Delicti D) Corroborative Evidence
A) Acid hematin B) Precipitin test C) Alkaline test D) Albumin test
A) Memories B) Written interrogatories C) Tape recording them D) Photographing it
A) Identity of the suspect B) Cordon the area C) Corpus delicti or facts that crime was committed D) Method of operation's of the suspect
A) Contusion B) Punchured C) Hematoma D) Abrasion
A) Abrasion B) Punchured wound C) Contusion D) Hematoma
A) Punctured wound B) Hematoma C) Contusion D) Abrasion
A) Hematoma B) Contusion C) Abrasion D) Punctured wound
A) Homicide B) Arrest C) Robbery D) Armed Robbery
A) Skin wrinkled, scrotum, and penis distended with gas, nails and hair still intact B) The face appears softened C) Abdomen distended, skin of hands and feet come off with the nails like a glove D) Skin on the hands and feet become swollen and bleached
A) Justifying circumstances B) Defense wound C) Incised wound D) Lacerated wound
A) Serious physical injury B) Mutilation C) Less serious physical injury D) Slight physical injury
A) Diffusion Livility B) Hypostatics Livility C) Hyper Livility D) Rigor mortis
A) Moral virginity B) Physical virginity C) Virgo-intacta D) Demi-virginity
A) Primary flaccidity B) 24 hour after death, unless the health officer allows extension C) 48 hours death D) Livor mortis
A) 15-30 minutes B) 45-60 minutes C) 10-15 minutes D) 30-45 minutes
A) Carbolization B) Saponification C) Livor mortis D) Putrefaction
A) 36 hours B) 48 hours C) 24 hours D) 12 hours
A) Physical injuries and death B) Death, property damage C) Fatal, non fatal, property damage D) Slight, less serious, serious physical injuries
A) Violet B) yellow C) Bright red D) Pink
A) Electrical burn B) Friction burn C) Thermal burn D) Radiation burn
A) 15 years old B) 12 years old C) 14 years old D) 13 years old
A) All of these B) A non-resisting victim C) A non- aggressive assailant D) Limitations of the forensic examination
A) Rubor B) Tenor C) Dolor D) Calor
A) Vital Infliction B) Vital Deactivation C) Vital Reaction D) Vital Infection
A) Non-Mortal Wounds B) Mortal Wounds C) Open Wounds D) Closed Wounds
A) Punctured Wound B) Lacerated Wound C) Stab Wound D) Inscised Wound
A) 1-2 hours B) 6-8 hours C) 5-7 hours D) 3-4 hours
A) Saponification B) Mummification C) Maceration D) Purge
A) Fornication B) Sadism C) Sado-masochism D) Masochism
A) Coup Injury B) Contre-Coup Injury C) Locus Minoris Resistancia D) Coup Contre-Coup Injur
A) Parricide B) Homicide C) Infanticide D) Murder
A) Homicide B) Parricide C) Infanticide D) Murder
A) Parricide B) Infanticide C) Murder D) Homicide
A) Must be buried or cremated with body B) All of the above C) Must be described and inventoried D) Must be turned over to the police as evidence
A) Mercy Killing B) Active Euthanasia C) Passive Euthanasia D) Euthanasia
A) 6 hours B) 8 hours C) 12 hours D) 3 hours
A) Hanging B) Asphyxia C) Suffocation D) Strangulation
A) Abrasion B) Hematoma C) Incised Wound D) Contusion
A) Carnal Knowledge B) Defloration C) Moral Virginity D) Virginity
A) Contusion B) Petechiae C) Close Wound D) Hematoma
A) More than 25 inches B) 12 inches C) Near contact to 6 inches D) More than 6 inches up to 24 inches
A) Last medical history B) Circumstances of the death C) Witness accounts D) All of the above
A) Dried at the lab and packaged in plastic B) Dried at the lab and packaged in paper C) Dried at the scene and packaged in paper D) Dried at the scene and packaged in plastic
A) Autoptic B) Evidence C) Real D) Rule of Court
A) Masochism B) Sadism C) Fetishism D) Oralism
A) Vampirism B) Mannikinism C) Pygmalionism D) Narcissism
A) Gerontophilia B) Necrophilia C) Autosexual D) Bestosexual
A) 4 to 5 hours B) 2 to 3 hours C) 3 to 4 hours D) 5 to 6 hours
A) Health officers B) All of the above C) Medical officers of law enforcement agencies D) Members of the medical staff of accredited hospitals
A) Crime scene investigation B) Exhumation C) Post-mortem investigation D) Autopsy
A) Cremation B) Exhumation C) Pounding D) Charring
A) Reddish-brown B) Clay C) Red D) Black
A) Florence Test B) Phenolphthalein Test C) Barberio Test D) Takayama Test
A) Deonatural acid B) Deoxy nucleic acid C) Deoxyribonucleic acid D) Dematuralized acid
A) Demi-Virginity B) False Physical Virginity C) Physical Virginity D) True Physical Virginity
A) To formally release the scene to the evidence custodian. B) To establish the boundaries of the crime scene to effectively preserve it. C) To allow the media and VIPs to observe from a safe distance. D) To immediately begin the evidence collection process.
A) A chain of custody form is prepared first, followed by photography of the knife. B) The knife is immediately collected, then photographed and measured at the evidence station. C) The knife is photographed, measured, and its location sketched before it is touched or moved. D) The discoverer's initials are placed on the knife, and it is then turned over to the evidence custodian.
A) Extenuation B) Mutt and Jeff C) Shifting the Blame D) Pretense of Physical Evidence
A) Tracing Evidence B) Circumstantial Evidence C) Associative Evidence D) Corpus Delicti
A) No, because any confession made during custodial investigation requires the presence of competent and independent counsel to be admissible. B) No, because a priest, like a law enforcement officer, is required to give the Miranda warnings. C) Yes, because the confession was made spontaneously and voluntarily to a private person, not during a questioning by law enforcement. D) Yes, because the suspect's moral obligation to tell the truth to a priest outweighs the constitutional requirement for counsel.
A) That it was the only evidence recovered from the scene. B) That it is material and relevant to the case. C) That it was collected by the team leader of the SOCO. D) That it has been properly identified, and the chain of custody has been proved.
A) How to detect foot surveillance B) How to conduct surveillance of a place. C) Qualities of a good surveillant. D) Methods of shadowing.
A) Double-Crosser Informant B) Legitimate Informant C) Mercenary Informant D) Anonymous Informant
A) Modus Operandi (MO) B) Tracing Evidence C) Associative Evidence D) Corpus Delicti
A) Take the sworn statements of all witnesses on the scene. B) Make a general assessment and develop a theory of the crime. C) Immediately begin the collection of all visible evidence. D) Release the crime scene to the property owner.
A) Baseline Method B) Rectangular Coordinates Method C) Compass Point Method D) Triangulation Method
A) Corroborative Evidence B) Circumstantial Evidence C) Positive Evidence D) Direct Evidence
A) Excited Utterance B) Admission C) Confession D) Dying Declaration
A) Serve as a substitute for a detailed crime scene sketch. B) Create a sensational visual record for media release. C) Create an accurate, objective visual record before any item is moved. D) Identify the suspect through artistic composition.
A) Allow the witness to Narrate their story without interruption. B) Establish Rapport with the witness. C) Identify himself by name, rank, and agency. D) Make an Opening Statement on the purpose of the interview.
A) Assist the surveillants in maintaining cover. B) Ensure they reach their destination on time. C) Comply with local traffic regulations. D) Detect if they are under surveillance.
A) The declaration must be corroborated by at least two other witnesses. B) The declaration concerns the cause and surrounding circumstances of the declarant's death. C) The declarant is conscious of his impending death and has no hope of recovery. D) The declarant's death is the subject of the inquiry.
A) The investigator shifts the blame away from the suspect's character. B) The suspect is isolated and falsely informed that their accomplice has confessed. C) Two agents play the roles of a relentless investigator and a kind-hearted one. D) The investigator pretends to have conclusive physical evidence.
A) Corpus Delicti B) Miranda Doctrine C) Locard's Exchange Principle D) Modus Operandi
A) Made in the presence of the victim's family. B) Made with the assistance of competent and independent counsel. C) Corroborated by at least one piece of physical evidence. D) Corroborated by at least one piece of physical evidence.
A) It allows the investigator to shift from interview to interrogation immediately. B) It is an opportunity to obtain a statement that may become admissible evidence if the victim dies. C) It replaces the need for a full crime scene investigation. D) It is the only statement that does not require corroboration.
A) Compass Direction (North) B) Scale C) Title D) Legend
A) A search method for large, open areas. B) The vigorous questioning of a reluctant suspect. C) A method where the investigator's official identity is concealed. D) The secret observation of persons and places from a fixed point.
A) The sequence of commands from the team leader to the evidence collector. B) The legal chain required to secure an arrest warrant. C) The hierarchy of witnesses presented in court. D) The number of persons who handled the evidence from collection to final disposition.
A) Comply with the mandatory pre-trial publicity rule. B) Allow the media to photograph the suspect. C) Eliminate the power of suggestion on the witness. D) Intimidate the suspect into confessing.
A) Who, What, Where, When, Why, and How. B) What, Why, Where, How, If, and Then. C) When, Where, Why, How, Whether, and Whom. D) Who, What, When, How, Which, and Whom.
A) Database of modus operandi. B) File of photographic images of known criminals. C) Library of ballistic fingerprints. D) Collection of artist sketches.
A) There is more than one suspect. B) The suspect is a hardened criminal. C) There is only one suspect. D) The suspect has already requested a lawyer.
A) Brief the media on the investigation's progress. B) Draft the final report for the prosecutor. C) Make a final review to determine if processing is complete. D) Interrogate the primary suspect in situ.
A) Information gathered upon the investigator's own initiative from informants and vendors. B) Official police databases. C) Government records and news items. D) Information from prisoners and ex-convicts.
A) Communicate with an accomplice. B) Dispose of incriminating evidence. C) Mark a location for a future meeting. D) Detect if they are under surveillance.
A) Revised Penal Code. B) Code of Conduct for Law Enforcement Officials. C) Rules on Electronic Evidence. D) Anti-Wiretapping Law.
A) long, narrow road. B) multi-story building divided into zones. C) An approximately circular or oval open field. D) A rectangular-shaped warehouse. |