A) Medical Jurisprudence B) Forensic Medicine C) All of the Above D) Legal Medicine
A) Medical Examiner B) Medical Jurist C) All of the Above D) Medico - legal Expert
A) all of these B) Medical officers of law enforcement agencies C) Member of the medical staff of accredited hospitals D) Health officers
A) Clinical Autopsy B) Autopsy/ Necropsy C) Medico legal autopsy D) Autopsic
A) Autopsy/ Necropsy B) Autopsic C) Clinical Autopsy D) Medico legal autopsy
A) Clinical Autopsy B) Autopsy/Necropsy C) Medico-legal autopsy D) Autoptic
A) Remedial law B) Special law C) Criminal law D) Civil Law
A) Crimes against property B) Crimes against chastity C) Circumstances affecting criminal liability D) Crimes against person
A) Flaccidity B) Livor Mortis C) Algor Mortis D) Rigor Mortis
A) Algor Mortis B) Rigor Mortis C) Flaccidity D) Livor Mortis
A) Algor Mortis B) Livor Mortis C) Flaccidity D) Rigor Mortis
A) Corroborative Evidence B) Proma Facie Evidence C) Corpus Delicti D) Material Evidence
A) Albumin test B) Alkaline test C) Acid hematin D) Precipitin test
A) Memories B) Written interrogatories C) Tape recording them D) Photographing it
A) Identity of the suspect B) Method of operation's of the suspect C) Cordon the area D) Corpus delicti or facts that crime was committed
A) Abrasion B) Punchured C) Contusion D) Hematoma
A) Hematoma B) Contusion C) Abrasion D) Punchured wound
A) Punctured wound B) Abrasion C) Contusion D) Hematoma
A) Punctured wound B) Hematoma C) Contusion D) Abrasion
A) Arrest B) Homicide C) Armed Robbery D) Robbery
A) Skin on the hands and feet become swollen and bleached B) The face appears softened C) Skin wrinkled, scrotum, and penis distended with gas, nails and hair still intact D) Abdomen distended, skin of hands and feet come off with the nails like a glove
A) Justifying circumstances B) Lacerated wound C) Incised wound D) Defense wound
A) Mutilation B) Less serious physical injury C) Serious physical injury D) Slight physical injury
A) Hyper Livility B) Diffusion Livility C) Hypostatics Livility D) Rigor mortis
A) Moral virginity B) Virgo-intacta C) Demi-virginity D) Physical virginity
A) 24 hour after death, unless the health officer allows extension B) Primary flaccidity C) Livor mortis D) 48 hours death
A) 15-30 minutes B) 30-45 minutes C) 45-60 minutes D) 10-15 minutes
A) Carbolization B) Putrefaction C) Livor mortis D) Saponification
A) 12 hours B) 36 hours C) 24 hours D) 48 hours
A) Fatal, non fatal, property damage B) Physical injuries and death C) Death, property damage D) Slight, less serious, serious physical injuries
A) Bright red B) yellow C) Violet D) Pink
A) Friction burn B) Radiation burn C) Thermal burn D) Electrical burn
A) 14 years old B) 12 years old C) 15 years old D) 13 years old
A) A non-resisting victim B) Limitations of the forensic examination C) All of these D) A non- aggressive assailant
A) Calor B) Tenor C) Dolor D) Rubor
A) Vital Reaction B) Vital Deactivation C) Vital Infliction D) Vital Infection
A) Closed Wounds B) Open Wounds C) Non-Mortal Wounds D) Mortal Wounds
A) Stab Wound B) Inscised Wound C) Lacerated Wound D) Punctured Wound
A) 5-7 hours B) 1-2 hours C) 3-4 hours D) 6-8 hours
A) Maceration B) Purge C) Saponification D) Mummification
A) Fornication B) Sado-masochism C) Sadism D) Masochism
A) Locus Minoris Resistancia B) Coup Contre-Coup Injur C) Coup Injury D) Contre-Coup Injury
A) Infanticide B) Parricide C) Homicide D) Murder
A) Infanticide B) Parricide C) Murder D) Homicide
A) Parricide B) Homicide C) Infanticide D) Murder
A) All of the above B) Must be buried or cremated with body C) Must be described and inventoried D) Must be turned over to the police as evidence
A) Active Euthanasia B) Mercy Killing C) Euthanasia D) Passive Euthanasia
A) 12 hours B) 6 hours C) 8 hours D) 3 hours
A) Strangulation B) Asphyxia C) Suffocation D) Hanging
A) Abrasion B) Contusion C) Hematoma D) Incised Wound
A) Moral Virginity B) Carnal Knowledge C) Defloration D) Virginity
A) Close Wound B) Hematoma C) Contusion D) Petechiae
A) 12 inches B) More than 6 inches up to 24 inches C) More than 25 inches D) Near contact to 6 inches
A) All of the above B) Last medical history C) Witness accounts D) Circumstances of the death
A) Dried at the scene and packaged in paper B) Dried at the scene and packaged in plastic C) Dried at the lab and packaged in paper D) Dried at the lab and packaged in plastic
A) Real B) Rule of Court C) Autoptic D) Evidence
A) Oralism B) Masochism C) Sadism D) Fetishism
A) Mannikinism B) Pygmalionism C) Vampirism D) Narcissism
A) Gerontophilia B) Autosexual C) Necrophilia D) Bestosexual
A) 4 to 5 hours B) 5 to 6 hours C) 3 to 4 hours D) 2 to 3 hours
A) Health officers B) Members of the medical staff of accredited hospitals C) All of the above D) Medical officers of law enforcement agencies
A) Exhumation B) Post-mortem investigation C) Autopsy D) Crime scene investigation
A) Cremation B) Pounding C) Exhumation D) Charring
A) Red B) Clay C) Black D) Reddish-brown
A) Barberio Test B) Phenolphthalein Test C) Florence Test D) Takayama Test
A) Deoxy nucleic acid B) Deonatural acid C) Deoxyribonucleic acid D) Dematuralized acid
A) False Physical Virginity B) True Physical Virginity C) Demi-Virginity D) Physical Virginity
A) To establish the boundaries of the crime scene to effectively preserve it. B) To formally release the scene to the evidence custodian. C) To allow the media and VIPs to observe from a safe distance. D) To immediately begin the evidence collection process.
A) The discoverer's initials are placed on the knife, and it is then turned over to the evidence custodian. B) The knife is photographed, measured, and its location sketched before it is touched or moved. C) A chain of custody form is prepared first, followed by photography of the knife. D) The knife is immediately collected, then photographed and measured at the evidence station.
A) Shifting the Blame B) Extenuation C) Mutt and Jeff D) Pretense of Physical Evidence
A) Tracing Evidence B) Corpus Delicti C) Circumstantial Evidence D) Associative Evidence
A) Yes, because the confession was made spontaneously and voluntarily to a private person, not during a questioning by law enforcement. B) No, because any confession made during custodial investigation requires the presence of competent and independent counsel to be admissible. C) Yes, because the suspect's moral obligation to tell the truth to a priest outweighs the constitutional requirement for counsel. D) No, because a priest, like a law enforcement officer, is required to give the Miranda warnings.
A) That it was collected by the team leader of the SOCO. B) That it is material and relevant to the case. C) That it was the only evidence recovered from the scene. D) That it has been properly identified, and the chain of custody has been proved.
A) Methods of shadowing. B) Qualities of a good surveillant. C) How to conduct surveillance of a place. D) How to detect foot surveillance
A) Anonymous Informant B) Legitimate Informant C) Mercenary Informant D) Double-Crosser Informant
A) Tracing Evidence B) Modus Operandi (MO) C) Associative Evidence D) Corpus Delicti
A) Make a general assessment and develop a theory of the crime. B) Immediately begin the collection of all visible evidence. C) Take the sworn statements of all witnesses on the scene. D) Release the crime scene to the property owner.
A) Compass Point Method B) Baseline Method C) Rectangular Coordinates Method D) Triangulation Method
A) Corroborative Evidence B) Positive Evidence C) Circumstantial Evidence D) Direct Evidence
A) Admission B) Excited Utterance C) Dying Declaration D) Confession
A) Create a sensational visual record for media release. B) Identify the suspect through artistic composition. C) Serve as a substitute for a detailed crime scene sketch. D) Create an accurate, objective visual record before any item is moved.
A) Allow the witness to Narrate their story without interruption. B) Establish Rapport with the witness. C) Make an Opening Statement on the purpose of the interview. D) Identify himself by name, rank, and agency.
A) Ensure they reach their destination on time. B) Assist the surveillants in maintaining cover. C) Detect if they are under surveillance. D) Comply with local traffic regulations.
A) The declarant is conscious of his impending death and has no hope of recovery. B) The declaration must be corroborated by at least two other witnesses. C) The declaration concerns the cause and surrounding circumstances of the declarant's death. D) The declarant's death is the subject of the inquiry.
A) The investigator shifts the blame away from the suspect's character. B) Two agents play the roles of a relentless investigator and a kind-hearted one. C) The suspect is isolated and falsely informed that their accomplice has confessed. D) The investigator pretends to have conclusive physical evidence.
A) Modus Operandi B) Locard's Exchange Principle C) Corpus Delicti D) Miranda Doctrine
A) Corroborated by at least one piece of physical evidence. B) Corroborated by at least one piece of physical evidence. C) Made in the presence of the victim's family. D) Made with the assistance of competent and independent counsel.
A) It replaces the need for a full crime scene investigation. B) It allows the investigator to shift from interview to interrogation immediately. C) It is the only statement that does not require corroboration. D) It is an opportunity to obtain a statement that may become admissible evidence if the victim dies.
A) Title B) Legend C) Scale D) Compass Direction (North)
A) The secret observation of persons and places from a fixed point. B) The vigorous questioning of a reluctant suspect. C) A search method for large, open areas. D) A method where the investigator's official identity is concealed.
A) The legal chain required to secure an arrest warrant. B) The number of persons who handled the evidence from collection to final disposition. C) The sequence of commands from the team leader to the evidence collector. D) The hierarchy of witnesses presented in court.
A) Eliminate the power of suggestion on the witness. B) Intimidate the suspect into confessing. C) Comply with the mandatory pre-trial publicity rule. D) Allow the media to photograph the suspect.
A) Who, What, Where, When, Why, and How. B) What, Why, Where, How, If, and Then. C) When, Where, Why, How, Whether, and Whom. D) Who, What, When, How, Which, and Whom.
A) Collection of artist sketches. B) Database of modus operandi. C) File of photographic images of known criminals. D) Library of ballistic fingerprints.
A) The suspect is a hardened criminal. B) There is more than one suspect. C) There is only one suspect. D) The suspect has already requested a lawyer.
A) Draft the final report for the prosecutor. B) Brief the media on the investigation's progress. C) Interrogate the primary suspect in situ. D) Make a final review to determine if processing is complete.
A) Government records and news items. B) Information from prisoners and ex-convicts. C) Information gathered upon the investigator's own initiative from informants and vendors. D) Official police databases.
A) Dispose of incriminating evidence. B) Mark a location for a future meeting. C) Detect if they are under surveillance. D) Communicate with an accomplice.
A) Rules on Electronic Evidence. B) Code of Conduct for Law Enforcement Officials. C) Anti-Wiretapping Law. D) Revised Penal Code.
A) An approximately circular or oval open field. B) A rectangular-shaped warehouse. C) multi-story building divided into zones. D) long, narrow road. |