A) Forensic Medicine B) All of the Above C) Medical Jurisprudence D) Legal Medicine
A) All of the Above B) Medico - legal Expert C) Medical Jurist D) Medical Examiner
A) Health officers B) Medical officers of law enforcement agencies C) Member of the medical staff of accredited hospitals D) all of these
A) Medico legal autopsy B) Autopsy/ Necropsy C) Clinical Autopsy D) Autopsic
A) Autopsy/ Necropsy B) Medico legal autopsy C) Clinical Autopsy D) Autopsic
A) Clinical Autopsy B) Autoptic C) Medico-legal autopsy D) Autopsy/Necropsy
A) Remedial law B) Criminal law C) Civil Law D) Special law
A) Crimes against property B) Crimes against person C) Crimes against chastity D) Circumstances affecting criminal liability
A) Flaccidity B) Algor Mortis C) Rigor Mortis D) Livor Mortis
A) Livor Mortis B) Algor Mortis C) Flaccidity D) Rigor Mortis
A) Livor Mortis B) Algor Mortis C) Rigor Mortis D) Flaccidity
A) Material Evidence B) Proma Facie Evidence C) Corroborative Evidence D) Corpus Delicti
A) Alkaline test B) Albumin test C) Precipitin test D) Acid hematin
A) Photographing it B) Tape recording them C) Memories D) Written interrogatories
A) Corpus delicti or facts that crime was committed B) Cordon the area C) Method of operation's of the suspect D) Identity of the suspect
A) Contusion B) Punchured C) Hematoma D) Abrasion
A) Abrasion B) Punchured wound C) Contusion D) Hematoma
A) Punctured wound B) Contusion C) Hematoma D) Abrasion
A) Punctured wound B) Abrasion C) Contusion D) Hematoma
A) Robbery B) Armed Robbery C) Homicide D) Arrest
A) Skin wrinkled, scrotum, and penis distended with gas, nails and hair still intact B) Skin on the hands and feet become swollen and bleached C) Abdomen distended, skin of hands and feet come off with the nails like a glove D) The face appears softened
A) Defense wound B) Justifying circumstances C) Incised wound D) Lacerated wound
A) Less serious physical injury B) Mutilation C) Serious physical injury D) Slight physical injury
A) Rigor mortis B) Hyper Livility C) Hypostatics Livility D) Diffusion Livility
A) Virgo-intacta B) Physical virginity C) Moral virginity D) Demi-virginity
A) Livor mortis B) 48 hours death C) Primary flaccidity D) 24 hour after death, unless the health officer allows extension
A) 15-30 minutes B) 45-60 minutes C) 10-15 minutes D) 30-45 minutes
A) Livor mortis B) Putrefaction C) Carbolization D) Saponification
A) 12 hours B) 24 hours C) 48 hours D) 36 hours
A) Death, property damage B) Slight, less serious, serious physical injuries C) Fatal, non fatal, property damage D) Physical injuries and death
A) Bright red B) yellow C) Violet D) Pink
A) Radiation burn B) Thermal burn C) Friction burn D) Electrical burn
A) 15 years old B) 13 years old C) 12 years old D) 14 years old
A) A non-resisting victim B) A non- aggressive assailant C) Limitations of the forensic examination D) All of these
A) Tenor B) Rubor C) Dolor D) Calor
A) Vital Deactivation B) Vital Infection C) Vital Infliction D) Vital Reaction
A) Closed Wounds B) Open Wounds C) Non-Mortal Wounds D) Mortal Wounds
A) Punctured Wound B) Inscised Wound C) Stab Wound D) Lacerated Wound
A) 3-4 hours B) 6-8 hours C) 5-7 hours D) 1-2 hours
A) Purge B) Mummification C) Saponification D) Maceration
A) Sadism B) Masochism C) Fornication D) Sado-masochism
A) Coup Injury B) Locus Minoris Resistancia C) Coup Contre-Coup Injur D) Contre-Coup Injury
A) Homicide B) Murder C) Parricide D) Infanticide
A) Parricide B) Murder C) Homicide D) Infanticide
A) Infanticide B) Homicide C) Murder D) Parricide
A) Must be described and inventoried B) Must be turned over to the police as evidence C) All of the above D) Must be buried or cremated with body
A) Passive Euthanasia B) Euthanasia C) Active Euthanasia D) Mercy Killing
A) 6 hours B) 8 hours C) 3 hours D) 12 hours
A) Hanging B) Suffocation C) Asphyxia D) Strangulation
A) Hematoma B) Abrasion C) Incised Wound D) Contusion
A) Virginity B) Carnal Knowledge C) Moral Virginity D) Defloration
A) Close Wound B) Hematoma C) Petechiae D) Contusion
A) More than 25 inches B) 12 inches C) More than 6 inches up to 24 inches D) Near contact to 6 inches
A) Last medical history B) Circumstances of the death C) All of the above D) Witness accounts
A) Dried at the scene and packaged in plastic B) Dried at the lab and packaged in paper C) Dried at the scene and packaged in paper D) Dried at the lab and packaged in plastic
A) Rule of Court B) Real C) Autoptic D) Evidence
A) Masochism B) Sadism C) Oralism D) Fetishism
A) Narcissism B) Mannikinism C) Pygmalionism D) Vampirism
A) Necrophilia B) Gerontophilia C) Autosexual D) Bestosexual
A) 3 to 4 hours B) 4 to 5 hours C) 2 to 3 hours D) 5 to 6 hours
A) Members of the medical staff of accredited hospitals B) All of the above C) Medical officers of law enforcement agencies D) Health officers
A) Exhumation B) Post-mortem investigation C) Autopsy D) Crime scene investigation
A) Pounding B) Exhumation C) Charring D) Cremation
A) Reddish-brown B) Black C) Red D) Clay
A) Phenolphthalein Test B) Takayama Test C) Florence Test D) Barberio Test
A) Deoxyribonucleic acid B) Dematuralized acid C) Deoxy nucleic acid D) Deonatural acid
A) Physical Virginity B) True Physical Virginity C) Demi-Virginity D) False Physical Virginity
A) To formally release the scene to the evidence custodian. B) To establish the boundaries of the crime scene to effectively preserve it. C) To allow the media and VIPs to observe from a safe distance. D) To immediately begin the evidence collection process.
A) The knife is immediately collected, then photographed and measured at the evidence station. B) The discoverer's initials are placed on the knife, and it is then turned over to the evidence custodian. C) The knife is photographed, measured, and its location sketched before it is touched or moved. D) A chain of custody form is prepared first, followed by photography of the knife.
A) Mutt and Jeff B) Shifting the Blame C) Extenuation D) Pretense of Physical Evidence
A) Circumstantial Evidence B) Associative Evidence C) Corpus Delicti D) Tracing Evidence
A) Yes, because the suspect's moral obligation to tell the truth to a priest outweighs the constitutional requirement for counsel. B) Yes, because the confession was made spontaneously and voluntarily to a private person, not during a questioning by law enforcement. C) No, because a priest, like a law enforcement officer, is required to give the Miranda warnings. D) No, because any confession made during custodial investigation requires the presence of competent and independent counsel to be admissible.
A) That it was collected by the team leader of the SOCO. B) That it has been properly identified, and the chain of custody has been proved. C) That it is material and relevant to the case. D) That it was the only evidence recovered from the scene.
A) How to detect foot surveillance B) Methods of shadowing. C) Qualities of a good surveillant. D) How to conduct surveillance of a place.
A) Double-Crosser Informant B) Mercenary Informant C) Legitimate Informant D) Anonymous Informant
A) Tracing Evidence B) Associative Evidence C) Corpus Delicti D) Modus Operandi (MO)
A) Take the sworn statements of all witnesses on the scene. B) Make a general assessment and develop a theory of the crime. C) Release the crime scene to the property owner. D) Immediately begin the collection of all visible evidence.
A) Baseline Method B) Compass Point Method C) Triangulation Method D) Rectangular Coordinates Method
A) Corroborative Evidence B) Positive Evidence C) Direct Evidence D) Circumstantial Evidence
A) Admission B) Confession C) Excited Utterance D) Dying Declaration
A) Serve as a substitute for a detailed crime scene sketch. B) Create a sensational visual record for media release. C) Create an accurate, objective visual record before any item is moved. D) Identify the suspect through artistic composition.
A) Identify himself by name, rank, and agency. B) Allow the witness to Narrate their story without interruption. C) Make an Opening Statement on the purpose of the interview. D) Establish Rapport with the witness.
A) Assist the surveillants in maintaining cover. B) Ensure they reach their destination on time. C) Comply with local traffic regulations. D) Detect if they are under surveillance.
A) The declaration must be corroborated by at least two other witnesses. B) The declarant's death is the subject of the inquiry. C) The declarant is conscious of his impending death and has no hope of recovery. D) The declaration concerns the cause and surrounding circumstances of the declarant's death.
A) The investigator shifts the blame away from the suspect's character. B) The investigator pretends to have conclusive physical evidence. C) The suspect is isolated and falsely informed that their accomplice has confessed. D) Two agents play the roles of a relentless investigator and a kind-hearted one.
A) Modus Operandi B) Corpus Delicti C) Locard's Exchange Principle D) Miranda Doctrine
A) Made in the presence of the victim's family. B) Made with the assistance of competent and independent counsel. C) Corroborated by at least one piece of physical evidence. D) Corroborated by at least one piece of physical evidence.
A) It replaces the need for a full crime scene investigation. B) It allows the investigator to shift from interview to interrogation immediately. C) It is an opportunity to obtain a statement that may become admissible evidence if the victim dies. D) It is the only statement that does not require corroboration.
A) Legend B) Scale C) Title D) Compass Direction (North)
A) A search method for large, open areas. B) The vigorous questioning of a reluctant suspect. C) The secret observation of persons and places from a fixed point. D) A method where the investigator's official identity is concealed.
A) The number of persons who handled the evidence from collection to final disposition. B) The sequence of commands from the team leader to the evidence collector. C) The legal chain required to secure an arrest warrant. D) The hierarchy of witnesses presented in court.
A) Comply with the mandatory pre-trial publicity rule. B) Eliminate the power of suggestion on the witness. C) Intimidate the suspect into confessing. D) Allow the media to photograph the suspect.
A) Who, What, Where, When, Why, and How. B) When, Where, Why, How, Whether, and Whom. C) What, Why, Where, How, If, and Then. D) Who, What, When, How, Which, and Whom.
A) Library of ballistic fingerprints. B) Collection of artist sketches. C) Database of modus operandi. D) File of photographic images of known criminals.
A) The suspect is a hardened criminal. B) There is more than one suspect. C) The suspect has already requested a lawyer. D) There is only one suspect.
A) Make a final review to determine if processing is complete. B) Brief the media on the investigation's progress. C) Draft the final report for the prosecutor. D) Interrogate the primary suspect in situ.
A) Government records and news items. B) Information from prisoners and ex-convicts. C) Official police databases. D) Information gathered upon the investigator's own initiative from informants and vendors.
A) Communicate with an accomplice. B) Dispose of incriminating evidence. C) Detect if they are under surveillance. D) Mark a location for a future meeting.
A) Revised Penal Code. B) Anti-Wiretapping Law. C) Rules on Electronic Evidence. D) Code of Conduct for Law Enforcement Officials.
A) A rectangular-shaped warehouse. B) multi-story building divided into zones. C) long, narrow road. D) An approximately circular or oval open field. |