A) Forensic Medicine B) Legal Medicine C) All of the Above D) Medical Jurisprudence
A) Medical Jurist B) Medico - legal Expert C) Medical Examiner D) All of the Above
A) all of these B) Medical officers of law enforcement agencies C) Health officers D) Member of the medical staff of accredited hospitals
A) Autopsy/ Necropsy B) Medico legal autopsy C) Clinical Autopsy D) Autopsic
A) Autopsy/ Necropsy B) Autopsic C) Clinical Autopsy D) Medico legal autopsy
A) Autopsy/Necropsy B) Autoptic C) Medico-legal autopsy D) Clinical Autopsy
A) Special law B) Civil Law C) Criminal law D) Remedial law
A) Circumstances affecting criminal liability B) Crimes against person C) Crimes against property D) Crimes against chastity
A) Livor Mortis B) Rigor Mortis C) Algor Mortis D) Flaccidity
A) Rigor Mortis B) Algor Mortis C) Flaccidity D) Livor Mortis
A) Rigor Mortis B) Flaccidity C) Algor Mortis D) Livor Mortis
A) Corpus Delicti B) Corroborative Evidence C) Material Evidence D) Proma Facie Evidence
A) Precipitin test B) Albumin test C) Acid hematin D) Alkaline test
A) Tape recording them B) Memories C) Photographing it D) Written interrogatories
A) Cordon the area B) Method of operation's of the suspect C) Identity of the suspect D) Corpus delicti or facts that crime was committed
A) Hematoma B) Punchured C) Abrasion D) Contusion
A) Contusion B) Abrasion C) Hematoma D) Punchured wound
A) Abrasion B) Contusion C) Punctured wound D) Hematoma
A) Hematoma B) Contusion C) Punctured wound D) Abrasion
A) Arrest B) Armed Robbery C) Robbery D) Homicide
A) Skin wrinkled, scrotum, and penis distended with gas, nails and hair still intact B) Skin on the hands and feet become swollen and bleached C) Abdomen distended, skin of hands and feet come off with the nails like a glove D) The face appears softened
A) Justifying circumstances B) Defense wound C) Incised wound D) Lacerated wound
A) Mutilation B) Serious physical injury C) Slight physical injury D) Less serious physical injury
A) Diffusion Livility B) Rigor mortis C) Hyper Livility D) Hypostatics Livility
A) Physical virginity B) Moral virginity C) Demi-virginity D) Virgo-intacta
A) 24 hour after death, unless the health officer allows extension B) Livor mortis C) 48 hours death D) Primary flaccidity
A) 45-60 minutes B) 10-15 minutes C) 15-30 minutes D) 30-45 minutes
A) Saponification B) Putrefaction C) Livor mortis D) Carbolization
A) 12 hours B) 48 hours C) 36 hours D) 24 hours
A) Fatal, non fatal, property damage B) Slight, less serious, serious physical injuries C) Death, property damage D) Physical injuries and death
A) Bright red B) yellow C) Violet D) Pink
A) Friction burn B) Radiation burn C) Electrical burn D) Thermal burn
A) 14 years old B) 13 years old C) 15 years old D) 12 years old
A) A non- aggressive assailant B) All of these C) Limitations of the forensic examination D) A non-resisting victim
A) Calor B) Rubor C) Tenor D) Dolor
A) Vital Infection B) Vital Infliction C) Vital Deactivation D) Vital Reaction
A) Open Wounds B) Mortal Wounds C) Non-Mortal Wounds D) Closed Wounds
A) Lacerated Wound B) Punctured Wound C) Stab Wound D) Inscised Wound
A) 3-4 hours B) 6-8 hours C) 5-7 hours D) 1-2 hours
A) Purge B) Mummification C) Saponification D) Maceration
A) Sadism B) Sado-masochism C) Masochism D) Fornication
A) Coup Injury B) Coup Contre-Coup Injur C) Contre-Coup Injury D) Locus Minoris Resistancia
A) Infanticide B) Parricide C) Homicide D) Murder
A) Infanticide B) Homicide C) Murder D) Parricide
A) Homicide B) Murder C) Infanticide D) Parricide
A) Must be turned over to the police as evidence B) All of the above C) Must be described and inventoried D) Must be buried or cremated with body
A) Passive Euthanasia B) Mercy Killing C) Euthanasia D) Active Euthanasia
A) 12 hours B) 3 hours C) 6 hours D) 8 hours
A) Asphyxia B) Hanging C) Strangulation D) Suffocation
A) Contusion B) Hematoma C) Abrasion D) Incised Wound
A) Defloration B) Moral Virginity C) Carnal Knowledge D) Virginity
A) Hematoma B) Contusion C) Petechiae D) Close Wound
A) More than 6 inches up to 24 inches B) 12 inches C) More than 25 inches D) Near contact to 6 inches
A) Witness accounts B) Last medical history C) Circumstances of the death D) All of the above
A) Dried at the lab and packaged in plastic B) Dried at the scene and packaged in paper C) Dried at the lab and packaged in paper D) Dried at the scene and packaged in plastic
A) Evidence B) Autoptic C) Real D) Rule of Court
A) Masochism B) Fetishism C) Oralism D) Sadism
A) Narcissism B) Pygmalionism C) Vampirism D) Mannikinism
A) Gerontophilia B) Autosexual C) Necrophilia D) Bestosexual
A) 2 to 3 hours B) 4 to 5 hours C) 3 to 4 hours D) 5 to 6 hours
A) Medical officers of law enforcement agencies B) Health officers C) All of the above D) Members of the medical staff of accredited hospitals
A) Crime scene investigation B) Autopsy C) Exhumation D) Post-mortem investigation
A) Exhumation B) Charring C) Pounding D) Cremation
A) Clay B) Red C) Reddish-brown D) Black
A) Takayama Test B) Barberio Test C) Florence Test D) Phenolphthalein Test
A) Deonatural acid B) Dematuralized acid C) Deoxy nucleic acid D) Deoxyribonucleic acid
A) False Physical Virginity B) Demi-Virginity C) Physical Virginity D) True Physical Virginity
A) To formally release the scene to the evidence custodian. B) To establish the boundaries of the crime scene to effectively preserve it. C) To immediately begin the evidence collection process. D) To allow the media and VIPs to observe from a safe distance.
A) The discoverer's initials are placed on the knife, and it is then turned over to the evidence custodian. B) The knife is photographed, measured, and its location sketched before it is touched or moved. C) A chain of custody form is prepared first, followed by photography of the knife. D) The knife is immediately collected, then photographed and measured at the evidence station.
A) Mutt and Jeff B) Shifting the Blame C) Pretense of Physical Evidence D) Extenuation
A) Circumstantial Evidence B) Associative Evidence C) Corpus Delicti D) Tracing Evidence
A) Yes, because the suspect's moral obligation to tell the truth to a priest outweighs the constitutional requirement for counsel. B) Yes, because the confession was made spontaneously and voluntarily to a private person, not during a questioning by law enforcement. C) No, because any confession made during custodial investigation requires the presence of competent and independent counsel to be admissible. D) No, because a priest, like a law enforcement officer, is required to give the Miranda warnings.
A) That it was the only evidence recovered from the scene. B) That it has been properly identified, and the chain of custody has been proved. C) That it was collected by the team leader of the SOCO. D) That it is material and relevant to the case.
A) Qualities of a good surveillant. B) How to conduct surveillance of a place. C) How to detect foot surveillance D) Methods of shadowing.
A) Double-Crosser Informant B) Mercenary Informant C) Legitimate Informant D) Anonymous Informant
A) Corpus Delicti B) Modus Operandi (MO) C) Associative Evidence D) Tracing Evidence
A) Release the crime scene to the property owner. B) Immediately begin the collection of all visible evidence. C) Take the sworn statements of all witnesses on the scene. D) Make a general assessment and develop a theory of the crime.
A) Baseline Method B) Triangulation Method C) Rectangular Coordinates Method D) Compass Point Method
A) Direct Evidence B) Positive Evidence C) Corroborative Evidence D) Circumstantial Evidence
A) Admission B) Confession C) Excited Utterance D) Dying Declaration
A) Create an accurate, objective visual record before any item is moved. B) Serve as a substitute for a detailed crime scene sketch. C) Create a sensational visual record for media release. D) Identify the suspect through artistic composition.
A) Identify himself by name, rank, and agency. B) Make an Opening Statement on the purpose of the interview. C) Establish Rapport with the witness. D) Allow the witness to Narrate their story without interruption.
A) Assist the surveillants in maintaining cover. B) Detect if they are under surveillance. C) Comply with local traffic regulations. D) Ensure they reach their destination on time.
A) The declaration concerns the cause and surrounding circumstances of the declarant's death. B) The declaration must be corroborated by at least two other witnesses. C) The declarant is conscious of his impending death and has no hope of recovery. D) The declarant's death is the subject of the inquiry.
A) The investigator shifts the blame away from the suspect's character. B) Two agents play the roles of a relentless investigator and a kind-hearted one. C) The suspect is isolated and falsely informed that their accomplice has confessed. D) The investigator pretends to have conclusive physical evidence.
A) Modus Operandi B) Locard's Exchange Principle C) Corpus Delicti D) Miranda Doctrine
A) Made with the assistance of competent and independent counsel. B) Corroborated by at least one piece of physical evidence. C) Corroborated by at least one piece of physical evidence. D) Made in the presence of the victim's family.
A) It is an opportunity to obtain a statement that may become admissible evidence if the victim dies. B) It replaces the need for a full crime scene investigation. C) It allows the investigator to shift from interview to interrogation immediately. D) It is the only statement that does not require corroboration.
A) Scale B) Compass Direction (North) C) Title D) Legend
A) A method where the investigator's official identity is concealed. B) The secret observation of persons and places from a fixed point. C) A search method for large, open areas. D) The vigorous questioning of a reluctant suspect.
A) The hierarchy of witnesses presented in court. B) The number of persons who handled the evidence from collection to final disposition. C) The sequence of commands from the team leader to the evidence collector. D) The legal chain required to secure an arrest warrant.
A) Eliminate the power of suggestion on the witness. B) Intimidate the suspect into confessing. C) Allow the media to photograph the suspect. D) Comply with the mandatory pre-trial publicity rule.
A) When, Where, Why, How, Whether, and Whom. B) What, Why, Where, How, If, and Then. C) Who, What, When, How, Which, and Whom. D) Who, What, Where, When, Why, and How.
A) Collection of artist sketches. B) Database of modus operandi. C) Library of ballistic fingerprints. D) File of photographic images of known criminals.
A) The suspect has already requested a lawyer. B) There is only one suspect. C) The suspect is a hardened criminal. D) There is more than one suspect.
A) Brief the media on the investigation's progress. B) Interrogate the primary suspect in situ. C) Make a final review to determine if processing is complete. D) Draft the final report for the prosecutor.
A) Official police databases. B) Government records and news items. C) Information from prisoners and ex-convicts. D) Information gathered upon the investigator's own initiative from informants and vendors.
A) Detect if they are under surveillance. B) Communicate with an accomplice. C) Mark a location for a future meeting. D) Dispose of incriminating evidence.
A) Code of Conduct for Law Enforcement Officials. B) Revised Penal Code. C) Anti-Wiretapping Law. D) Rules on Electronic Evidence.
A) long, narrow road. B) An approximately circular or oval open field. C) A rectangular-shaped warehouse. D) multi-story building divided into zones. |