A) Medical Jurisprudence B) Forensic Medicine C) Legal Medicine D) All of the Above
A) Medico - legal Expert B) Medical Jurist C) All of the Above D) Medical Examiner
A) Medical officers of law enforcement agencies B) all of these C) Health officers D) Member of the medical staff of accredited hospitals
A) Autopsy/ Necropsy B) Autopsic C) Medico legal autopsy D) Clinical Autopsy
A) Autopsic B) Medico legal autopsy C) Clinical Autopsy D) Autopsy/ Necropsy
A) Clinical Autopsy B) Autopsy/Necropsy C) Medico-legal autopsy D) Autoptic
A) Criminal law B) Remedial law C) Civil Law D) Special law
A) Circumstances affecting criminal liability B) Crimes against chastity C) Crimes against person D) Crimes against property
A) Livor Mortis B) Algor Mortis C) Flaccidity D) Rigor Mortis
A) Algor Mortis B) Livor Mortis C) Rigor Mortis D) Flaccidity
A) Rigor Mortis B) Flaccidity C) Livor Mortis D) Algor Mortis
A) Material Evidence B) Corroborative Evidence C) Corpus Delicti D) Proma Facie Evidence
A) Acid hematin B) Albumin test C) Precipitin test D) Alkaline test
A) Memories B) Written interrogatories C) Tape recording them D) Photographing it
A) Corpus delicti or facts that crime was committed B) Method of operation's of the suspect C) Cordon the area D) Identity of the suspect
A) Punchured B) Contusion C) Hematoma D) Abrasion
A) Contusion B) Abrasion C) Punchured wound D) Hematoma
A) Contusion B) Abrasion C) Punctured wound D) Hematoma
A) Hematoma B) Contusion C) Punctured wound D) Abrasion
A) Arrest B) Armed Robbery C) Homicide D) Robbery
A) Skin on the hands and feet become swollen and bleached B) Abdomen distended, skin of hands and feet come off with the nails like a glove C) The face appears softened D) Skin wrinkled, scrotum, and penis distended with gas, nails and hair still intact
A) Justifying circumstances B) Lacerated wound C) Incised wound D) Defense wound
A) Mutilation B) Less serious physical injury C) Slight physical injury D) Serious physical injury
A) Diffusion Livility B) Rigor mortis C) Hypostatics Livility D) Hyper Livility
A) Demi-virginity B) Physical virginity C) Virgo-intacta D) Moral virginity
A) 24 hour after death, unless the health officer allows extension B) Primary flaccidity C) 48 hours death D) Livor mortis
A) 30-45 minutes B) 15-30 minutes C) 45-60 minutes D) 10-15 minutes
A) Carbolization B) Saponification C) Livor mortis D) Putrefaction
A) 12 hours B) 24 hours C) 36 hours D) 48 hours
A) Physical injuries and death B) Fatal, non fatal, property damage C) Slight, less serious, serious physical injuries D) Death, property damage
A) Violet B) Pink C) Bright red D) yellow
A) Friction burn B) Electrical burn C) Radiation burn D) Thermal burn
A) 14 years old B) 15 years old C) 13 years old D) 12 years old
A) Limitations of the forensic examination B) A non-resisting victim C) All of these D) A non- aggressive assailant
A) Tenor B) Calor C) Rubor D) Dolor
A) Vital Infliction B) Vital Reaction C) Vital Deactivation D) Vital Infection
A) Open Wounds B) Mortal Wounds C) Non-Mortal Wounds D) Closed Wounds
A) Inscised Wound B) Stab Wound C) Punctured Wound D) Lacerated Wound
A) 5-7 hours B) 6-8 hours C) 1-2 hours D) 3-4 hours
A) Purge B) Saponification C) Maceration D) Mummification
A) Sadism B) Fornication C) Sado-masochism D) Masochism
A) Coup Contre-Coup Injur B) Coup Injury C) Contre-Coup Injury D) Locus Minoris Resistancia
A) Infanticide B) Murder C) Homicide D) Parricide
A) Murder B) Parricide C) Homicide D) Infanticide
A) Homicide B) Parricide C) Infanticide D) Murder
A) Must be buried or cremated with body B) All of the above C) Must be turned over to the police as evidence D) Must be described and inventoried
A) Euthanasia B) Passive Euthanasia C) Active Euthanasia D) Mercy Killing
A) 8 hours B) 12 hours C) 6 hours D) 3 hours
A) Hanging B) Asphyxia C) Suffocation D) Strangulation
A) Abrasion B) Incised Wound C) Hematoma D) Contusion
A) Moral Virginity B) Carnal Knowledge C) Virginity D) Defloration
A) Contusion B) Close Wound C) Petechiae D) Hematoma
A) More than 6 inches up to 24 inches B) Near contact to 6 inches C) 12 inches D) More than 25 inches
A) All of the above B) Last medical history C) Witness accounts D) Circumstances of the death
A) Dried at the scene and packaged in paper B) Dried at the scene and packaged in plastic C) Dried at the lab and packaged in paper D) Dried at the lab and packaged in plastic
A) Real B) Autoptic C) Evidence D) Rule of Court
A) Fetishism B) Masochism C) Oralism D) Sadism
A) Vampirism B) Mannikinism C) Pygmalionism D) Narcissism
A) Necrophilia B) Bestosexual C) Autosexual D) Gerontophilia
A) 2 to 3 hours B) 5 to 6 hours C) 3 to 4 hours D) 4 to 5 hours
A) Health officers B) All of the above C) Medical officers of law enforcement agencies D) Members of the medical staff of accredited hospitals
A) Crime scene investigation B) Post-mortem investigation C) Exhumation D) Autopsy
A) Cremation B) Exhumation C) Pounding D) Charring
A) Red B) Clay C) Black D) Reddish-brown
A) Barberio Test B) Phenolphthalein Test C) Takayama Test D) Florence Test
A) Deonatural acid B) Dematuralized acid C) Deoxy nucleic acid D) Deoxyribonucleic acid
A) False Physical Virginity B) Demi-Virginity C) True Physical Virginity D) Physical Virginity
A) To allow the media and VIPs to observe from a safe distance. B) To establish the boundaries of the crime scene to effectively preserve it. C) To immediately begin the evidence collection process. D) To formally release the scene to the evidence custodian.
A) The discoverer's initials are placed on the knife, and it is then turned over to the evidence custodian. B) The knife is immediately collected, then photographed and measured at the evidence station. C) The knife is photographed, measured, and its location sketched before it is touched or moved. D) A chain of custody form is prepared first, followed by photography of the knife.
A) Mutt and Jeff B) Pretense of Physical Evidence C) Shifting the Blame D) Extenuation
A) Circumstantial Evidence B) Tracing Evidence C) Corpus Delicti D) Associative Evidence
A) No, because a priest, like a law enforcement officer, is required to give the Miranda warnings. B) Yes, because the suspect's moral obligation to tell the truth to a priest outweighs the constitutional requirement for counsel. C) No, because any confession made during custodial investigation requires the presence of competent and independent counsel to be admissible. D) Yes, because the confession was made spontaneously and voluntarily to a private person, not during a questioning by law enforcement.
A) That it has been properly identified, and the chain of custody has been proved. B) That it is material and relevant to the case. C) That it was the only evidence recovered from the scene. D) That it was collected by the team leader of the SOCO.
A) How to detect foot surveillance B) Methods of shadowing. C) Qualities of a good surveillant. D) How to conduct surveillance of a place.
A) Legitimate Informant B) Double-Crosser Informant C) Mercenary Informant D) Anonymous Informant
A) Associative Evidence B) Corpus Delicti C) Tracing Evidence D) Modus Operandi (MO)
A) Take the sworn statements of all witnesses on the scene. B) Immediately begin the collection of all visible evidence. C) Make a general assessment and develop a theory of the crime. D) Release the crime scene to the property owner.
A) Compass Point Method B) Rectangular Coordinates Method C) Baseline Method D) Triangulation Method
A) Positive Evidence B) Direct Evidence C) Corroborative Evidence D) Circumstantial Evidence
A) Admission B) Excited Utterance C) Confession D) Dying Declaration
A) Create a sensational visual record for media release. B) Create an accurate, objective visual record before any item is moved. C) Serve as a substitute for a detailed crime scene sketch. D) Identify the suspect through artistic composition.
A) Establish Rapport with the witness. B) Make an Opening Statement on the purpose of the interview. C) Identify himself by name, rank, and agency. D) Allow the witness to Narrate their story without interruption.
A) Detect if they are under surveillance. B) Comply with local traffic regulations. C) Ensure they reach their destination on time. D) Assist the surveillants in maintaining cover.
A) The declarant's death is the subject of the inquiry. B) The declaration concerns the cause and surrounding circumstances of the declarant's death. C) The declaration must be corroborated by at least two other witnesses. D) The declarant is conscious of his impending death and has no hope of recovery.
A) The investigator pretends to have conclusive physical evidence. B) The suspect is isolated and falsely informed that their accomplice has confessed. C) The investigator shifts the blame away from the suspect's character. D) Two agents play the roles of a relentless investigator and a kind-hearted one.
A) Modus Operandi B) Locard's Exchange Principle C) Miranda Doctrine D) Corpus Delicti
A) Made with the assistance of competent and independent counsel. B) Corroborated by at least one piece of physical evidence. C) Made in the presence of the victim's family. D) Corroborated by at least one piece of physical evidence.
A) It is the only statement that does not require corroboration. B) It is an opportunity to obtain a statement that may become admissible evidence if the victim dies. C) It allows the investigator to shift from interview to interrogation immediately. D) It replaces the need for a full crime scene investigation.
A) Scale B) Compass Direction (North) C) Legend D) Title
A) A search method for large, open areas. B) A method where the investigator's official identity is concealed. C) The secret observation of persons and places from a fixed point. D) The vigorous questioning of a reluctant suspect.
A) The number of persons who handled the evidence from collection to final disposition. B) The legal chain required to secure an arrest warrant. C) The sequence of commands from the team leader to the evidence collector. D) The hierarchy of witnesses presented in court.
A) Intimidate the suspect into confessing. B) Allow the media to photograph the suspect. C) Comply with the mandatory pre-trial publicity rule. D) Eliminate the power of suggestion on the witness.
A) When, Where, Why, How, Whether, and Whom. B) Who, What, When, How, Which, and Whom. C) Who, What, Where, When, Why, and How. D) What, Why, Where, How, If, and Then.
A) Collection of artist sketches. B) File of photographic images of known criminals. C) Database of modus operandi. D) Library of ballistic fingerprints.
A) The suspect is a hardened criminal. B) There is more than one suspect. C) The suspect has already requested a lawyer. D) There is only one suspect.
A) Interrogate the primary suspect in situ. B) Brief the media on the investigation's progress. C) Draft the final report for the prosecutor. D) Make a final review to determine if processing is complete.
A) Government records and news items. B) Official police databases. C) Information from prisoners and ex-convicts. D) Information gathered upon the investigator's own initiative from informants and vendors.
A) Detect if they are under surveillance. B) Dispose of incriminating evidence. C) Communicate with an accomplice. D) Mark a location for a future meeting.
A) Revised Penal Code. B) Rules on Electronic Evidence. C) Code of Conduct for Law Enforcement Officials. D) Anti-Wiretapping Law.
A) long, narrow road. B) multi-story building divided into zones. C) A rectangular-shaped warehouse. D) An approximately circular or oval open field. |