A) Legal Medicine B) All of the Above C) Medical Jurisprudence D) Forensic Medicine
A) Medical Jurist B) Medico - legal Expert C) Medical Examiner D) All of the Above
A) Health officers B) Member of the medical staff of accredited hospitals C) Medical officers of law enforcement agencies D) all of these
A) Clinical Autopsy B) Autopsy/ Necropsy C) Autopsic D) Medico legal autopsy
A) Clinical Autopsy B) Medico legal autopsy C) Autopsy/ Necropsy D) Autopsic
A) Medico-legal autopsy B) Clinical Autopsy C) Autoptic D) Autopsy/Necropsy
A) Civil Law B) Criminal law C) Remedial law D) Special law
A) Crimes against property B) Crimes against person C) Circumstances affecting criminal liability D) Crimes against chastity
A) Flaccidity B) Livor Mortis C) Rigor Mortis D) Algor Mortis
A) Rigor Mortis B) Flaccidity C) Livor Mortis D) Algor Mortis
A) Algor Mortis B) Rigor Mortis C) Livor Mortis D) Flaccidity
A) Corpus Delicti B) Proma Facie Evidence C) Material Evidence D) Corroborative Evidence
A) Alkaline test B) Acid hematin C) Albumin test D) Precipitin test
A) Tape recording them B) Written interrogatories C) Memories D) Photographing it
A) Corpus delicti or facts that crime was committed B) Method of operation's of the suspect C) Identity of the suspect D) Cordon the area
A) Hematoma B) Abrasion C) Punchured D) Contusion
A) Abrasion B) Hematoma C) Contusion D) Punchured wound
A) Hematoma B) Punctured wound C) Contusion D) Abrasion
A) Abrasion B) Hematoma C) Punctured wound D) Contusion
A) Arrest B) Armed Robbery C) Robbery D) Homicide
A) Skin wrinkled, scrotum, and penis distended with gas, nails and hair still intact B) The face appears softened C) Abdomen distended, skin of hands and feet come off with the nails like a glove D) Skin on the hands and feet become swollen and bleached
A) Lacerated wound B) Defense wound C) Justifying circumstances D) Incised wound
A) Serious physical injury B) Less serious physical injury C) Mutilation D) Slight physical injury
A) Hypostatics Livility B) Diffusion Livility C) Rigor mortis D) Hyper Livility
A) Physical virginity B) Demi-virginity C) Moral virginity D) Virgo-intacta
A) Livor mortis B) 24 hour after death, unless the health officer allows extension C) Primary flaccidity D) 48 hours death
A) 30-45 minutes B) 10-15 minutes C) 45-60 minutes D) 15-30 minutes
A) Carbolization B) Putrefaction C) Livor mortis D) Saponification
A) 36 hours B) 24 hours C) 12 hours D) 48 hours
A) Slight, less serious, serious physical injuries B) Physical injuries and death C) Death, property damage D) Fatal, non fatal, property damage
A) yellow B) Bright red C) Pink D) Violet
A) Radiation burn B) Electrical burn C) Thermal burn D) Friction burn
A) 12 years old B) 14 years old C) 13 years old D) 15 years old
A) A non- aggressive assailant B) All of these C) A non-resisting victim D) Limitations of the forensic examination
A) Tenor B) Dolor C) Calor D) Rubor
A) Vital Infection B) Vital Deactivation C) Vital Infliction D) Vital Reaction
A) Closed Wounds B) Open Wounds C) Non-Mortal Wounds D) Mortal Wounds
A) Stab Wound B) Punctured Wound C) Lacerated Wound D) Inscised Wound
A) 6-8 hours B) 5-7 hours C) 3-4 hours D) 1-2 hours
A) Saponification B) Purge C) Mummification D) Maceration
A) Masochism B) Fornication C) Sado-masochism D) Sadism
A) Coup Injury B) Coup Contre-Coup Injur C) Locus Minoris Resistancia D) Contre-Coup Injury
A) Infanticide B) Homicide C) Murder D) Parricide
A) Murder B) Parricide C) Infanticide D) Homicide
A) Infanticide B) Homicide C) Parricide D) Murder
A) Must be turned over to the police as evidence B) Must be buried or cremated with body C) All of the above D) Must be described and inventoried
A) Active Euthanasia B) Passive Euthanasia C) Mercy Killing D) Euthanasia
A) 12 hours B) 3 hours C) 8 hours D) 6 hours
A) Hanging B) Suffocation C) Strangulation D) Asphyxia
A) Contusion B) Hematoma C) Abrasion D) Incised Wound
A) Carnal Knowledge B) Moral Virginity C) Defloration D) Virginity
A) Contusion B) Close Wound C) Petechiae D) Hematoma
A) 12 inches B) Near contact to 6 inches C) More than 6 inches up to 24 inches D) More than 25 inches
A) Circumstances of the death B) Last medical history C) All of the above D) Witness accounts
A) Dried at the lab and packaged in paper B) Dried at the scene and packaged in plastic C) Dried at the scene and packaged in paper D) Dried at the lab and packaged in plastic
A) Real B) Autoptic C) Evidence D) Rule of Court
A) Fetishism B) Sadism C) Masochism D) Oralism
A) Vampirism B) Mannikinism C) Narcissism D) Pygmalionism
A) Gerontophilia B) Bestosexual C) Necrophilia D) Autosexual
A) 5 to 6 hours B) 3 to 4 hours C) 2 to 3 hours D) 4 to 5 hours
A) Medical officers of law enforcement agencies B) Members of the medical staff of accredited hospitals C) Health officers D) All of the above
A) Crime scene investigation B) Post-mortem investigation C) Exhumation D) Autopsy
A) Cremation B) Pounding C) Exhumation D) Charring
A) Red B) Reddish-brown C) Black D) Clay
A) Barberio Test B) Takayama Test C) Florence Test D) Phenolphthalein Test
A) Deoxyribonucleic acid B) Deoxy nucleic acid C) Dematuralized acid D) Deonatural acid
A) Demi-Virginity B) Physical Virginity C) False Physical Virginity D) True Physical Virginity
A) To establish the boundaries of the crime scene to effectively preserve it. B) To formally release the scene to the evidence custodian. C) To allow the media and VIPs to observe from a safe distance. D) To immediately begin the evidence collection process.
A) The discoverer's initials are placed on the knife, and it is then turned over to the evidence custodian. B) A chain of custody form is prepared first, followed by photography of the knife. C) The knife is immediately collected, then photographed and measured at the evidence station. D) The knife is photographed, measured, and its location sketched before it is touched or moved.
A) Mutt and Jeff B) Pretense of Physical Evidence C) Extenuation D) Shifting the Blame
A) Corpus Delicti B) Associative Evidence C) Circumstantial Evidence D) Tracing Evidence
A) Yes, because the suspect's moral obligation to tell the truth to a priest outweighs the constitutional requirement for counsel. B) No, because any confession made during custodial investigation requires the presence of competent and independent counsel to be admissible. C) No, because a priest, like a law enforcement officer, is required to give the Miranda warnings. D) Yes, because the confession was made spontaneously and voluntarily to a private person, not during a questioning by law enforcement.
A) That it was the only evidence recovered from the scene. B) That it was collected by the team leader of the SOCO. C) That it has been properly identified, and the chain of custody has been proved. D) That it is material and relevant to the case.
A) Qualities of a good surveillant. B) How to detect foot surveillance C) Methods of shadowing. D) How to conduct surveillance of a place.
A) Double-Crosser Informant B) Legitimate Informant C) Anonymous Informant D) Mercenary Informant
A) Modus Operandi (MO) B) Associative Evidence C) Corpus Delicti D) Tracing Evidence
A) Make a general assessment and develop a theory of the crime. B) Release the crime scene to the property owner. C) Take the sworn statements of all witnesses on the scene. D) Immediately begin the collection of all visible evidence.
A) Baseline Method B) Triangulation Method C) Rectangular Coordinates Method D) Compass Point Method
A) Corroborative Evidence B) Direct Evidence C) Circumstantial Evidence D) Positive Evidence
A) Admission B) Excited Utterance C) Confession D) Dying Declaration
A) Serve as a substitute for a detailed crime scene sketch. B) Create a sensational visual record for media release. C) Create an accurate, objective visual record before any item is moved. D) Identify the suspect through artistic composition.
A) Allow the witness to Narrate their story without interruption. B) Establish Rapport with the witness. C) Identify himself by name, rank, and agency. D) Make an Opening Statement on the purpose of the interview.
A) Ensure they reach their destination on time. B) Detect if they are under surveillance. C) Assist the surveillants in maintaining cover. D) Comply with local traffic regulations.
A) The declarant's death is the subject of the inquiry. B) The declaration concerns the cause and surrounding circumstances of the declarant's death. C) The declaration must be corroborated by at least two other witnesses. D) The declarant is conscious of his impending death and has no hope of recovery.
A) The investigator shifts the blame away from the suspect's character. B) The suspect is isolated and falsely informed that their accomplice has confessed. C) The investigator pretends to have conclusive physical evidence. D) Two agents play the roles of a relentless investigator and a kind-hearted one.
A) Locard's Exchange Principle B) Modus Operandi C) Miranda Doctrine D) Corpus Delicti
A) Corroborated by at least one piece of physical evidence. B) Made in the presence of the victim's family. C) Made with the assistance of competent and independent counsel. D) Corroborated by at least one piece of physical evidence.
A) It allows the investigator to shift from interview to interrogation immediately. B) It is an opportunity to obtain a statement that may become admissible evidence if the victim dies. C) It replaces the need for a full crime scene investigation. D) It is the only statement that does not require corroboration.
A) Compass Direction (North) B) Title C) Legend D) Scale
A) The vigorous questioning of a reluctant suspect. B) The secret observation of persons and places from a fixed point. C) A method where the investigator's official identity is concealed. D) A search method for large, open areas.
A) The number of persons who handled the evidence from collection to final disposition. B) The sequence of commands from the team leader to the evidence collector. C) The legal chain required to secure an arrest warrant. D) The hierarchy of witnesses presented in court.
A) Intimidate the suspect into confessing. B) Comply with the mandatory pre-trial publicity rule. C) Allow the media to photograph the suspect. D) Eliminate the power of suggestion on the witness.
A) What, Why, Where, How, If, and Then. B) Who, What, Where, When, Why, and How. C) When, Where, Why, How, Whether, and Whom. D) Who, What, When, How, Which, and Whom.
A) File of photographic images of known criminals. B) Database of modus operandi. C) Collection of artist sketches. D) Library of ballistic fingerprints.
A) The suspect has already requested a lawyer. B) There is only one suspect. C) The suspect is a hardened criminal. D) There is more than one suspect.
A) Draft the final report for the prosecutor. B) Brief the media on the investigation's progress. C) Make a final review to determine if processing is complete. D) Interrogate the primary suspect in situ.
A) Government records and news items. B) Information from prisoners and ex-convicts. C) Information gathered upon the investigator's own initiative from informants and vendors. D) Official police databases.
A) Communicate with an accomplice. B) Dispose of incriminating evidence. C) Mark a location for a future meeting. D) Detect if they are under surveillance.
A) Code of Conduct for Law Enforcement Officials. B) Revised Penal Code. C) Rules on Electronic Evidence. D) Anti-Wiretapping Law.
A) An approximately circular or oval open field. B) long, narrow road. C) A rectangular-shaped warehouse. D) multi-story building divided into zones. |