A) All of the Above B) Medical Jurisprudence C) Forensic Medicine D) Legal Medicine
A) Medical Jurist B) All of the Above C) Medical Examiner D) Medico - legal Expert
A) Medical officers of law enforcement agencies B) all of these C) Health officers D) Member of the medical staff of accredited hospitals
A) Autopsic B) Clinical Autopsy C) Autopsy/ Necropsy D) Medico legal autopsy
A) Autopsy/ Necropsy B) Autopsic C) Clinical Autopsy D) Medico legal autopsy
A) Autoptic B) Clinical Autopsy C) Autopsy/Necropsy D) Medico-legal autopsy
A) Remedial law B) Criminal law C) Special law D) Civil Law
A) Crimes against property B) Crimes against chastity C) Crimes against person D) Circumstances affecting criminal liability
A) Flaccidity B) Rigor Mortis C) Algor Mortis D) Livor Mortis
A) Flaccidity B) Rigor Mortis C) Livor Mortis D) Algor Mortis
A) Algor Mortis B) Flaccidity C) Livor Mortis D) Rigor Mortis
A) Corpus Delicti B) Proma Facie Evidence C) Corroborative Evidence D) Material Evidence
A) Alkaline test B) Acid hematin C) Albumin test D) Precipitin test
A) Photographing it B) Written interrogatories C) Tape recording them D) Memories
A) Identity of the suspect B) Corpus delicti or facts that crime was committed C) Method of operation's of the suspect D) Cordon the area
A) Abrasion B) Hematoma C) Punchured D) Contusion
A) Punchured wound B) Hematoma C) Abrasion D) Contusion
A) Abrasion B) Punctured wound C) Contusion D) Hematoma
A) Punctured wound B) Contusion C) Abrasion D) Hematoma
A) Robbery B) Arrest C) Armed Robbery D) Homicide
A) The face appears softened B) Skin wrinkled, scrotum, and penis distended with gas, nails and hair still intact C) Abdomen distended, skin of hands and feet come off with the nails like a glove D) Skin on the hands and feet become swollen and bleached
A) Lacerated wound B) Defense wound C) Incised wound D) Justifying circumstances
A) Mutilation B) Slight physical injury C) Less serious physical injury D) Serious physical injury
A) Hypostatics Livility B) Hyper Livility C) Rigor mortis D) Diffusion Livility
A) Physical virginity B) Moral virginity C) Demi-virginity D) Virgo-intacta
A) Primary flaccidity B) Livor mortis C) 24 hour after death, unless the health officer allows extension D) 48 hours death
A) 15-30 minutes B) 30-45 minutes C) 10-15 minutes D) 45-60 minutes
A) Livor mortis B) Carbolization C) Putrefaction D) Saponification
A) 48 hours B) 12 hours C) 24 hours D) 36 hours
A) Fatal, non fatal, property damage B) Physical injuries and death C) Slight, less serious, serious physical injuries D) Death, property damage
A) Pink B) Bright red C) Violet D) yellow
A) Thermal burn B) Friction burn C) Electrical burn D) Radiation burn
A) 13 years old B) 15 years old C) 14 years old D) 12 years old
A) A non- aggressive assailant B) All of these C) Limitations of the forensic examination D) A non-resisting victim
A) Tenor B) Calor C) Dolor D) Rubor
A) Vital Reaction B) Vital Infection C) Vital Infliction D) Vital Deactivation
A) Closed Wounds B) Mortal Wounds C) Non-Mortal Wounds D) Open Wounds
A) Lacerated Wound B) Stab Wound C) Inscised Wound D) Punctured Wound
A) 6-8 hours B) 3-4 hours C) 1-2 hours D) 5-7 hours
A) Maceration B) Purge C) Saponification D) Mummification
A) Masochism B) Fornication C) Sado-masochism D) Sadism
A) Contre-Coup Injury B) Coup Contre-Coup Injur C) Coup Injury D) Locus Minoris Resistancia
A) Homicide B) Murder C) Infanticide D) Parricide
A) Parricide B) Murder C) Infanticide D) Homicide
A) Murder B) Homicide C) Parricide D) Infanticide
A) Must be buried or cremated with body B) All of the above C) Must be described and inventoried D) Must be turned over to the police as evidence
A) Active Euthanasia B) Euthanasia C) Mercy Killing D) Passive Euthanasia
A) 12 hours B) 8 hours C) 3 hours D) 6 hours
A) Asphyxia B) Hanging C) Suffocation D) Strangulation
A) Hematoma B) Abrasion C) Contusion D) Incised Wound
A) Virginity B) Defloration C) Moral Virginity D) Carnal Knowledge
A) Hematoma B) Close Wound C) Contusion D) Petechiae
A) 12 inches B) More than 6 inches up to 24 inches C) Near contact to 6 inches D) More than 25 inches
A) Circumstances of the death B) Witness accounts C) Last medical history D) All of the above
A) Dried at the scene and packaged in plastic B) Dried at the scene and packaged in paper C) Dried at the lab and packaged in paper D) Dried at the lab and packaged in plastic
A) Evidence B) Real C) Rule of Court D) Autoptic
A) Sadism B) Oralism C) Fetishism D) Masochism
A) Narcissism B) Mannikinism C) Vampirism D) Pygmalionism
A) Bestosexual B) Autosexual C) Gerontophilia D) Necrophilia
A) 4 to 5 hours B) 5 to 6 hours C) 2 to 3 hours D) 3 to 4 hours
A) Medical officers of law enforcement agencies B) All of the above C) Health officers D) Members of the medical staff of accredited hospitals
A) Exhumation B) Autopsy C) Post-mortem investigation D) Crime scene investigation
A) Charring B) Cremation C) Pounding D) Exhumation
A) Black B) Red C) Reddish-brown D) Clay
A) Barberio Test B) Takayama Test C) Phenolphthalein Test D) Florence Test
A) Deoxyribonucleic acid B) Dematuralized acid C) Deoxy nucleic acid D) Deonatural acid
A) False Physical Virginity B) Demi-Virginity C) True Physical Virginity D) Physical Virginity
A) To allow the media and VIPs to observe from a safe distance. B) To immediately begin the evidence collection process. C) To formally release the scene to the evidence custodian. D) To establish the boundaries of the crime scene to effectively preserve it.
A) A chain of custody form is prepared first, followed by photography of the knife. B) The discoverer's initials are placed on the knife, and it is then turned over to the evidence custodian. C) The knife is immediately collected, then photographed and measured at the evidence station. D) The knife is photographed, measured, and its location sketched before it is touched or moved.
A) Mutt and Jeff B) Shifting the Blame C) Pretense of Physical Evidence D) Extenuation
A) Corpus Delicti B) Tracing Evidence C) Circumstantial Evidence D) Associative Evidence
A) No, because any confession made during custodial investigation requires the presence of competent and independent counsel to be admissible. B) Yes, because the suspect's moral obligation to tell the truth to a priest outweighs the constitutional requirement for counsel. C) Yes, because the confession was made spontaneously and voluntarily to a private person, not during a questioning by law enforcement. D) No, because a priest, like a law enforcement officer, is required to give the Miranda warnings.
A) That it is material and relevant to the case. B) That it was collected by the team leader of the SOCO. C) That it was the only evidence recovered from the scene. D) That it has been properly identified, and the chain of custody has been proved.
A) Methods of shadowing. B) How to conduct surveillance of a place. C) Qualities of a good surveillant. D) How to detect foot surveillance
A) Legitimate Informant B) Anonymous Informant C) Mercenary Informant D) Double-Crosser Informant
A) Corpus Delicti B) Associative Evidence C) Modus Operandi (MO) D) Tracing Evidence
A) Release the crime scene to the property owner. B) Take the sworn statements of all witnesses on the scene. C) Make a general assessment and develop a theory of the crime. D) Immediately begin the collection of all visible evidence.
A) Rectangular Coordinates Method B) Triangulation Method C) Baseline Method D) Compass Point Method
A) Direct Evidence B) Corroborative Evidence C) Circumstantial Evidence D) Positive Evidence
A) Confession B) Admission C) Excited Utterance D) Dying Declaration
A) Identify the suspect through artistic composition. B) Serve as a substitute for a detailed crime scene sketch. C) Create an accurate, objective visual record before any item is moved. D) Create a sensational visual record for media release.
A) Make an Opening Statement on the purpose of the interview. B) Establish Rapport with the witness. C) Identify himself by name, rank, and agency. D) Allow the witness to Narrate their story without interruption.
A) Assist the surveillants in maintaining cover. B) Comply with local traffic regulations. C) Ensure they reach their destination on time. D) Detect if they are under surveillance.
A) The declarant is conscious of his impending death and has no hope of recovery. B) The declaration concerns the cause and surrounding circumstances of the declarant's death. C) The declarant's death is the subject of the inquiry. D) The declaration must be corroborated by at least two other witnesses.
A) Two agents play the roles of a relentless investigator and a kind-hearted one. B) The investigator pretends to have conclusive physical evidence. C) The suspect is isolated and falsely informed that their accomplice has confessed. D) The investigator shifts the blame away from the suspect's character.
A) Miranda Doctrine B) Locard's Exchange Principle C) Corpus Delicti D) Modus Operandi
A) Corroborated by at least one piece of physical evidence. B) Corroborated by at least one piece of physical evidence. C) Made with the assistance of competent and independent counsel. D) Made in the presence of the victim's family.
A) It is an opportunity to obtain a statement that may become admissible evidence if the victim dies. B) It allows the investigator to shift from interview to interrogation immediately. C) It is the only statement that does not require corroboration. D) It replaces the need for a full crime scene investigation.
A) Scale B) Compass Direction (North) C) Legend D) Title
A) A search method for large, open areas. B) A method where the investigator's official identity is concealed. C) The secret observation of persons and places from a fixed point. D) The vigorous questioning of a reluctant suspect.
A) The sequence of commands from the team leader to the evidence collector. B) The number of persons who handled the evidence from collection to final disposition. C) The hierarchy of witnesses presented in court. D) The legal chain required to secure an arrest warrant.
A) Intimidate the suspect into confessing. B) Comply with the mandatory pre-trial publicity rule. C) Allow the media to photograph the suspect. D) Eliminate the power of suggestion on the witness.
A) Who, What, Where, When, Why, and How. B) Who, What, When, How, Which, and Whom. C) When, Where, Why, How, Whether, and Whom. D) What, Why, Where, How, If, and Then.
A) Collection of artist sketches. B) Database of modus operandi. C) File of photographic images of known criminals. D) Library of ballistic fingerprints.
A) The suspect has already requested a lawyer. B) The suspect is a hardened criminal. C) There is more than one suspect. D) There is only one suspect.
A) Draft the final report for the prosecutor. B) Brief the media on the investigation's progress. C) Interrogate the primary suspect in situ. D) Make a final review to determine if processing is complete.
A) Information gathered upon the investigator's own initiative from informants and vendors. B) Government records and news items. C) Information from prisoners and ex-convicts. D) Official police databases.
A) Communicate with an accomplice. B) Mark a location for a future meeting. C) Dispose of incriminating evidence. D) Detect if they are under surveillance.
A) Anti-Wiretapping Law. B) Code of Conduct for Law Enforcement Officials. C) Revised Penal Code. D) Rules on Electronic Evidence.
A) long, narrow road. B) An approximately circular or oval open field. C) A rectangular-shaped warehouse. D) multi-story building divided into zones. |