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Cevide 2
Contributed by: Cast
  • 1. For evidence to be admissible, it must be:
A) Relevant and material
B) Relevant and competent
C) Material and voluntary
D) Competent and credible
  • 2. Collateral matters are admissible when they tend to:
A) Establish probability or improbability of a fact in issue
B) Confuse the issue
C) Disprove all evidence
D) Support witness credibility only
  • 3. Real evidence is also called:
A) Demonstrative evidence
B) Object evidence
C) Secondary evidence
D) Oral evidence
  • 4. Real evidence is considered
A) Circumstantial evidence
B) The weakest form of proof
C) The highest order of evidence
D) Testimonial evidence
  • 5. Testimonial evidence refers to:
A) Documentary proof
B) Statements given by witnesses under oath
C) Circumstantial demonstration
D) Objects presented to the court
  • 6. The “best evidence rule” requires
A) Presentation of the original document
B) Submission of any copy
C) Hearsay testimony
D) Oral testimony of document contents
  • 7. Parol evidence rule applies to:
A) Electronic communications
B) Testimonies only
C) Written contracts
D) Oral contracts
  • 8. Documentary evidence refers to
A) Objects and materials
B) Written documents presented in court
C) Oral declarations
D) Witness testimony
  • 9. The “Res inter alios acta” rule means
A) Admissions apply to all
B) Confidential evidence is protected
C) Acts of others cannot prejudice another
D) Hearsay statements are valid
  • 10. Admission by silence means:
A) Silence is never an admission
B) Failure to deny implies consent
C) Only verbal admissions are valid
D) Applies only to written statements
  • 11. The “Mercy Rule” allows an accused to:
A) Avoid cross-examination
B) Prove good moral character pertinent to the offense
C) Prove innocence by silence
D) Withhold testimony
  • 12. Privileged communication is based on
A) Mutual understanding
B) Confidentiality and public policy
C) Lack of relevance
D) Common interest
  • 13. Marital privilege applies:
A) Only if requested by prosecution
B) Only if both spouses testify
C) During or after marriage
D) Only before marriage
  • 14. Spousal immunity can be invoked:
A) After marriage
B) By any relative
C) Before marriage
D) Only while the marriage subsists
  • 15. Filial privilege prevents:
A) A child from testifying against parents
B) Priests from testifying
C) Parents from testifying against neighbors
D) Teachers from testifying
  • 16. The priest-penitent privilege protects:
A) Anonymous statements
B) Gossip about religious leaders
C) Confessions made in confidence during religious discipline
D) Public confessions
  • 17. Physician-patient privilege aims to:
A) Protect hospital reputation
B) Disallow expert witnesses
C) Prevent medical records in court
D) Encourage full disclosure for treatment
  • 18. The “Best Evidence Rule” is also called:
A) Original document rule
B) Competency rule
C) Hearsay rule
D) Parol rule
  • 19. Demonstrative evidence is admissible
A) Emotional
B) Based on speculation
C) Relevant and properly identified
D) Cited by counsel
  • 20. Dying declaration is admissible only if:
A) Made casually before death
B) Made after survival
C) Made in anticipation of death about its cause or circumstances
D) Written by another person
  • 21. A witness must be:
A) Competent and legally qualified
B) Unavailable
C) Neutral and quiet
D) Authorized by both parties
  • 22. A competent witness is one who:
A) Can read and write
B) Can perceive, recollect, and communicate
C) Is intelligent only
D) Is related to the accused
  • 23. Confession refers to:
A) Recognition of guilt in a criminal case
B) Privileged statement
C) Testimony about another’s guilt
D) Declaration against interest
  • 24. Judicial admission is:
A) Out-of-court statement
B) Statement made to police
C) Admission made in court pleadings
D) Admission made in casual conversation
  • 25. An “extra-judicial admission” is:
A) Statement by a judge
B) Testimony made in trial
C) Confession under oath
D) Admission made out of court
  • 26. The rule of competency allows:
A) Any legally qualified person to testify
B) Only police officers to testify
C) No minors as witnesses
D) Only victims to testify
  • 27. Expert witnesses may testify if:
A) They have special knowledge or skill
B) They have personal knowledge
C) They are relatives
D) They are court employees
  • 28. DNA evidence is evaluated based on
A) Age of samples
B) Source reliability only
C) Court preference
D) Proper collection, handling, and analysis
  • 29. A confession is valid even if:
A) Forced
B) Oral or informal
C) Made under torture
D) Anonymous
  • 30. The “totality of circumstances” test evaluates:
A) The certainty and reliability of witness identification
B) Strength of documents
C) Public opinion
D) Quantity of witnesses
  • 31. Hearsay evidence is generally:
A) Always admissible
B) Based on rumor
C) Allowed if written
D) Inadmissible unless covered by exceptions
  • 32. The rule against hearsay aims to:
A) Admit all statements
B) Shorten the trial
C) Support confessions
D) Exclude unreliable secondhand statements
  • 33. An example of hearsay exception is
A) Dying declaration
B) Cross-examination
C) Character evidence
D) Opinion testimony
  • 34. An admission made under oath in another case is called:
A) Extra-judicial admission
B) Judicial admission
C) Privileged declaration
D) Confession
  • 35. A confession obtained through coercion is:
A) Considered documentary evidence
B) Inadmissible
C) Valid if recorded
D) Acceptable
  • 36. Character evidence is generally inadmissible to
A) Show motive
B) Support credibility
C) Indicate intent
D) Prove conduct on a specific occasion
  • 37. The "chain of custody" ensures:
A) Witness credibility
B) Admissibility of confessions
C) Integrity of physical evidence
D) Speedy trial
  • 38. A hostile witness is one who:
A) Shows bias or hostility toward the party calling him
B) Lies under oath
C) Lacks knowledge
D) Refuses to testify
  • 39. The burden of proof lies with:
A) The witness
B) The defense
C) The judge
D) The prosecution
  • 40. The quantum of proof in criminal cases is:
A) Probable cause
B) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
C) Substantial evidence
D) Preponderance of evidence
  • 41. The rule that requires the original document to be presented is:
A) Parol Evidence Rule
B) Hearsay Rule
C) Res Inter Alios Acta
D) Best Evidence Rule
  • 42. A statement made in anticipation of death is
A) Admission
B) Dying Declaration
C) Judicial declaration
D) Dying Inside to Hold you
E) Confession
  • 43. A person who gives evidence in court is called:
A) Witness
B) Expert
C) Judge Nono
D) Complainant
E) Judge
  • 44. The ability of a witness to observe and communicate is called:
A) Competency
B) Intelligence
C) Reliability
D) Credibility
  • 45. The rule preventing the use of oral statements to modify a written contract is:
A) Res Inter Alios Acta
B) Hearsay Rule
C) Best Evidence Rule
D) Parol Evidence Rule
  • 46. A privilege preventing testimony between husband and wife is called:
A) Priest Privilege
B) Physician Privilege
C) Parental Privilege
D) Marital Privilege
  • 47. The privilege protecting communications between doctor and patient is:
A) Parental Privilege
B) Marital Privilege
C) Client-Lawyer Privilege
D) Professional Privilege
E) Physician-Patient Privilege
  • 48. The privilege that protects religious confessions is:
A) Doctor-Patient Privilege
B) Teacher-Student Privilege
C) Spousal Privilege
D) Spiritual Privilege
E) Priest-Penitent Privilege
  • 49. The rule stating that the acts of others cannot prejudice a person is:
A) Res Inter Alios Acta Rule
B) Exa Sec To
C) Parol Evidence Rule
D) Hearsay Rule
E) Best Evidence Rule
  • 50. The rule allowing statements made against one’s own interest to be admissible is:
A) Opinion Rule
B) Admission by Silence
C) Dying against declaration
D) Declaration Against Interest
E) Parol rule evidence
  • 51. Collateral matters are never admissible.
A) Maybe
B) True
C) False
  • 52. A confession can be oral or written.
A) Maybe
B) False
C) True
  • 53. The original document rule is the same as the best evidence rule.
A) Maybe
B) False
C) True
  • 54. Privileged communications promote public policy and confidentiality.
A) False
B) True
C) Maybe
  • 55. Hearsay evidence is generally admissible.
A) True
B) False
C) Maybe
  • 56. An oath is required for every witness before testifying.
A) Maybe
B) True
C) False
  • 57. A dying declaration must relate to the cause or circumstances of death.
A) True
B) False
C) Maybe
  • 58. Expert witnesses must rely only on personal knowledge
A) False
B) Maybe
C) True
  • 59. Spousal immunity can still apply after divorce.
A) Maybe
B) True
C) False
  • 60. Do you think my greatest love shall be mine again?
A) Wala na tol wag kana umasa
B) No comback
C) Yes comback
D) Depende
E) Gusto may mag mahal pero ayaw mag move on aray mo! Alam mo ha
  • 61. which of the following is considered a public or official record under Rule 130?
A) personal diary
B) an email exchange between private citizens
C) A company's internal memo
D) a birth certificate issued by the local by the local civil registrar
  • 62. what does the "mercy rule" generally refer to in the context of character evidence of a victim's good character.
A) The rule prohibiting any character evidence in court
B) the rule allowing the evidence of a defendant's good character to show they are unlikely to have committed the crime
C) the rule allowing evidence of a defendant's good character to show they are unlikely to have committed the crim The rule prohibiting any character evidence in court
D) The rule allowing evidence of a witness's merciful nature.
  • 63. What is the primary characteristic of "character as circumstantial evidence
A) It is always inadmissible in court.
B) It suggests a person acted in a certain way based on their general disposition.
C) It is only used to impeach a witness.
D) It directly proves a key fact in the case.
  • 64. Which of the following best describes the "res inter alios acta rule"
A) Evidence related to transactions or occurrences involving third parties is generally inadmissible.
B) Only documentary evidence is subject to this rule.
C) All evidence, regardless of its source, is admissible as long as it is relevant.
D) Evidence is admissible only if it directly involves the parties in the current case.
  • 65. What is the significance of "learned treatises" in legal evidence?
A) They are only relevant in medical malpractice cases
B) They are never admissible in court.
C) They are always admissible as direct evidence.
D) They can be used to cross-examine expert witnesses.
  • 66. When is "opinion rule" applicable in court?
A) When a witness speculates without factual basis.
B) When an expert witness provides scientific or technical opinions.
C) All of the above
D) When a lay witness offers opinions based on common knowledge.
  • 67. What is the primary purpose of the "reported testimony rule"
A) To encourage witnesses to report crimes.
B) To exclude all prior testimonies from being admitted in court.
C) To permit the use of testimony given in a prior proceeding under certain conditions
D) To allow hearsay evidence without any limitations.
  • 68. Which of the following scenarios involves "character as direct evidence"?
A) Showing a person's reputation for recklessness to prove negligence.
B) Offering evidence of a person's character when character is an essential element of a claim or defense.
C) Introducing evidence of a defendant's violent tendencies to suggest they committed assault.
D) Presenting evidence of a person's honesty to show they are a credible witness.
  • 69. What types of records are typically covered under "public or official records"
A) Personal letters stored in a government archive.
B) Private contracts between individuals
C) Internal memos of a private company.
D) Government agency documents available for public inspection.
  • 70. What is a "commercial list" as it pertains to evidence?
A) A list of items sold in a store.
B) A compilation of data used in a specific industry.
C) A catalog of products for sale online.
D) A list of businesses registered with the government.
  • 71. 1.
    Which of the following is considered a public document?
A) A private diary entry
B) A grocery list kept in personal records
C) A handwritten letter between two individuals
D) A document acknowledged before a notary, excluding wills and testaments
E) A document acknowledged before a notary, excluding wills and testaments
  • 72. 2.
    Public documents include:
A) Records of official acts by foreign countries’ sovereign authorities
B) Personal letters exchanged between friends
C) Private records not required by law to be entered as public records
D) Records of official acts by foreign countries’ sovereign authorities
E) Unacknowledged documents between private parties
  • 73. : Proof of Private Documents

    3.
    Before a private document can be admitted as evidence, due execution and authenticity must be proved by:
A) Only the document creator
B) Anyone who saw the document created or signed
C) Anyone who saw the document created or signed
D) The court judge
E) notary public
  • 74. 4.
    Which of the following is NOT a valid method to prove a private document’s authenticity?
A) Evidence establishing that the document is genuine and free from suspicion
B) Notarization of the document by an attorney
C) Testimony from an individual who recognizes the signature or handwriting
D) Testimony from someone who saw the document created
E) Notarization of the document by an attorney
  • 75. 5.
    Additional evidence of authenticity is not required for a private document if:
A) It was signed in front of a notary public
B) A.      It is over 30 years old and found in the place it would naturally be kept
C) A. It is over 30 years old and found in the place it would naturally be kept
D) It was found in a government office
E) It was sent by registered mail
  • 76. 6.
    A private document may not require additional proof of authenticity if:
A) It was signed by an unknown individual
B) It has remained in its usual place for over 30 years without suspicion of tampering
C) It has been altered in any way
D) It has been lost for more than 30 years
E) C. It has remained in its usual place for over 30 years without suspicion of tampering
  • 77. 7.
    The genuineness of handwriting may be proved by:
A) Only the person whose handwriting it is
B) Any witness who has seen the person write before
C) Any witness who has seen the person write before
D) A government official
E) A certified handwriting analyst
  • 78. 8.
    Which of the following can establish a witness’s knowledge of handwriting?
A) Seeing the person write only once
B) Watching the person write on multiple occasions and becoming familiar with it
C) Comparing the handwriting with an unrelated sample
D) Watching the person write on multiple occasions and becoming familiar with it
E) Having read similar documents before
  • 79. 9.
    In court, public documents are considered:
A) Inadmissible unless notarized
B) Prima facie evidence of stated facts
C) Prima facie evidence of stated facts
D) Secondary evidence needing corroboration
E) Private evidence needing verification
  • 80. 10.
    For foreign public records to be admissible in Philippine courts, they must be:
A) Certified by an embassy or consul if there’s no treaty
B) Certified by an embassy or consul if there’s no treaty
C) Verified by at least two witnesses
D) Notarized within the Philippines
E) Accompanied by a seal of the foreign country
  • 81. 11.
    An attestation of a copy must state:
A) The copy is an accurate copy of the original or specific part
B) The copy is a public document
C) The copy is an accurate copy of the original or specific part
D) None of the above
E) That the copy is certified by the Supreme Court
  • 82. 12.
    Who is authorized to provide the attestation of a document?
A) The officer with legal custody of the document or their deputy
B) A private individual designated by the parties involved
C) The officer with legal custody of the document or their deputy
D) Any individual who has access to the document
E)   The head of a department
  • 83. 13.
    A public record may be removed from the office in which it is kept:
A) When the office is undergoing renovations
B) If there’s a pending court case requiring its inspection
C) Only with permission from the president
D) For personal inspection by the document owner
E) If there’s a pending court case requiring its inspection
  • 84. 14.
    Who is authorized to prepare a public record of a private document?
A) An authorized public official
B) Any court officer
C) Any individual who owns the document
D) A private notary
E) An authorized public official
  • 85. 15.
    Why might a private document be entered as a public record?
A) To make it available for historical records
B) To provide prima facie evidence of its authenticity in legal proceedings
C) To provide prima facie evidence of its authenticity in legal proceedings
D) To fulfill a requirement by private individuals
E) To allow easy access to the public
  • 86. 16. In which of the following cases can a party present evidence to modify, explain, or add to a written agreement?
A) If the agreement has been signed by both parties.D. If the agreement is more than five years old.
B) If one party changes their mind about the agreement terms
C) If there is a verified pleading showing ambiguity, mistake, or failure to express intent.
D) If there is a verified pleading showing ambiguity, mistake, or failure to express intent.
E) If the agreement is more than five years old.
  • 87. 17. According to the legal meaning rule, how should the language of a writing be interpreted?
A) According to the location where it was executed, unless intended otherwise.
B) According to the strictest legal definition possible.
C) According to the most common understanding of the terms.
D) According to the intention of the parties, regardless of location.
E) According to the location where it was executed, unless intended otherwise.
  • 88. 18. When an instrumet has multiple provisions or particulars, how should it be construed?
A) By giving effect to all provisions, if possible.
B) By asking the parties to clarify the meaning
C) By giving effect to all provisions, if possible.
D) By prioritizing the first provision.
E) By ignoring any contradictory provisions.
  • 89. 19. How should conflicting general and particular provisions in an instrument be interpreted?
A) The general intent of the document should be rewritten
B) The particular provisions should always prevail.
C) The court should disregard both provisions.
D) The general provisions should always prevail.
E) The particular provisions should always prevail.
  • 90. 20. How should a document be interpreted in relation to the circumstances of its creation?
A) Without regard to any external factors.
B) By considering the situation of the subject and the parties.
C) According to the personal preferences of the judge.
D) Only by the literal meaning of the words used.
E) By considering the situation of the subject and the parties.
  • 91. 21. If terms in a document have a peculiar signification, how should they be interpreted?
A) Based on the judge’s interpretation alone.
B) According to their primary and general meaning only.
C) According to their technical or special meaning, if known by the parties.
D) By disregarding any peculiar or technical significance.
E) According to their technical or special meaning, if known by the parties.
  • 92. 22. When an instrument contains contradictory terms, which should be preferred?
A) The latter of the two terms
B) The latter of the two terms.
C) The term that appears first.
D) The term with the most support from outside evidence.
E) The term that aligns with the intent of one party.
  • 93. 23. When might experts or interpreters be needed to explain a written instrument?
A) When it is difficult to decipher or in an unfamiliar language.
B) When it contains legal jargon only.
C) When it is written in ordinary language.
D) When it is difficult to decipher or in an unfamiliar language
E) When both parties request an interpreter.
  • 94. 24.If an agreement term is understood differently by each party, which interpretation should prevail?
A) The interpretation most beneficial to the party in breach of the agreement.
B) The interpretation least favorable to the party who proposed the term.
C) The interpretation most favorable to the party for whom the provision was made.
D) The interpretation most favorable to the party for whom the provision was made.
E) The interpretation that both parties initially agreed upon.
  • 95. What are the four conditions required for a litigant to produce evidence in court?
A) Relevance, materiality, admissibility, and competency
B) Personal knowledge, perception, recollection, and narration
C) Authenticity, reliability, credibility, and weight
D) Existence, termination, power, and loss
  • 96. What are the three channels through which tribunals acquire information for their decisions?
A) Testimony, exhibits, and arguments
B) Investigations, trials, and appeals
C) Witnesses, documents, and inspection
D) Pleadings, motions, and evidence
  • 97. What is the highest order of evidence?
A) Real evidence
B) Circumstantial evidence
C) Documentary evidence
D) Testimonial evidence
  • 98. How is a photograph typically authenticated?
A) By a witness who can identify the subject
B) By comparing it to other photographs
C) By a forensic expert's analysis
D) By the photographer's testimony
  • 99. What is the "totality of circumstances" test used for?
A) Identifying the perpetrator of a crime
B) Assessing the credibility of a witness
C) Determining the admissibility of evidence
D) Evaluating the weight of evidence
  • 100. What is the purpose of an ocular inspection?
A) To verify the authenticity of evidence
B) To examine the crime scene
C) To identify the accused
D) To determine the cause of death
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