ThatQuiz Test Library Take this test now
Cevide 2
Contributed by: Cast
  • 1. For evidence to be admissible, it must be:
A) Material and voluntary
B) Competent and credible
C) Relevant and competent
D) Relevant and material
  • 2. Collateral matters are admissible when they tend to:
A) Confuse the issue
B) Disprove all evidence
C) Support witness credibility only
D) Establish probability or improbability of a fact in issue
  • 3. Real evidence is also called:
A) Oral evidence
B) Demonstrative evidence
C) Secondary evidence
D) Object evidence
  • 4. Real evidence is considered
A) The weakest form of proof
B) Circumstantial evidence
C) Testimonial evidence
D) The highest order of evidence
  • 5. Testimonial evidence refers to:
A) Documentary proof
B) Objects presented to the court
C) Circumstantial demonstration
D) Statements given by witnesses under oath
  • 6. The “best evidence rule” requires
A) Oral testimony of document contents
B) Hearsay testimony
C) Presentation of the original document
D) Submission of any copy
  • 7. Parol evidence rule applies to:
A) Written contracts
B) Electronic communications
C) Oral contracts
D) Testimonies only
  • 8. Documentary evidence refers to
A) Oral declarations
B) Objects and materials
C) Written documents presented in court
D) Witness testimony
  • 9. The “Res inter alios acta” rule means
A) Acts of others cannot prejudice another
B) Confidential evidence is protected
C) Hearsay statements are valid
D) Admissions apply to all
  • 10. Admission by silence means:
A) Failure to deny implies consent
B) Only verbal admissions are valid
C) Applies only to written statements
D) Silence is never an admission
  • 11. The “Mercy Rule” allows an accused to:
A) Prove innocence by silence
B) Withhold testimony
C) Prove good moral character pertinent to the offense
D) Avoid cross-examination
  • 12. Privileged communication is based on
A) Confidentiality and public policy
B) Common interest
C) Mutual understanding
D) Lack of relevance
  • 13. Marital privilege applies:
A) During or after marriage
B) Only before marriage
C) Only if both spouses testify
D) Only if requested by prosecution
  • 14. Spousal immunity can be invoked:
A) By any relative
B) Before marriage
C) Only while the marriage subsists
D) After marriage
  • 15. Filial privilege prevents:
A) Priests from testifying
B) A child from testifying against parents
C) Teachers from testifying
D) Parents from testifying against neighbors
  • 16. The priest-penitent privilege protects:
A) Confessions made in confidence during religious discipline
B) Gossip about religious leaders
C) Public confessions
D) Anonymous statements
  • 17. Physician-patient privilege aims to:
A) Disallow expert witnesses
B) Protect hospital reputation
C) Encourage full disclosure for treatment
D) Prevent medical records in court
  • 18. The “Best Evidence Rule” is also called:
A) Parol rule
B) Competency rule
C) Hearsay rule
D) Original document rule
  • 19. Demonstrative evidence is admissible
A) Based on speculation
B) Cited by counsel
C) Relevant and properly identified
D) Emotional
  • 20. Dying declaration is admissible only if:
A) Made after survival
B) Made casually before death
C) Written by another person
D) Made in anticipation of death about its cause or circumstances
  • 21. A witness must be:
A) Authorized by both parties
B) Competent and legally qualified
C) Unavailable
D) Neutral and quiet
  • 22. A competent witness is one who:
A) Is related to the accused
B) Is intelligent only
C) Can perceive, recollect, and communicate
D) Can read and write
  • 23. Confession refers to:
A) Privileged statement
B) Declaration against interest
C) Recognition of guilt in a criminal case
D) Testimony about another’s guilt
  • 24. Judicial admission is:
A) Admission made in casual conversation
B) Out-of-court statement
C) Statement made to police
D) Admission made in court pleadings
  • 25. An “extra-judicial admission” is:
A) Confession under oath
B) Admission made out of court
C) Statement by a judge
D) Testimony made in trial
  • 26. The rule of competency allows:
A) Only police officers to testify
B) No minors as witnesses
C) Any legally qualified person to testify
D) Only victims to testify
  • 27. Expert witnesses may testify if:
A) They are relatives
B) They have special knowledge or skill
C) They are court employees
D) They have personal knowledge
  • 28. DNA evidence is evaluated based on
A) Age of samples
B) Source reliability only
C) Court preference
D) Proper collection, handling, and analysis
  • 29. A confession is valid even if:
A) Oral or informal
B) Made under torture
C) Forced
D) Anonymous
  • 30. The “totality of circumstances” test evaluates:
A) The certainty and reliability of witness identification
B) Public opinion
C) Strength of documents
D) Quantity of witnesses
  • 31. Hearsay evidence is generally:
A) Inadmissible unless covered by exceptions
B) Based on rumor
C) Always admissible
D) Allowed if written
  • 32. The rule against hearsay aims to:
A) Admit all statements
B) Exclude unreliable secondhand statements
C) Support confessions
D) Shorten the trial
  • 33. An example of hearsay exception is
A) Cross-examination
B) Character evidence
C) Dying declaration
D) Opinion testimony
  • 34. An admission made under oath in another case is called:
A) Privileged declaration
B) Judicial admission
C) Extra-judicial admission
D) Confession
  • 35. A confession obtained through coercion is:
A) Considered documentary evidence
B) Valid if recorded
C) Inadmissible
D) Acceptable
  • 36. Character evidence is generally inadmissible to
A) Indicate intent
B) Prove conduct on a specific occasion
C) Support credibility
D) Show motive
  • 37. The "chain of custody" ensures:
A) Speedy trial
B) Integrity of physical evidence
C) Admissibility of confessions
D) Witness credibility
  • 38. A hostile witness is one who:
A) Shows bias or hostility toward the party calling him
B) Refuses to testify
C) Lacks knowledge
D) Lies under oath
  • 39. The burden of proof lies with:
A) The defense
B) The prosecution
C) The judge
D) The witness
  • 40. The quantum of proof in criminal cases is:
A) Probable cause
B) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
C) Preponderance of evidence
D) Substantial evidence
  • 41. The rule that requires the original document to be presented is:
A) Parol Evidence Rule
B) Hearsay Rule
C) Best Evidence Rule
D) Res Inter Alios Acta
  • 42. A statement made in anticipation of death is
A) Dying Inside to Hold you
B) Confession
C) Admission
D) Dying Declaration
E) Judicial declaration
  • 43. A person who gives evidence in court is called:
A) Witness
B) Complainant
C) Judge
D) Judge Nono
E) Expert
  • 44. The ability of a witness to observe and communicate is called:
A) Intelligence
B) Reliability
C) Credibility
D) Competency
  • 45. The rule preventing the use of oral statements to modify a written contract is:
A) Res Inter Alios Acta
B) Hearsay Rule
C) Parol Evidence Rule
D) Best Evidence Rule
  • 46. A privilege preventing testimony between husband and wife is called:
A) Physician Privilege
B) Parental Privilege
C) Priest Privilege
D) Marital Privilege
  • 47. The privilege protecting communications between doctor and patient is:
A) Client-Lawyer Privilege
B) Professional Privilege
C) Marital Privilege
D) Parental Privilege
E) Physician-Patient Privilege
  • 48. The privilege that protects religious confessions is:
A) Spiritual Privilege
B) Teacher-Student Privilege
C) Doctor-Patient Privilege
D) Spousal Privilege
E) Priest-Penitent Privilege
  • 49. The rule stating that the acts of others cannot prejudice a person is:
A) Exa Sec To
B) Best Evidence Rule
C) Res Inter Alios Acta Rule
D) Parol Evidence Rule
E) Hearsay Rule
  • 50. The rule allowing statements made against one’s own interest to be admissible is:
A) Dying against declaration
B) Admission by Silence
C) Opinion Rule
D) Parol rule evidence
E) Declaration Against Interest
  • 51. Collateral matters are never admissible.
A) False
B) True
C) Maybe
  • 52. A confession can be oral or written.
A) True
B) False
C) Maybe
  • 53. The original document rule is the same as the best evidence rule.
A) Maybe
B) False
C) True
  • 54. Privileged communications promote public policy and confidentiality.
A) True
B) False
C) Maybe
  • 55. Hearsay evidence is generally admissible.
A) False
B) True
C) Maybe
  • 56. An oath is required for every witness before testifying.
A) False
B) Maybe
C) True
  • 57. A dying declaration must relate to the cause or circumstances of death.
A) True
B) False
C) Maybe
  • 58. Expert witnesses must rely only on personal knowledge
A) True
B) False
C) Maybe
  • 59. Spousal immunity can still apply after divorce.
A) False
B) True
C) Maybe
  • 60. Do you think my greatest love shall be mine again?
A) Wala na tol wag kana umasa
B) Gusto may mag mahal pero ayaw mag move on aray mo! Alam mo ha
C) Yes comback
D) Depende
E) No comback
  • 61. which of the following is considered a public or official record under Rule 130?
A) A company's internal memo
B) an email exchange between private citizens
C) personal diary
D) a birth certificate issued by the local by the local civil registrar
  • 62. what does the "mercy rule" generally refer to in the context of character evidence of a victim's good character.
A) the rule allowing evidence of a defendant's good character to show they are unlikely to have committed the crim The rule prohibiting any character evidence in court
B) The rule prohibiting any character evidence in court
C) the rule allowing the evidence of a defendant's good character to show they are unlikely to have committed the crime
D) The rule allowing evidence of a witness's merciful nature.
  • 63. What is the primary characteristic of "character as circumstantial evidence
A) It is always inadmissible in court.
B) It suggests a person acted in a certain way based on their general disposition.
C) It is only used to impeach a witness.
D) It directly proves a key fact in the case.
  • 64. Which of the following best describes the "res inter alios acta rule"
A) Evidence related to transactions or occurrences involving third parties is generally inadmissible.
B) All evidence, regardless of its source, is admissible as long as it is relevant.
C) Only documentary evidence is subject to this rule.
D) Evidence is admissible only if it directly involves the parties in the current case.
  • 65. What is the significance of "learned treatises" in legal evidence?
A) They are only relevant in medical malpractice cases
B) They are never admissible in court.
C) They can be used to cross-examine expert witnesses.
D) They are always admissible as direct evidence.
  • 66. When is "opinion rule" applicable in court?
A) When an expert witness provides scientific or technical opinions.
B) When a witness speculates without factual basis.
C) When a lay witness offers opinions based on common knowledge.
D) All of the above
  • 67. What is the primary purpose of the "reported testimony rule"
A) To encourage witnesses to report crimes.
B) To permit the use of testimony given in a prior proceeding under certain conditions
C) To allow hearsay evidence without any limitations.
D) To exclude all prior testimonies from being admitted in court.
  • 68. Which of the following scenarios involves "character as direct evidence"?
A) Introducing evidence of a defendant's violent tendencies to suggest they committed assault.
B) Offering evidence of a person's character when character is an essential element of a claim or defense.
C) Presenting evidence of a person's honesty to show they are a credible witness.
D) Showing a person's reputation for recklessness to prove negligence.
  • 69. What types of records are typically covered under "public or official records"
A) Internal memos of a private company.
B) Personal letters stored in a government archive.
C) Private contracts between individuals
D) Government agency documents available for public inspection.
  • 70. What is a "commercial list" as it pertains to evidence?
A) A compilation of data used in a specific industry.
B) A list of businesses registered with the government.
C) A catalog of products for sale online.
D) A list of items sold in a store.
  • 71. 1.
    Which of the following is considered a public document?
A) A handwritten letter between two individuals
B) A grocery list kept in personal records
C) A document acknowledged before a notary, excluding wills and testaments
D) A document acknowledged before a notary, excluding wills and testaments
E) A private diary entry
  • 72. 2.
    Public documents include:
A) Personal letters exchanged between friends
B) Records of official acts by foreign countries’ sovereign authorities
C) Unacknowledged documents between private parties
D) Records of official acts by foreign countries’ sovereign authorities
E) Private records not required by law to be entered as public records
  • 73. : Proof of Private Documents

    3.
    Before a private document can be admitted as evidence, due execution and authenticity must be proved by:
A) notary public
B) Anyone who saw the document created or signed
C) The court judge
D) Anyone who saw the document created or signed
E) Only the document creator
  • 74. 4.
    Which of the following is NOT a valid method to prove a private document’s authenticity?
A) Evidence establishing that the document is genuine and free from suspicion
B) Notarization of the document by an attorney
C) Notarization of the document by an attorney
D) Testimony from someone who saw the document created
E) Testimony from an individual who recognizes the signature or handwriting
  • 75. 5.
    Additional evidence of authenticity is not required for a private document if:
A) It was found in a government office
B) A. It is over 30 years old and found in the place it would naturally be kept
C) A.      It is over 30 years old and found in the place it would naturally be kept
D) It was sent by registered mail
E) It was signed in front of a notary public
  • 76. 6.
    A private document may not require additional proof of authenticity if:
A) It was signed by an unknown individual
B) C. It has remained in its usual place for over 30 years without suspicion of tampering
C) It has been lost for more than 30 years
D) It has remained in its usual place for over 30 years without suspicion of tampering
E) It has been altered in any way
  • 77. 7.
    The genuineness of handwriting may be proved by:
A) Any witness who has seen the person write before
B) Only the person whose handwriting it is
C) A government official
D) Any witness who has seen the person write before
E) A certified handwriting analyst
  • 78. 8.
    Which of the following can establish a witness’s knowledge of handwriting?
A) Watching the person write on multiple occasions and becoming familiar with it
B) Comparing the handwriting with an unrelated sample
C) Having read similar documents before
D) Watching the person write on multiple occasions and becoming familiar with it
E) Seeing the person write only once
  • 79. 9.
    In court, public documents are considered:
A) Prima facie evidence of stated facts
B) Prima facie evidence of stated facts
C) Inadmissible unless notarized
D) Private evidence needing verification
E) Secondary evidence needing corroboration
  • 80. 10.
    For foreign public records to be admissible in Philippine courts, they must be:
A) Accompanied by a seal of the foreign country
B) Certified by an embassy or consul if there’s no treaty
C) Certified by an embassy or consul if there’s no treaty
D) Notarized within the Philippines
E) Verified by at least two witnesses
  • 81. 11.
    An attestation of a copy must state:
A) The copy is a public document
B) The copy is an accurate copy of the original or specific part
C) That the copy is certified by the Supreme Court
D) None of the above
E) The copy is an accurate copy of the original or specific part
  • 82. 12.
    Who is authorized to provide the attestation of a document?
A) The officer with legal custody of the document or their deputy
B) The officer with legal custody of the document or their deputy
C)   The head of a department
D) A private individual designated by the parties involved
E) Any individual who has access to the document
  • 83. 13.
    A public record may be removed from the office in which it is kept:
A) For personal inspection by the document owner
B) Only with permission from the president
C) If there’s a pending court case requiring its inspection
D) When the office is undergoing renovations
E) If there’s a pending court case requiring its inspection
  • 84. 14.
    Who is authorized to prepare a public record of a private document?
A) Any court officer
B) An authorized public official
C) An authorized public official
D) A private notary
E) Any individual who owns the document
  • 85. 15.
    Why might a private document be entered as a public record?
A) To fulfill a requirement by private individuals
B) To provide prima facie evidence of its authenticity in legal proceedings
C) To provide prima facie evidence of its authenticity in legal proceedings
D) To allow easy access to the public
E) To make it available for historical records
  • 86. 16. In which of the following cases can a party present evidence to modify, explain, or add to a written agreement?
A) If there is a verified pleading showing ambiguity, mistake, or failure to express intent.
B) If the agreement has been signed by both parties.D. If the agreement is more than five years old.
C) If the agreement is more than five years old.
D) If there is a verified pleading showing ambiguity, mistake, or failure to express intent.
E) If one party changes their mind about the agreement terms
  • 87. 17. According to the legal meaning rule, how should the language of a writing be interpreted?
A) According to the intention of the parties, regardless of location.
B) According to the strictest legal definition possible.
C) According to the most common understanding of the terms.
D) According to the location where it was executed, unless intended otherwise.
E) According to the location where it was executed, unless intended otherwise.
  • 88. 18. When an instrumet has multiple provisions or particulars, how should it be construed?
A) By giving effect to all provisions, if possible.
B) By giving effect to all provisions, if possible.
C) By ignoring any contradictory provisions.
D) By prioritizing the first provision.
E) By asking the parties to clarify the meaning
  • 89. 19. How should conflicting general and particular provisions in an instrument be interpreted?
A) The particular provisions should always prevail.
B) The general intent of the document should be rewritten
C) The court should disregard both provisions.
D) The general provisions should always prevail.
E) The particular provisions should always prevail.
  • 90. 20. How should a document be interpreted in relation to the circumstances of its creation?
A) By considering the situation of the subject and the parties.
B) By considering the situation of the subject and the parties.
C) According to the personal preferences of the judge.
D) Without regard to any external factors.
E) Only by the literal meaning of the words used.
  • 91. 21. If terms in a document have a peculiar signification, how should they be interpreted?
A) Based on the judge’s interpretation alone.
B) According to their technical or special meaning, if known by the parties.
C) By disregarding any peculiar or technical significance.
D) According to their primary and general meaning only.
E) According to their technical or special meaning, if known by the parties.
  • 92. 22. When an instrument contains contradictory terms, which should be preferred?
A) The term that appears first.
B) The term with the most support from outside evidence.
C) The latter of the two terms
D) The term that aligns with the intent of one party.
E) The latter of the two terms.
  • 93. 23. When might experts or interpreters be needed to explain a written instrument?
A) When it contains legal jargon only.
B) When it is difficult to decipher or in an unfamiliar language.
C) When it is difficult to decipher or in an unfamiliar language
D) When it is written in ordinary language.
E) When both parties request an interpreter.
  • 94. 24.If an agreement term is understood differently by each party, which interpretation should prevail?
A) The interpretation most beneficial to the party in breach of the agreement.
B) The interpretation most favorable to the party for whom the provision was made.
C) The interpretation least favorable to the party who proposed the term.
D) The interpretation most favorable to the party for whom the provision was made.
E) The interpretation that both parties initially agreed upon.
  • 95. What are the four conditions required for a litigant to produce evidence in court?
A) Authenticity, reliability, credibility, and weight
B) Existence, termination, power, and loss
C) Personal knowledge, perception, recollection, and narration
D) Relevance, materiality, admissibility, and competency
  • 96. What are the three channels through which tribunals acquire information for their decisions?
A) Witnesses, documents, and inspection
B) Testimony, exhibits, and arguments
C) Investigations, trials, and appeals
D) Pleadings, motions, and evidence
  • 97. What is the highest order of evidence?
A) Circumstantial evidence
B) Documentary evidence
C) Testimonial evidence
D) Real evidence
  • 98. How is a photograph typically authenticated?
A) By comparing it to other photographs
B) By a forensic expert's analysis
C) By the photographer's testimony
D) By a witness who can identify the subject
  • 99. What is the "totality of circumstances" test used for?
A) Identifying the perpetrator of a crime
B) Determining the admissibility of evidence
C) Assessing the credibility of a witness
D) Evaluating the weight of evidence
  • 100. What is the purpose of an ocular inspection?
A) To identify the accused
B) To verify the authenticity of evidence
C) To determine the cause of death
D) To examine the crime scene
Created with That Quiz — the math test generation site with resources for other subject areas.