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Cevide 2 - Quiz
Contributed by: Cast
  • 1. For evidence to be admissible, it must be:
A) Relevant and competent
B) Material and voluntary
C) Relevant and material
D) Competent and credible
  • 2. Collateral matters are admissible when they tend to:
A) Establish probability or improbability of a fact in issue
B) Confuse the issue
C) Disprove all evidence
D) Support witness credibility only
  • 3. Real evidence is also called:
A) Secondary evidence
B) Demonstrative evidence
C) Object evidence
D) Oral evidence
  • 4. Real evidence is considered
A) Testimonial evidence
B) Circumstantial evidence
C) The weakest form of proof
D) The highest order of evidence
  • 5. Testimonial evidence refers to:
A) Documentary proof
B) Circumstantial demonstration
C) Objects presented to the court
D) Statements given by witnesses under oath
  • 6. The “best evidence rule” requires
A) Oral testimony of document contents
B) Submission of any copy
C) Presentation of the original document
D) Hearsay testimony
  • 7. Parol evidence rule applies to:
A) Written contracts
B) Electronic communications
C) Testimonies only
D) Oral contracts
  • 8. Documentary evidence refers to
A) Written documents presented in court
B) Objects and materials
C) Witness testimony
D) Oral declarations
  • 9. The “Res inter alios acta” rule means
A) Confidential evidence is protected
B) Hearsay statements are valid
C) Acts of others cannot prejudice another
D) Admissions apply to all
  • 10. Admission by silence means:
A) Only verbal admissions are valid
B) Failure to deny implies consent
C) Silence is never an admission
D) Applies only to written statements
  • 11. The “Mercy Rule” allows an accused to:
A) Prove good moral character pertinent to the offense
B) Withhold testimony
C) Avoid cross-examination
D) Prove innocence by silence
  • 12. Privileged communication is based on
A) Lack of relevance
B) Common interest
C) Confidentiality and public policy
D) Mutual understanding
  • 13. Marital privilege applies:
A) Only if requested by prosecution
B) During or after marriage
C) Only if both spouses testify
D) Only before marriage
  • 14. Spousal immunity can be invoked:
A) By any relative
B) Only while the marriage subsists
C) Before marriage
D) After marriage
  • 15. Filial privilege prevents:
A) Priests from testifying
B) Teachers from testifying
C) A child from testifying against parents
D) Parents from testifying against neighbors
  • 16. The priest-penitent privilege protects:
A) Gossip about religious leaders
B) Anonymous statements
C) Public confessions
D) Confessions made in confidence during religious discipline
  • 17. Physician-patient privilege aims to:
A) Protect hospital reputation
B) Disallow expert witnesses
C) Encourage full disclosure for treatment
D) Prevent medical records in court
  • 18. The “Best Evidence Rule” is also called:
A) Parol rule
B) Hearsay rule
C) Original document rule
D) Competency rule
  • 19. Demonstrative evidence is admissible
A) Based on speculation
B) Cited by counsel
C) Emotional
D) Relevant and properly identified
  • 20. Dying declaration is admissible only if:
A) Written by another person
B) Made in anticipation of death about its cause or circumstances
C) Made casually before death
D) Made after survival
  • 21. A witness must be:
A) Unavailable
B) Authorized by both parties
C) Competent and legally qualified
D) Neutral and quiet
  • 22. A competent witness is one who:
A) Is related to the accused
B) Can read and write
C) Can perceive, recollect, and communicate
D) Is intelligent only
  • 23. Confession refers to:
A) Privileged statement
B) Testimony about another’s guilt
C) Recognition of guilt in a criminal case
D) Declaration against interest
  • 24. Judicial admission is:
A) Statement made to police
B) Out-of-court statement
C) Admission made in casual conversation
D) Admission made in court pleadings
  • 25. An “extra-judicial admission” is:
A) Testimony made in trial
B) Confession under oath
C) Admission made out of court
D) Statement by a judge
  • 26. The rule of competency allows:
A) Only victims to testify
B) Only police officers to testify
C) No minors as witnesses
D) Any legally qualified person to testify
  • 27. Expert witnesses may testify if:
A) They have special knowledge or skill
B) They are relatives
C) They have personal knowledge
D) They are court employees
  • 28. DNA evidence is evaluated based on
A) Proper collection, handling, and analysis
B) Age of samples
C) Court preference
D) Source reliability only
  • 29. A confession is valid even if:
A) Anonymous
B) Forced
C) Made under torture
D) Oral or informal
  • 30. The “totality of circumstances” test evaluates:
A) Quantity of witnesses
B) The certainty and reliability of witness identification
C) Public opinion
D) Strength of documents
  • 31. Hearsay evidence is generally:
A) Always admissible
B) Inadmissible unless covered by exceptions
C) Based on rumor
D) Allowed if written
  • 32. The rule against hearsay aims to:
A) Support confessions
B) Shorten the trial
C) Exclude unreliable secondhand statements
D) Admit all statements
  • 33. An example of hearsay exception is
A) Opinion testimony
B) Character evidence
C) Cross-examination
D) Dying declaration
  • 34. An admission made under oath in another case is called:
A) Judicial admission
B) Extra-judicial admission
C) Privileged declaration
D) Confession
  • 35. A confession obtained through coercion is:
A) Considered documentary evidence
B) Inadmissible
C) Valid if recorded
D) Acceptable
  • 36. Character evidence is generally inadmissible to
A) Show motive
B) Indicate intent
C) Prove conduct on a specific occasion
D) Support credibility
  • 37. The "chain of custody" ensures:
A) Speedy trial
B) Integrity of physical evidence
C) Admissibility of confessions
D) Witness credibility
  • 38. A hostile witness is one who:
A) Lies under oath
B) Shows bias or hostility toward the party calling him
C) Lacks knowledge
D) Refuses to testify
  • 39. The burden of proof lies with:
A) The prosecution
B) The defense
C) The witness
D) The judge
  • 40. The quantum of proof in criminal cases is:
A) Preponderance of evidence
B) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
C) Probable cause
D) Substantial evidence
  • 41. The rule that requires the original document to be presented is:
A) Res Inter Alios Acta
B) Best Evidence Rule
C) Parol Evidence Rule
D) Hearsay Rule
  • 42. A statement made in anticipation of death is
A) Dying Declaration
B) Admission
C) Confession
D) Judicial declaration
E) Dying Inside to Hold you
  • 43. A person who gives evidence in court is called:
A) Complainant
B) Judge
C) Expert
D) Witness
E) Judge Nono
  • 44. The ability of a witness to observe and communicate is called:
A) Credibility
B) Intelligence
C) Reliability
D) Competency
  • 45. The rule preventing the use of oral statements to modify a written contract is:
A) Hearsay Rule
B) Best Evidence Rule
C) Res Inter Alios Acta
D) Parol Evidence Rule
  • 46. A privilege preventing testimony between husband and wife is called:
A) Parental Privilege
B) Priest Privilege
C) Physician Privilege
D) Marital Privilege
  • 47. The privilege protecting communications between doctor and patient is:
A) Client-Lawyer Privilege
B) Professional Privilege
C) Parental Privilege
D) Physician-Patient Privilege
E) Marital Privilege
  • 48. The privilege that protects religious confessions is:
A) Priest-Penitent Privilege
B) Spiritual Privilege
C) Teacher-Student Privilege
D) Spousal Privilege
E) Doctor-Patient Privilege
  • 49. The rule stating that the acts of others cannot prejudice a person is:
A) Best Evidence Rule
B) Res Inter Alios Acta Rule
C) Parol Evidence Rule
D) Hearsay Rule
E) Exa Sec To
  • 50. The rule allowing statements made against one’s own interest to be admissible is:
A) Dying against declaration
B) Admission by Silence
C) Declaration Against Interest
D) Parol rule evidence
E) Opinion Rule
  • 51. Collateral matters are never admissible.
A) Maybe
B) False
C) True
  • 52. A confession can be oral or written.
A) False
B) Maybe
C) True
  • 53. The original document rule is the same as the best evidence rule.
A) Maybe
B) False
C) True
  • 54. Privileged communications promote public policy and confidentiality.
A) False
B) True
C) Maybe
  • 55. Hearsay evidence is generally admissible.
A) True
B) False
C) Maybe
  • 56. An oath is required for every witness before testifying.
A) True
B) False
C) Maybe
  • 57. A dying declaration must relate to the cause or circumstances of death.
A) Maybe
B) True
C) False
  • 58. Expert witnesses must rely only on personal knowledge
A) Maybe
B) True
C) False
  • 59. Spousal immunity can still apply after divorce.
A) False
B) Maybe
C) True
  • 60. Do you think my greatest love shall be mine again?
A) No comback
B) Yes comback
C) Depende
D) Gusto may mag mahal pero ayaw mag move on aray mo! Alam mo ha
E) Wala na tol wag kana umasa
  • 61. which of the following is considered a public or official record under Rule 130?
A) A company's internal memo
B) a birth certificate issued by the local by the local civil registrar
C) personal diary
D) an email exchange between private citizens
  • 62. what does the "mercy rule" generally refer to in the context of character evidence of a victim's good character.
A) the rule allowing evidence of a defendant's good character to show they are unlikely to have committed the crim The rule prohibiting any character evidence in court
B) The rule prohibiting any character evidence in court
C) the rule allowing the evidence of a defendant's good character to show they are unlikely to have committed the crime
D) The rule allowing evidence of a witness's merciful nature.
  • 63. What is the primary characteristic of "character as circumstantial evidence
A) It is only used to impeach a witness.
B) It is always inadmissible in court.
C) It suggests a person acted in a certain way based on their general disposition.
D) It directly proves a key fact in the case.
  • 64. Which of the following best describes the "res inter alios acta rule"
A) Evidence related to transactions or occurrences involving third parties is generally inadmissible.
B) All evidence, regardless of its source, is admissible as long as it is relevant.
C) Only documentary evidence is subject to this rule.
D) Evidence is admissible only if it directly involves the parties in the current case.
  • 65. What is the significance of "learned treatises" in legal evidence?
A) They are never admissible in court.
B) They can be used to cross-examine expert witnesses.
C) They are always admissible as direct evidence.
D) They are only relevant in medical malpractice cases
  • 66. When is "opinion rule" applicable in court?
A) All of the above
B) When a witness speculates without factual basis.
C) When an expert witness provides scientific or technical opinions.
D) When a lay witness offers opinions based on common knowledge.
  • 67. What is the primary purpose of the "reported testimony rule"
A) To exclude all prior testimonies from being admitted in court.
B) To permit the use of testimony given in a prior proceeding under certain conditions
C) To allow hearsay evidence without any limitations.
D) To encourage witnesses to report crimes.
  • 68. Which of the following scenarios involves "character as direct evidence"?
A) Offering evidence of a person's character when character is an essential element of a claim or defense.
B) Presenting evidence of a person's honesty to show they are a credible witness.
C) Introducing evidence of a defendant's violent tendencies to suggest they committed assault.
D) Showing a person's reputation for recklessness to prove negligence.
  • 69. What types of records are typically covered under "public or official records"
A) Government agency documents available for public inspection.
B) Private contracts between individuals
C) Personal letters stored in a government archive.
D) Internal memos of a private company.
  • 70. What is a "commercial list" as it pertains to evidence?
A) A compilation of data used in a specific industry.
B) A list of businesses registered with the government.
C) A catalog of products for sale online.
D) A list of items sold in a store.
  • 71. 1.
    Which of the following is considered a public document?
A) A private diary entry
B) A document acknowledged before a notary, excluding wills and testaments
C) A document acknowledged before a notary, excluding wills and testaments
D) A handwritten letter between two individuals
E) A grocery list kept in personal records
  • 72. 2.
    Public documents include:
A) Records of official acts by foreign countries’ sovereign authorities
B) Unacknowledged documents between private parties
C) Private records not required by law to be entered as public records
D) Personal letters exchanged between friends
E) Records of official acts by foreign countries’ sovereign authorities
  • 73. : Proof of Private Documents

    3.
    Before a private document can be admitted as evidence, due execution and authenticity must be proved by:
A) notary public
B) Anyone who saw the document created or signed
C) The court judge
D) Anyone who saw the document created or signed
E) Only the document creator
  • 74. 4.
    Which of the following is NOT a valid method to prove a private document’s authenticity?
A) Notarization of the document by an attorney
B) Testimony from someone who saw the document created
C) Testimony from an individual who recognizes the signature or handwriting
D) Notarization of the document by an attorney
E) Evidence establishing that the document is genuine and free from suspicion
  • 75. 5.
    Additional evidence of authenticity is not required for a private document if:
A) It was signed in front of a notary public
B) It was sent by registered mail
C) A.      It is over 30 years old and found in the place it would naturally be kept
D) It was found in a government office
E) A. It is over 30 years old and found in the place it would naturally be kept
  • 76. 6.
    A private document may not require additional proof of authenticity if:
A) C. It has remained in its usual place for over 30 years without suspicion of tampering
B) It has remained in its usual place for over 30 years without suspicion of tampering
C) It has been altered in any way
D) It was signed by an unknown individual
E) It has been lost for more than 30 years
  • 77. 7.
    The genuineness of handwriting may be proved by:
A) A government official
B) Only the person whose handwriting it is
C) Any witness who has seen the person write before
D) A certified handwriting analyst
E) Any witness who has seen the person write before
  • 78. 8.
    Which of the following can establish a witness’s knowledge of handwriting?
A) Having read similar documents before
B) Watching the person write on multiple occasions and becoming familiar with it
C) Watching the person write on multiple occasions and becoming familiar with it
D) Seeing the person write only once
E) Comparing the handwriting with an unrelated sample
  • 79. 9.
    In court, public documents are considered:
A) Private evidence needing verification
B) Inadmissible unless notarized
C) Prima facie evidence of stated facts
D) Prima facie evidence of stated facts
E) Secondary evidence needing corroboration
  • 80. 10.
    For foreign public records to be admissible in Philippine courts, they must be:
A) Verified by at least two witnesses
B) Certified by an embassy or consul if there’s no treaty
C) Certified by an embassy or consul if there’s no treaty
D) Notarized within the Philippines
E) Accompanied by a seal of the foreign country
  • 81. 11.
    An attestation of a copy must state:
A) The copy is an accurate copy of the original or specific part
B) None of the above
C) The copy is an accurate copy of the original or specific part
D) The copy is a public document
E) That the copy is certified by the Supreme Court
  • 82. 12.
    Who is authorized to provide the attestation of a document?
A) The officer with legal custody of the document or their deputy
B) A private individual designated by the parties involved
C) The officer with legal custody of the document or their deputy
D)   The head of a department
E) Any individual who has access to the document
  • 83. 13.
    A public record may be removed from the office in which it is kept:
A) If there’s a pending court case requiring its inspection
B) When the office is undergoing renovations
C) For personal inspection by the document owner
D) Only with permission from the president
E) If there’s a pending court case requiring its inspection
  • 84. 14.
    Who is authorized to prepare a public record of a private document?
A) An authorized public official
B) Any court officer
C) A private notary
D) An authorized public official
E) Any individual who owns the document
  • 85. 15.
    Why might a private document be entered as a public record?
A) To provide prima facie evidence of its authenticity in legal proceedings
B) To allow easy access to the public
C) To fulfill a requirement by private individuals
D) To provide prima facie evidence of its authenticity in legal proceedings
E) To make it available for historical records
  • 86. 16. In which of the following cases can a party present evidence to modify, explain, or add to a written agreement?
A) If there is a verified pleading showing ambiguity, mistake, or failure to express intent.
B) If there is a verified pleading showing ambiguity, mistake, or failure to express intent.
C) If the agreement has been signed by both parties.D. If the agreement is more than five years old.
D) If the agreement is more than five years old.
E) If one party changes their mind about the agreement terms
  • 87. 17. According to the legal meaning rule, how should the language of a writing be interpreted?
A) According to the location where it was executed, unless intended otherwise.
B) According to the intention of the parties, regardless of location.
C) According to the strictest legal definition possible.
D) According to the most common understanding of the terms.
E) According to the location where it was executed, unless intended otherwise.
  • 88. 18. When an instrumet has multiple provisions or particulars, how should it be construed?
A) By prioritizing the first provision.
B) By giving effect to all provisions, if possible.
C) By giving effect to all provisions, if possible.
D) By ignoring any contradictory provisions.
E) By asking the parties to clarify the meaning
  • 89. 19. How should conflicting general and particular provisions in an instrument be interpreted?
A) The particular provisions should always prevail.
B) The court should disregard both provisions.
C) The general provisions should always prevail.
D) The general intent of the document should be rewritten
E) The particular provisions should always prevail.
  • 90. 20. How should a document be interpreted in relation to the circumstances of its creation?
A) According to the personal preferences of the judge.
B) Without regard to any external factors.
C) Only by the literal meaning of the words used.
D) By considering the situation of the subject and the parties.
E) By considering the situation of the subject and the parties.
  • 91. 21. If terms in a document have a peculiar signification, how should they be interpreted?
A) According to their technical or special meaning, if known by the parties.
B) According to their technical or special meaning, if known by the parties.
C) By disregarding any peculiar or technical significance.
D) According to their primary and general meaning only.
E) Based on the judge’s interpretation alone.
  • 92. 22. When an instrument contains contradictory terms, which should be preferred?
A) The term that aligns with the intent of one party.
B) The term with the most support from outside evidence.
C) The term that appears first.
D) The latter of the two terms.
E) The latter of the two terms
  • 93. 23. When might experts or interpreters be needed to explain a written instrument?
A) When it is difficult to decipher or in an unfamiliar language
B) When both parties request an interpreter.
C) When it contains legal jargon only.
D) When it is written in ordinary language.
E) When it is difficult to decipher or in an unfamiliar language.
  • 94. 24.If an agreement term is understood differently by each party, which interpretation should prevail?
A) The interpretation most beneficial to the party in breach of the agreement.
B) The interpretation most favorable to the party for whom the provision was made.
C) The interpretation least favorable to the party who proposed the term.
D) The interpretation that both parties initially agreed upon.
E) The interpretation most favorable to the party for whom the provision was made.
  • 95. What are the four conditions required for a litigant to produce evidence in court?
A) Existence, termination, power, and loss
B) Personal knowledge, perception, recollection, and narration
C) Authenticity, reliability, credibility, and weight
D) Relevance, materiality, admissibility, and competency
  • 96. What are the three channels through which tribunals acquire information for their decisions?
A) Pleadings, motions, and evidence
B) Investigations, trials, and appeals
C) Testimony, exhibits, and arguments
D) Witnesses, documents, and inspection
  • 97. What is the highest order of evidence?
A) Real evidence
B) Documentary evidence
C) Testimonial evidence
D) Circumstantial evidence
  • 98. How is a photograph typically authenticated?
A) By a witness who can identify the subject
B) By a forensic expert's analysis
C) By comparing it to other photographs
D) By the photographer's testimony
  • 99. What is the "totality of circumstances" test used for?
A) Evaluating the weight of evidence
B) Determining the admissibility of evidence
C) Identifying the perpetrator of a crime
D) Assessing the credibility of a witness
  • 100. What is the purpose of an ocular inspection?
A) To identify the accused
B) To verify the authenticity of evidence
C) To examine the crime scene
D) To determine the cause of death
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