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Cevide 2
Contributed by: Cast
  • 1. For evidence to be admissible, it must be:
A) Material and voluntary
B) Competent and credible
C) Relevant and competent
D) Relevant and material
  • 2. Collateral matters are admissible when they tend to:
A) Support witness credibility only
B) Confuse the issue
C) Disprove all evidence
D) Establish probability or improbability of a fact in issue
  • 3. Real evidence is also called:
A) Demonstrative evidence
B) Secondary evidence
C) Object evidence
D) Oral evidence
  • 4. Real evidence is considered
A) The highest order of evidence
B) Testimonial evidence
C) Circumstantial evidence
D) The weakest form of proof
  • 5. Testimonial evidence refers to:
A) Circumstantial demonstration
B) Documentary proof
C) Statements given by witnesses under oath
D) Objects presented to the court
  • 6. The “best evidence rule” requires
A) Presentation of the original document
B) Submission of any copy
C) Hearsay testimony
D) Oral testimony of document contents
  • 7. Parol evidence rule applies to:
A) Electronic communications
B) Oral contracts
C) Testimonies only
D) Written contracts
  • 8. Documentary evidence refers to
A) Oral declarations
B) Witness testimony
C) Written documents presented in court
D) Objects and materials
  • 9. The “Res inter alios acta” rule means
A) Confidential evidence is protected
B) Admissions apply to all
C) Hearsay statements are valid
D) Acts of others cannot prejudice another
  • 10. Admission by silence means:
A) Failure to deny implies consent
B) Only verbal admissions are valid
C) Silence is never an admission
D) Applies only to written statements
  • 11. The “Mercy Rule” allows an accused to:
A) Prove good moral character pertinent to the offense
B) Avoid cross-examination
C) Withhold testimony
D) Prove innocence by silence
  • 12. Privileged communication is based on
A) Lack of relevance
B) Confidentiality and public policy
C) Common interest
D) Mutual understanding
  • 13. Marital privilege applies:
A) Only if both spouses testify
B) Only before marriage
C) During or after marriage
D) Only if requested by prosecution
  • 14. Spousal immunity can be invoked:
A) Only while the marriage subsists
B) Before marriage
C) By any relative
D) After marriage
  • 15. Filial privilege prevents:
A) Parents from testifying against neighbors
B) Priests from testifying
C) A child from testifying against parents
D) Teachers from testifying
  • 16. The priest-penitent privilege protects:
A) Confessions made in confidence during religious discipline
B) Gossip about religious leaders
C) Public confessions
D) Anonymous statements
  • 17. Physician-patient privilege aims to:
A) Protect hospital reputation
B) Encourage full disclosure for treatment
C) Disallow expert witnesses
D) Prevent medical records in court
  • 18. The “Best Evidence Rule” is also called:
A) Hearsay rule
B) Original document rule
C) Parol rule
D) Competency rule
  • 19. Demonstrative evidence is admissible
A) Emotional
B) Based on speculation
C) Relevant and properly identified
D) Cited by counsel
  • 20. Dying declaration is admissible only if:
A) Made casually before death
B) Made in anticipation of death about its cause or circumstances
C) Made after survival
D) Written by another person
  • 21. A witness must be:
A) Unavailable
B) Authorized by both parties
C) Competent and legally qualified
D) Neutral and quiet
  • 22. A competent witness is one who:
A) Is related to the accused
B) Is intelligent only
C) Can perceive, recollect, and communicate
D) Can read and write
  • 23. Confession refers to:
A) Privileged statement
B) Declaration against interest
C) Testimony about another’s guilt
D) Recognition of guilt in a criminal case
  • 24. Judicial admission is:
A) Admission made in casual conversation
B) Statement made to police
C) Admission made in court pleadings
D) Out-of-court statement
  • 25. An “extra-judicial admission” is:
A) Statement by a judge
B) Admission made out of court
C) Confession under oath
D) Testimony made in trial
  • 26. The rule of competency allows:
A) No minors as witnesses
B) Any legally qualified person to testify
C) Only victims to testify
D) Only police officers to testify
  • 27. Expert witnesses may testify if:
A) They have personal knowledge
B) They have special knowledge or skill
C) They are relatives
D) They are court employees
  • 28. DNA evidence is evaluated based on
A) Court preference
B) Age of samples
C) Proper collection, handling, and analysis
D) Source reliability only
  • 29. A confession is valid even if:
A) Anonymous
B) Made under torture
C) Forced
D) Oral or informal
  • 30. The “totality of circumstances” test evaluates:
A) Strength of documents
B) Quantity of witnesses
C) Public opinion
D) The certainty and reliability of witness identification
  • 31. Hearsay evidence is generally:
A) Allowed if written
B) Inadmissible unless covered by exceptions
C) Based on rumor
D) Always admissible
  • 32. The rule against hearsay aims to:
A) Shorten the trial
B) Support confessions
C) Admit all statements
D) Exclude unreliable secondhand statements
  • 33. An example of hearsay exception is
A) Character evidence
B) Dying declaration
C) Cross-examination
D) Opinion testimony
  • 34. An admission made under oath in another case is called:
A) Confession
B) Extra-judicial admission
C) Privileged declaration
D) Judicial admission
  • 35. A confession obtained through coercion is:
A) Acceptable
B) Inadmissible
C) Valid if recorded
D) Considered documentary evidence
  • 36. Character evidence is generally inadmissible to
A) Support credibility
B) Show motive
C) Prove conduct on a specific occasion
D) Indicate intent
  • 37. The "chain of custody" ensures:
A) Speedy trial
B) Admissibility of confessions
C) Witness credibility
D) Integrity of physical evidence
  • 38. A hostile witness is one who:
A) Lies under oath
B) Lacks knowledge
C) Refuses to testify
D) Shows bias or hostility toward the party calling him
  • 39. The burden of proof lies with:
A) The defense
B) The witness
C) The prosecution
D) The judge
  • 40. The quantum of proof in criminal cases is:
A) Preponderance of evidence
B) Substantial evidence
C) Probable cause
D) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
  • 41. The rule that requires the original document to be presented is:
A) Best Evidence Rule
B) Res Inter Alios Acta
C) Hearsay Rule
D) Parol Evidence Rule
  • 42. A statement made in anticipation of death is
A) Confession
B) Judicial declaration
C) Dying Inside to Hold you
D) Admission
E) Dying Declaration
  • 43. A person who gives evidence in court is called:
A) Judge Nono
B) Complainant
C) Judge
D) Expert
E) Witness
  • 44. The ability of a witness to observe and communicate is called:
A) Reliability
B) Intelligence
C) Competency
D) Credibility
  • 45. The rule preventing the use of oral statements to modify a written contract is:
A) Hearsay Rule
B) Parol Evidence Rule
C) Res Inter Alios Acta
D) Best Evidence Rule
  • 46. A privilege preventing testimony between husband and wife is called:
A) Physician Privilege
B) Parental Privilege
C) Marital Privilege
D) Priest Privilege
  • 47. The privilege protecting communications between doctor and patient is:
A) Client-Lawyer Privilege
B) Parental Privilege
C) Professional Privilege
D) Physician-Patient Privilege
E) Marital Privilege
  • 48. The privilege that protects religious confessions is:
A) Teacher-Student Privilege
B) Doctor-Patient Privilege
C) Priest-Penitent Privilege
D) Spiritual Privilege
E) Spousal Privilege
  • 49. The rule stating that the acts of others cannot prejudice a person is:
A) Exa Sec To
B) Hearsay Rule
C) Res Inter Alios Acta Rule
D) Best Evidence Rule
E) Parol Evidence Rule
  • 50. The rule allowing statements made against one’s own interest to be admissible is:
A) Dying against declaration
B) Opinion Rule
C) Admission by Silence
D) Declaration Against Interest
E) Parol rule evidence
  • 51. Collateral matters are never admissible.
A) Maybe
B) False
C) True
  • 52. A confession can be oral or written.
A) Maybe
B) False
C) True
  • 53. The original document rule is the same as the best evidence rule.
A) False
B) True
C) Maybe
  • 54. Privileged communications promote public policy and confidentiality.
A) False
B) True
C) Maybe
  • 55. Hearsay evidence is generally admissible.
A) False
B) Maybe
C) True
  • 56. An oath is required for every witness before testifying.
A) False
B) True
C) Maybe
  • 57. A dying declaration must relate to the cause or circumstances of death.
A) Maybe
B) True
C) False
  • 58. Expert witnesses must rely only on personal knowledge
A) False
B) Maybe
C) True
  • 59. Spousal immunity can still apply after divorce.
A) False
B) True
C) Maybe
  • 60. Do you think my greatest love shall be mine again?
A) No comback
B) Wala na tol wag kana umasa
C) Yes comback
D) Gusto may mag mahal pero ayaw mag move on aray mo! Alam mo ha
E) Depende
  • 61. which of the following is considered a public or official record under Rule 130?
A) personal diary
B) an email exchange between private citizens
C) A company's internal memo
D) a birth certificate issued by the local by the local civil registrar
  • 62. what does the "mercy rule" generally refer to in the context of character evidence of a victim's good character.
A) the rule allowing the evidence of a defendant's good character to show they are unlikely to have committed the crime
B) The rule prohibiting any character evidence in court
C) The rule allowing evidence of a witness's merciful nature.
D) the rule allowing evidence of a defendant's good character to show they are unlikely to have committed the crim The rule prohibiting any character evidence in court
  • 63. What is the primary characteristic of "character as circumstantial evidence
A) It directly proves a key fact in the case.
B) It suggests a person acted in a certain way based on their general disposition.
C) It is always inadmissible in court.
D) It is only used to impeach a witness.
  • 64. Which of the following best describes the "res inter alios acta rule"
A) All evidence, regardless of its source, is admissible as long as it is relevant.
B) Only documentary evidence is subject to this rule.
C) Evidence related to transactions or occurrences involving third parties is generally inadmissible.
D) Evidence is admissible only if it directly involves the parties in the current case.
  • 65. What is the significance of "learned treatises" in legal evidence?
A) They can be used to cross-examine expert witnesses.
B) They are only relevant in medical malpractice cases
C) They are always admissible as direct evidence.
D) They are never admissible in court.
  • 66. When is "opinion rule" applicable in court?
A) When a lay witness offers opinions based on common knowledge.
B) When an expert witness provides scientific or technical opinions.
C) All of the above
D) When a witness speculates without factual basis.
  • 67. What is the primary purpose of the "reported testimony rule"
A) To encourage witnesses to report crimes.
B) To allow hearsay evidence without any limitations.
C) To exclude all prior testimonies from being admitted in court.
D) To permit the use of testimony given in a prior proceeding under certain conditions
  • 68. Which of the following scenarios involves "character as direct evidence"?
A) Introducing evidence of a defendant's violent tendencies to suggest they committed assault.
B) Presenting evidence of a person's honesty to show they are a credible witness.
C) Offering evidence of a person's character when character is an essential element of a claim or defense.
D) Showing a person's reputation for recklessness to prove negligence.
  • 69. What types of records are typically covered under "public or official records"
A) Private contracts between individuals
B) Internal memos of a private company.
C) Personal letters stored in a government archive.
D) Government agency documents available for public inspection.
  • 70. What is a "commercial list" as it pertains to evidence?
A) A compilation of data used in a specific industry.
B) A list of items sold in a store.
C) A catalog of products for sale online.
D) A list of businesses registered with the government.
  • 71. 1.
    Which of the following is considered a public document?
A) A grocery list kept in personal records
B) A handwritten letter between two individuals
C) A document acknowledged before a notary, excluding wills and testaments
D) A document acknowledged before a notary, excluding wills and testaments
E) A private diary entry
  • 72. 2.
    Public documents include:
A) Private records not required by law to be entered as public records
B) Unacknowledged documents between private parties
C) Personal letters exchanged between friends
D) Records of official acts by foreign countries’ sovereign authorities
E) Records of official acts by foreign countries’ sovereign authorities
  • 73. : Proof of Private Documents

    3.
    Before a private document can be admitted as evidence, due execution and authenticity must be proved by:
A) Only the document creator
B) The court judge
C) notary public
D) Anyone who saw the document created or signed
E) Anyone who saw the document created or signed
  • 74. 4.
    Which of the following is NOT a valid method to prove a private document’s authenticity?
A) Testimony from someone who saw the document created
B) Notarization of the document by an attorney
C) Testimony from an individual who recognizes the signature or handwriting
D) Notarization of the document by an attorney
E) Evidence establishing that the document is genuine and free from suspicion
  • 75. 5.
    Additional evidence of authenticity is not required for a private document if:
A) It was signed in front of a notary public
B) A. It is over 30 years old and found in the place it would naturally be kept
C) It was sent by registered mail
D) It was found in a government office
E) A.      It is over 30 years old and found in the place it would naturally be kept
  • 76. 6.
    A private document may not require additional proof of authenticity if:
A) It has been altered in any way
B) C. It has remained in its usual place for over 30 years without suspicion of tampering
C) It was signed by an unknown individual
D) It has remained in its usual place for over 30 years without suspicion of tampering
E) It has been lost for more than 30 years
  • 77. 7.
    The genuineness of handwriting may be proved by:
A) Any witness who has seen the person write before
B) A government official
C) A certified handwriting analyst
D) Only the person whose handwriting it is
E) Any witness who has seen the person write before
  • 78. 8.
    Which of the following can establish a witness’s knowledge of handwriting?
A) Comparing the handwriting with an unrelated sample
B) Watching the person write on multiple occasions and becoming familiar with it
C) Having read similar documents before
D) Seeing the person write only once
E) Watching the person write on multiple occasions and becoming familiar with it
  • 79. 9.
    In court, public documents are considered:
A) Private evidence needing verification
B) Prima facie evidence of stated facts
C) Secondary evidence needing corroboration
D) Prima facie evidence of stated facts
E) Inadmissible unless notarized
  • 80. 10.
    For foreign public records to be admissible in Philippine courts, they must be:
A) Accompanied by a seal of the foreign country
B) Certified by an embassy or consul if there’s no treaty
C) Notarized within the Philippines
D) Verified by at least two witnesses
E) Certified by an embassy or consul if there’s no treaty
  • 81. 11.
    An attestation of a copy must state:
A) None of the above
B) The copy is an accurate copy of the original or specific part
C) That the copy is certified by the Supreme Court
D) The copy is an accurate copy of the original or specific part
E) The copy is a public document
  • 82. 12.
    Who is authorized to provide the attestation of a document?
A) The officer with legal custody of the document or their deputy
B) The officer with legal custody of the document or their deputy
C) Any individual who has access to the document
D)   The head of a department
E) A private individual designated by the parties involved
  • 83. 13.
    A public record may be removed from the office in which it is kept:
A) If there’s a pending court case requiring its inspection
B) If there’s a pending court case requiring its inspection
C) When the office is undergoing renovations
D) Only with permission from the president
E) For personal inspection by the document owner
  • 84. 14.
    Who is authorized to prepare a public record of a private document?
A) Any individual who owns the document
B) Any court officer
C) A private notary
D) An authorized public official
E) An authorized public official
  • 85. 15.
    Why might a private document be entered as a public record?
A) To provide prima facie evidence of its authenticity in legal proceedings
B) To make it available for historical records
C) To fulfill a requirement by private individuals
D) To allow easy access to the public
E) To provide prima facie evidence of its authenticity in legal proceedings
  • 86. 16. In which of the following cases can a party present evidence to modify, explain, or add to a written agreement?
A) If there is a verified pleading showing ambiguity, mistake, or failure to express intent.
B) If the agreement is more than five years old.
C) If the agreement has been signed by both parties.D. If the agreement is more than five years old.
D) If one party changes their mind about the agreement terms
E) If there is a verified pleading showing ambiguity, mistake, or failure to express intent.
  • 87. 17. According to the legal meaning rule, how should the language of a writing be interpreted?
A) According to the strictest legal definition possible.
B) According to the location where it was executed, unless intended otherwise.
C) According to the most common understanding of the terms.
D) According to the intention of the parties, regardless of location.
E) According to the location where it was executed, unless intended otherwise.
  • 88. 18. When an instrumet has multiple provisions or particulars, how should it be construed?
A) By ignoring any contradictory provisions.
B) By giving effect to all provisions, if possible.
C) By asking the parties to clarify the meaning
D) By prioritizing the first provision.
E) By giving effect to all provisions, if possible.
  • 89. 19. How should conflicting general and particular provisions in an instrument be interpreted?
A) The particular provisions should always prevail.
B) The court should disregard both provisions.
C) The particular provisions should always prevail.
D) The general provisions should always prevail.
E) The general intent of the document should be rewritten
  • 90. 20. How should a document be interpreted in relation to the circumstances of its creation?
A) By considering the situation of the subject and the parties.
B) By considering the situation of the subject and the parties.
C) According to the personal preferences of the judge.
D) Only by the literal meaning of the words used.
E) Without regard to any external factors.
  • 91. 21. If terms in a document have a peculiar signification, how should they be interpreted?
A) By disregarding any peculiar or technical significance.
B) According to their technical or special meaning, if known by the parties.
C) According to their primary and general meaning only.
D) Based on the judge’s interpretation alone.
E) According to their technical or special meaning, if known by the parties.
  • 92. 22. When an instrument contains contradictory terms, which should be preferred?
A) The term that appears first.
B) The term with the most support from outside evidence.
C) The latter of the two terms.
D) The term that aligns with the intent of one party.
E) The latter of the two terms
  • 93. 23. When might experts or interpreters be needed to explain a written instrument?
A) When it is difficult to decipher or in an unfamiliar language
B) When it is difficult to decipher or in an unfamiliar language.
C) When it is written in ordinary language.
D) When both parties request an interpreter.
E) When it contains legal jargon only.
  • 94. 24.If an agreement term is understood differently by each party, which interpretation should prevail?
A) The interpretation most favorable to the party for whom the provision was made.
B) The interpretation least favorable to the party who proposed the term.
C) The interpretation most favorable to the party for whom the provision was made.
D) The interpretation most beneficial to the party in breach of the agreement.
E) The interpretation that both parties initially agreed upon.
  • 95. What are the four conditions required for a litigant to produce evidence in court?
A) Relevance, materiality, admissibility, and competency
B) Authenticity, reliability, credibility, and weight
C) Personal knowledge, perception, recollection, and narration
D) Existence, termination, power, and loss
  • 96. What are the three channels through which tribunals acquire information for their decisions?
A) Pleadings, motions, and evidence
B) Testimony, exhibits, and arguments
C) Investigations, trials, and appeals
D) Witnesses, documents, and inspection
  • 97. What is the highest order of evidence?
A) Real evidence
B) Testimonial evidence
C) Circumstantial evidence
D) Documentary evidence
  • 98. How is a photograph typically authenticated?
A) By comparing it to other photographs
B) By a witness who can identify the subject
C) By the photographer's testimony
D) By a forensic expert's analysis
  • 99. What is the "totality of circumstances" test used for?
A) Assessing the credibility of a witness
B) Determining the admissibility of evidence
C) Evaluating the weight of evidence
D) Identifying the perpetrator of a crime
  • 100. What is the purpose of an ocular inspection?
A) To verify the authenticity of evidence
B) To determine the cause of death
C) To examine the crime scene
D) To identify the accused
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