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Cevide 2
Contributed by: Cast
  • 1. For evidence to be admissible, it must be:
A) Relevant and competent
B) Relevant and material
C) Competent and credible
D) Material and voluntary
  • 2. Collateral matters are admissible when they tend to:
A) Confuse the issue
B) Disprove all evidence
C) Establish probability or improbability of a fact in issue
D) Support witness credibility only
  • 3. Real evidence is also called:
A) Object evidence
B) Demonstrative evidence
C) Oral evidence
D) Secondary evidence
  • 4. Real evidence is considered
A) The weakest form of proof
B) Circumstantial evidence
C) Testimonial evidence
D) The highest order of evidence
  • 5. Testimonial evidence refers to:
A) Circumstantial demonstration
B) Statements given by witnesses under oath
C) Documentary proof
D) Objects presented to the court
  • 6. The “best evidence rule” requires
A) Presentation of the original document
B) Oral testimony of document contents
C) Hearsay testimony
D) Submission of any copy
  • 7. Parol evidence rule applies to:
A) Written contracts
B) Electronic communications
C) Oral contracts
D) Testimonies only
  • 8. Documentary evidence refers to
A) Objects and materials
B) Witness testimony
C) Oral declarations
D) Written documents presented in court
  • 9. The “Res inter alios acta” rule means
A) Hearsay statements are valid
B) Admissions apply to all
C) Confidential evidence is protected
D) Acts of others cannot prejudice another
  • 10. Admission by silence means:
A) Only verbal admissions are valid
B) Failure to deny implies consent
C) Silence is never an admission
D) Applies only to written statements
  • 11. The “Mercy Rule” allows an accused to:
A) Withhold testimony
B) Avoid cross-examination
C) Prove innocence by silence
D) Prove good moral character pertinent to the offense
  • 12. Privileged communication is based on
A) Confidentiality and public policy
B) Lack of relevance
C) Mutual understanding
D) Common interest
  • 13. Marital privilege applies:
A) Only before marriage
B) During or after marriage
C) Only if requested by prosecution
D) Only if both spouses testify
  • 14. Spousal immunity can be invoked:
A) Only while the marriage subsists
B) By any relative
C) Before marriage
D) After marriage
  • 15. Filial privilege prevents:
A) A child from testifying against parents
B) Parents from testifying against neighbors
C) Priests from testifying
D) Teachers from testifying
  • 16. The priest-penitent privilege protects:
A) Anonymous statements
B) Public confessions
C) Gossip about religious leaders
D) Confessions made in confidence during religious discipline
  • 17. Physician-patient privilege aims to:
A) Prevent medical records in court
B) Encourage full disclosure for treatment
C) Protect hospital reputation
D) Disallow expert witnesses
  • 18. The “Best Evidence Rule” is also called:
A) Original document rule
B) Competency rule
C) Hearsay rule
D) Parol rule
  • 19. Demonstrative evidence is admissible
A) Based on speculation
B) Cited by counsel
C) Relevant and properly identified
D) Emotional
  • 20. Dying declaration is admissible only if:
A) Made after survival
B) Written by another person
C) Made casually before death
D) Made in anticipation of death about its cause or circumstances
  • 21. A witness must be:
A) Authorized by both parties
B) Competent and legally qualified
C) Unavailable
D) Neutral and quiet
  • 22. A competent witness is one who:
A) Can perceive, recollect, and communicate
B) Is intelligent only
C) Can read and write
D) Is related to the accused
  • 23. Confession refers to:
A) Declaration against interest
B) Recognition of guilt in a criminal case
C) Testimony about another’s guilt
D) Privileged statement
  • 24. Judicial admission is:
A) Admission made in court pleadings
B) Out-of-court statement
C) Admission made in casual conversation
D) Statement made to police
  • 25. An “extra-judicial admission” is:
A) Statement by a judge
B) Confession under oath
C) Testimony made in trial
D) Admission made out of court
  • 26. The rule of competency allows:
A) No minors as witnesses
B) Only police officers to testify
C) Only victims to testify
D) Any legally qualified person to testify
  • 27. Expert witnesses may testify if:
A) They are relatives
B) They have special knowledge or skill
C) They have personal knowledge
D) They are court employees
  • 28. DNA evidence is evaluated based on
A) Court preference
B) Source reliability only
C) Proper collection, handling, and analysis
D) Age of samples
  • 29. A confession is valid even if:
A) Forced
B) Anonymous
C) Oral or informal
D) Made under torture
  • 30. The “totality of circumstances” test evaluates:
A) Quantity of witnesses
B) The certainty and reliability of witness identification
C) Public opinion
D) Strength of documents
  • 31. Hearsay evidence is generally:
A) Always admissible
B) Allowed if written
C) Based on rumor
D) Inadmissible unless covered by exceptions
  • 32. The rule against hearsay aims to:
A) Support confessions
B) Admit all statements
C) Exclude unreliable secondhand statements
D) Shorten the trial
  • 33. An example of hearsay exception is
A) Opinion testimony
B) Cross-examination
C) Dying declaration
D) Character evidence
  • 34. An admission made under oath in another case is called:
A) Privileged declaration
B) Judicial admission
C) Extra-judicial admission
D) Confession
  • 35. A confession obtained through coercion is:
A) Considered documentary evidence
B) Valid if recorded
C) Inadmissible
D) Acceptable
  • 36. Character evidence is generally inadmissible to
A) Support credibility
B) Prove conduct on a specific occasion
C) Indicate intent
D) Show motive
  • 37. The "chain of custody" ensures:
A) Witness credibility
B) Integrity of physical evidence
C) Admissibility of confessions
D) Speedy trial
  • 38. A hostile witness is one who:
A) Shows bias or hostility toward the party calling him
B) Refuses to testify
C) Lies under oath
D) Lacks knowledge
  • 39. The burden of proof lies with:
A) The witness
B) The defense
C) The prosecution
D) The judge
  • 40. The quantum of proof in criminal cases is:
A) Probable cause
B) Substantial evidence
C) Preponderance of evidence
D) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
  • 41. The rule that requires the original document to be presented is:
A) Res Inter Alios Acta
B) Parol Evidence Rule
C) Best Evidence Rule
D) Hearsay Rule
  • 42. A statement made in anticipation of death is
A) Dying Inside to Hold you
B) Confession
C) Judicial declaration
D) Dying Declaration
E) Admission
  • 43. A person who gives evidence in court is called:
A) Judge
B) Expert
C) Judge Nono
D) Complainant
E) Witness
  • 44. The ability of a witness to observe and communicate is called:
A) Competency
B) Credibility
C) Reliability
D) Intelligence
  • 45. The rule preventing the use of oral statements to modify a written contract is:
A) Parol Evidence Rule
B) Best Evidence Rule
C) Res Inter Alios Acta
D) Hearsay Rule
  • 46. A privilege preventing testimony between husband and wife is called:
A) Physician Privilege
B) Parental Privilege
C) Marital Privilege
D) Priest Privilege
  • 47. The privilege protecting communications between doctor and patient is:
A) Marital Privilege
B) Professional Privilege
C) Client-Lawyer Privilege
D) Parental Privilege
E) Physician-Patient Privilege
  • 48. The privilege that protects religious confessions is:
A) Spousal Privilege
B) Doctor-Patient Privilege
C) Priest-Penitent Privilege
D) Teacher-Student Privilege
E) Spiritual Privilege
  • 49. The rule stating that the acts of others cannot prejudice a person is:
A) Hearsay Rule
B) Parol Evidence Rule
C) Best Evidence Rule
D) Res Inter Alios Acta Rule
E) Exa Sec To
  • 50. The rule allowing statements made against one’s own interest to be admissible is:
A) Parol rule evidence
B) Admission by Silence
C) Declaration Against Interest
D) Opinion Rule
E) Dying against declaration
  • 51. Collateral matters are never admissible.
A) False
B) True
C) Maybe
  • 52. A confession can be oral or written.
A) Maybe
B) True
C) False
  • 53. The original document rule is the same as the best evidence rule.
A) Maybe
B) True
C) False
  • 54. Privileged communications promote public policy and confidentiality.
A) True
B) Maybe
C) False
  • 55. Hearsay evidence is generally admissible.
A) False
B) True
C) Maybe
  • 56. An oath is required for every witness before testifying.
A) True
B) False
C) Maybe
  • 57. A dying declaration must relate to the cause or circumstances of death.
A) Maybe
B) True
C) False
  • 58. Expert witnesses must rely only on personal knowledge
A) False
B) True
C) Maybe
  • 59. Spousal immunity can still apply after divorce.
A) True
B) Maybe
C) False
  • 60. Do you think my greatest love shall be mine again?
A) Wala na tol wag kana umasa
B) Gusto may mag mahal pero ayaw mag move on aray mo! Alam mo ha
C) Depende
D) No comback
E) Yes comback
  • 61. which of the following is considered a public or official record under Rule 130?
A) personal diary
B) A company's internal memo
C) an email exchange between private citizens
D) a birth certificate issued by the local by the local civil registrar
  • 62. what does the "mercy rule" generally refer to in the context of character evidence of a victim's good character.
A) the rule allowing the evidence of a defendant's good character to show they are unlikely to have committed the crime
B) the rule allowing evidence of a defendant's good character to show they are unlikely to have committed the crim The rule prohibiting any character evidence in court
C) The rule allowing evidence of a witness's merciful nature.
D) The rule prohibiting any character evidence in court
  • 63. What is the primary characteristic of "character as circumstantial evidence
A) It suggests a person acted in a certain way based on their general disposition.
B) It is only used to impeach a witness.
C) It is always inadmissible in court.
D) It directly proves a key fact in the case.
  • 64. Which of the following best describes the "res inter alios acta rule"
A) Only documentary evidence is subject to this rule.
B) All evidence, regardless of its source, is admissible as long as it is relevant.
C) Evidence related to transactions or occurrences involving third parties is generally inadmissible.
D) Evidence is admissible only if it directly involves the parties in the current case.
  • 65. What is the significance of "learned treatises" in legal evidence?
A) They are always admissible as direct evidence.
B) They are never admissible in court.
C) They are only relevant in medical malpractice cases
D) They can be used to cross-examine expert witnesses.
  • 66. When is "opinion rule" applicable in court?
A) All of the above
B) When a lay witness offers opinions based on common knowledge.
C) When a witness speculates without factual basis.
D) When an expert witness provides scientific or technical opinions.
  • 67. What is the primary purpose of the "reported testimony rule"
A) To exclude all prior testimonies from being admitted in court.
B) To encourage witnesses to report crimes.
C) To permit the use of testimony given in a prior proceeding under certain conditions
D) To allow hearsay evidence without any limitations.
  • 68. Which of the following scenarios involves "character as direct evidence"?
A) Showing a person's reputation for recklessness to prove negligence.
B) Presenting evidence of a person's honesty to show they are a credible witness.
C) Offering evidence of a person's character when character is an essential element of a claim or defense.
D) Introducing evidence of a defendant's violent tendencies to suggest they committed assault.
  • 69. What types of records are typically covered under "public or official records"
A) Private contracts between individuals
B) Internal memos of a private company.
C) Government agency documents available for public inspection.
D) Personal letters stored in a government archive.
  • 70. What is a "commercial list" as it pertains to evidence?
A) A list of items sold in a store.
B) A list of businesses registered with the government.
C) A catalog of products for sale online.
D) A compilation of data used in a specific industry.
  • 71. 1.
    Which of the following is considered a public document?
A) A private diary entry
B) A handwritten letter between two individuals
C) A grocery list kept in personal records
D) A document acknowledged before a notary, excluding wills and testaments
E) A document acknowledged before a notary, excluding wills and testaments
  • 72. 2.
    Public documents include:
A) Records of official acts by foreign countries’ sovereign authorities
B) Personal letters exchanged between friends
C) Unacknowledged documents between private parties
D) Records of official acts by foreign countries’ sovereign authorities
E) Private records not required by law to be entered as public records
  • 73. : Proof of Private Documents

    3.
    Before a private document can be admitted as evidence, due execution and authenticity must be proved by:
A) The court judge
B) Anyone who saw the document created or signed
C) Only the document creator
D) notary public
E) Anyone who saw the document created or signed
  • 74. 4.
    Which of the following is NOT a valid method to prove a private document’s authenticity?
A) Notarization of the document by an attorney
B) Testimony from someone who saw the document created
C) Notarization of the document by an attorney
D) Evidence establishing that the document is genuine and free from suspicion
E) Testimony from an individual who recognizes the signature or handwriting
  • 75. 5.
    Additional evidence of authenticity is not required for a private document if:
A) A.      It is over 30 years old and found in the place it would naturally be kept
B) It was sent by registered mail
C) It was found in a government office
D) It was signed in front of a notary public
E) A. It is over 30 years old and found in the place it would naturally be kept
  • 76. 6.
    A private document may not require additional proof of authenticity if:
A) It has been lost for more than 30 years
B) It has been altered in any way
C) C. It has remained in its usual place for over 30 years without suspicion of tampering
D) It has remained in its usual place for over 30 years without suspicion of tampering
E) It was signed by an unknown individual
  • 77. 7.
    The genuineness of handwriting may be proved by:
A) Any witness who has seen the person write before
B) Any witness who has seen the person write before
C) A certified handwriting analyst
D) Only the person whose handwriting it is
E) A government official
  • 78. 8.
    Which of the following can establish a witness’s knowledge of handwriting?
A) Watching the person write on multiple occasions and becoming familiar with it
B) Having read similar documents before
C) Seeing the person write only once
D) Watching the person write on multiple occasions and becoming familiar with it
E) Comparing the handwriting with an unrelated sample
  • 79. 9.
    In court, public documents are considered:
A) Private evidence needing verification
B) Secondary evidence needing corroboration
C) Prima facie evidence of stated facts
D) Inadmissible unless notarized
E) Prima facie evidence of stated facts
  • 80. 10.
    For foreign public records to be admissible in Philippine courts, they must be:
A) Certified by an embassy or consul if there’s no treaty
B) Verified by at least two witnesses
C) Certified by an embassy or consul if there’s no treaty
D) Accompanied by a seal of the foreign country
E) Notarized within the Philippines
  • 81. 11.
    An attestation of a copy must state:
A) The copy is an accurate copy of the original or specific part
B) The copy is an accurate copy of the original or specific part
C) The copy is a public document
D) None of the above
E) That the copy is certified by the Supreme Court
  • 82. 12.
    Who is authorized to provide the attestation of a document?
A) Any individual who has access to the document
B) The officer with legal custody of the document or their deputy
C) A private individual designated by the parties involved
D) The officer with legal custody of the document or their deputy
E)   The head of a department
  • 83. 13.
    A public record may be removed from the office in which it is kept:
A) For personal inspection by the document owner
B) If there’s a pending court case requiring its inspection
C) Only with permission from the president
D) When the office is undergoing renovations
E) If there’s a pending court case requiring its inspection
  • 84. 14.
    Who is authorized to prepare a public record of a private document?
A) Any court officer
B) An authorized public official
C) Any individual who owns the document
D) A private notary
E) An authorized public official
  • 85. 15.
    Why might a private document be entered as a public record?
A) To make it available for historical records
B) To provide prima facie evidence of its authenticity in legal proceedings
C) To fulfill a requirement by private individuals
D) To provide prima facie evidence of its authenticity in legal proceedings
E) To allow easy access to the public
  • 86. 16. In which of the following cases can a party present evidence to modify, explain, or add to a written agreement?
A) If the agreement is more than five years old.
B) If there is a verified pleading showing ambiguity, mistake, or failure to express intent.
C) If the agreement has been signed by both parties.D. If the agreement is more than five years old.
D) If one party changes their mind about the agreement terms
E) If there is a verified pleading showing ambiguity, mistake, or failure to express intent.
  • 87. 17. According to the legal meaning rule, how should the language of a writing be interpreted?
A) According to the intention of the parties, regardless of location.
B) According to the location where it was executed, unless intended otherwise.
C) According to the most common understanding of the terms.
D) According to the location where it was executed, unless intended otherwise.
E) According to the strictest legal definition possible.
  • 88. 18. When an instrumet has multiple provisions or particulars, how should it be construed?
A) By ignoring any contradictory provisions.
B) By giving effect to all provisions, if possible.
C) By giving effect to all provisions, if possible.
D) By asking the parties to clarify the meaning
E) By prioritizing the first provision.
  • 89. 19. How should conflicting general and particular provisions in an instrument be interpreted?
A) The general provisions should always prevail.
B) The particular provisions should always prevail.
C) The court should disregard both provisions.
D) The particular provisions should always prevail.
E) The general intent of the document should be rewritten
  • 90. 20. How should a document be interpreted in relation to the circumstances of its creation?
A) By considering the situation of the subject and the parties.
B) By considering the situation of the subject and the parties.
C) According to the personal preferences of the judge.
D) Without regard to any external factors.
E) Only by the literal meaning of the words used.
  • 91. 21. If terms in a document have a peculiar signification, how should they be interpreted?
A) By disregarding any peculiar or technical significance.
B) Based on the judge’s interpretation alone.
C) According to their primary and general meaning only.
D) According to their technical or special meaning, if known by the parties.
E) According to their technical or special meaning, if known by the parties.
  • 92. 22. When an instrument contains contradictory terms, which should be preferred?
A) The term with the most support from outside evidence.
B) The latter of the two terms
C) The term that aligns with the intent of one party.
D) The latter of the two terms.
E) The term that appears first.
  • 93. 23. When might experts or interpreters be needed to explain a written instrument?
A) When it is difficult to decipher or in an unfamiliar language
B) When it contains legal jargon only.
C) When it is written in ordinary language.
D) When both parties request an interpreter.
E) When it is difficult to decipher or in an unfamiliar language.
  • 94. 24.If an agreement term is understood differently by each party, which interpretation should prevail?
A) The interpretation most beneficial to the party in breach of the agreement.
B) The interpretation that both parties initially agreed upon.
C) The interpretation most favorable to the party for whom the provision was made.
D) The interpretation most favorable to the party for whom the provision was made.
E) The interpretation least favorable to the party who proposed the term.
  • 95. What are the four conditions required for a litigant to produce evidence in court?
A) Existence, termination, power, and loss
B) Personal knowledge, perception, recollection, and narration
C) Authenticity, reliability, credibility, and weight
D) Relevance, materiality, admissibility, and competency
  • 96. What are the three channels through which tribunals acquire information for their decisions?
A) Pleadings, motions, and evidence
B) Investigations, trials, and appeals
C) Testimony, exhibits, and arguments
D) Witnesses, documents, and inspection
  • 97. What is the highest order of evidence?
A) Real evidence
B) Documentary evidence
C) Testimonial evidence
D) Circumstantial evidence
  • 98. How is a photograph typically authenticated?
A) By a witness who can identify the subject
B) By comparing it to other photographs
C) By the photographer's testimony
D) By a forensic expert's analysis
  • 99. What is the "totality of circumstances" test used for?
A) Assessing the credibility of a witness
B) Determining the admissibility of evidence
C) Evaluating the weight of evidence
D) Identifying the perpetrator of a crime
  • 100. What is the purpose of an ocular inspection?
A) To identify the accused
B) To examine the crime scene
C) To verify the authenticity of evidence
D) To determine the cause of death
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