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Cevide 2
Contributed by: Cast
  • 1. For evidence to be admissible, it must be:
A) Relevant and competent
B) Relevant and material
C) Material and voluntary
D) Competent and credible
  • 2. Collateral matters are admissible when they tend to:
A) Support witness credibility only
B) Disprove all evidence
C) Establish probability or improbability of a fact in issue
D) Confuse the issue
  • 3. Real evidence is also called:
A) Secondary evidence
B) Demonstrative evidence
C) Oral evidence
D) Object evidence
  • 4. Real evidence is considered
A) The weakest form of proof
B) Testimonial evidence
C) Circumstantial evidence
D) The highest order of evidence
  • 5. Testimonial evidence refers to:
A) Circumstantial demonstration
B) Statements given by witnesses under oath
C) Documentary proof
D) Objects presented to the court
  • 6. The “best evidence rule” requires
A) Oral testimony of document contents
B) Presentation of the original document
C) Hearsay testimony
D) Submission of any copy
  • 7. Parol evidence rule applies to:
A) Oral contracts
B) Testimonies only
C) Electronic communications
D) Written contracts
  • 8. Documentary evidence refers to
A) Oral declarations
B) Written documents presented in court
C) Witness testimony
D) Objects and materials
  • 9. The “Res inter alios acta” rule means
A) Admissions apply to all
B) Confidential evidence is protected
C) Hearsay statements are valid
D) Acts of others cannot prejudice another
  • 10. Admission by silence means:
A) Only verbal admissions are valid
B) Failure to deny implies consent
C) Silence is never an admission
D) Applies only to written statements
  • 11. The “Mercy Rule” allows an accused to:
A) Prove good moral character pertinent to the offense
B) Withhold testimony
C) Avoid cross-examination
D) Prove innocence by silence
  • 12. Privileged communication is based on
A) Lack of relevance
B) Mutual understanding
C) Common interest
D) Confidentiality and public policy
  • 13. Marital privilege applies:
A) Only if both spouses testify
B) Only before marriage
C) During or after marriage
D) Only if requested by prosecution
  • 14. Spousal immunity can be invoked:
A) Only while the marriage subsists
B) By any relative
C) Before marriage
D) After marriage
  • 15. Filial privilege prevents:
A) A child from testifying against parents
B) Parents from testifying against neighbors
C) Priests from testifying
D) Teachers from testifying
  • 16. The priest-penitent privilege protects:
A) Gossip about religious leaders
B) Anonymous statements
C) Public confessions
D) Confessions made in confidence during religious discipline
  • 17. Physician-patient privilege aims to:
A) Disallow expert witnesses
B) Protect hospital reputation
C) Encourage full disclosure for treatment
D) Prevent medical records in court
  • 18. The “Best Evidence Rule” is also called:
A) Parol rule
B) Hearsay rule
C) Competency rule
D) Original document rule
  • 19. Demonstrative evidence is admissible
A) Relevant and properly identified
B) Cited by counsel
C) Based on speculation
D) Emotional
  • 20. Dying declaration is admissible only if:
A) Written by another person
B) Made after survival
C) Made casually before death
D) Made in anticipation of death about its cause or circumstances
  • 21. A witness must be:
A) Neutral and quiet
B) Unavailable
C) Competent and legally qualified
D) Authorized by both parties
  • 22. A competent witness is one who:
A) Can perceive, recollect, and communicate
B) Is related to the accused
C) Can read and write
D) Is intelligent only
  • 23. Confession refers to:
A) Recognition of guilt in a criminal case
B) Privileged statement
C) Declaration against interest
D) Testimony about another’s guilt
  • 24. Judicial admission is:
A) Out-of-court statement
B) Admission made in casual conversation
C) Statement made to police
D) Admission made in court pleadings
  • 25. An “extra-judicial admission” is:
A) Testimony made in trial
B) Admission made out of court
C) Statement by a judge
D) Confession under oath
  • 26. The rule of competency allows:
A) Any legally qualified person to testify
B) Only police officers to testify
C) No minors as witnesses
D) Only victims to testify
  • 27. Expert witnesses may testify if:
A) They are court employees
B) They are relatives
C) They have special knowledge or skill
D) They have personal knowledge
  • 28. DNA evidence is evaluated based on
A) Court preference
B) Proper collection, handling, and analysis
C) Age of samples
D) Source reliability only
  • 29. A confession is valid even if:
A) Oral or informal
B) Made under torture
C) Forced
D) Anonymous
  • 30. The “totality of circumstances” test evaluates:
A) Strength of documents
B) Public opinion
C) The certainty and reliability of witness identification
D) Quantity of witnesses
  • 31. Hearsay evidence is generally:
A) Inadmissible unless covered by exceptions
B) Always admissible
C) Allowed if written
D) Based on rumor
  • 32. The rule against hearsay aims to:
A) Support confessions
B) Exclude unreliable secondhand statements
C) Shorten the trial
D) Admit all statements
  • 33. An example of hearsay exception is
A) Dying declaration
B) Character evidence
C) Opinion testimony
D) Cross-examination
  • 34. An admission made under oath in another case is called:
A) Extra-judicial admission
B) Privileged declaration
C) Judicial admission
D) Confession
  • 35. A confession obtained through coercion is:
A) Considered documentary evidence
B) Inadmissible
C) Valid if recorded
D) Acceptable
  • 36. Character evidence is generally inadmissible to
A) Show motive
B) Support credibility
C) Indicate intent
D) Prove conduct on a specific occasion
  • 37. The "chain of custody" ensures:
A) Admissibility of confessions
B) Witness credibility
C) Speedy trial
D) Integrity of physical evidence
  • 38. A hostile witness is one who:
A) Lies under oath
B) Shows bias or hostility toward the party calling him
C) Lacks knowledge
D) Refuses to testify
  • 39. The burden of proof lies with:
A) The judge
B) The prosecution
C) The witness
D) The defense
  • 40. The quantum of proof in criminal cases is:
A) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
B) Preponderance of evidence
C) Substantial evidence
D) Probable cause
  • 41. The rule that requires the original document to be presented is:
A) Best Evidence Rule
B) Res Inter Alios Acta
C) Parol Evidence Rule
D) Hearsay Rule
  • 42. A statement made in anticipation of death is
A) Dying Declaration
B) Confession
C) Dying Inside to Hold you
D) Admission
E) Judicial declaration
  • 43. A person who gives evidence in court is called:
A) Witness
B) Judge
C) Complainant
D) Expert
E) Judge Nono
  • 44. The ability of a witness to observe and communicate is called:
A) Intelligence
B) Credibility
C) Reliability
D) Competency
  • 45. The rule preventing the use of oral statements to modify a written contract is:
A) Hearsay Rule
B) Parol Evidence Rule
C) Best Evidence Rule
D) Res Inter Alios Acta
  • 46. A privilege preventing testimony between husband and wife is called:
A) Physician Privilege
B) Parental Privilege
C) Marital Privilege
D) Priest Privilege
  • 47. The privilege protecting communications between doctor and patient is:
A) Marital Privilege
B) Professional Privilege
C) Parental Privilege
D) Client-Lawyer Privilege
E) Physician-Patient Privilege
  • 48. The privilege that protects religious confessions is:
A) Doctor-Patient Privilege
B) Priest-Penitent Privilege
C) Spiritual Privilege
D) Teacher-Student Privilege
E) Spousal Privilege
  • 49. The rule stating that the acts of others cannot prejudice a person is:
A) Res Inter Alios Acta Rule
B) Exa Sec To
C) Best Evidence Rule
D) Hearsay Rule
E) Parol Evidence Rule
  • 50. The rule allowing statements made against one’s own interest to be admissible is:
A) Opinion Rule
B) Parol rule evidence
C) Admission by Silence
D) Dying against declaration
E) Declaration Against Interest
  • 51. Collateral matters are never admissible.
A) True
B) False
C) Maybe
  • 52. A confession can be oral or written.
A) False
B) Maybe
C) True
  • 53. The original document rule is the same as the best evidence rule.
A) True
B) False
C) Maybe
  • 54. Privileged communications promote public policy and confidentiality.
A) True
B) Maybe
C) False
  • 55. Hearsay evidence is generally admissible.
A) Maybe
B) True
C) False
  • 56. An oath is required for every witness before testifying.
A) True
B) Maybe
C) False
  • 57. A dying declaration must relate to the cause or circumstances of death.
A) Maybe
B) False
C) True
  • 58. Expert witnesses must rely only on personal knowledge
A) False
B) True
C) Maybe
  • 59. Spousal immunity can still apply after divorce.
A) True
B) False
C) Maybe
  • 60. Do you think my greatest love shall be mine again?
A) Yes comback
B) Depende
C) Gusto may mag mahal pero ayaw mag move on aray mo! Alam mo ha
D) Wala na tol wag kana umasa
E) No comback
  • 61. which of the following is considered a public or official record under Rule 130?
A) an email exchange between private citizens
B) personal diary
C) A company's internal memo
D) a birth certificate issued by the local by the local civil registrar
  • 62. what does the "mercy rule" generally refer to in the context of character evidence of a victim's good character.
A) the rule allowing evidence of a defendant's good character to show they are unlikely to have committed the crim The rule prohibiting any character evidence in court
B) The rule allowing evidence of a witness's merciful nature.
C) The rule prohibiting any character evidence in court
D) the rule allowing the evidence of a defendant's good character to show they are unlikely to have committed the crime
  • 63. What is the primary characteristic of "character as circumstantial evidence
A) It is only used to impeach a witness.
B) It suggests a person acted in a certain way based on their general disposition.
C) It is always inadmissible in court.
D) It directly proves a key fact in the case.
  • 64. Which of the following best describes the "res inter alios acta rule"
A) Evidence related to transactions or occurrences involving third parties is generally inadmissible.
B) Evidence is admissible only if it directly involves the parties in the current case.
C) Only documentary evidence is subject to this rule.
D) All evidence, regardless of its source, is admissible as long as it is relevant.
  • 65. What is the significance of "learned treatises" in legal evidence?
A) They can be used to cross-examine expert witnesses.
B) They are always admissible as direct evidence.
C) They are never admissible in court.
D) They are only relevant in medical malpractice cases
  • 66. When is "opinion rule" applicable in court?
A) When an expert witness provides scientific or technical opinions.
B) When a lay witness offers opinions based on common knowledge.
C) All of the above
D) When a witness speculates without factual basis.
  • 67. What is the primary purpose of the "reported testimony rule"
A) To permit the use of testimony given in a prior proceeding under certain conditions
B) To exclude all prior testimonies from being admitted in court.
C) To encourage witnesses to report crimes.
D) To allow hearsay evidence without any limitations.
  • 68. Which of the following scenarios involves "character as direct evidence"?
A) Showing a person's reputation for recklessness to prove negligence.
B) Introducing evidence of a defendant's violent tendencies to suggest they committed assault.
C) Offering evidence of a person's character when character is an essential element of a claim or defense.
D) Presenting evidence of a person's honesty to show they are a credible witness.
  • 69. What types of records are typically covered under "public or official records"
A) Personal letters stored in a government archive.
B) Government agency documents available for public inspection.
C) Internal memos of a private company.
D) Private contracts between individuals
  • 70. What is a "commercial list" as it pertains to evidence?
A) A list of businesses registered with the government.
B) A compilation of data used in a specific industry.
C) A catalog of products for sale online.
D) A list of items sold in a store.
  • 71. 1.
    Which of the following is considered a public document?
A) A document acknowledged before a notary, excluding wills and testaments
B) A document acknowledged before a notary, excluding wills and testaments
C) A private diary entry
D) A grocery list kept in personal records
E) A handwritten letter between two individuals
  • 72. 2.
    Public documents include:
A) Personal letters exchanged between friends
B) Private records not required by law to be entered as public records
C) Records of official acts by foreign countries’ sovereign authorities
D) Records of official acts by foreign countries’ sovereign authorities
E) Unacknowledged documents between private parties
  • 73. : Proof of Private Documents

    3.
    Before a private document can be admitted as evidence, due execution and authenticity must be proved by:
A) Anyone who saw the document created or signed
B) Only the document creator
C) notary public
D) The court judge
E) Anyone who saw the document created or signed
  • 74. 4.
    Which of the following is NOT a valid method to prove a private document’s authenticity?
A) Testimony from an individual who recognizes the signature or handwriting
B) Evidence establishing that the document is genuine and free from suspicion
C) Notarization of the document by an attorney
D) Notarization of the document by an attorney
E) Testimony from someone who saw the document created
  • 75. 5.
    Additional evidence of authenticity is not required for a private document if:
A) A.      It is over 30 years old and found in the place it would naturally be kept
B) A. It is over 30 years old and found in the place it would naturally be kept
C) It was sent by registered mail
D) It was found in a government office
E) It was signed in front of a notary public
  • 76. 6.
    A private document may not require additional proof of authenticity if:
A) C. It has remained in its usual place for over 30 years without suspicion of tampering
B) It has been lost for more than 30 years
C) It has remained in its usual place for over 30 years without suspicion of tampering
D) It was signed by an unknown individual
E) It has been altered in any way
  • 77. 7.
    The genuineness of handwriting may be proved by:
A) A certified handwriting analyst
B) Any witness who has seen the person write before
C) Only the person whose handwriting it is
D) A government official
E) Any witness who has seen the person write before
  • 78. 8.
    Which of the following can establish a witness’s knowledge of handwriting?
A) Comparing the handwriting with an unrelated sample
B) Watching the person write on multiple occasions and becoming familiar with it
C) Seeing the person write only once
D) Watching the person write on multiple occasions and becoming familiar with it
E) Having read similar documents before
  • 79. 9.
    In court, public documents are considered:
A) Inadmissible unless notarized
B) Prima facie evidence of stated facts
C) Prima facie evidence of stated facts
D) Private evidence needing verification
E) Secondary evidence needing corroboration
  • 80. 10.
    For foreign public records to be admissible in Philippine courts, they must be:
A) Accompanied by a seal of the foreign country
B) Certified by an embassy or consul if there’s no treaty
C) Notarized within the Philippines
D) Verified by at least two witnesses
E) Certified by an embassy or consul if there’s no treaty
  • 81. 11.
    An attestation of a copy must state:
A) The copy is an accurate copy of the original or specific part
B) The copy is a public document
C) The copy is an accurate copy of the original or specific part
D) None of the above
E) That the copy is certified by the Supreme Court
  • 82. 12.
    Who is authorized to provide the attestation of a document?
A)   The head of a department
B) Any individual who has access to the document
C) The officer with legal custody of the document or their deputy
D) A private individual designated by the parties involved
E) The officer with legal custody of the document or their deputy
  • 83. 13.
    A public record may be removed from the office in which it is kept:
A) When the office is undergoing renovations
B) If there’s a pending court case requiring its inspection
C) Only with permission from the president
D) If there’s a pending court case requiring its inspection
E) For personal inspection by the document owner
  • 84. 14.
    Who is authorized to prepare a public record of a private document?
A) Any court officer
B) An authorized public official
C) A private notary
D) An authorized public official
E) Any individual who owns the document
  • 85. 15.
    Why might a private document be entered as a public record?
A) To provide prima facie evidence of its authenticity in legal proceedings
B) To fulfill a requirement by private individuals
C) To make it available for historical records
D) To provide prima facie evidence of its authenticity in legal proceedings
E) To allow easy access to the public
  • 86. 16. In which of the following cases can a party present evidence to modify, explain, or add to a written agreement?
A) If there is a verified pleading showing ambiguity, mistake, or failure to express intent.
B) If the agreement is more than five years old.
C) If one party changes their mind about the agreement terms
D) If the agreement has been signed by both parties.D. If the agreement is more than five years old.
E) If there is a verified pleading showing ambiguity, mistake, or failure to express intent.
  • 87. 17. According to the legal meaning rule, how should the language of a writing be interpreted?
A) According to the location where it was executed, unless intended otherwise.
B) According to the most common understanding of the terms.
C) According to the location where it was executed, unless intended otherwise.
D) According to the intention of the parties, regardless of location.
E) According to the strictest legal definition possible.
  • 88. 18. When an instrumet has multiple provisions or particulars, how should it be construed?
A) By prioritizing the first provision.
B) By giving effect to all provisions, if possible.
C) By asking the parties to clarify the meaning
D) By ignoring any contradictory provisions.
E) By giving effect to all provisions, if possible.
  • 89. 19. How should conflicting general and particular provisions in an instrument be interpreted?
A) The general provisions should always prevail.
B) The court should disregard both provisions.
C) The general intent of the document should be rewritten
D) The particular provisions should always prevail.
E) The particular provisions should always prevail.
  • 90. 20. How should a document be interpreted in relation to the circumstances of its creation?
A) By considering the situation of the subject and the parties.
B) By considering the situation of the subject and the parties.
C) Without regard to any external factors.
D) Only by the literal meaning of the words used.
E) According to the personal preferences of the judge.
  • 91. 21. If terms in a document have a peculiar signification, how should they be interpreted?
A) According to their technical or special meaning, if known by the parties.
B) Based on the judge’s interpretation alone.
C) According to their technical or special meaning, if known by the parties.
D) According to their primary and general meaning only.
E) By disregarding any peculiar or technical significance.
  • 92. 22. When an instrument contains contradictory terms, which should be preferred?
A) The latter of the two terms
B) The term that aligns with the intent of one party.
C) The term with the most support from outside evidence.
D) The term that appears first.
E) The latter of the two terms.
  • 93. 23. When might experts or interpreters be needed to explain a written instrument?
A) When it contains legal jargon only.
B) When it is written in ordinary language.
C) When both parties request an interpreter.
D) When it is difficult to decipher or in an unfamiliar language
E) When it is difficult to decipher or in an unfamiliar language.
  • 94. 24.If an agreement term is understood differently by each party, which interpretation should prevail?
A) The interpretation that both parties initially agreed upon.
B) The interpretation least favorable to the party who proposed the term.
C) The interpretation most favorable to the party for whom the provision was made.
D) The interpretation most beneficial to the party in breach of the agreement.
E) The interpretation most favorable to the party for whom the provision was made.
  • 95. What are the four conditions required for a litigant to produce evidence in court?
A) Personal knowledge, perception, recollection, and narration
B) Relevance, materiality, admissibility, and competency
C) Existence, termination, power, and loss
D) Authenticity, reliability, credibility, and weight
  • 96. What are the three channels through which tribunals acquire information for their decisions?
A) Testimony, exhibits, and arguments
B) Investigations, trials, and appeals
C) Pleadings, motions, and evidence
D) Witnesses, documents, and inspection
  • 97. What is the highest order of evidence?
A) Real evidence
B) Circumstantial evidence
C) Documentary evidence
D) Testimonial evidence
  • 98. How is a photograph typically authenticated?
A) By a witness who can identify the subject
B) By the photographer's testimony
C) By comparing it to other photographs
D) By a forensic expert's analysis
  • 99. What is the "totality of circumstances" test used for?
A) Determining the admissibility of evidence
B) Assessing the credibility of a witness
C) Identifying the perpetrator of a crime
D) Evaluating the weight of evidence
  • 100. What is the purpose of an ocular inspection?
A) To determine the cause of death
B) To examine the crime scene
C) To identify the accused
D) To verify the authenticity of evidence
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