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Cevide 2
Contributed by: Cast
  • 1. For evidence to be admissible, it must be:
A) Material and voluntary
B) Relevant and material
C) Competent and credible
D) Relevant and competent
  • 2. Collateral matters are admissible when they tend to:
A) Disprove all evidence
B) Establish probability or improbability of a fact in issue
C) Confuse the issue
D) Support witness credibility only
  • 3. Real evidence is also called:
A) Oral evidence
B) Secondary evidence
C) Object evidence
D) Demonstrative evidence
  • 4. Real evidence is considered
A) Circumstantial evidence
B) The weakest form of proof
C) The highest order of evidence
D) Testimonial evidence
  • 5. Testimonial evidence refers to:
A) Circumstantial demonstration
B) Statements given by witnesses under oath
C) Objects presented to the court
D) Documentary proof
  • 6. The “best evidence rule” requires
A) Presentation of the original document
B) Hearsay testimony
C) Oral testimony of document contents
D) Submission of any copy
  • 7. Parol evidence rule applies to:
A) Oral contracts
B) Testimonies only
C) Electronic communications
D) Written contracts
  • 8. Documentary evidence refers to
A) Witness testimony
B) Objects and materials
C) Written documents presented in court
D) Oral declarations
  • 9. The “Res inter alios acta” rule means
A) Admissions apply to all
B) Acts of others cannot prejudice another
C) Hearsay statements are valid
D) Confidential evidence is protected
  • 10. Admission by silence means:
A) Only verbal admissions are valid
B) Failure to deny implies consent
C) Applies only to written statements
D) Silence is never an admission
  • 11. The “Mercy Rule” allows an accused to:
A) Prove good moral character pertinent to the offense
B) Avoid cross-examination
C) Prove innocence by silence
D) Withhold testimony
  • 12. Privileged communication is based on
A) Lack of relevance
B) Common interest
C) Confidentiality and public policy
D) Mutual understanding
  • 13. Marital privilege applies:
A) Only if both spouses testify
B) Only before marriage
C) Only if requested by prosecution
D) During or after marriage
  • 14. Spousal immunity can be invoked:
A) Before marriage
B) By any relative
C) Only while the marriage subsists
D) After marriage
  • 15. Filial privilege prevents:
A) Teachers from testifying
B) Parents from testifying against neighbors
C) A child from testifying against parents
D) Priests from testifying
  • 16. The priest-penitent privilege protects:
A) Confessions made in confidence during religious discipline
B) Public confessions
C) Anonymous statements
D) Gossip about religious leaders
  • 17. Physician-patient privilege aims to:
A) Disallow expert witnesses
B) Prevent medical records in court
C) Protect hospital reputation
D) Encourage full disclosure for treatment
  • 18. The “Best Evidence Rule” is also called:
A) Parol rule
B) Competency rule
C) Hearsay rule
D) Original document rule
  • 19. Demonstrative evidence is admissible
A) Based on speculation
B) Cited by counsel
C) Relevant and properly identified
D) Emotional
  • 20. Dying declaration is admissible only if:
A) Made in anticipation of death about its cause or circumstances
B) Made after survival
C) Written by another person
D) Made casually before death
  • 21. A witness must be:
A) Neutral and quiet
B) Competent and legally qualified
C) Unavailable
D) Authorized by both parties
  • 22. A competent witness is one who:
A) Can read and write
B) Is related to the accused
C) Can perceive, recollect, and communicate
D) Is intelligent only
  • 23. Confession refers to:
A) Testimony about another’s guilt
B) Declaration against interest
C) Recognition of guilt in a criminal case
D) Privileged statement
  • 24. Judicial admission is:
A) Statement made to police
B) Admission made in court pleadings
C) Out-of-court statement
D) Admission made in casual conversation
  • 25. An “extra-judicial admission” is:
A) Testimony made in trial
B) Admission made out of court
C) Confession under oath
D) Statement by a judge
  • 26. The rule of competency allows:
A) Only victims to testify
B) Any legally qualified person to testify
C) Only police officers to testify
D) No minors as witnesses
  • 27. Expert witnesses may testify if:
A) They have special knowledge or skill
B) They are relatives
C) They have personal knowledge
D) They are court employees
  • 28. DNA evidence is evaluated based on
A) Source reliability only
B) Proper collection, handling, and analysis
C) Court preference
D) Age of samples
  • 29. A confession is valid even if:
A) Forced
B) Anonymous
C) Oral or informal
D) Made under torture
  • 30. The “totality of circumstances” test evaluates:
A) Strength of documents
B) The certainty and reliability of witness identification
C) Public opinion
D) Quantity of witnesses
  • 31. Hearsay evidence is generally:
A) Allowed if written
B) Always admissible
C) Inadmissible unless covered by exceptions
D) Based on rumor
  • 32. The rule against hearsay aims to:
A) Shorten the trial
B) Support confessions
C) Exclude unreliable secondhand statements
D) Admit all statements
  • 33. An example of hearsay exception is
A) Character evidence
B) Dying declaration
C) Cross-examination
D) Opinion testimony
  • 34. An admission made under oath in another case is called:
A) Judicial admission
B) Privileged declaration
C) Confession
D) Extra-judicial admission
  • 35. A confession obtained through coercion is:
A) Valid if recorded
B) Acceptable
C) Inadmissible
D) Considered documentary evidence
  • 36. Character evidence is generally inadmissible to
A) Prove conduct on a specific occasion
B) Support credibility
C) Indicate intent
D) Show motive
  • 37. The "chain of custody" ensures:
A) Speedy trial
B) Admissibility of confessions
C) Integrity of physical evidence
D) Witness credibility
  • 38. A hostile witness is one who:
A) Shows bias or hostility toward the party calling him
B) Lacks knowledge
C) Lies under oath
D) Refuses to testify
  • 39. The burden of proof lies with:
A) The prosecution
B) The judge
C) The witness
D) The defense
  • 40. The quantum of proof in criminal cases is:
A) Substantial evidence
B) Preponderance of evidence
C) Probable cause
D) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
  • 41. The rule that requires the original document to be presented is:
A) Best Evidence Rule
B) Res Inter Alios Acta
C) Hearsay Rule
D) Parol Evidence Rule
  • 42. A statement made in anticipation of death is
A) Dying Declaration
B) Judicial declaration
C) Admission
D) Confession
E) Dying Inside to Hold you
  • 43. A person who gives evidence in court is called:
A) Complainant
B) Witness
C) Judge
D) Expert
E) Judge Nono
  • 44. The ability of a witness to observe and communicate is called:
A) Credibility
B) Reliability
C) Competency
D) Intelligence
  • 45. The rule preventing the use of oral statements to modify a written contract is:
A) Hearsay Rule
B) Res Inter Alios Acta
C) Best Evidence Rule
D) Parol Evidence Rule
  • 46. A privilege preventing testimony between husband and wife is called:
A) Marital Privilege
B) Physician Privilege
C) Priest Privilege
D) Parental Privilege
  • 47. The privilege protecting communications between doctor and patient is:
A) Marital Privilege
B) Physician-Patient Privilege
C) Parental Privilege
D) Professional Privilege
E) Client-Lawyer Privilege
  • 48. The privilege that protects religious confessions is:
A) Spiritual Privilege
B) Priest-Penitent Privilege
C) Spousal Privilege
D) Doctor-Patient Privilege
E) Teacher-Student Privilege
  • 49. The rule stating that the acts of others cannot prejudice a person is:
A) Best Evidence Rule
B) Res Inter Alios Acta Rule
C) Exa Sec To
D) Hearsay Rule
E) Parol Evidence Rule
  • 50. The rule allowing statements made against one’s own interest to be admissible is:
A) Parol rule evidence
B) Opinion Rule
C) Admission by Silence
D) Dying against declaration
E) Declaration Against Interest
  • 51. Collateral matters are never admissible.
A) False
B) Maybe
C) True
  • 52. A confession can be oral or written.
A) True
B) False
C) Maybe
  • 53. The original document rule is the same as the best evidence rule.
A) False
B) True
C) Maybe
  • 54. Privileged communications promote public policy and confidentiality.
A) Maybe
B) True
C) False
  • 55. Hearsay evidence is generally admissible.
A) False
B) True
C) Maybe
  • 56. An oath is required for every witness before testifying.
A) True
B) False
C) Maybe
  • 57. A dying declaration must relate to the cause or circumstances of death.
A) Maybe
B) False
C) True
  • 58. Expert witnesses must rely only on personal knowledge
A) True
B) Maybe
C) False
  • 59. Spousal immunity can still apply after divorce.
A) Maybe
B) True
C) False
  • 60. Do you think my greatest love shall be mine again?
A) No comback
B) Yes comback
C) Depende
D) Gusto may mag mahal pero ayaw mag move on aray mo! Alam mo ha
E) Wala na tol wag kana umasa
  • 61. which of the following is considered a public or official record under Rule 130?
A) A company's internal memo
B) an email exchange between private citizens
C) personal diary
D) a birth certificate issued by the local by the local civil registrar
  • 62. what does the "mercy rule" generally refer to in the context of character evidence of a victim's good character.
A) the rule allowing the evidence of a defendant's good character to show they are unlikely to have committed the crime
B) The rule prohibiting any character evidence in court
C) the rule allowing evidence of a defendant's good character to show they are unlikely to have committed the crim The rule prohibiting any character evidence in court
D) The rule allowing evidence of a witness's merciful nature.
  • 63. What is the primary characteristic of "character as circumstantial evidence
A) It suggests a person acted in a certain way based on their general disposition.
B) It is only used to impeach a witness.
C) It is always inadmissible in court.
D) It directly proves a key fact in the case.
  • 64. Which of the following best describes the "res inter alios acta rule"
A) Only documentary evidence is subject to this rule.
B) Evidence is admissible only if it directly involves the parties in the current case.
C) All evidence, regardless of its source, is admissible as long as it is relevant.
D) Evidence related to transactions or occurrences involving third parties is generally inadmissible.
  • 65. What is the significance of "learned treatises" in legal evidence?
A) They are never admissible in court.
B) They are only relevant in medical malpractice cases
C) They are always admissible as direct evidence.
D) They can be used to cross-examine expert witnesses.
  • 66. When is "opinion rule" applicable in court?
A) When a lay witness offers opinions based on common knowledge.
B) All of the above
C) When an expert witness provides scientific or technical opinions.
D) When a witness speculates without factual basis.
  • 67. What is the primary purpose of the "reported testimony rule"
A) To exclude all prior testimonies from being admitted in court.
B) To encourage witnesses to report crimes.
C) To permit the use of testimony given in a prior proceeding under certain conditions
D) To allow hearsay evidence without any limitations.
  • 68. Which of the following scenarios involves "character as direct evidence"?
A) Offering evidence of a person's character when character is an essential element of a claim or defense.
B) Presenting evidence of a person's honesty to show they are a credible witness.
C) Showing a person's reputation for recklessness to prove negligence.
D) Introducing evidence of a defendant's violent tendencies to suggest they committed assault.
  • 69. What types of records are typically covered under "public or official records"
A) Private contracts between individuals
B) Personal letters stored in a government archive.
C) Internal memos of a private company.
D) Government agency documents available for public inspection.
  • 70. What is a "commercial list" as it pertains to evidence?
A) A catalog of products for sale online.
B) A list of businesses registered with the government.
C) A compilation of data used in a specific industry.
D) A list of items sold in a store.
  • 71. 1.
    Which of the following is considered a public document?
A) A handwritten letter between two individuals
B) A document acknowledged before a notary, excluding wills and testaments
C) A grocery list kept in personal records
D) A private diary entry
E) A document acknowledged before a notary, excluding wills and testaments
  • 72. 2.
    Public documents include:
A) Unacknowledged documents between private parties
B) Records of official acts by foreign countries’ sovereign authorities
C) Records of official acts by foreign countries’ sovereign authorities
D) Private records not required by law to be entered as public records
E) Personal letters exchanged between friends
  • 73. : Proof of Private Documents

    3.
    Before a private document can be admitted as evidence, due execution and authenticity must be proved by:
A) Anyone who saw the document created or signed
B) notary public
C) The court judge
D) Only the document creator
E) Anyone who saw the document created or signed
  • 74. 4.
    Which of the following is NOT a valid method to prove a private document’s authenticity?
A) Notarization of the document by an attorney
B) Testimony from an individual who recognizes the signature or handwriting
C) Evidence establishing that the document is genuine and free from suspicion
D) Notarization of the document by an attorney
E) Testimony from someone who saw the document created
  • 75. 5.
    Additional evidence of authenticity is not required for a private document if:
A) It was signed in front of a notary public
B) A. It is over 30 years old and found in the place it would naturally be kept
C) It was found in a government office
D) A.      It is over 30 years old and found in the place it would naturally be kept
E) It was sent by registered mail
  • 76. 6.
    A private document may not require additional proof of authenticity if:
A) It has been altered in any way
B) It has been lost for more than 30 years
C) C. It has remained in its usual place for over 30 years without suspicion of tampering
D) It was signed by an unknown individual
E) It has remained in its usual place for over 30 years without suspicion of tampering
  • 77. 7.
    The genuineness of handwriting may be proved by:
A) A certified handwriting analyst
B) Any witness who has seen the person write before
C) Any witness who has seen the person write before
D) Only the person whose handwriting it is
E) A government official
  • 78. 8.
    Which of the following can establish a witness’s knowledge of handwriting?
A) Watching the person write on multiple occasions and becoming familiar with it
B) Seeing the person write only once
C) Comparing the handwriting with an unrelated sample
D) Having read similar documents before
E) Watching the person write on multiple occasions and becoming familiar with it
  • 79. 9.
    In court, public documents are considered:
A) Private evidence needing verification
B) Secondary evidence needing corroboration
C) Prima facie evidence of stated facts
D) Prima facie evidence of stated facts
E) Inadmissible unless notarized
  • 80. 10.
    For foreign public records to be admissible in Philippine courts, they must be:
A) Accompanied by a seal of the foreign country
B) Verified by at least two witnesses
C) Notarized within the Philippines
D) Certified by an embassy or consul if there’s no treaty
E) Certified by an embassy or consul if there’s no treaty
  • 81. 11.
    An attestation of a copy must state:
A) That the copy is certified by the Supreme Court
B) The copy is an accurate copy of the original or specific part
C) The copy is an accurate copy of the original or specific part
D) None of the above
E) The copy is a public document
  • 82. 12.
    Who is authorized to provide the attestation of a document?
A) The officer with legal custody of the document or their deputy
B) The officer with legal custody of the document or their deputy
C) A private individual designated by the parties involved
D) Any individual who has access to the document
E)   The head of a department
  • 83. 13.
    A public record may be removed from the office in which it is kept:
A) If there’s a pending court case requiring its inspection
B) Only with permission from the president
C) When the office is undergoing renovations
D) For personal inspection by the document owner
E) If there’s a pending court case requiring its inspection
  • 84. 14.
    Who is authorized to prepare a public record of a private document?
A) Any individual who owns the document
B) An authorized public official
C) A private notary
D) An authorized public official
E) Any court officer
  • 85. 15.
    Why might a private document be entered as a public record?
A) To make it available for historical records
B) To provide prima facie evidence of its authenticity in legal proceedings
C) To provide prima facie evidence of its authenticity in legal proceedings
D) To allow easy access to the public
E) To fulfill a requirement by private individuals
  • 86. 16. In which of the following cases can a party present evidence to modify, explain, or add to a written agreement?
A) If there is a verified pleading showing ambiguity, mistake, or failure to express intent.
B) If one party changes their mind about the agreement terms
C) If there is a verified pleading showing ambiguity, mistake, or failure to express intent.
D) If the agreement is more than five years old.
E) If the agreement has been signed by both parties.D. If the agreement is more than five years old.
  • 87. 17. According to the legal meaning rule, how should the language of a writing be interpreted?
A) According to the intention of the parties, regardless of location.
B) According to the location where it was executed, unless intended otherwise.
C) According to the strictest legal definition possible.
D) According to the location where it was executed, unless intended otherwise.
E) According to the most common understanding of the terms.
  • 88. 18. When an instrumet has multiple provisions or particulars, how should it be construed?
A) By giving effect to all provisions, if possible.
B) By prioritizing the first provision.
C) By giving effect to all provisions, if possible.
D) By asking the parties to clarify the meaning
E) By ignoring any contradictory provisions.
  • 89. 19. How should conflicting general and particular provisions in an instrument be interpreted?
A) The general intent of the document should be rewritten
B) The court should disregard both provisions.
C) The particular provisions should always prevail.
D) The particular provisions should always prevail.
E) The general provisions should always prevail.
  • 90. 20. How should a document be interpreted in relation to the circumstances of its creation?
A) Only by the literal meaning of the words used.
B) By considering the situation of the subject and the parties.
C) According to the personal preferences of the judge.
D) Without regard to any external factors.
E) By considering the situation of the subject and the parties.
  • 91. 21. If terms in a document have a peculiar signification, how should they be interpreted?
A) By disregarding any peculiar or technical significance.
B) Based on the judge’s interpretation alone.
C) According to their technical or special meaning, if known by the parties.
D) According to their primary and general meaning only.
E) According to their technical or special meaning, if known by the parties.
  • 92. 22. When an instrument contains contradictory terms, which should be preferred?
A) The term that aligns with the intent of one party.
B) The latter of the two terms
C) The latter of the two terms.
D) The term with the most support from outside evidence.
E) The term that appears first.
  • 93. 23. When might experts or interpreters be needed to explain a written instrument?
A) When it is written in ordinary language.
B) When it is difficult to decipher or in an unfamiliar language.
C) When it contains legal jargon only.
D) When both parties request an interpreter.
E) When it is difficult to decipher or in an unfamiliar language
  • 94. 24.If an agreement term is understood differently by each party, which interpretation should prevail?
A) The interpretation most favorable to the party for whom the provision was made.
B) The interpretation least favorable to the party who proposed the term.
C) The interpretation most beneficial to the party in breach of the agreement.
D) The interpretation that both parties initially agreed upon.
E) The interpretation most favorable to the party for whom the provision was made.
  • 95. What are the four conditions required for a litigant to produce evidence in court?
A) Relevance, materiality, admissibility, and competency
B) Personal knowledge, perception, recollection, and narration
C) Existence, termination, power, and loss
D) Authenticity, reliability, credibility, and weight
  • 96. What are the three channels through which tribunals acquire information for their decisions?
A) Testimony, exhibits, and arguments
B) Witnesses, documents, and inspection
C) Pleadings, motions, and evidence
D) Investigations, trials, and appeals
  • 97. What is the highest order of evidence?
A) Real evidence
B) Testimonial evidence
C) Documentary evidence
D) Circumstantial evidence
  • 98. How is a photograph typically authenticated?
A) By a forensic expert's analysis
B) By the photographer's testimony
C) By a witness who can identify the subject
D) By comparing it to other photographs
  • 99. What is the "totality of circumstances" test used for?
A) Determining the admissibility of evidence
B) Assessing the credibility of a witness
C) Evaluating the weight of evidence
D) Identifying the perpetrator of a crime
  • 100. What is the purpose of an ocular inspection?
A) To determine the cause of death
B) To identify the accused
C) To verify the authenticity of evidence
D) To examine the crime scene
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