A) Unity of Command B) Flexibility C) Evidence-Based Planning D) Centralization
A) Operational Plan B) Administrative Plan C) Contingency Plan D) Strategic Plan
A) Direction B) Adaptability C) Evaluation D) Control
A) Situational Leadership Model B) Quality Management System C) Performance Governance System (PGS) D) Balanced Scorecard
A) Preparing alternate routes for VIP security B) Reporting only major crimes C) Following the same route daily D) Regularly updating patrol schedules based on feedback
A) Strategic B) Contingency C) Tactical D) Operational
A) Efficiency through hierarchy B) Command authority C) Political alignment D) Organizational participation
A) Operational Plan B) Administrative Plan C) Policy Plan D) Strategic Plan
A) Through centralized command only B) Through measurable and transparent objectives C) Through punitive measures for non-performance D) Through strict adherence to hierarchy
A) Standing Plan B) Contingency Plan C) Tactical Plan D) Strategic Plan
A) Coordination B) Command C) Control D) Motivation
A) Secrecy B) Segregation C) Decentralization D) Coordination
A) Centralized supervision B) Individual performance only C) Participative governance D) Authoritarian leadership
A) Record disciplinary actions B) Measure organizational and individual performance C) Identify police misconduct D) Allocate resources for intelligence
A) Continuous improvement and adaptation B) Plans are fixed and unchangeable C) Operations remain classified D) Only top officers make revisions
A) Tactical plans have long-term goals B) Tactical plans focus on national objectives C) Tactical plans translate strategies into immediate actions D) Strategic plans deal with day-to-day operations
A) Strategic Plan B) Administrative Plan C) Operational Plan D) Contingency Plan
A) Deterrence B) Accountability C) Transformation D) Partnership
A) It measures output and transparency B) It increases bureaucracy C) It focuses only on leadership goals D) It limits officer discretion
A) Strategic alignment B) Procedural authority C) Personnel control D) Policy compliance
A) Spatial regression B) Statistical modeling C) Thematic mapping D) Non-graphical indicator
A) Social crime mapping B) Geographic profiling C) Random patrols D) Predictive policing
A) Trend analysis B) Hotspot analysis C) Spatial regression D) Thematic mapping
A) Topographic B) Graphic regression C) Choropleth D) Thematic
A) Mapping police jurisdiction borders B) Identifying areas with high crime concentrations C) Determining police salaries D) Forecasting public celebrations
A) Spatial diffusion B) Randomized control patrol C) Strategic redeployment D) Tactical crime mapping
A) It allows speculative conclusions B) It replaces human intelligence C) It visualizes patterns that inform operational decisions D) It focuses solely on statistical data
A) Spatial regression B) Longitudinal monitoring C) Temporal analysis D) Non-graphical evaluation
A) Both measure community satisfaction B) Hotspot mapping predicts future crime locations C) Geographic profiling focuses on identifying offenders’ probable residences D) Geographic profiling uses non-spatial data only
A) Predictive simulation B) Non-graphical indicators C) Spatial mapping D) Thematic analysis
A) Environmental regression B) Area mapping C) Spatial regression D) Situational correlation
A) It only works for rural areas B) It emphasizes minor crimes only C) It eliminates the need for statistics D) It simplifies resource allocation by visualizing crime trends
A) Non-graphical table B) Dynamic time-series map C) Static hotspot map D) Isoline map
A) Identify policy gaps B) Conduct spatial correlation C) Produce non-graphical outputs D) Measure administrative efficiency
A) Manual charting B) Reactive patrol C) Predictive analytics D) Routine mapping
A) Resource allocation B) Implementation C) Feedback D) Situation analysis
A) Contingency Plan B) Administrative Plan C) Tactical Deployment Plan D) Patrol Plan
A) Hierarchical supervision B) Operational planning C) Intelligence secrecy D) Inter-agency collaboration
A) PNP B) PCG C) BID D) NBI
A) Risk assessment B) Implementation C) Situation analysis D) Resource control
A) Initial planning B) Prevention C) Evaluation phase D) Coordination
A) Coordination B) Unity of Command C) Chain of Command D) Unity of Direction
A) Tactical B) Operational C) Strategic D) Contingency
A) Reactive operations B) Partnership policing C) Intelligence gathering D) Command centralization
A) Jurisdictional independence B) Routine investigation C) Legal enforcement D) Inter-agency synergy
A) Safety first B) Efficiency C) Security prioritization D) Proportionality
A) Hierarchical control B) Command isolation C) Inter-sectoral coordination D) Communication
A) Implementation B) Control C) Revision D) Improvement
A) Adaptive planning B) Decentralized control C) Standardized procedure D) Narrow coordination
A) Objective formulation B) Strategic alignment C) Policy integration D) Tactical programming
A) Implementation B) Control C) Testing D) Evaluation
A) Unified command and coordination B) Increased jurisdictional conflict C) Reduced intelligence sharing D) Duplication of effort
A) Coordination and synchronization B) Specialization C) Chain of command D) Task delegation
A) To evaluate performance and identify gaps B) To finalize reports only C) To assign blame for failures D) To celebrate success
A) Crisis management B) Coordination plan C) Command instruction D) Information gathering
A) To rely on surveillance alone B) To increase police presence only C) To deter offenders by stricter laws D) To redesign public spaces to reduce criminal opportunities
A) Target hardening B) Maintenance C) Territorial reinforcement D) Natural surveillance
A) It visualizes spatial relationships between environment and crime B) It replaces human patrols C) It eliminates crime completely D) It records officer attendance
A) Dark alleys B) Large, unsupervised spaces C) Open public plazas D) Fences and designated entry points
A) Target hardening B) Natural surveillance C) Territorial reinforcement D) Formal control
A) Traditional mapping B) Data-driven deployment C) Human-based observation D) Random patrol
A) Reactive mapping B) Manual plotting C) Static mapping D) Predictive GIS analysis
A) Natural surveillance B) Target hardening C) Maintenance D) Access control
A) Reducing property lines B) Encouraging community ownership of public spaces C) Increasing police checkpoints D) Eliminating open areas
A) Close all schools temporarily B) Increase patrol visibility in the identified zones C) Ignore minor crimes D) Conduct random arrests
A) It focuses only on offender data B) It measures public satisfaction C) It visually reconstructs the event’s spatial flow D) It eliminates paperwork
A) Reinforce a sense of ownership and safety B) Expand commercial property C) Limit police activity D) Reduce government spending
A) Replace detectives B) Avoid manual investigation C) Track spatial-temporal behavior of offenders D) Reduce manpower
A) Crime prevention through design B) Target hardening C) Environmental aesthetics D) Situational design
A) Predictive precision B) Political decision-making C) Officer scheduling D) Administrative filing
A) Replacing leadership functions B) Eliminating all crimes C) Reducing community involvement D) Allowing real-time tracking and spatial decision-making
A) Isolated parking areas B) Well-lit open spaces C) Hidden alleys D) Narrow blind streets
A) Territorial reinforcement and deterrence B) Economic zoning C) Population balance D) Bureaucratic control
A) Temporal-spatial crime forecasting B) Statistical sampling C) Demographic analysis D) Population profiling
A) Randomized response strategy B) Manual data analysis C) Application of data-informed operational planning D) Traditional guesswork
A) Equal protection B) Probable cause C) Due process D) Double jeopardy
A) Right to confrontation B) Right to counsel C) Right to privacy D) Right against unreasonable detention
A) Stop and Frisk B) Hot Pursuit Doctrine C) Plain View Doctrine D) Fruit of the Poisonous Tree
A) Plain View Doctrine B) Doctrine of Implied Consent C) Exclusionary Rule D) Probable Cause Doctrine
A) Writ of Habeas Corpus B) Warrant Clause C) Rule on Evidence D) Rule on Custodial Investigation
A) RA 7438 (Rights of Arrested Persons) B) RA 6975 (DILG Act) C) RA 9165 (Dangerous Drugs Act) D) RA 8551 (PNP Reform Act)
A) The suspect’s immediate interrogation B) Documentation of surrender and rights advisement C) Search of residence D) Media exposure
A) Right to bail B) Right to confrontation C) Right to counsel and against self-incrimination D) Right to privacy
A) It involves random vehicle searches B) It targets political groups C) It is properly supervised and non-discriminatory D) It is done secretly
A) Plain View Doctrine B) In flagrante delicto C) Exigent Circumstance Doctrine D) Consent Search Doctrine
A) Non-bailable offense B) Due process violation C) Preventive detention D) Civil liability
A) The right to counsel B) The right to speedy trial C) The right to free travel D) The right against unlawful search and seizure
A) Right against self-incrimination B) Right to due process C) Right to privacy D) Right to bail
A) A barangay official B) A witness C) An independent counsel of the suspect’s choice D) The arresting officer’s superior
A) Due process B) Proportionality C) Separation of powers D) Lawful exercise of police power
A) Quo Warranto B) Habeas Corpus C) Injunction D) Certiorari
A) Republic Act No. 6975 B) Republic Act No. 8551 C) Republic Act No. 9165 D) Republic Act No. 7438
A) Doctrine of hot pursuit B) Reasonable necessity of means employed C) Plain view rule D) Probable cause principle
A) It is valid if the officer signs it B) It can be used as circumstantial evidence C) It is inadmissible due to rights violation D) It is admissible if recorded
A) Right to privacy B) Right to silence C) Right to travel D) Freedom of speech and expression
A) Miranda doctrine B) Exclusionary rule C) Chain of custody rule under RA 9165 D) Rules on Criminal Procedure
A) Article 125 of the Revised Penal Code B) RA 8551 C) RA 7438 D) Article 248 of the Revised Penal Code
A) Doctrine of Double Jeopardy B) Hot Pursuit Doctrine C) Presumption of Regularity D) Exclusionary Rule
A) Article III, Section 2 B) Article VI, Section 11 C) Article III, Section 12 D) Article II, Section 1
A) Police media cooperation B) Summary publicity for deterrence C) Confidentiality and respect for due process D) Public display for transparency |