A) Unity of Command B) Flexibility C) Centralization D) Evidence-Based Planning
A) Operational Plan B) Administrative Plan C) Contingency Plan D) Strategic Plan
A) Evaluation B) Direction C) Adaptability D) Control
A) Performance Governance System (PGS) B) Balanced Scorecard C) Situational Leadership Model D) Quality Management System
A) Regularly updating patrol schedules based on feedback B) Preparing alternate routes for VIP security C) Reporting only major crimes D) Following the same route daily
A) Operational B) Contingency C) Strategic D) Tactical
A) Organizational participation B) Command authority C) Political alignment D) Efficiency through hierarchy
A) Operational Plan B) Policy Plan C) Administrative Plan D) Strategic Plan
A) Through measurable and transparent objectives B) Through centralized command only C) Through punitive measures for non-performance D) Through strict adherence to hierarchy
A) Tactical Plan B) Contingency Plan C) Strategic Plan D) Standing Plan
A) Command B) Motivation C) Control D) Coordination
A) Segregation B) Decentralization C) Coordination D) Secrecy
A) Centralized supervision B) Authoritarian leadership C) Participative governance D) Individual performance only
A) Allocate resources for intelligence B) Identify police misconduct C) Record disciplinary actions D) Measure organizational and individual performance
A) Continuous improvement and adaptation B) Operations remain classified C) Plans are fixed and unchangeable D) Only top officers make revisions
A) Tactical plans have long-term goals B) Strategic plans deal with day-to-day operations C) Tactical plans translate strategies into immediate actions D) Tactical plans focus on national objectives
A) Strategic Plan B) Administrative Plan C) Operational Plan D) Contingency Plan
A) Transformation B) Accountability C) Partnership D) Deterrence
A) It focuses only on leadership goals B) It measures output and transparency C) It increases bureaucracy D) It limits officer discretion
A) Personnel control B) Strategic alignment C) Procedural authority D) Policy compliance
A) Statistical modeling B) Non-graphical indicator C) Spatial regression D) Thematic mapping
A) Predictive policing B) Social crime mapping C) Geographic profiling D) Random patrols
A) Thematic mapping B) Trend analysis C) Hotspot analysis D) Spatial regression
A) Graphic regression B) Thematic C) Topographic D) Choropleth
A) Forecasting public celebrations B) Determining police salaries C) Identifying areas with high crime concentrations D) Mapping police jurisdiction borders
A) Randomized control patrol B) Strategic redeployment C) Tactical crime mapping D) Spatial diffusion
A) It focuses solely on statistical data B) It allows speculative conclusions C) It visualizes patterns that inform operational decisions D) It replaces human intelligence
A) Spatial regression B) Temporal analysis C) Non-graphical evaluation D) Longitudinal monitoring
A) Hotspot mapping predicts future crime locations B) Geographic profiling focuses on identifying offenders’ probable residences C) Both measure community satisfaction D) Geographic profiling uses non-spatial data only
A) Non-graphical indicators B) Spatial mapping C) Thematic analysis D) Predictive simulation
A) Situational correlation B) Spatial regression C) Area mapping D) Environmental regression
A) It emphasizes minor crimes only B) It eliminates the need for statistics C) It simplifies resource allocation by visualizing crime trends D) It only works for rural areas
A) Dynamic time-series map B) Isoline map C) Static hotspot map D) Non-graphical table
A) Conduct spatial correlation B) Produce non-graphical outputs C) Identify policy gaps D) Measure administrative efficiency
A) Reactive patrol B) Predictive analytics C) Routine mapping D) Manual charting
A) Resource allocation B) Situation analysis C) Feedback D) Implementation
A) Patrol Plan B) Contingency Plan C) Tactical Deployment Plan D) Administrative Plan
A) Intelligence secrecy B) Inter-agency collaboration C) Operational planning D) Hierarchical supervision
A) PCG B) BID C) NBI D) PNP
A) Resource control B) Implementation C) Situation analysis D) Risk assessment
A) Prevention B) Coordination C) Evaluation phase D) Initial planning
A) Coordination B) Chain of Command C) Unity of Direction D) Unity of Command
A) Tactical B) Operational C) Contingency D) Strategic
A) Command centralization B) Partnership policing C) Reactive operations D) Intelligence gathering
A) Legal enforcement B) Routine investigation C) Inter-agency synergy D) Jurisdictional independence
A) Proportionality B) Efficiency C) Safety first D) Security prioritization
A) Inter-sectoral coordination B) Hierarchical control C) Command isolation D) Communication
A) Improvement B) Control C) Implementation D) Revision
A) Standardized procedure B) Decentralized control C) Adaptive planning D) Narrow coordination
A) Objective formulation B) Tactical programming C) Strategic alignment D) Policy integration
A) Implementation B) Evaluation C) Control D) Testing
A) Duplication of effort B) Reduced intelligence sharing C) Increased jurisdictional conflict D) Unified command and coordination
A) Specialization B) Coordination and synchronization C) Chain of command D) Task delegation
A) To celebrate success B) To evaluate performance and identify gaps C) To finalize reports only D) To assign blame for failures
A) Coordination plan B) Command instruction C) Information gathering D) Crisis management
A) To rely on surveillance alone B) To increase police presence only C) To redesign public spaces to reduce criminal opportunities D) To deter offenders by stricter laws
A) Target hardening B) Territorial reinforcement C) Natural surveillance D) Maintenance
A) It replaces human patrols B) It records officer attendance C) It eliminates crime completely D) It visualizes spatial relationships between environment and crime
A) Large, unsupervised spaces B) Dark alleys C) Open public plazas D) Fences and designated entry points
A) Natural surveillance B) Target hardening C) Territorial reinforcement D) Formal control
A) Data-driven deployment B) Traditional mapping C) Human-based observation D) Random patrol
A) Static mapping B) Reactive mapping C) Predictive GIS analysis D) Manual plotting
A) Target hardening B) Natural surveillance C) Maintenance D) Access control
A) Increasing police checkpoints B) Eliminating open areas C) Encouraging community ownership of public spaces D) Reducing property lines
A) Ignore minor crimes B) Close all schools temporarily C) Increase patrol visibility in the identified zones D) Conduct random arrests
A) It measures public satisfaction B) It visually reconstructs the event’s spatial flow C) It focuses only on offender data D) It eliminates paperwork
A) Reinforce a sense of ownership and safety B) Expand commercial property C) Reduce government spending D) Limit police activity
A) Reduce manpower B) Track spatial-temporal behavior of offenders C) Replace detectives D) Avoid manual investigation
A) Target hardening B) Environmental aesthetics C) Crime prevention through design D) Situational design
A) Officer scheduling B) Political decision-making C) Predictive precision D) Administrative filing
A) Allowing real-time tracking and spatial decision-making B) Reducing community involvement C) Replacing leadership functions D) Eliminating all crimes
A) Hidden alleys B) Isolated parking areas C) Well-lit open spaces D) Narrow blind streets
A) Economic zoning B) Population balance C) Territorial reinforcement and deterrence D) Bureaucratic control
A) Temporal-spatial crime forecasting B) Demographic analysis C) Population profiling D) Statistical sampling
A) Randomized response strategy B) Traditional guesswork C) Application of data-informed operational planning D) Manual data analysis
A) Double jeopardy B) Due process C) Probable cause D) Equal protection
A) Right to confrontation B) Right to privacy C) Right to counsel D) Right against unreasonable detention
A) Plain View Doctrine B) Hot Pursuit Doctrine C) Fruit of the Poisonous Tree D) Stop and Frisk
A) Plain View Doctrine B) Probable Cause Doctrine C) Exclusionary Rule D) Doctrine of Implied Consent
A) Rule on Evidence B) Warrant Clause C) Rule on Custodial Investigation D) Writ of Habeas Corpus
A) RA 8551 (PNP Reform Act) B) RA 6975 (DILG Act) C) RA 9165 (Dangerous Drugs Act) D) RA 7438 (Rights of Arrested Persons)
A) Documentation of surrender and rights advisement B) Search of residence C) The suspect’s immediate interrogation D) Media exposure
A) Right to privacy B) Right to counsel and against self-incrimination C) Right to bail D) Right to confrontation
A) It targets political groups B) It is done secretly C) It is properly supervised and non-discriminatory D) It involves random vehicle searches
A) In flagrante delicto B) Plain View Doctrine C) Consent Search Doctrine D) Exigent Circumstance Doctrine
A) Non-bailable offense B) Due process violation C) Civil liability D) Preventive detention
A) The right against unlawful search and seizure B) The right to counsel C) The right to free travel D) The right to speedy trial
A) Right to due process B) Right to bail C) Right against self-incrimination D) Right to privacy
A) A witness B) The arresting officer’s superior C) An independent counsel of the suspect’s choice D) A barangay official
A) Lawful exercise of police power B) Due process C) Separation of powers D) Proportionality
A) Habeas Corpus B) Quo Warranto C) Injunction D) Certiorari
A) Republic Act No. 9165 B) Republic Act No. 8551 C) Republic Act No. 6975 D) Republic Act No. 7438
A) Reasonable necessity of means employed B) Plain view rule C) Doctrine of hot pursuit D) Probable cause principle
A) It can be used as circumstantial evidence B) It is admissible if recorded C) It is valid if the officer signs it D) It is inadmissible due to rights violation
A) Right to privacy B) Freedom of speech and expression C) Right to silence D) Right to travel
A) Miranda doctrine B) Exclusionary rule C) Chain of custody rule under RA 9165 D) Rules on Criminal Procedure
A) Article 248 of the Revised Penal Code B) RA 7438 C) Article 125 of the Revised Penal Code D) RA 8551
A) Hot Pursuit Doctrine B) Exclusionary Rule C) Presumption of Regularity D) Doctrine of Double Jeopardy
A) Article III, Section 12 B) Article III, Section 2 C) Article VI, Section 11 D) Article II, Section 1
A) Public display for transparency B) Police media cooperation C) Summary publicity for deterrence D) Confidentiality and respect for due process |