A) Centralization B) Flexibility C) Unity of Command D) Evidence-Based Planning
A) Strategic Plan B) Operational Plan C) Administrative Plan D) Contingency Plan
A) Direction B) Adaptability C) Evaluation D) Control
A) Balanced Scorecard B) Performance Governance System (PGS) C) Situational Leadership Model D) Quality Management System
A) Regularly updating patrol schedules based on feedback B) Following the same route daily C) Preparing alternate routes for VIP security D) Reporting only major crimes
A) Tactical B) Operational C) Strategic D) Contingency
A) Command authority B) Organizational participation C) Political alignment D) Efficiency through hierarchy
A) Strategic Plan B) Operational Plan C) Policy Plan D) Administrative Plan
A) Through centralized command only B) Through strict adherence to hierarchy C) Through measurable and transparent objectives D) Through punitive measures for non-performance
A) Tactical Plan B) Standing Plan C) Contingency Plan D) Strategic Plan
A) Motivation B) Coordination C) Control D) Command
A) Segregation B) Decentralization C) Secrecy D) Coordination
A) Participative governance B) Individual performance only C) Centralized supervision D) Authoritarian leadership
A) Measure organizational and individual performance B) Allocate resources for intelligence C) Record disciplinary actions D) Identify police misconduct
A) Continuous improvement and adaptation B) Operations remain classified C) Only top officers make revisions D) Plans are fixed and unchangeable
A) Tactical plans translate strategies into immediate actions B) Tactical plans have long-term goals C) Strategic plans deal with day-to-day operations D) Tactical plans focus on national objectives
A) Operational Plan B) Contingency Plan C) Strategic Plan D) Administrative Plan
A) Accountability B) Transformation C) Deterrence D) Partnership
A) It measures output and transparency B) It increases bureaucracy C) It focuses only on leadership goals D) It limits officer discretion
A) Procedural authority B) Strategic alignment C) Personnel control D) Policy compliance
A) Statistical modeling B) Thematic mapping C) Non-graphical indicator D) Spatial regression
A) Geographic profiling B) Social crime mapping C) Predictive policing D) Random patrols
A) Hotspot analysis B) Thematic mapping C) Spatial regression D) Trend analysis
A) Topographic B) Choropleth C) Thematic D) Graphic regression
A) Determining police salaries B) Identifying areas with high crime concentrations C) Mapping police jurisdiction borders D) Forecasting public celebrations
A) Randomized control patrol B) Strategic redeployment C) Tactical crime mapping D) Spatial diffusion
A) It allows speculative conclusions B) It visualizes patterns that inform operational decisions C) It focuses solely on statistical data D) It replaces human intelligence
A) Longitudinal monitoring B) Temporal analysis C) Non-graphical evaluation D) Spatial regression
A) Geographic profiling uses non-spatial data only B) Both measure community satisfaction C) Hotspot mapping predicts future crime locations D) Geographic profiling focuses on identifying offenders’ probable residences
A) Spatial mapping B) Predictive simulation C) Non-graphical indicators D) Thematic analysis
A) Spatial regression B) Area mapping C) Situational correlation D) Environmental regression
A) It only works for rural areas B) It eliminates the need for statistics C) It simplifies resource allocation by visualizing crime trends D) It emphasizes minor crimes only
A) Static hotspot map B) Dynamic time-series map C) Non-graphical table D) Isoline map
A) Identify policy gaps B) Measure administrative efficiency C) Produce non-graphical outputs D) Conduct spatial correlation
A) Routine mapping B) Reactive patrol C) Predictive analytics D) Manual charting
A) Resource allocation B) Feedback C) Situation analysis D) Implementation
A) Administrative Plan B) Patrol Plan C) Contingency Plan D) Tactical Deployment Plan
A) Intelligence secrecy B) Inter-agency collaboration C) Operational planning D) Hierarchical supervision
A) NBI B) BID C) PCG D) PNP
A) Resource control B) Situation analysis C) Risk assessment D) Implementation
A) Coordination B) Initial planning C) Prevention D) Evaluation phase
A) Unity of Direction B) Coordination C) Chain of Command D) Unity of Command
A) Operational B) Strategic C) Contingency D) Tactical
A) Partnership policing B) Reactive operations C) Intelligence gathering D) Command centralization
A) Inter-agency synergy B) Jurisdictional independence C) Routine investigation D) Legal enforcement
A) Security prioritization B) Safety first C) Proportionality D) Efficiency
A) Inter-sectoral coordination B) Hierarchical control C) Communication D) Command isolation
A) Control B) Improvement C) Revision D) Implementation
A) Standardized procedure B) Decentralized control C) Narrow coordination D) Adaptive planning
A) Tactical programming B) Strategic alignment C) Policy integration D) Objective formulation
A) Evaluation B) Control C) Implementation D) Testing
A) Reduced intelligence sharing B) Increased jurisdictional conflict C) Unified command and coordination D) Duplication of effort
A) Specialization B) Chain of command C) Task delegation D) Coordination and synchronization
A) To evaluate performance and identify gaps B) To celebrate success C) To assign blame for failures D) To finalize reports only
A) Crisis management B) Command instruction C) Coordination plan D) Information gathering
A) To redesign public spaces to reduce criminal opportunities B) To increase police presence only C) To deter offenders by stricter laws D) To rely on surveillance alone
A) Natural surveillance B) Maintenance C) Target hardening D) Territorial reinforcement
A) It visualizes spatial relationships between environment and crime B) It records officer attendance C) It replaces human patrols D) It eliminates crime completely
A) Open public plazas B) Dark alleys C) Large, unsupervised spaces D) Fences and designated entry points
A) Territorial reinforcement B) Natural surveillance C) Formal control D) Target hardening
A) Human-based observation B) Random patrol C) Data-driven deployment D) Traditional mapping
A) Manual plotting B) Predictive GIS analysis C) Static mapping D) Reactive mapping
A) Access control B) Target hardening C) Maintenance D) Natural surveillance
A) Eliminating open areas B) Encouraging community ownership of public spaces C) Increasing police checkpoints D) Reducing property lines
A) Close all schools temporarily B) Conduct random arrests C) Increase patrol visibility in the identified zones D) Ignore minor crimes
A) It focuses only on offender data B) It visually reconstructs the event’s spatial flow C) It eliminates paperwork D) It measures public satisfaction
A) Reduce government spending B) Reinforce a sense of ownership and safety C) Limit police activity D) Expand commercial property
A) Reduce manpower B) Track spatial-temporal behavior of offenders C) Replace detectives D) Avoid manual investigation
A) Situational design B) Target hardening C) Environmental aesthetics D) Crime prevention through design
A) Political decision-making B) Predictive precision C) Officer scheduling D) Administrative filing
A) Reducing community involvement B) Allowing real-time tracking and spatial decision-making C) Eliminating all crimes D) Replacing leadership functions
A) Isolated parking areas B) Well-lit open spaces C) Narrow blind streets D) Hidden alleys
A) Bureaucratic control B) Population balance C) Economic zoning D) Territorial reinforcement and deterrence
A) Statistical sampling B) Demographic analysis C) Population profiling D) Temporal-spatial crime forecasting
A) Traditional guesswork B) Application of data-informed operational planning C) Randomized response strategy D) Manual data analysis
A) Due process B) Equal protection C) Probable cause D) Double jeopardy
A) Right to counsel B) Right to confrontation C) Right to privacy D) Right against unreasonable detention
A) Fruit of the Poisonous Tree B) Plain View Doctrine C) Stop and Frisk D) Hot Pursuit Doctrine
A) Plain View Doctrine B) Doctrine of Implied Consent C) Probable Cause Doctrine D) Exclusionary Rule
A) Rule on Evidence B) Writ of Habeas Corpus C) Rule on Custodial Investigation D) Warrant Clause
A) RA 8551 (PNP Reform Act) B) RA 6975 (DILG Act) C) RA 9165 (Dangerous Drugs Act) D) RA 7438 (Rights of Arrested Persons)
A) Documentation of surrender and rights advisement B) The suspect’s immediate interrogation C) Search of residence D) Media exposure
A) Right to privacy B) Right to confrontation C) Right to bail D) Right to counsel and against self-incrimination
A) It involves random vehicle searches B) It is properly supervised and non-discriminatory C) It is done secretly D) It targets political groups
A) Consent Search Doctrine B) In flagrante delicto C) Plain View Doctrine D) Exigent Circumstance Doctrine
A) Non-bailable offense B) Due process violation C) Civil liability D) Preventive detention
A) The right against unlawful search and seizure B) The right to speedy trial C) The right to free travel D) The right to counsel
A) Right to privacy B) Right against self-incrimination C) Right to due process D) Right to bail
A) The arresting officer’s superior B) A barangay official C) A witness D) An independent counsel of the suspect’s choice
A) Due process B) Lawful exercise of police power C) Separation of powers D) Proportionality
A) Quo Warranto B) Habeas Corpus C) Certiorari D) Injunction
A) Republic Act No. 9165 B) Republic Act No. 6975 C) Republic Act No. 8551 D) Republic Act No. 7438
A) Doctrine of hot pursuit B) Reasonable necessity of means employed C) Probable cause principle D) Plain view rule
A) It can be used as circumstantial evidence B) It is inadmissible due to rights violation C) It is admissible if recorded D) It is valid if the officer signs it
A) Freedom of speech and expression B) Right to silence C) Right to travel D) Right to privacy
A) Exclusionary rule B) Rules on Criminal Procedure C) Miranda doctrine D) Chain of custody rule under RA 9165
A) Article 248 of the Revised Penal Code B) RA 7438 C) RA 8551 D) Article 125 of the Revised Penal Code
A) Hot Pursuit Doctrine B) Exclusionary Rule C) Presumption of Regularity D) Doctrine of Double Jeopardy
A) Article III, Section 2 B) Article II, Section 1 C) Article III, Section 12 D) Article VI, Section 11
A) Confidentiality and respect for due process B) Summary publicity for deterrence C) Public display for transparency D) Police media cooperation |