A) Flexibility B) Evidence-Based Planning C) Centralization D) Unity of Command
A) Administrative Plan B) Contingency Plan C) Strategic Plan D) Operational Plan
A) Control B) Direction C) Evaluation D) Adaptability
A) Situational Leadership Model B) Performance Governance System (PGS) C) Balanced Scorecard D) Quality Management System
A) Regularly updating patrol schedules based on feedback B) Following the same route daily C) Reporting only major crimes D) Preparing alternate routes for VIP security
A) Strategic B) Tactical C) Operational D) Contingency
A) Efficiency through hierarchy B) Political alignment C) Command authority D) Organizational participation
A) Administrative Plan B) Operational Plan C) Strategic Plan D) Policy Plan
A) Through strict adherence to hierarchy B) Through measurable and transparent objectives C) Through centralized command only D) Through punitive measures for non-performance
A) Contingency Plan B) Standing Plan C) Tactical Plan D) Strategic Plan
A) Coordination B) Control C) Command D) Motivation
A) Coordination B) Decentralization C) Segregation D) Secrecy
A) Authoritarian leadership B) Centralized supervision C) Individual performance only D) Participative governance
A) Allocate resources for intelligence B) Record disciplinary actions C) Identify police misconduct D) Measure organizational and individual performance
A) Continuous improvement and adaptation B) Plans are fixed and unchangeable C) Only top officers make revisions D) Operations remain classified
A) Tactical plans translate strategies into immediate actions B) Tactical plans focus on national objectives C) Tactical plans have long-term goals D) Strategic plans deal with day-to-day operations
A) Administrative Plan B) Contingency Plan C) Strategic Plan D) Operational Plan
A) Partnership B) Transformation C) Accountability D) Deterrence
A) It focuses only on leadership goals B) It limits officer discretion C) It measures output and transparency D) It increases bureaucracy
A) Procedural authority B) Strategic alignment C) Policy compliance D) Personnel control
A) Statistical modeling B) Thematic mapping C) Spatial regression D) Non-graphical indicator
A) Predictive policing B) Geographic profiling C) Random patrols D) Social crime mapping
A) Trend analysis B) Spatial regression C) Thematic mapping D) Hotspot analysis
A) Choropleth B) Topographic C) Graphic regression D) Thematic
A) Forecasting public celebrations B) Mapping police jurisdiction borders C) Determining police salaries D) Identifying areas with high crime concentrations
A) Randomized control patrol B) Strategic redeployment C) Tactical crime mapping D) Spatial diffusion
A) It focuses solely on statistical data B) It visualizes patterns that inform operational decisions C) It allows speculative conclusions D) It replaces human intelligence
A) Temporal analysis B) Spatial regression C) Longitudinal monitoring D) Non-graphical evaluation
A) Hotspot mapping predicts future crime locations B) Both measure community satisfaction C) Geographic profiling focuses on identifying offenders’ probable residences D) Geographic profiling uses non-spatial data only
A) Predictive simulation B) Non-graphical indicators C) Thematic analysis D) Spatial mapping
A) Situational correlation B) Environmental regression C) Spatial regression D) Area mapping
A) It eliminates the need for statistics B) It emphasizes minor crimes only C) It only works for rural areas D) It simplifies resource allocation by visualizing crime trends
A) Dynamic time-series map B) Static hotspot map C) Isoline map D) Non-graphical table
A) Produce non-graphical outputs B) Identify policy gaps C) Measure administrative efficiency D) Conduct spatial correlation
A) Routine mapping B) Predictive analytics C) Reactive patrol D) Manual charting
A) Resource allocation B) Implementation C) Feedback D) Situation analysis
A) Patrol Plan B) Administrative Plan C) Contingency Plan D) Tactical Deployment Plan
A) Intelligence secrecy B) Hierarchical supervision C) Inter-agency collaboration D) Operational planning
A) PNP B) NBI C) PCG D) BID
A) Resource control B) Implementation C) Situation analysis D) Risk assessment
A) Prevention B) Evaluation phase C) Initial planning D) Coordination
A) Unity of Direction B) Chain of Command C) Coordination D) Unity of Command
A) Strategic B) Operational C) Tactical D) Contingency
A) Reactive operations B) Command centralization C) Partnership policing D) Intelligence gathering
A) Jurisdictional independence B) Inter-agency synergy C) Legal enforcement D) Routine investigation
A) Security prioritization B) Safety first C) Efficiency D) Proportionality
A) Hierarchical control B) Command isolation C) Communication D) Inter-sectoral coordination
A) Control B) Implementation C) Revision D) Improvement
A) Standardized procedure B) Adaptive planning C) Decentralized control D) Narrow coordination
A) Policy integration B) Strategic alignment C) Tactical programming D) Objective formulation
A) Evaluation B) Testing C) Implementation D) Control
A) Increased jurisdictional conflict B) Duplication of effort C) Unified command and coordination D) Reduced intelligence sharing
A) Chain of command B) Specialization C) Coordination and synchronization D) Task delegation
A) To celebrate success B) To evaluate performance and identify gaps C) To finalize reports only D) To assign blame for failures
A) Command instruction B) Crisis management C) Information gathering D) Coordination plan
A) To deter offenders by stricter laws B) To rely on surveillance alone C) To redesign public spaces to reduce criminal opportunities D) To increase police presence only
A) Maintenance B) Target hardening C) Territorial reinforcement D) Natural surveillance
A) It eliminates crime completely B) It replaces human patrols C) It records officer attendance D) It visualizes spatial relationships between environment and crime
A) Open public plazas B) Fences and designated entry points C) Large, unsupervised spaces D) Dark alleys
A) Natural surveillance B) Territorial reinforcement C) Target hardening D) Formal control
A) Human-based observation B) Random patrol C) Traditional mapping D) Data-driven deployment
A) Reactive mapping B) Predictive GIS analysis C) Manual plotting D) Static mapping
A) Access control B) Natural surveillance C) Target hardening D) Maintenance
A) Increasing police checkpoints B) Eliminating open areas C) Encouraging community ownership of public spaces D) Reducing property lines
A) Ignore minor crimes B) Conduct random arrests C) Increase patrol visibility in the identified zones D) Close all schools temporarily
A) It measures public satisfaction B) It focuses only on offender data C) It eliminates paperwork D) It visually reconstructs the event’s spatial flow
A) Reinforce a sense of ownership and safety B) Reduce government spending C) Limit police activity D) Expand commercial property
A) Replace detectives B) Avoid manual investigation C) Reduce manpower D) Track spatial-temporal behavior of offenders
A) Environmental aesthetics B) Situational design C) Target hardening D) Crime prevention through design
A) Administrative filing B) Officer scheduling C) Political decision-making D) Predictive precision
A) Eliminating all crimes B) Allowing real-time tracking and spatial decision-making C) Reducing community involvement D) Replacing leadership functions
A) Hidden alleys B) Well-lit open spaces C) Isolated parking areas D) Narrow blind streets
A) Economic zoning B) Population balance C) Territorial reinforcement and deterrence D) Bureaucratic control
A) Statistical sampling B) Population profiling C) Temporal-spatial crime forecasting D) Demographic analysis
A) Traditional guesswork B) Manual data analysis C) Application of data-informed operational planning D) Randomized response strategy
A) Double jeopardy B) Equal protection C) Probable cause D) Due process
A) Right to confrontation B) Right against unreasonable detention C) Right to counsel D) Right to privacy
A) Fruit of the Poisonous Tree B) Plain View Doctrine C) Hot Pursuit Doctrine D) Stop and Frisk
A) Plain View Doctrine B) Exclusionary Rule C) Probable Cause Doctrine D) Doctrine of Implied Consent
A) Writ of Habeas Corpus B) Rule on Evidence C) Rule on Custodial Investigation D) Warrant Clause
A) RA 7438 (Rights of Arrested Persons) B) RA 6975 (DILG Act) C) RA 8551 (PNP Reform Act) D) RA 9165 (Dangerous Drugs Act)
A) The suspect’s immediate interrogation B) Documentation of surrender and rights advisement C) Search of residence D) Media exposure
A) Right to counsel and against self-incrimination B) Right to confrontation C) Right to privacy D) Right to bail
A) It targets political groups B) It involves random vehicle searches C) It is properly supervised and non-discriminatory D) It is done secretly
A) In flagrante delicto B) Plain View Doctrine C) Consent Search Doctrine D) Exigent Circumstance Doctrine
A) Preventive detention B) Civil liability C) Due process violation D) Non-bailable offense
A) The right to speedy trial B) The right to free travel C) The right against unlawful search and seizure D) The right to counsel
A) Right to bail B) Right to due process C) Right against self-incrimination D) Right to privacy
A) An independent counsel of the suspect’s choice B) A witness C) The arresting officer’s superior D) A barangay official
A) Due process B) Proportionality C) Lawful exercise of police power D) Separation of powers
A) Certiorari B) Injunction C) Habeas Corpus D) Quo Warranto
A) Republic Act No. 8551 B) Republic Act No. 9165 C) Republic Act No. 6975 D) Republic Act No. 7438
A) Plain view rule B) Doctrine of hot pursuit C) Probable cause principle D) Reasonable necessity of means employed
A) It can be used as circumstantial evidence B) It is valid if the officer signs it C) It is admissible if recorded D) It is inadmissible due to rights violation
A) Right to travel B) Right to silence C) Right to privacy D) Freedom of speech and expression
A) Exclusionary rule B) Rules on Criminal Procedure C) Chain of custody rule under RA 9165 D) Miranda doctrine
A) Article 125 of the Revised Penal Code B) Article 248 of the Revised Penal Code C) RA 8551 D) RA 7438
A) Presumption of Regularity B) Doctrine of Double Jeopardy C) Hot Pursuit Doctrine D) Exclusionary Rule
A) Article III, Section 12 B) Article II, Section 1 C) Article III, Section 2 D) Article VI, Section 11
A) Police media cooperation B) Public display for transparency C) Summary publicity for deterrence D) Confidentiality and respect for due process |