A) Evidence-Based Planning B) Centralization C) Unity of Command D) Flexibility
A) Strategic Plan B) Operational Plan C) Contingency Plan D) Administrative Plan
A) Evaluation B) Adaptability C) Direction D) Control
A) Balanced Scorecard B) Quality Management System C) Situational Leadership Model D) Performance Governance System (PGS)
A) Regularly updating patrol schedules based on feedback B) Following the same route daily C) Preparing alternate routes for VIP security D) Reporting only major crimes
A) Tactical B) Contingency C) Strategic D) Operational
A) Political alignment B) Command authority C) Organizational participation D) Efficiency through hierarchy
A) Administrative Plan B) Operational Plan C) Policy Plan D) Strategic Plan
A) Through measurable and transparent objectives B) Through centralized command only C) Through strict adherence to hierarchy D) Through punitive measures for non-performance
A) Standing Plan B) Contingency Plan C) Strategic Plan D) Tactical Plan
A) Motivation B) Command C) Control D) Coordination
A) Segregation B) Coordination C) Decentralization D) Secrecy
A) Participative governance B) Authoritarian leadership C) Individual performance only D) Centralized supervision
A) Measure organizational and individual performance B) Record disciplinary actions C) Identify police misconduct D) Allocate resources for intelligence
A) Continuous improvement and adaptation B) Only top officers make revisions C) Operations remain classified D) Plans are fixed and unchangeable
A) Strategic plans deal with day-to-day operations B) Tactical plans have long-term goals C) Tactical plans translate strategies into immediate actions D) Tactical plans focus on national objectives
A) Operational Plan B) Contingency Plan C) Strategic Plan D) Administrative Plan
A) Partnership B) Transformation C) Deterrence D) Accountability
A) It increases bureaucracy B) It focuses only on leadership goals C) It limits officer discretion D) It measures output and transparency
A) Policy compliance B) Procedural authority C) Strategic alignment D) Personnel control
A) Statistical modeling B) Thematic mapping C) Non-graphical indicator D) Spatial regression
A) Social crime mapping B) Random patrols C) Geographic profiling D) Predictive policing
A) Thematic mapping B) Hotspot analysis C) Spatial regression D) Trend analysis
A) Graphic regression B) Choropleth C) Topographic D) Thematic
A) Determining police salaries B) Identifying areas with high crime concentrations C) Mapping police jurisdiction borders D) Forecasting public celebrations
A) Strategic redeployment B) Randomized control patrol C) Spatial diffusion D) Tactical crime mapping
A) It replaces human intelligence B) It focuses solely on statistical data C) It visualizes patterns that inform operational decisions D) It allows speculative conclusions
A) Non-graphical evaluation B) Longitudinal monitoring C) Temporal analysis D) Spatial regression
A) Hotspot mapping predicts future crime locations B) Geographic profiling focuses on identifying offenders’ probable residences C) Both measure community satisfaction D) Geographic profiling uses non-spatial data only
A) Predictive simulation B) Thematic analysis C) Non-graphical indicators D) Spatial mapping
A) Area mapping B) Situational correlation C) Spatial regression D) Environmental regression
A) It eliminates the need for statistics B) It only works for rural areas C) It emphasizes minor crimes only D) It simplifies resource allocation by visualizing crime trends
A) Isoline map B) Dynamic time-series map C) Static hotspot map D) Non-graphical table
A) Measure administrative efficiency B) Produce non-graphical outputs C) Conduct spatial correlation D) Identify policy gaps
A) Manual charting B) Reactive patrol C) Predictive analytics D) Routine mapping
A) Feedback B) Situation analysis C) Resource allocation D) Implementation
A) Tactical Deployment Plan B) Administrative Plan C) Patrol Plan D) Contingency Plan
A) Intelligence secrecy B) Operational planning C) Hierarchical supervision D) Inter-agency collaboration
A) PNP B) BID C) PCG D) NBI
A) Resource control B) Situation analysis C) Implementation D) Risk assessment
A) Initial planning B) Prevention C) Coordination D) Evaluation phase
A) Unity of Direction B) Chain of Command C) Unity of Command D) Coordination
A) Strategic B) Operational C) Tactical D) Contingency
A) Intelligence gathering B) Reactive operations C) Partnership policing D) Command centralization
A) Inter-agency synergy B) Legal enforcement C) Jurisdictional independence D) Routine investigation
A) Security prioritization B) Efficiency C) Proportionality D) Safety first
A) Hierarchical control B) Communication C) Inter-sectoral coordination D) Command isolation
A) Control B) Implementation C) Revision D) Improvement
A) Narrow coordination B) Standardized procedure C) Adaptive planning D) Decentralized control
A) Strategic alignment B) Objective formulation C) Policy integration D) Tactical programming
A) Testing B) Control C) Implementation D) Evaluation
A) Duplication of effort B) Reduced intelligence sharing C) Unified command and coordination D) Increased jurisdictional conflict
A) Chain of command B) Specialization C) Coordination and synchronization D) Task delegation
A) To celebrate success B) To finalize reports only C) To evaluate performance and identify gaps D) To assign blame for failures
A) Command instruction B) Crisis management C) Coordination plan D) Information gathering
A) To increase police presence only B) To redesign public spaces to reduce criminal opportunities C) To rely on surveillance alone D) To deter offenders by stricter laws
A) Maintenance B) Target hardening C) Natural surveillance D) Territorial reinforcement
A) It visualizes spatial relationships between environment and crime B) It records officer attendance C) It eliminates crime completely D) It replaces human patrols
A) Dark alleys B) Large, unsupervised spaces C) Fences and designated entry points D) Open public plazas
A) Territorial reinforcement B) Target hardening C) Formal control D) Natural surveillance
A) Random patrol B) Traditional mapping C) Data-driven deployment D) Human-based observation
A) Manual plotting B) Static mapping C) Reactive mapping D) Predictive GIS analysis
A) Natural surveillance B) Target hardening C) Access control D) Maintenance
A) Reducing property lines B) Increasing police checkpoints C) Eliminating open areas D) Encouraging community ownership of public spaces
A) Increase patrol visibility in the identified zones B) Close all schools temporarily C) Ignore minor crimes D) Conduct random arrests
A) It eliminates paperwork B) It focuses only on offender data C) It visually reconstructs the event’s spatial flow D) It measures public satisfaction
A) Limit police activity B) Reinforce a sense of ownership and safety C) Expand commercial property D) Reduce government spending
A) Track spatial-temporal behavior of offenders B) Avoid manual investigation C) Replace detectives D) Reduce manpower
A) Target hardening B) Environmental aesthetics C) Situational design D) Crime prevention through design
A) Political decision-making B) Officer scheduling C) Administrative filing D) Predictive precision
A) Reducing community involvement B) Eliminating all crimes C) Allowing real-time tracking and spatial decision-making D) Replacing leadership functions
A) Well-lit open spaces B) Isolated parking areas C) Hidden alleys D) Narrow blind streets
A) Population balance B) Territorial reinforcement and deterrence C) Bureaucratic control D) Economic zoning
A) Temporal-spatial crime forecasting B) Demographic analysis C) Population profiling D) Statistical sampling
A) Traditional guesswork B) Randomized response strategy C) Manual data analysis D) Application of data-informed operational planning
A) Double jeopardy B) Due process C) Probable cause D) Equal protection
A) Right against unreasonable detention B) Right to confrontation C) Right to counsel D) Right to privacy
A) Stop and Frisk B) Hot Pursuit Doctrine C) Plain View Doctrine D) Fruit of the Poisonous Tree
A) Doctrine of Implied Consent B) Probable Cause Doctrine C) Exclusionary Rule D) Plain View Doctrine
A) Warrant Clause B) Rule on Custodial Investigation C) Writ of Habeas Corpus D) Rule on Evidence
A) RA 6975 (DILG Act) B) RA 9165 (Dangerous Drugs Act) C) RA 7438 (Rights of Arrested Persons) D) RA 8551 (PNP Reform Act)
A) Media exposure B) Documentation of surrender and rights advisement C) The suspect’s immediate interrogation D) Search of residence
A) Right to confrontation B) Right to privacy C) Right to counsel and against self-incrimination D) Right to bail
A) It involves random vehicle searches B) It targets political groups C) It is done secretly D) It is properly supervised and non-discriminatory
A) Consent Search Doctrine B) Plain View Doctrine C) Exigent Circumstance Doctrine D) In flagrante delicto
A) Due process violation B) Civil liability C) Preventive detention D) Non-bailable offense
A) The right to speedy trial B) The right to counsel C) The right to free travel D) The right against unlawful search and seizure
A) Right to privacy B) Right to due process C) Right to bail D) Right against self-incrimination
A) An independent counsel of the suspect’s choice B) The arresting officer’s superior C) A barangay official D) A witness
A) Due process B) Separation of powers C) Proportionality D) Lawful exercise of police power
A) Quo Warranto B) Injunction C) Habeas Corpus D) Certiorari
A) Republic Act No. 6975 B) Republic Act No. 9165 C) Republic Act No. 7438 D) Republic Act No. 8551
A) Plain view rule B) Probable cause principle C) Reasonable necessity of means employed D) Doctrine of hot pursuit
A) It can be used as circumstantial evidence B) It is valid if the officer signs it C) It is admissible if recorded D) It is inadmissible due to rights violation
A) Right to travel B) Freedom of speech and expression C) Right to silence D) Right to privacy
A) Miranda doctrine B) Chain of custody rule under RA 9165 C) Exclusionary rule D) Rules on Criminal Procedure
A) Article 248 of the Revised Penal Code B) RA 7438 C) RA 8551 D) Article 125 of the Revised Penal Code
A) Doctrine of Double Jeopardy B) Presumption of Regularity C) Hot Pursuit Doctrine D) Exclusionary Rule
A) Article III, Section 12 B) Article VI, Section 11 C) Article II, Section 1 D) Article III, Section 2
A) Confidentiality and respect for due process B) Summary publicity for deterrence C) Police media cooperation D) Public display for transparency |