A) Centralization B) Evidence-Based Planning C) Unity of Command D) Flexibility
A) Strategic Plan B) Operational Plan C) Administrative Plan D) Contingency Plan
A) Adaptability B) Control C) Direction D) Evaluation
A) Situational Leadership Model B) Quality Management System C) Performance Governance System (PGS) D) Balanced Scorecard
A) Preparing alternate routes for VIP security B) Following the same route daily C) Reporting only major crimes D) Regularly updating patrol schedules based on feedback
A) Operational B) Strategic C) Tactical D) Contingency
A) Efficiency through hierarchy B) Political alignment C) Organizational participation D) Command authority
A) Policy Plan B) Operational Plan C) Administrative Plan D) Strategic Plan
A) Through measurable and transparent objectives B) Through punitive measures for non-performance C) Through strict adherence to hierarchy D) Through centralized command only
A) Tactical Plan B) Standing Plan C) Contingency Plan D) Strategic Plan
A) Control B) Coordination C) Command D) Motivation
A) Secrecy B) Segregation C) Coordination D) Decentralization
A) Centralized supervision B) Participative governance C) Authoritarian leadership D) Individual performance only
A) Allocate resources for intelligence B) Measure organizational and individual performance C) Record disciplinary actions D) Identify police misconduct
A) Continuous improvement and adaptation B) Operations remain classified C) Only top officers make revisions D) Plans are fixed and unchangeable
A) Tactical plans have long-term goals B) Tactical plans focus on national objectives C) Strategic plans deal with day-to-day operations D) Tactical plans translate strategies into immediate actions
A) Administrative Plan B) Operational Plan C) Contingency Plan D) Strategic Plan
A) Accountability B) Partnership C) Deterrence D) Transformation
A) It measures output and transparency B) It focuses only on leadership goals C) It limits officer discretion D) It increases bureaucracy
A) Strategic alignment B) Personnel control C) Policy compliance D) Procedural authority
A) Spatial regression B) Thematic mapping C) Non-graphical indicator D) Statistical modeling
A) Predictive policing B) Random patrols C) Geographic profiling D) Social crime mapping
A) Hotspot analysis B) Spatial regression C) Thematic mapping D) Trend analysis
A) Choropleth B) Thematic C) Topographic D) Graphic regression
A) Identifying areas with high crime concentrations B) Mapping police jurisdiction borders C) Determining police salaries D) Forecasting public celebrations
A) Randomized control patrol B) Strategic redeployment C) Tactical crime mapping D) Spatial diffusion
A) It visualizes patterns that inform operational decisions B) It allows speculative conclusions C) It focuses solely on statistical data D) It replaces human intelligence
A) Temporal analysis B) Non-graphical evaluation C) Spatial regression D) Longitudinal monitoring
A) Hotspot mapping predicts future crime locations B) Geographic profiling uses non-spatial data only C) Both measure community satisfaction D) Geographic profiling focuses on identifying offenders’ probable residences
A) Predictive simulation B) Spatial mapping C) Non-graphical indicators D) Thematic analysis
A) Area mapping B) Spatial regression C) Environmental regression D) Situational correlation
A) It emphasizes minor crimes only B) It only works for rural areas C) It eliminates the need for statistics D) It simplifies resource allocation by visualizing crime trends
A) Isoline map B) Dynamic time-series map C) Static hotspot map D) Non-graphical table
A) Measure administrative efficiency B) Identify policy gaps C) Produce non-graphical outputs D) Conduct spatial correlation
A) Routine mapping B) Reactive patrol C) Predictive analytics D) Manual charting
A) Resource allocation B) Feedback C) Implementation D) Situation analysis
A) Tactical Deployment Plan B) Contingency Plan C) Administrative Plan D) Patrol Plan
A) Intelligence secrecy B) Inter-agency collaboration C) Operational planning D) Hierarchical supervision
A) PCG B) NBI C) BID D) PNP
A) Implementation B) Risk assessment C) Situation analysis D) Resource control
A) Prevention B) Coordination C) Evaluation phase D) Initial planning
A) Unity of Command B) Coordination C) Unity of Direction D) Chain of Command
A) Tactical B) Strategic C) Operational D) Contingency
A) Command centralization B) Reactive operations C) Intelligence gathering D) Partnership policing
A) Jurisdictional independence B) Legal enforcement C) Inter-agency synergy D) Routine investigation
A) Proportionality B) Safety first C) Security prioritization D) Efficiency
A) Hierarchical control B) Command isolation C) Communication D) Inter-sectoral coordination
A) Improvement B) Control C) Implementation D) Revision
A) Standardized procedure B) Decentralized control C) Adaptive planning D) Narrow coordination
A) Strategic alignment B) Objective formulation C) Tactical programming D) Policy integration
A) Control B) Testing C) Implementation D) Evaluation
A) Duplication of effort B) Unified command and coordination C) Reduced intelligence sharing D) Increased jurisdictional conflict
A) Coordination and synchronization B) Specialization C) Chain of command D) Task delegation
A) To finalize reports only B) To celebrate success C) To evaluate performance and identify gaps D) To assign blame for failures
A) Command instruction B) Information gathering C) Crisis management D) Coordination plan
A) To redesign public spaces to reduce criminal opportunities B) To rely on surveillance alone C) To deter offenders by stricter laws D) To increase police presence only
A) Target hardening B) Territorial reinforcement C) Natural surveillance D) Maintenance
A) It eliminates crime completely B) It replaces human patrols C) It records officer attendance D) It visualizes spatial relationships between environment and crime
A) Fences and designated entry points B) Dark alleys C) Large, unsupervised spaces D) Open public plazas
A) Target hardening B) Formal control C) Territorial reinforcement D) Natural surveillance
A) Human-based observation B) Traditional mapping C) Data-driven deployment D) Random patrol
A) Static mapping B) Predictive GIS analysis C) Reactive mapping D) Manual plotting
A) Access control B) Natural surveillance C) Maintenance D) Target hardening
A) Eliminating open areas B) Encouraging community ownership of public spaces C) Increasing police checkpoints D) Reducing property lines
A) Close all schools temporarily B) Conduct random arrests C) Increase patrol visibility in the identified zones D) Ignore minor crimes
A) It focuses only on offender data B) It measures public satisfaction C) It visually reconstructs the event’s spatial flow D) It eliminates paperwork
A) Limit police activity B) Reinforce a sense of ownership and safety C) Expand commercial property D) Reduce government spending
A) Reduce manpower B) Avoid manual investigation C) Track spatial-temporal behavior of offenders D) Replace detectives
A) Crime prevention through design B) Target hardening C) Environmental aesthetics D) Situational design
A) Administrative filing B) Predictive precision C) Political decision-making D) Officer scheduling
A) Allowing real-time tracking and spatial decision-making B) Reducing community involvement C) Eliminating all crimes D) Replacing leadership functions
A) Well-lit open spaces B) Narrow blind streets C) Isolated parking areas D) Hidden alleys
A) Economic zoning B) Bureaucratic control C) Population balance D) Territorial reinforcement and deterrence
A) Temporal-spatial crime forecasting B) Demographic analysis C) Statistical sampling D) Population profiling
A) Traditional guesswork B) Randomized response strategy C) Manual data analysis D) Application of data-informed operational planning
A) Due process B) Double jeopardy C) Probable cause D) Equal protection
A) Right to privacy B) Right to counsel C) Right to confrontation D) Right against unreasonable detention
A) Hot Pursuit Doctrine B) Plain View Doctrine C) Stop and Frisk D) Fruit of the Poisonous Tree
A) Plain View Doctrine B) Exclusionary Rule C) Doctrine of Implied Consent D) Probable Cause Doctrine
A) Warrant Clause B) Rule on Custodial Investigation C) Writ of Habeas Corpus D) Rule on Evidence
A) RA 6975 (DILG Act) B) RA 8551 (PNP Reform Act) C) RA 7438 (Rights of Arrested Persons) D) RA 9165 (Dangerous Drugs Act)
A) Search of residence B) Documentation of surrender and rights advisement C) The suspect’s immediate interrogation D) Media exposure
A) Right to counsel and against self-incrimination B) Right to confrontation C) Right to bail D) Right to privacy
A) It is done secretly B) It is properly supervised and non-discriminatory C) It involves random vehicle searches D) It targets political groups
A) Plain View Doctrine B) Exigent Circumstance Doctrine C) Consent Search Doctrine D) In flagrante delicto
A) Due process violation B) Preventive detention C) Civil liability D) Non-bailable offense
A) The right to speedy trial B) The right against unlawful search and seizure C) The right to free travel D) The right to counsel
A) Right to bail B) Right to privacy C) Right to due process D) Right against self-incrimination
A) A barangay official B) An independent counsel of the suspect’s choice C) The arresting officer’s superior D) A witness
A) Separation of powers B) Lawful exercise of police power C) Proportionality D) Due process
A) Quo Warranto B) Injunction C) Certiorari D) Habeas Corpus
A) Republic Act No. 8551 B) Republic Act No. 7438 C) Republic Act No. 6975 D) Republic Act No. 9165
A) Plain view rule B) Doctrine of hot pursuit C) Reasonable necessity of means employed D) Probable cause principle
A) It is inadmissible due to rights violation B) It can be used as circumstantial evidence C) It is valid if the officer signs it D) It is admissible if recorded
A) Freedom of speech and expression B) Right to privacy C) Right to silence D) Right to travel
A) Rules on Criminal Procedure B) Exclusionary rule C) Chain of custody rule under RA 9165 D) Miranda doctrine
A) RA 7438 B) RA 8551 C) Article 248 of the Revised Penal Code D) Article 125 of the Revised Penal Code
A) Presumption of Regularity B) Doctrine of Double Jeopardy C) Exclusionary Rule D) Hot Pursuit Doctrine
A) Article III, Section 12 B) Article III, Section 2 C) Article VI, Section 11 D) Article II, Section 1
A) Public display for transparency B) Confidentiality and respect for due process C) Summary publicity for deterrence D) Police media cooperation |