A) Centralization B) Flexibility C) Unity of Command D) Evidence-Based Planning
A) Administrative Plan B) Operational Plan C) Strategic Plan D) Contingency Plan
A) Adaptability B) Direction C) Control D) Evaluation
A) Quality Management System B) Balanced Scorecard C) Performance Governance System (PGS) D) Situational Leadership Model
A) Following the same route daily B) Preparing alternate routes for VIP security C) Reporting only major crimes D) Regularly updating patrol schedules based on feedback
A) Contingency B) Tactical C) Operational D) Strategic
A) Organizational participation B) Command authority C) Efficiency through hierarchy D) Political alignment
A) Strategic Plan B) Operational Plan C) Policy Plan D) Administrative Plan
A) Through punitive measures for non-performance B) Through measurable and transparent objectives C) Through strict adherence to hierarchy D) Through centralized command only
A) Strategic Plan B) Contingency Plan C) Tactical Plan D) Standing Plan
A) Motivation B) Control C) Command D) Coordination
A) Segregation B) Coordination C) Decentralization D) Secrecy
A) Authoritarian leadership B) Participative governance C) Individual performance only D) Centralized supervision
A) Allocate resources for intelligence B) Identify police misconduct C) Record disciplinary actions D) Measure organizational and individual performance
A) Operations remain classified B) Plans are fixed and unchangeable C) Continuous improvement and adaptation D) Only top officers make revisions
A) Tactical plans focus on national objectives B) Tactical plans translate strategies into immediate actions C) Strategic plans deal with day-to-day operations D) Tactical plans have long-term goals
A) Administrative Plan B) Strategic Plan C) Operational Plan D) Contingency Plan
A) Partnership B) Accountability C) Transformation D) Deterrence
A) It limits officer discretion B) It measures output and transparency C) It focuses only on leadership goals D) It increases bureaucracy
A) Strategic alignment B) Procedural authority C) Personnel control D) Policy compliance
A) Thematic mapping B) Spatial regression C) Non-graphical indicator D) Statistical modeling
A) Geographic profiling B) Random patrols C) Predictive policing D) Social crime mapping
A) Thematic mapping B) Trend analysis C) Spatial regression D) Hotspot analysis
A) Graphic regression B) Topographic C) Choropleth D) Thematic
A) Identifying areas with high crime concentrations B) Determining police salaries C) Forecasting public celebrations D) Mapping police jurisdiction borders
A) Strategic redeployment B) Tactical crime mapping C) Randomized control patrol D) Spatial diffusion
A) It visualizes patterns that inform operational decisions B) It focuses solely on statistical data C) It replaces human intelligence D) It allows speculative conclusions
A) Non-graphical evaluation B) Spatial regression C) Longitudinal monitoring D) Temporal analysis
A) Hotspot mapping predicts future crime locations B) Both measure community satisfaction C) Geographic profiling uses non-spatial data only D) Geographic profiling focuses on identifying offenders’ probable residences
A) Spatial mapping B) Thematic analysis C) Predictive simulation D) Non-graphical indicators
A) Spatial regression B) Environmental regression C) Situational correlation D) Area mapping
A) It simplifies resource allocation by visualizing crime trends B) It eliminates the need for statistics C) It only works for rural areas D) It emphasizes minor crimes only
A) Non-graphical table B) Dynamic time-series map C) Static hotspot map D) Isoline map
A) Measure administrative efficiency B) Conduct spatial correlation C) Identify policy gaps D) Produce non-graphical outputs
A) Manual charting B) Routine mapping C) Reactive patrol D) Predictive analytics
A) Implementation B) Resource allocation C) Feedback D) Situation analysis
A) Contingency Plan B) Patrol Plan C) Tactical Deployment Plan D) Administrative Plan
A) Inter-agency collaboration B) Operational planning C) Intelligence secrecy D) Hierarchical supervision
A) PNP B) BID C) PCG D) NBI
A) Implementation B) Risk assessment C) Resource control D) Situation analysis
A) Prevention B) Initial planning C) Coordination D) Evaluation phase
A) Chain of Command B) Coordination C) Unity of Direction D) Unity of Command
A) Tactical B) Operational C) Contingency D) Strategic
A) Reactive operations B) Partnership policing C) Command centralization D) Intelligence gathering
A) Legal enforcement B) Routine investigation C) Inter-agency synergy D) Jurisdictional independence
A) Security prioritization B) Safety first C) Proportionality D) Efficiency
A) Communication B) Command isolation C) Inter-sectoral coordination D) Hierarchical control
A) Implementation B) Revision C) Improvement D) Control
A) Narrow coordination B) Adaptive planning C) Standardized procedure D) Decentralized control
A) Policy integration B) Tactical programming C) Objective formulation D) Strategic alignment
A) Control B) Testing C) Implementation D) Evaluation
A) Reduced intelligence sharing B) Unified command and coordination C) Increased jurisdictional conflict D) Duplication of effort
A) Task delegation B) Specialization C) Chain of command D) Coordination and synchronization
A) To finalize reports only B) To evaluate performance and identify gaps C) To assign blame for failures D) To celebrate success
A) Information gathering B) Command instruction C) Crisis management D) Coordination plan
A) To deter offenders by stricter laws B) To increase police presence only C) To rely on surveillance alone D) To redesign public spaces to reduce criminal opportunities
A) Natural surveillance B) Maintenance C) Target hardening D) Territorial reinforcement
A) It eliminates crime completely B) It replaces human patrols C) It records officer attendance D) It visualizes spatial relationships between environment and crime
A) Large, unsupervised spaces B) Open public plazas C) Dark alleys D) Fences and designated entry points
A) Natural surveillance B) Formal control C) Target hardening D) Territorial reinforcement
A) Traditional mapping B) Random patrol C) Human-based observation D) Data-driven deployment
A) Manual plotting B) Reactive mapping C) Predictive GIS analysis D) Static mapping
A) Maintenance B) Access control C) Target hardening D) Natural surveillance
A) Encouraging community ownership of public spaces B) Reducing property lines C) Eliminating open areas D) Increasing police checkpoints
A) Conduct random arrests B) Close all schools temporarily C) Ignore minor crimes D) Increase patrol visibility in the identified zones
A) It visually reconstructs the event’s spatial flow B) It measures public satisfaction C) It eliminates paperwork D) It focuses only on offender data
A) Limit police activity B) Reinforce a sense of ownership and safety C) Expand commercial property D) Reduce government spending
A) Reduce manpower B) Replace detectives C) Avoid manual investigation D) Track spatial-temporal behavior of offenders
A) Crime prevention through design B) Situational design C) Environmental aesthetics D) Target hardening
A) Administrative filing B) Officer scheduling C) Political decision-making D) Predictive precision
A) Replacing leadership functions B) Eliminating all crimes C) Allowing real-time tracking and spatial decision-making D) Reducing community involvement
A) Narrow blind streets B) Well-lit open spaces C) Hidden alleys D) Isolated parking areas
A) Territorial reinforcement and deterrence B) Economic zoning C) Bureaucratic control D) Population balance
A) Population profiling B) Demographic analysis C) Temporal-spatial crime forecasting D) Statistical sampling
A) Application of data-informed operational planning B) Traditional guesswork C) Manual data analysis D) Randomized response strategy
A) Due process B) Double jeopardy C) Probable cause D) Equal protection
A) Right against unreasonable detention B) Right to privacy C) Right to counsel D) Right to confrontation
A) Stop and Frisk B) Fruit of the Poisonous Tree C) Plain View Doctrine D) Hot Pursuit Doctrine
A) Plain View Doctrine B) Doctrine of Implied Consent C) Probable Cause Doctrine D) Exclusionary Rule
A) Warrant Clause B) Writ of Habeas Corpus C) Rule on Evidence D) Rule on Custodial Investigation
A) RA 6975 (DILG Act) B) RA 8551 (PNP Reform Act) C) RA 9165 (Dangerous Drugs Act) D) RA 7438 (Rights of Arrested Persons)
A) The suspect’s immediate interrogation B) Search of residence C) Media exposure D) Documentation of surrender and rights advisement
A) Right to confrontation B) Right to bail C) Right to privacy D) Right to counsel and against self-incrimination
A) It is done secretly B) It involves random vehicle searches C) It is properly supervised and non-discriminatory D) It targets political groups
A) In flagrante delicto B) Exigent Circumstance Doctrine C) Plain View Doctrine D) Consent Search Doctrine
A) Due process violation B) Non-bailable offense C) Preventive detention D) Civil liability
A) The right against unlawful search and seizure B) The right to speedy trial C) The right to free travel D) The right to counsel
A) Right to privacy B) Right against self-incrimination C) Right to bail D) Right to due process
A) An independent counsel of the suspect’s choice B) The arresting officer’s superior C) A barangay official D) A witness
A) Separation of powers B) Lawful exercise of police power C) Proportionality D) Due process
A) Quo Warranto B) Habeas Corpus C) Certiorari D) Injunction
A) Republic Act No. 6975 B) Republic Act No. 9165 C) Republic Act No. 7438 D) Republic Act No. 8551
A) Reasonable necessity of means employed B) Plain view rule C) Doctrine of hot pursuit D) Probable cause principle
A) It is valid if the officer signs it B) It is inadmissible due to rights violation C) It is admissible if recorded D) It can be used as circumstantial evidence
A) Freedom of speech and expression B) Right to privacy C) Right to silence D) Right to travel
A) Miranda doctrine B) Chain of custody rule under RA 9165 C) Rules on Criminal Procedure D) Exclusionary rule
A) Article 125 of the Revised Penal Code B) RA 7438 C) Article 248 of the Revised Penal Code D) RA 8551
A) Exclusionary Rule B) Hot Pursuit Doctrine C) Presumption of Regularity D) Doctrine of Double Jeopardy
A) Article II, Section 1 B) Article III, Section 2 C) Article III, Section 12 D) Article VI, Section 11
A) Summary publicity for deterrence B) Public display for transparency C) Confidentiality and respect for due process D) Police media cooperation |