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Criminal Procedure and Court Testimony ALPHA 1
Contributed by: .
(Original author: Ninge)
  • 1. The relevance of the study of practice court is to criminology is.
A) All of the above
B) Familiarization with court personnel and legal forms
C) Train criminologist how to testify effectively and properly
D) Acquaintance with court room conduct and trial procedures
  • 2. The usual role of police officers during judicial proceedings.
A) To protect the judge
B) To act as an expert witness
C) To protect the accused
D) To serve as a witness
  • 3. This occurs when the judge enters the court room and the clerk or bailiff announces his presence.
A) Order of trial
B) Arraignment
C) Call to order
D) Roll call of cases
  • 4. When the call to order has been undertaken, it is an indication that.
A) All must rise
B) All must be silent
C) The court is in session
D) All of the above
  • 5. Which among the following is not a court personnel?
A) Policeman
B) Stenographer
C) Clerk of court
D) Interpreter
  • 6. What is the main purpose of criminal procedure?
A) To regulate contracts
B) To govern criminal proceedings
C) To establish crimes
D) To set police salaries
  • 7. The prosecutor in a criminal case would usually utter in roll call.
A) "For the state your honor, ready"
B) "For the people your honor, ready"
C) "For the plaintiff your honor, ready"
D) "For the accused your honor, ready"
  • 8. It is a list of cases usually placed or posted on the door of a trial court.
A) Roll call of cases
B) All of these
C) Calendar
D) Call to order
  • 9. Trials and court sessions are usually.
A) Exclusive for the litigants
B) Exclusive to the litigants and their relatives
C) Open to the members of the bar
D) Open to the public
  • 10. Who generally issues an arrest warrant?
A) Police officer
B) Witness
C) Judge
D) Prosecutor
  • 11. Before giving his testimony the witness must.
A) Must pledge to tell the truth
B) Must pray for truthful answers
C) Must sign his affidavit
D) Undertake the witness oath
  • 12. A procedure wherein the case number is called and the litigants represented by counsel should signify their readiness for trial.
A) Call to order
B) Witness oath
C) Marking of exhibits
D) Roll call of cases
  • 13. Primary duty of the prosecutor.
A) To prove the guilt of the accused beyond reasonable doubt
B) To see to it that due process is observed
C) To secure justice
D) To acquit the accused
  • 14. What does bail primarily help secure?
A) Dismissal of charges
B) Payment of court salaries
C) Appearance of the accused in court
D) Automatic acquittal
  • 15. Another lawyer hired by the victim is designated as.
A) Counsel for the defense
B) Counsel de officio
C) Private prosecutor
D) Public prosecutor
  • 16. When an objection has been made to the testimony of the witness and the judge orders that it be sustained, the witness.
A) Is instructed to sit down
B) Is instructed to get out of the witness stand
C) Is allowed to continue and answer
D) Is not allowed to answer the question directed by counsel
  • 17. The question, "when did you first meet the accused" is an example of a.
A) Re-cross examination
B) Cross examination
C) Direct examination
D) Re-direct question
  • 18. After the evidence of the defense is presented, the next step for the order of trial is.
A) Cross examination
B) Evidence for the prosecution
C) Sur-rebuttal evidence
D) Rebuttal evidence
  • 19. It is usually used to test the credibility of the witness and leading questions may be allowed.
A) Re-cross examination
B) Re-direct examination
C) Cross examination
D) Direct examination
  • 20. It is used to establish facts wherein leading questions are not allowed.
A) Direct examination
B) Re-direct examination
C) Re-cross examination
D) Cross examination
  • 21. A person named and appointed by the court to defend an absentee defendant in suit which the appointment is made.
A) Attorney of record
B) Attorney at law
C) Attorney ad Hoc
D) Counsel de officio
  • 22. Who represents the State in prosecuting a criminal case?.
A) Court stenographer
B) Public prosecutor
C) Defense counsel
D) Court interpreter
  • 23. The counsel on either side of the litigated action who is charges with the principal management and direction of party's case.
A) House counsel
B) Lead Counsel
C) Attorney ad Hoc
D) Attorney in fact
  • 24. Literally it means a friend of the court, a person with strong interest in or views on the subject matter of an action but not a party to it.
A) Counsel de officio
B) House counsel
C) Attorney in fact
D) Amicus Curiae
  • 25. What is the function of a defense lawyer?
A) To protect the accused's legal rights
B) To sentence the accused
C) To decide the verdict
D) To issue warrants
  • 26. A case involving murder is filed in the Municipal Trial Court due to a clerk’s error. As the judge, what should you do?
A) Dismiss for lack of jurisdiction
B) Proceed with trial to avoid delay
C) Transfer to the Regional Trial Court
D) Forward to the Court of Appeals
  • 27. What is the presumption of innocence?
A) Every accused is automatically released
B) The accused is presumed innocent until proven guilty
C) The complainant is always correct
D) The accused must prove guilt
  • 28. A barangay captain faces a complaint for falsification of a public document. Which court has original jurisdiction?
A) Regional Trial Court
B) Municipal Trial Court
C) Sandiganbayan
D) Court of Appeals
  • 29. What is the purpose of a preliminary investigation?
A) To determine whether there is sufficient ground to hold the respondent for trial
B) To decide the final verdict
C) To impose imprisonment
D) To conduct cross-examination at trial
  • 30. What is a subpoena?
A) A final judgment
B) An arrest record
C) A legal order requiring a person to appear or produce documents
D) A search warrant
  • 31. What is a search warrant?
A) A notice of appeal
B) A witness statement
C) An order to convict
D) A judicial order authorizing a search under specified conditions
  • 32. What is the purpose of a warrant of arrest?
A) To dismiss a complaint
B) To acquit an accused
C) To release seized evidence
D) To authorize the arrest of a person
  • 33. What is a plea of guilty?
A) Appeal against conviction
B) Request for bail
C) Admission of guilt to the charge
D) Denial of the charge
  • 34. An appeal from the MTC in a criminal case should be filed before.
A) RTC
B) Supreme Court
C) Court of Appeals
D) Sandiganbayan
  • 35. What is the purpose of a trial?
A) To guarantee conviction
B) To evaluate evidence and determine the case
C) To replace the complaint
D) To determine police promotions
  • 36. When a juvenile offender is charged with robbery with homicide, where must the case be filed?
A) Family Court (RTC branch)
B) Sandiganbayan
C) Juvenile Justice Board
D) MTC
  • 37. What is the main purpose of witness testimony?
A) To replace the judge
B) To provide relevant information under oath
C) To impose punishment
D) To guarantee acquittal
  • 38. What does an oath require from a witness?
A) A promise to avoid all questions
B) A promise to support the prosecutor
C) A commitment to tell the truth
D) An agreement to convict the accused
  • 39. A case for estafa involves ₱1.9 million. Which court has jurisdiction?
A) CA
B) Sandiganbayan
C) RTC
D) MTC
  • 40. What is perjury?
A) Making a willfully false statement under oath in circumstances covered by law
B) Requesting legal counsel
C) Refusing a private invitation
D) Filing a lawful appeal
  • 41. The jurisdiction of courts is determined by.
A) Law at the time of filing
B) Nature of the offense
C) Both Law at the time of filing and Nature of the offense
D) Supreme Court circulars
  • 42. What is hearsay evidence generally?
A) An out-of-court statement offered to prove the truth of what it asserts, subject to exceptions
B) Testimony based on personal knowledge
C) A document authenticated in court
D) Evidence personally observed by the witness
  • 43. A police officer filed a criminal complaint directly with the RTC instead of the Office of the Prosecutor. As judge, what should you do?
A) Order the police to file before the prosecutor’s office
B) Dismiss the case for lack of jurisdiction
C) Proceed with arraignment
D) Treat the case as a private complaint
  • 44. In criminal procedure, when does a case officially begin against an accused?
A) Upon filing of the complaint
B) Upon issuance of subpoena
C) Upon arrest
D) Upon filing of the information in court
  • 45. What is leading question?
A) A question without relevance
B) A question that suggests the answer
C) A question requiring a written answer
D) A question asked only by a judge
  • 46. The essence of criminal procedure is.
A) To favor the accused
B) To secure justice and due process
C) To convict the guilty
D) To protect state power
  • 47. When the prosecutor files an information without preliminary investigation in a required case, what right is violated?
A) Right to bail
B) Right to due process
C) Right against self-incrimination
D) Right to counsel
  • 48. Which of the following is not a purpose of criminal procedure?
A) To ensure justice is done
B) To provide a fair trial
C) To protect the rights of the accused
D) To secure the conviction of the guilty
  • 49. In criminal procedure, the rule of prospective application of procedural laws means.
A) They can cure past errors
B) Laws apply only to future cases
C) They can be retroactive if favorable to accused
D) They affect substantive rights
  • 50. Who rules on objections during trial?
A) Complainant
B) Court reporter
C) Judge
D) Arresting officer
  • 51. What is an exhibit in court?
A) A witness's personal opinion only
B) An item or document offered as evidence
C) A type of sentence
D) A court employee
  • 52. A criminal case was filed against two accused. One died before arraignment. What should the court do?
A) Suspend proceedings
B) Dismiss as to the deceased accused
C) Proceed against bothB.
D) Continue case and note death after trial
  • 53. The doctrine of “judicial notice” allows a court to.
A) Require expert testimony
B) Apply foreign laws
C) Take knowledge of facts without proof
D) Admit evidence automatically
  • 54. A motion to dismiss based on lack of probable cause was filed after arraignment. What rule applies?
A) Filed at any time
B) Waived right
C) Must be resolved immediately
D) Converted to demurrer to evidence
  • 55. What is the purpose of an evidence marking?
A) To dismiss a charge
B) To declare guilt
C) To identify an item or document for the proceedings
D) To replace authentication
  • 56. What is the best description of “due process” in criminal procedure?
A) Access to counsel
B) Speedy resolution
C) Opportunity to be heard
D) Conviction after trial
  • 57. A case was filed for slight physical injuries. The offended party and accused later settled amicably. What should the court do?
A) Proceed to trial
B) Dismiss since it’s a private offense
C) Refer to barangay for conciliation
D) Acquit automatically
  • 58. A criminal procedure rule that allows an accused to admit guilt for a lesser offense is known as.
A) Compromise
B) Mitigating admission
C) Conditional pardon
D) Plea bargaining
  • 59. The accused is charged for murder but information states no qualifying circumstance. The court convicts for homicide. This shows.
A) Application of variance doctrine
B) Violation of due process
C) Amendment after verdict
D) Judicial discretion
  • 60. What is authentication of evidence?
A) Establishing that evidence is what it is claimed to be
B) Automatically admitting every document
C) Hiding evidence from the court
D) Destroying evidence
  • 61. A confession was signed by an accused without counsel. What is the effect?
A) Admissible if notarized
B) Valid if signed before police
C) Inadmissible as violation of rights
D) Valid because voluntarily signed
  • 62. The accused wants to defend himself personally instead of through a lawyer. The court should.
A) Proceed with appointed counsel
B) Allow it if he knowingly waives counsel
C) Deny it outright
D) Require standby counsel
  • 63. When the court prevents an accused from presenting evidence for the defense, this violates.
A) Right against self-incrimination
B) Right to due process
C) Right to speedy trial
D) Right to remain silent
  • 64. An accused was detained for 10 years without trial. This constitutes a violation of.
A) Right to equal protection
B) Right to speedy trial
C) Right to due process
D) Habeas corpus rule
  • 65. What is the chain of custody?
A) The process of sentencing
B) The list of court employees
C) The documented handling and transfer of evidence
D) The schedule of hearings
  • 66. A trial proceeds despite absence of counsel for the accused. The conviction will be.
A) Suspended pending appeal
B) Void for violation of constitutional rights
C) Valid if accused agreed
D) Valid if evidence strong
  • 67. Why is chain of custody important?
A) It guarantees conviction
B) It helps establish the identity and integrity of evidence
C) It eliminates the need for laboratory testing
D) It replaces witness testimony
  • 68. If a public trial endangers witnesses, the court may.
A) Proceed publicly as mandated
B) Conduct in-camera trial with justification
C) Seal all records permanently
D) Suspend proceedings
  • 69. What does reasonable doubt mean?
A) Absolute certainty is required
B) A doubt based on reason and evidence, not mere speculation
C) Any imaginary possibility
D) Automatic proof of innocence
  • 70. An accused was acquitted but later re-arrested for the same offense under a different case number. This violates.
A) Due process
B) Double jeopardy
C) Speedy trial
D) Equal protection
  • 71. What is a conviction?
A) A subpoena
B) A witness affidavit
C) A judgment finding the accused guilty
D) A dismissal of every complaint
  • 72. The prosecution presents evidence not included in the information. The defense objects. What should the court do?
A) Order amendment
B) Allow if favorable to accused
C) Admit for completeness
D) Reject for being beyond the charge
  • 73. What is an appeal?
A) An arrest without a warrant
B) A request for review of a decision by a higher court
C) A preliminary investigation
D) A witness oath
  • 74. The defense lawyer was asleep during crucial testimony. This results in.
A) No effect if evidence strong
B) Waiver of cross-examination
C) Contempt of court only
D) Mistrial and violation of right to effective counsel
  • 75. The right to bail ceases when.
A) Case is appealed
B) Bail bond expires
C) Evidence of guilt is strong in a capital offense
D) Trial is delayed
  • 76. What is a judgment?
A) A police interview
B) The court's decision resolving the case or an issue
C) A search of a residence
D) A witness's guess
  • 77. Police officers arrest a man inside his home without a warrant for an alleged theft committed two days earlier. The arrest is.
A) Invalid for lack of immediate pursuit
B) Valid if with barangay clearance
C) Valid hot pursuit
D) Valid if suspect admits guilt
  • 78. Police saw a man holding a gun in a dark alley and arrested him. The arrest is valid under.
A) Administrative arrest
B) Warrantless arrest in flagrante delicto
C) Hot pursuit doctrine
D) Citizen’s arrest
  • 79. A warrantless arrest made by a private citizen of a fleeing robber is valid when.
A) Crime was committed in his presence
B) The robber is described by police
C) He has personal suspicion
D) It occurs at night
  • 80. Search of a house based only on verbal order of police chief is.
A) Invalid and violates constitutional rights
B) Allowed during curfew
C) Valid if consented to
D) Valid under urgency
  • 81. Seized evidence during an unlawful search is admissible only if.
A) Evidence is crucial
B) None of the above
C) Accused waives objection
D) Accused is guilty
  • 82. The exclusionary rule states that.
A) All evidence is admissible
B) Only confessions need to be excluded
C) All confessions are admissible
D) Illegally obtained evidence must be excluded
  • 83. What is a stipulation of facts?
A) A judge's personal opinion
B) An arrest warrant
C) An agreement by the parties on certain facts
D) A witness's rumor
  • 84. A search warrant that fails to particularly describe the items to be seized is.
A) Valid if witness testified
B) Valid if items are criminal in nature
C) Void for generality
D) Valid if supported by probable cause
  • 85. The right violated when a home is entered without a warrant or consent is.
A) Right to counsel
B) None
C) Right against unreasonable searches
D) Right to privacy only
  • 86. A warrantless arrest based solely on anonymous text messages is.
A) Valid for probable cause
B) Valid if confirmed later
C) Allowed under “Stop and Frisk”
D) Invalid for lack of personal knowledge
  • 87. A police officer lawfully arrested a drug suspect and searched his pockets. The search is.
A) Requires written consent
B) Needs warrant
C) Valid as incidental to arrest
D) Unreasonable
  • 88. A warrant issued by an unauthorized judge is.
A) Valid if executed
B) Curable by execution
C) Void and inadmissible
D) Irregular but valid
  • 89. A search warrant must be issued upon.
A) Anonymous report
B) Police recommendation
C) Mere suspicion
D) Probable cause personally determined by the judge
  • 90. A police officer searched a cellphone without a warrant. The search is valid only if.
A) Consent was freely given
B) Officer suspects drug use
C) Owner was arrested
D) Phone is expensive
  • 91. A suspect arrested under hot pursuit was tortured for confession. What rule applies?
A) Hot pursuit doctrine
B) Stop and frisk rule
C) Res gestae
D) Exclusionary rule on coerced confessions
  • 92. What should a witness do when they do not understand a question?
A) Guess the answer
B) Change the subject
C) Ask for clarification
D) Remain silent forever
  • 93. When is a preliminary investigation mandatory?
A) Optional at prosecutor’s discretion
B) For all criminal cases
C) When offense is punishable by at least 4 years and 2 months imprisonment
D) Only for capital offenses
  • 94. What is personal knowledge in testimony?
A) Knowledge gained through the witness's own senses or experiences
B) Information invented by counsel
C) Information read from an unrelated document
D) Information learned only from rumors
  • 95. If a complaint is filed directly in court without barangay conciliation when required, the case should be.
A) Proceeded with immediately
B) Suspended until conciliation
C) Referred to prosecutor
D) Dismissed for lack of cause of action
  • 96. Which case is not covered by the Barangay Justice System?
A) Grave coercion between same barangay residents
B) Slight physical injuries
C) Oral defamation
D) Murder
  • 97. The barangay settlement has the same effect as.
A) Judgment of the court
B) Recommendation
C) Plea bargain
D) Police blotter
  • 98. What is an affidavit?
A) A final court judgment
B) An oral objection
C) An arrest warrant
D) A written statement sworn or affirmed before an authorized person
  • 99. The purpose of preliminary investigation is to.
A) Serve as trial substitute
B) Convict the guilty
C) Determine probable cause before trial
D) Collect evidence
  • 100. When an inquest prosecutor finds illegal arrest, he must.
A) Require affidavit
B) File case anyway
C) Order immediate release
D) Refer to court
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