A) NBI B) BFP C) PNP D) PDEA
A) BFP B) PDEA C) BJMP D) NBI
A) Defend the accused in criminal cases B) Investigate fire-related incidents C) Guard prisoners in correctional facilities D) Conduct preliminary investigations and prosecute offenders
A) Supreme Court - Court of Appeals - Regional Trial Court - Municipal Trial Court B) Municipal Trial Court - Regional Trial Court - Supreme Court C) Regional Trial Court - Municipal Trial Court - Court of Appelas - Supreme Court D) Court of Appeals - Municipal Trial Court - Regional Trial Court - Supreme Court
A) BuCor B) BJMP C) PNP D) NBI
A) Every person is given an opportunity to be heard and defend themselves before judgement B) Law enforcement can arrest without warrants in all cases C) The government can punish anyone without legal procedures D) Only the rich can access fair trials
A) Police conduct a search with a valid warrant issued by a judge B) Customs officers inspect luggage at the airport C) A person consents to a bag inspection at a security checkpoint D) Police enter a house without a warrant and without consent to look for evidence
A) Right to refuse all kinds of police questioning B) Right to bail regardless of the offense C) Right to remain at home during investigation D) Right to remain silent and to have competent and independent counsel
A) Expressing religious publicly B) Posting false and malicious statements that damage another person`s reputation C) Criticizing government policies peacefully D) Sharing opinions online about political issues
A) Writ of Mandamus B) Writ of Habeas Corpus C) Writ of Prohibition D) Writ of Amparo
A) Generality B) Prospectivity C) Extraterritoriality D) Territoriality
A) The act is performed through negligence B) The act is performed with deliberate intent C) The act is done without consent D) The act is done by accident
A) Frustrated felony B) Complex crime C) Impossible crime D) Continuing crime
A) A person who assists in hiding the body of the victim after the crime B) A person who takes direct part in the execution of the criminal act C) A person who helps in planning but not executing the crime D) A person cooperates in the execution of a crime by another without taking direct part in it
A) Conspiracy B) Instigation C) Proposal D) Provocation
A) One person proposes to another the execution of a felony but the other does not agree B) Two or more persons agree and decide to commit a felony C) One person decides to commit a felony without informing others D) The offender already begins executing does not agree
A) Instigator B) Accessory C) Accomplice D) Principal
A) The offender performs all acts necessary for its accomplishment and the felony is produced B) The offender has commenced the commission of a felony directly by overt acts C) The offender performs all acts of execution but does not accomplish the felony D) The offender desists voluntarily before performing all acts of execution
A) The penalty is fine only B) The penalty is death, reclusion perpetua, or reclusion temporal C) The penalty is arresto menor or destierro D) The penalty is imprisonment of less than 6 months
A) Frustrated B) Consummated C) Impossible D) Attempted
A) Defense of one`s self or rights B) M(below 15 years old)inority C) Insanity D) Lack of intent to commit so grave a wrong
A) Criminally liable as a principal B) Criminally liable as an accomplice C) Exempt from criminal liability D) Liable as an accessory
A) Aggravating circumstance B) Mitigating circumstance C) Justifying circumstance D) Alternative circumstance
A) Justifying circumstance B) Aggravating circumstance C) Exempting circumstance D) Mitigating circumstance due to passion or obfuscation
A) Mitigating circumstance B) Exempting circumstance C) Alternative circumstance D) Justifying circumstance
A) Delay of trial B) Filling of an appeal C) Escaped of the accused D) Amnesty granted by the government
A) It suspends the criminal liability B) It extinguishes only civil liability C) It totally extinguishes criminal and civil liability D) It transfers liability to the heirs
A) It is suspended until review B) It becomes extinguished C) It is reduced but not removed D) It is transferred to another jurisdiction
A) Death of the offender B) Service of sentence C) Prescription of crime D) Conditional pardon
A) The crime is committed at nighttime to facilitate its commission B) The offender is below 18 years old but above 15 and acted with discernment C) The offender took advantage of public position D) The offender committed the crime with evident premeditation
A) Absence of weapon used B) Lack of intent to kill C) Treachery or evident premeditation D) Relationship between the offender and victim
A) Killing of another person without qualifying circumstances B) Killing by means of poison C) Killing of ones parent D) Killing with cruelty
A) Parricide B) Homicide C) Murder D) infanticide
A) Lack of intent to kill B) Treachery or evident premeditation C) Relationship between the offender and victim D) Absence of weapon used
A) Killing by means of poison B) Killing with cruelty C) Killing of another person without qualifying circumstances D) Killing of one's parent
A) Infanticide B) Parricide C) Homicide D) Murder
A) Parricide B) Murder C) Infanticide D) Abortion
A) Both parties agreed to sexual intercourse B) A man has carnal knowledge of a woman through force, threat, or intimidation C) The victim is over 18 and married D) There is consent and the woman is of legal age
A) The injury heals immediately B) The injury causes death C) The injury incapacitates the victim for more than 30 days D) The injury requires no medical attention
A) Less serious physical injuries B) Serious physical injuries C) Slight physical injuries D) Attempted homicide
A) Illegal discharge of firearm B) Reckless imprudence C) Alarm and scandal D) Attempted homicide
A) Theft is committed only by strangers B) Robbery is committed with violence or intimidation; theft is not C) Robbery requires that the property be of high value D) Both involve taking property with intent to gain
A) Robbery in band B) Estafa C) Brigandage D) Qualified theft
A) Defrauding another by abuse of confidence or deceit B) Damaging property with intent to annoy C) Taking property without violence D) Using force to steal from another
A) Malicious Mischief B) Robbery C) Estafa D) Grave Threats
A) Grave coercion B) Unlawful arrest C) Light coercion D) Serious illegal detention
A) Unlawful arrest B) Estafa C) Grave threats D) Grave coercion
A) Detaining a person to secure testimony B) Detaining a person without lawful cause by a private individual C) Arresting a suspect under a valid warrant D) Detaining a person by a public officer without legal grounds
A) RPC piracy applies only to foreign vessels, while PD 532 applies to all vessels, including those within Philippine waters. B) RPC piracy applies to ships in ports, not in high seas. C) PD 532 covers only government vessels. D) RPC covers both air and land piracy, while PD 532 covers only sea piracy.
A) Unlawful arrest B) Arbitrary detention C) Illegal search D) Delay in the delivery of detained persons to judicial authorities
A) Infidelity in the custody of documents B) Malversation of funds C) Direct bribery D) Infidelity in the custody of prisoners through connivance
A) Conduct search operations anytime for faster results. B) Allow entry as long as the officer is in uniform. C) Enter homes if the suspect is known to live there, even without a warrant. D) Enter residences only with a valid warrant
A) A defamatory act done in public to cause dishonor, discredit, or contempt. B) False accusation that harms another's reputation through writing. C) An oral statement attacking a person's character. D) A malicious rumor intended to cause shame.
A) Intriguing against honor is by act, while slander by deed is by speech. B) There is no difference; both are oral defamation. C) Intriguing against honor involves spreading gossip; slander by deed involves written insult. D) Intriguing against honor consists of maliciously spreading rumors to harm another's reputation, while slander by deed is a physical act that causes dishonor.
A) Simple slander B) Intriguing against honor C) Slander by deed D) Direct assault
A) Both require public complaint, but adultery may be filed only by the husband, and concubinage only by the wife. B) In adultery, only the husband can file a case; in concubinage, anyone can. C) Both require consent from the offender's parents. D) Both crimes can be prosecuted by the State even without complaint.
A) Bigamy B) Illegal marriage C) Adultery D) Concubinage
A) Increase imprisonment for women offenders. B) Promote awareness of marital rights and responsibilities. C) Encourage private settlements to avoid shame. D) Decriminalize all adultery and concubinage cases.
A) Hiring a worker with a valid work permit B) Recruiting, transporting, or harboring persons through coercion for exploitation or prostitution C) Sending domestic helpers abroad through legal agencies D) Recruiting persons for lawful employment abroad
A) Peaceful protest without violence B) Armed rebellion by military officers C) Criticizing the government on social media D) Acts intended to cause death or serious injury to persons to intimidate the public or government
A) Frustrated homicide B) Physical injuries only C) Grave coercion D) Hazing resulting in serious physical injuries
A) A police officer directs traffic in a public area. B) A man catcalls a woman walking on the street. C) A store owner posts a sale announcement. D) A teacher scolds a student for cheating.
A) RA 10364 - Expanded Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act B) RA 11313 - Safe Spaces Act C) RA 11053 - Anti-Hazing Law D) RA 11479 - Anti-Terrorism Act
A) The accused posting a confession online B) A fingerprint lifted from the crime scene C) A witness describing the suspect's face D) A video footage showing the suspect committing the crime
A) Statements from a witness who saw the suspect B) Fingerprints matched in a database C) Weapons recovered during the investigation D) DNA samples gathered from the victim
A) Signed contract presented in court B) Knife left by the suspect C) Eyewitness pointing at the accused D) CCTV footage of the incident
A) Circumstantial evidence B) Real or physical evidence C) Demonstrative evidence D) Testimonial evidence
A) Obtained from a private source B) Based on personal beliefs C) Material and competent D) Accepted by the witness
A) Evidence voluntarily given by suspect B) Evidence authenticated by expert witness C) Evidence with proper search warrant D) Evidence gathered through warrantless and unjustified search
A) Best Evidence Rule B) Hearsay Rule C) Res Gestae Rule D) Exclusionary Rule
A) Relevance B) Materiality C) Best Evidence D) Judicial Notice
A) Circumstantial evidence B) Documentary evidence C) Judicially noticed facts D) Testimonial evidence
A) Chain of custody B) Parol evidence C) Hearsay rule D) Opinion rule
A) Anytime during arraignment B) After a witness has testified or when the evidence is identified C) Immediately after the pre-trial D) Only after the judgment is issued
A) Write a letter to the judge later B) Ignore it and argue in closing statements C) File a motion after the case is finished D) Make a timely objection stating specific legal grounds
A) That it has been posted online B) That it came from a government agency only C) Its authenticity and relevance D) The popularity of the person who wrote it
A) Parol Evidence Rule B) Hearsay Rule C) Exclusionary Rule D) Best Evidence Rule
A) Is based entirely on hearsay B) Creates suspicion that a crime may have been committed C) Produces moral certainty of the accused's guilt beyond reasonable doubt D) Is presented by multiple witnesses regardless of credibility
A) Clear and convincing evidence B) Proof beyond reasonable doubt C) Substantial evidence D) Mere preponderance of evidence
A) Sandiganbayan B) Regional Trial Court (RTC) C) Court of Appeals D) Municipal Trial Court (MTC)
A) Regional Trial Court B) Court of Appeals C) Sandiganbayan D) Municipal Trial Court
A) Court of Appeals B) Sandiganbayan C) Municipal Trial Court D) Regional Trial Court
A) It refers to the set of rules governing evidence in administrative cases. B) It is the law that defines crimes and prescribes penalties. C) It determines the jurisdiction of courts in civil cases. D) It governs the steps or process by which a person accused of a crime is investigated, prosecuted, tried, and punished.
A) To ensure the protection of the rights of the accused. B) To determine what acts constitute crimes and their penalties. C) To establish an orderly method for prosecuting offenders. D) To promote fair and speedy administration of justice.
A) The right to choose the judge who will try his case. B) The right to remain silent and to have competent and independent counsel. C) The right to decide what evidence the prosecution may present. D) The right to set the schedule of hearings.
A) Yes, if the accused waives his right to counsel. B) Yes, because the accused has the right to confront the witnesses against him. C) No, because arraignment must precede the presentation of evidence. D) No, because it violates the right to speedy trial.
A) Right to preliminary investigation B) Right against self-incrimination C) Right against double jeopardy D) Right to due process of law
A) Arrest made during a random checkpoint without probable cause. B) Arrest based on a tip from an anonymous informant. C) Arrest made one day after the crime, based on witness description. D) Arrest made when the suspect was caught in the act of committing a crime.
A) Search conducted in a private home without a warrant or consent. B) Search conducted in a private home without a warrant or consent. C) Search made with a valid warrant issued by a competent court. D) Search incident to a lawful arrest.
A) When the suspect has a prior criminal record. B) When there is probable cause personally determined by the judge after examination under oath of the complainant and witnesses. C) When the police officer suspects that a crime is about to be committed. D) When a person refuses to submit to a checkpoint search.
A) The search is valid because the drugs were found in plain view. B) The search is valid because the police acted in good faith. C) The search is valid since there was probable cause based on the anonymous tip. D) The search is invalid because there was no valid warrant or lawful arrest.
A) When the complainant demands it. B) When the penalty prescribed is at least 4 years and 2 months imprisonment, regardless of fine. C) When the accused is caught in the act of committing the offense. D) When the case is filed directly before the Municipal Trial Court.
A) Preliminary investigation B) Inquest proceeding C) Arraignment D) Trial proper
A) A case involving offenses punishable by reclusion perpetua. B) A case where one party is a corporation. C) A crime involving government employees acting in their official capacity. D) A criminal case punishable by imprisonment not exceeding 1 year or fine not exceeding P5,000, and both parties reside in the same city or municipality.
A) Certificate of Appearance B) Certification to File Action C) Certificate of Non-Participation D) Certificate of Compliance
A) The prosecutor can decide whether to grant bail. B) The police officer may approve the bail application. C) The court must conduct a hearing to determine whether evidence of guilt is strong. D) Bail shall automatically be granted if he files an application.
A) Postpone the arraignment until the accused agrees to plead. B) Enter a plea of "not guilty" for the accused. C) Consider the accused as having pleaded guilty. D) Dismiss the case automatically.
A) To simplify and expedite the trial by identifying issues and evidence. B) To record the plea of the accused. C) To determine the guilt or innocence of the accused. D) To allow the prosecution to amend the information.
A) Motion for reconsideration B) Motion for new trial C) Demurrer to evidence D) Motion to quash
A) Continue the questioning until the child answers. B) Allow the child to rest and resume later in a child-friendly environment. C) Disallow further questioning to protect the accused's rights. D) Dismiss the child as incompetent to testify. |