A) PDEA B) PNP C) BFP D) NBI
A) NBI B) BJMP C) BFP D) PDEA
A) Conduct preliminary investigations and prosecute offenders B) Investigate fire-related incidents C) Guard prisoners in correctional facilities D) Defend the accused in criminal cases
A) Regional Trial Court - Municipal Trial Court - Court of Appelas - Supreme Court B) Court of Appeals - Municipal Trial Court - Regional Trial Court - Supreme Court C) Municipal Trial Court - Regional Trial Court - Supreme Court D) Supreme Court - Court of Appeals - Regional Trial Court - Municipal Trial Court
A) PNP B) NBI C) BJMP D) BuCor
A) Only the rich can access fair trials B) Every person is given an opportunity to be heard and defend themselves before judgement C) Law enforcement can arrest without warrants in all cases D) The government can punish anyone without legal procedures
A) Police enter a house without a warrant and without consent to look for evidence B) A person consents to a bag inspection at a security checkpoint C) Police conduct a search with a valid warrant issued by a judge D) Customs officers inspect luggage at the airport
A) Right to remain silent and to have competent and independent counsel B) Right to remain at home during investigation C) Right to refuse all kinds of police questioning D) Right to bail regardless of the offense
A) Sharing opinions online about political issues B) Expressing religious publicly C) Posting false and malicious statements that damage another person`s reputation D) Criticizing government policies peacefully
A) Writ of Amparo B) Writ of Habeas Corpus C) Writ of Prohibition D) Writ of Mandamus
A) Generality B) Prospectivity C) Extraterritoriality D) Territoriality
A) The act is performed through negligence B) The act is done without consent C) The act is done by accident D) The act is performed with deliberate intent
A) Frustrated felony B) Impossible crime C) Complex crime D) Continuing crime
A) A person cooperates in the execution of a crime by another without taking direct part in it B) A person who assists in hiding the body of the victim after the crime C) A person who takes direct part in the execution of the criminal act D) A person who helps in planning but not executing the crime
A) Proposal B) Provocation C) Conspiracy D) Instigation
A) Two or more persons agree and decide to commit a felony B) The offender already begins executing does not agree C) One person decides to commit a felony without informing others D) One person proposes to another the execution of a felony but the other does not agree
A) Principal B) Instigator C) Accomplice D) Accessory
A) The offender desists voluntarily before performing all acts of execution B) The offender has commenced the commission of a felony directly by overt acts C) The offender performs all acts necessary for its accomplishment and the felony is produced D) The offender performs all acts of execution but does not accomplish the felony
A) The penalty is death, reclusion perpetua, or reclusion temporal B) The penalty is arresto menor or destierro C) The penalty is imprisonment of less than 6 months D) The penalty is fine only
A) Attempted B) Consummated C) Frustrated D) Impossible
A) Lack of intent to commit so grave a wrong B) M(below 15 years old)inority C) Insanity D) Defense of one`s self or rights
A) Criminally liable as an accomplice B) Exempt from criminal liability C) Liable as an accessory D) Criminally liable as a principal
A) Aggravating circumstance B) Mitigating circumstance C) Alternative circumstance D) Justifying circumstance
A) Exempting circumstance B) Justifying circumstance C) Aggravating circumstance D) Mitigating circumstance due to passion or obfuscation
A) Justifying circumstance B) Exempting circumstance C) Alternative circumstance D) Mitigating circumstance
A) Delay of trial B) Filling of an appeal C) Amnesty granted by the government D) Escaped of the accused
A) It totally extinguishes criminal and civil liability B) It extinguishes only civil liability C) It suspends the criminal liability D) It transfers liability to the heirs
A) It becomes extinguished B) It is transferred to another jurisdiction C) It is suspended until review D) It is reduced but not removed
A) Conditional pardon B) Prescription of crime C) Service of sentence D) Death of the offender
A) The offender took advantage of public position B) The crime is committed at nighttime to facilitate its commission C) The offender is below 18 years old but above 15 and acted with discernment D) The offender committed the crime with evident premeditation
A) Treachery or evident premeditation B) Relationship between the offender and victim C) Absence of weapon used D) Lack of intent to kill
A) Killing by means of poison B) Killing with cruelty C) Killing of ones parent D) Killing of another person without qualifying circumstances
A) Homicide B) Murder C) Parricide D) infanticide
A) Treachery or evident premeditation B) Relationship between the offender and victim C) Lack of intent to kill D) Absence of weapon used
A) Killing with cruelty B) Killing of one's parent C) Killing by means of poison D) Killing of another person without qualifying circumstances
A) Parricide B) Homicide C) Infanticide D) Murder
A) Infanticide B) Murder C) Abortion D) Parricide
A) A man has carnal knowledge of a woman through force, threat, or intimidation B) There is consent and the woman is of legal age C) Both parties agreed to sexual intercourse D) The victim is over 18 and married
A) The injury heals immediately B) The injury causes death C) The injury requires no medical attention D) The injury incapacitates the victim for more than 30 days
A) Slight physical injuries B) Attempted homicide C) Serious physical injuries D) Less serious physical injuries
A) Alarm and scandal B) Attempted homicide C) Illegal discharge of firearm D) Reckless imprudence
A) Robbery requires that the property be of high value B) Theft is committed only by strangers C) Robbery is committed with violence or intimidation; theft is not D) Both involve taking property with intent to gain
A) Estafa B) Qualified theft C) Robbery in band D) Brigandage
A) Using force to steal from another B) Taking property without violence C) Defrauding another by abuse of confidence or deceit D) Damaging property with intent to annoy
A) Malicious Mischief B) Robbery C) Estafa D) Grave Threats
A) Light coercion B) Grave coercion C) Unlawful arrest D) Serious illegal detention
A) Grave threats B) Grave coercion C) Estafa D) Unlawful arrest
A) Arresting a suspect under a valid warrant B) Detaining a person to secure testimony C) Detaining a person by a public officer without legal grounds D) Detaining a person without lawful cause by a private individual
A) RPC piracy applies to ships in ports, not in high seas. B) RPC piracy applies only to foreign vessels, while PD 532 applies to all vessels, including those within Philippine waters. C) RPC covers both air and land piracy, while PD 532 covers only sea piracy. D) PD 532 covers only government vessels.
A) Arbitrary detention B) Unlawful arrest C) Delay in the delivery of detained persons to judicial authorities D) Illegal search
A) Direct bribery B) Infidelity in the custody of documents C) Malversation of funds D) Infidelity in the custody of prisoners through connivance
A) Enter residences only with a valid warrant B) Allow entry as long as the officer is in uniform. C) Enter homes if the suspect is known to live there, even without a warrant. D) Conduct search operations anytime for faster results.
A) False accusation that harms another's reputation through writing. B) A malicious rumor intended to cause shame. C) A defamatory act done in public to cause dishonor, discredit, or contempt. D) An oral statement attacking a person's character.
A) Intriguing against honor consists of maliciously spreading rumors to harm another's reputation, while slander by deed is a physical act that causes dishonor. B) Intriguing against honor is by act, while slander by deed is by speech. C) There is no difference; both are oral defamation. D) Intriguing against honor involves spreading gossip; slander by deed involves written insult.
A) Direct assault B) Intriguing against honor C) Slander by deed D) Simple slander
A) Both require public complaint, but adultery may be filed only by the husband, and concubinage only by the wife. B) In adultery, only the husband can file a case; in concubinage, anyone can. C) Both crimes can be prosecuted by the State even without complaint. D) Both require consent from the offender's parents.
A) Bigamy B) Concubinage C) Illegal marriage D) Adultery
A) Decriminalize all adultery and concubinage cases. B) Encourage private settlements to avoid shame. C) Increase imprisonment for women offenders. D) Promote awareness of marital rights and responsibilities.
A) Recruiting persons for lawful employment abroad B) Recruiting, transporting, or harboring persons through coercion for exploitation or prostitution C) Sending domestic helpers abroad through legal agencies D) Hiring a worker with a valid work permit
A) Armed rebellion by military officers B) Peaceful protest without violence C) Criticizing the government on social media D) Acts intended to cause death or serious injury to persons to intimidate the public or government
A) Frustrated homicide B) Grave coercion C) Hazing resulting in serious physical injuries D) Physical injuries only
A) A police officer directs traffic in a public area. B) A teacher scolds a student for cheating. C) A man catcalls a woman walking on the street. D) A store owner posts a sale announcement.
A) RA 11053 - Anti-Hazing Law B) RA 11313 - Safe Spaces Act C) RA 10364 - Expanded Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act D) RA 11479 - Anti-Terrorism Act
A) A witness describing the suspect's face B) A fingerprint lifted from the crime scene C) A video footage showing the suspect committing the crime D) The accused posting a confession online
A) DNA samples gathered from the victim B) Fingerprints matched in a database C) Statements from a witness who saw the suspect D) Weapons recovered during the investigation
A) Eyewitness pointing at the accused B) CCTV footage of the incident C) Signed contract presented in court D) Knife left by the suspect
A) Real or physical evidence B) Circumstantial evidence C) Demonstrative evidence D) Testimonial evidence
A) Accepted by the witness B) Material and competent C) Based on personal beliefs D) Obtained from a private source
A) Evidence voluntarily given by suspect B) Evidence gathered through warrantless and unjustified search C) Evidence with proper search warrant D) Evidence authenticated by expert witness
A) Exclusionary Rule B) Hearsay Rule C) Res Gestae Rule D) Best Evidence Rule
A) Judicial Notice B) Best Evidence C) Materiality D) Relevance
A) Circumstantial evidence B) Judicially noticed facts C) Testimonial evidence D) Documentary evidence
A) Hearsay rule B) Opinion rule C) Parol evidence D) Chain of custody
A) Anytime during arraignment B) After a witness has testified or when the evidence is identified C) Only after the judgment is issued D) Immediately after the pre-trial
A) Ignore it and argue in closing statements B) Make a timely objection stating specific legal grounds C) Write a letter to the judge later D) File a motion after the case is finished
A) Its authenticity and relevance B) That it has been posted online C) The popularity of the person who wrote it D) That it came from a government agency only
A) Best Evidence Rule B) Exclusionary Rule C) Parol Evidence Rule D) Hearsay Rule
A) Produces moral certainty of the accused's guilt beyond reasonable doubt B) Is based entirely on hearsay C) Creates suspicion that a crime may have been committed D) Is presented by multiple witnesses regardless of credibility
A) Clear and convincing evidence B) Mere preponderance of evidence C) Proof beyond reasonable doubt D) Substantial evidence
A) Municipal Trial Court (MTC) B) Sandiganbayan C) Regional Trial Court (RTC) D) Court of Appeals
A) Regional Trial Court B) Municipal Trial Court C) Sandiganbayan D) Court of Appeals
A) Municipal Trial Court B) Court of Appeals C) Regional Trial Court D) Sandiganbayan
A) It refers to the set of rules governing evidence in administrative cases. B) It determines the jurisdiction of courts in civil cases. C) It governs the steps or process by which a person accused of a crime is investigated, prosecuted, tried, and punished. D) It is the law that defines crimes and prescribes penalties.
A) To determine what acts constitute crimes and their penalties. B) To establish an orderly method for prosecuting offenders. C) To ensure the protection of the rights of the accused. D) To promote fair and speedy administration of justice.
A) The right to choose the judge who will try his case. B) The right to set the schedule of hearings. C) The right to remain silent and to have competent and independent counsel. D) The right to decide what evidence the prosecution may present.
A) Yes, if the accused waives his right to counsel. B) No, because arraignment must precede the presentation of evidence. C) Yes, because the accused has the right to confront the witnesses against him. D) No, because it violates the right to speedy trial.
A) Right to due process of law B) Right against double jeopardy C) Right against self-incrimination D) Right to preliminary investigation
A) Arrest made one day after the crime, based on witness description. B) Arrest made during a random checkpoint without probable cause. C) Arrest based on a tip from an anonymous informant. D) Arrest made when the suspect was caught in the act of committing a crime.
A) Search made with a valid warrant issued by a competent court. B) Search incident to a lawful arrest. C) Search conducted in a private home without a warrant or consent. D) Search conducted in a private home without a warrant or consent.
A) When the suspect has a prior criminal record. B) When there is probable cause personally determined by the judge after examination under oath of the complainant and witnesses. C) When the police officer suspects that a crime is about to be committed. D) When a person refuses to submit to a checkpoint search.
A) The search is invalid because there was no valid warrant or lawful arrest. B) The search is valid because the drugs were found in plain view. C) The search is valid because the police acted in good faith. D) The search is valid since there was probable cause based on the anonymous tip.
A) When the accused is caught in the act of committing the offense. B) When the penalty prescribed is at least 4 years and 2 months imprisonment, regardless of fine. C) When the complainant demands it. D) When the case is filed directly before the Municipal Trial Court.
A) Arraignment B) Trial proper C) Inquest proceeding D) Preliminary investigation
A) A case involving offenses punishable by reclusion perpetua. B) A case where one party is a corporation. C) A crime involving government employees acting in their official capacity. D) A criminal case punishable by imprisonment not exceeding 1 year or fine not exceeding P5,000, and both parties reside in the same city or municipality.
A) Certificate of Non-Participation B) Certification to File Action C) Certificate of Appearance D) Certificate of Compliance
A) The police officer may approve the bail application. B) The prosecutor can decide whether to grant bail. C) Bail shall automatically be granted if he files an application. D) The court must conduct a hearing to determine whether evidence of guilt is strong.
A) Postpone the arraignment until the accused agrees to plead. B) Consider the accused as having pleaded guilty. C) Enter a plea of "not guilty" for the accused. D) Dismiss the case automatically.
A) To record the plea of the accused. B) To simplify and expedite the trial by identifying issues and evidence. C) To determine the guilt or innocence of the accused. D) To allow the prosecution to amend the information.
A) Demurrer to evidence B) Motion to quash C) Motion for new trial D) Motion for reconsideration
A) Dismiss the child as incompetent to testify. B) Disallow further questioning to protect the accused's rights. C) Continue the questioning until the child answers. D) Allow the child to rest and resume later in a child-friendly environment. |