A) NBI B) PNP C) BFP D) PDEA
A) PDEA B) NBI C) BFP D) BJMP
A) Conduct preliminary investigations and prosecute offenders B) Defend the accused in criminal cases C) Investigate fire-related incidents D) Guard prisoners in correctional facilities
A) Court of Appeals - Municipal Trial Court - Regional Trial Court - Supreme Court B) Supreme Court - Court of Appeals - Regional Trial Court - Municipal Trial Court C) Municipal Trial Court - Regional Trial Court - Supreme Court D) Regional Trial Court - Municipal Trial Court - Court of Appelas - Supreme Court
A) NBI B) BuCor C) BJMP D) PNP
A) Law enforcement can arrest without warrants in all cases B) Only the rich can access fair trials C) The government can punish anyone without legal procedures D) Every person is given an opportunity to be heard and defend themselves before judgement
A) A person consents to a bag inspection at a security checkpoint B) Police enter a house without a warrant and without consent to look for evidence C) Police conduct a search with a valid warrant issued by a judge D) Customs officers inspect luggage at the airport
A) Right to bail regardless of the offense B) Right to refuse all kinds of police questioning C) Right to remain at home during investigation D) Right to remain silent and to have competent and independent counsel
A) Sharing opinions online about political issues B) Expressing religious publicly C) Criticizing government policies peacefully D) Posting false and malicious statements that damage another person`s reputation
A) Writ of Habeas Corpus B) Writ of Mandamus C) Writ of Prohibition D) Writ of Amparo
A) Generality B) Territoriality C) Extraterritoriality D) Prospectivity
A) The act is performed through negligence B) The act is performed with deliberate intent C) The act is done without consent D) The act is done by accident
A) Complex crime B) Frustrated felony C) Continuing crime D) Impossible crime
A) A person who assists in hiding the body of the victim after the crime B) A person who takes direct part in the execution of the criminal act C) A person who helps in planning but not executing the crime D) A person cooperates in the execution of a crime by another without taking direct part in it
A) Instigation B) Conspiracy C) Provocation D) Proposal
A) The offender already begins executing does not agree B) Two or more persons agree and decide to commit a felony C) One person proposes to another the execution of a felony but the other does not agree D) One person decides to commit a felony without informing others
A) Instigator B) Accomplice C) Accessory D) Principal
A) The offender desists voluntarily before performing all acts of execution B) The offender has commenced the commission of a felony directly by overt acts C) The offender performs all acts of execution but does not accomplish the felony D) The offender performs all acts necessary for its accomplishment and the felony is produced
A) The penalty is fine only B) The penalty is imprisonment of less than 6 months C) The penalty is death, reclusion perpetua, or reclusion temporal D) The penalty is arresto menor or destierro
A) Frustrated B) Attempted C) Consummated D) Impossible
A) M(below 15 years old)inority B) Defense of one`s self or rights C) Insanity D) Lack of intent to commit so grave a wrong
A) Liable as an accessory B) Criminally liable as a principal C) Exempt from criminal liability D) Criminally liable as an accomplice
A) Alternative circumstance B) Justifying circumstance C) Mitigating circumstance D) Aggravating circumstance
A) Exempting circumstance B) Justifying circumstance C) Mitigating circumstance due to passion or obfuscation D) Aggravating circumstance
A) Alternative circumstance B) Justifying circumstance C) Exempting circumstance D) Mitigating circumstance
A) Amnesty granted by the government B) Escaped of the accused C) Filling of an appeal D) Delay of trial
A) It suspends the criminal liability B) It transfers liability to the heirs C) It totally extinguishes criminal and civil liability D) It extinguishes only civil liability
A) It becomes extinguished B) It is suspended until review C) It is transferred to another jurisdiction D) It is reduced but not removed
A) Death of the offender B) Prescription of crime C) Conditional pardon D) Service of sentence
A) The offender took advantage of public position B) The offender committed the crime with evident premeditation C) The crime is committed at nighttime to facilitate its commission D) The offender is below 18 years old but above 15 and acted with discernment
A) Lack of intent to kill B) Absence of weapon used C) Relationship between the offender and victim D) Treachery or evident premeditation
A) Killing by means of poison B) Killing with cruelty C) Killing of another person without qualifying circumstances D) Killing of ones parent
A) Parricide B) Murder C) infanticide D) Homicide
A) Treachery or evident premeditation B) Relationship between the offender and victim C) Absence of weapon used D) Lack of intent to kill
A) Killing of one's parent B) Killing with cruelty C) Killing by means of poison D) Killing of another person without qualifying circumstances
A) Homicide B) Murder C) Parricide D) Infanticide
A) Abortion B) Parricide C) Murder D) Infanticide
A) There is consent and the woman is of legal age B) A man has carnal knowledge of a woman through force, threat, or intimidation C) Both parties agreed to sexual intercourse D) The victim is over 18 and married
A) The injury heals immediately B) The injury requires no medical attention C) The injury causes death D) The injury incapacitates the victim for more than 30 days
A) Less serious physical injuries B) Serious physical injuries C) Slight physical injuries D) Attempted homicide
A) Alarm and scandal B) Attempted homicide C) Illegal discharge of firearm D) Reckless imprudence
A) Both involve taking property with intent to gain B) Robbery requires that the property be of high value C) Theft is committed only by strangers D) Robbery is committed with violence or intimidation; theft is not
A) Qualified theft B) Robbery in band C) Brigandage D) Estafa
A) Taking property without violence B) Defrauding another by abuse of confidence or deceit C) Using force to steal from another D) Damaging property with intent to annoy
A) Malicious Mischief B) Estafa C) Robbery D) Grave Threats
A) Light coercion B) Grave coercion C) Unlawful arrest D) Serious illegal detention
A) Estafa B) Grave coercion C) Grave threats D) Unlawful arrest
A) Arresting a suspect under a valid warrant B) Detaining a person to secure testimony C) Detaining a person without lawful cause by a private individual D) Detaining a person by a public officer without legal grounds
A) RPC covers both air and land piracy, while PD 532 covers only sea piracy. B) RPC piracy applies only to foreign vessels, while PD 532 applies to all vessels, including those within Philippine waters. C) RPC piracy applies to ships in ports, not in high seas. D) PD 532 covers only government vessels.
A) Delay in the delivery of detained persons to judicial authorities B) Illegal search C) Unlawful arrest D) Arbitrary detention
A) Infidelity in the custody of documents B) Malversation of funds C) Direct bribery D) Infidelity in the custody of prisoners through connivance
A) Allow entry as long as the officer is in uniform. B) Enter residences only with a valid warrant C) Enter homes if the suspect is known to live there, even without a warrant. D) Conduct search operations anytime for faster results.
A) A defamatory act done in public to cause dishonor, discredit, or contempt. B) False accusation that harms another's reputation through writing. C) A malicious rumor intended to cause shame. D) An oral statement attacking a person's character.
A) Intriguing against honor consists of maliciously spreading rumors to harm another's reputation, while slander by deed is a physical act that causes dishonor. B) There is no difference; both are oral defamation. C) Intriguing against honor is by act, while slander by deed is by speech. D) Intriguing against honor involves spreading gossip; slander by deed involves written insult.
A) Direct assault B) Intriguing against honor C) Simple slander D) Slander by deed
A) Both require public complaint, but adultery may be filed only by the husband, and concubinage only by the wife. B) Both crimes can be prosecuted by the State even without complaint. C) Both require consent from the offender's parents. D) In adultery, only the husband can file a case; in concubinage, anyone can.
A) Bigamy B) Adultery C) Illegal marriage D) Concubinage
A) Encourage private settlements to avoid shame. B) Increase imprisonment for women offenders. C) Promote awareness of marital rights and responsibilities. D) Decriminalize all adultery and concubinage cases.
A) Recruiting persons for lawful employment abroad B) Recruiting, transporting, or harboring persons through coercion for exploitation or prostitution C) Hiring a worker with a valid work permit D) Sending domestic helpers abroad through legal agencies
A) Peaceful protest without violence B) Acts intended to cause death or serious injury to persons to intimidate the public or government C) Criticizing the government on social media D) Armed rebellion by military officers
A) Grave coercion B) Physical injuries only C) Frustrated homicide D) Hazing resulting in serious physical injuries
A) A man catcalls a woman walking on the street. B) A police officer directs traffic in a public area. C) A teacher scolds a student for cheating. D) A store owner posts a sale announcement.
A) RA 11479 - Anti-Terrorism Act B) RA 11053 - Anti-Hazing Law C) RA 10364 - Expanded Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act D) RA 11313 - Safe Spaces Act
A) A fingerprint lifted from the crime scene B) A video footage showing the suspect committing the crime C) A witness describing the suspect's face D) The accused posting a confession online
A) Fingerprints matched in a database B) DNA samples gathered from the victim C) Weapons recovered during the investigation D) Statements from a witness who saw the suspect
A) Eyewitness pointing at the accused B) Knife left by the suspect C) CCTV footage of the incident D) Signed contract presented in court
A) Demonstrative evidence B) Real or physical evidence C) Testimonial evidence D) Circumstantial evidence
A) Obtained from a private source B) Material and competent C) Based on personal beliefs D) Accepted by the witness
A) Evidence with proper search warrant B) Evidence authenticated by expert witness C) Evidence gathered through warrantless and unjustified search D) Evidence voluntarily given by suspect
A) Best Evidence Rule B) Res Gestae Rule C) Hearsay Rule D) Exclusionary Rule
A) Best Evidence B) Judicial Notice C) Materiality D) Relevance
A) Judicially noticed facts B) Testimonial evidence C) Circumstantial evidence D) Documentary evidence
A) Opinion rule B) Hearsay rule C) Chain of custody D) Parol evidence
A) Immediately after the pre-trial B) After a witness has testified or when the evidence is identified C) Anytime during arraignment D) Only after the judgment is issued
A) Write a letter to the judge later B) Make a timely objection stating specific legal grounds C) File a motion after the case is finished D) Ignore it and argue in closing statements
A) Its authenticity and relevance B) That it has been posted online C) That it came from a government agency only D) The popularity of the person who wrote it
A) Hearsay Rule B) Best Evidence Rule C) Parol Evidence Rule D) Exclusionary Rule
A) Produces moral certainty of the accused's guilt beyond reasonable doubt B) Creates suspicion that a crime may have been committed C) Is presented by multiple witnesses regardless of credibility D) Is based entirely on hearsay
A) Clear and convincing evidence B) Mere preponderance of evidence C) Proof beyond reasonable doubt D) Substantial evidence
A) Regional Trial Court (RTC) B) Sandiganbayan C) Court of Appeals D) Municipal Trial Court (MTC)
A) Regional Trial Court B) Court of Appeals C) Municipal Trial Court D) Sandiganbayan
A) Regional Trial Court B) Municipal Trial Court C) Court of Appeals D) Sandiganbayan
A) It refers to the set of rules governing evidence in administrative cases. B) It governs the steps or process by which a person accused of a crime is investigated, prosecuted, tried, and punished. C) It determines the jurisdiction of courts in civil cases. D) It is the law that defines crimes and prescribes penalties.
A) To establish an orderly method for prosecuting offenders. B) To determine what acts constitute crimes and their penalties. C) To ensure the protection of the rights of the accused. D) To promote fair and speedy administration of justice.
A) The right to set the schedule of hearings. B) The right to choose the judge who will try his case. C) The right to decide what evidence the prosecution may present. D) The right to remain silent and to have competent and independent counsel.
A) No, because it violates the right to speedy trial. B) Yes, if the accused waives his right to counsel. C) No, because arraignment must precede the presentation of evidence. D) Yes, because the accused has the right to confront the witnesses against him.
A) Right to due process of law B) Right against self-incrimination C) Right against double jeopardy D) Right to preliminary investigation
A) Arrest made one day after the crime, based on witness description. B) Arrest made when the suspect was caught in the act of committing a crime. C) Arrest made during a random checkpoint without probable cause. D) Arrest based on a tip from an anonymous informant.
A) Search conducted in a private home without a warrant or consent. B) Search incident to a lawful arrest. C) Search conducted in a private home without a warrant or consent. D) Search made with a valid warrant issued by a competent court.
A) When the police officer suspects that a crime is about to be committed. B) When there is probable cause personally determined by the judge after examination under oath of the complainant and witnesses. C) When the suspect has a prior criminal record. D) When a person refuses to submit to a checkpoint search.
A) The search is invalid because there was no valid warrant or lawful arrest. B) The search is valid because the police acted in good faith. C) The search is valid because the drugs were found in plain view. D) The search is valid since there was probable cause based on the anonymous tip.
A) When the penalty prescribed is at least 4 years and 2 months imprisonment, regardless of fine. B) When the case is filed directly before the Municipal Trial Court. C) When the complainant demands it. D) When the accused is caught in the act of committing the offense.
A) Arraignment B) Trial proper C) Inquest proceeding D) Preliminary investigation
A) A case involving offenses punishable by reclusion perpetua. B) A criminal case punishable by imprisonment not exceeding 1 year or fine not exceeding P5,000, and both parties reside in the same city or municipality. C) A case where one party is a corporation. D) A crime involving government employees acting in their official capacity.
A) Certification to File Action B) Certificate of Compliance C) Certificate of Non-Participation D) Certificate of Appearance
A) Bail shall automatically be granted if he files an application. B) The court must conduct a hearing to determine whether evidence of guilt is strong. C) The police officer may approve the bail application. D) The prosecutor can decide whether to grant bail.
A) Dismiss the case automatically. B) Postpone the arraignment until the accused agrees to plead. C) Consider the accused as having pleaded guilty. D) Enter a plea of "not guilty" for the accused.
A) To record the plea of the accused. B) To allow the prosecution to amend the information. C) To determine the guilt or innocence of the accused. D) To simplify and expedite the trial by identifying issues and evidence.
A) Demurrer to evidence B) Motion to quash C) Motion for new trial D) Motion for reconsideration
A) Dismiss the child as incompetent to testify. B) Allow the child to rest and resume later in a child-friendly environment. C) Disallow further questioning to protect the accused's rights. D) Continue the questioning until the child answers. |