A) PNP B) PDEA C) NBI D) BFP
A) BFP B) PDEA C) NBI D) BJMP
A) Conduct preliminary investigations and prosecute offenders B) Investigate fire-related incidents C) Defend the accused in criminal cases D) Guard prisoners in correctional facilities
A) Supreme Court - Court of Appeals - Regional Trial Court - Municipal Trial Court B) Municipal Trial Court - Regional Trial Court - Supreme Court C) Regional Trial Court - Municipal Trial Court - Court of Appelas - Supreme Court D) Court of Appeals - Municipal Trial Court - Regional Trial Court - Supreme Court
A) NBI B) BuCor C) BJMP D) PNP
A) Law enforcement can arrest without warrants in all cases B) Only the rich can access fair trials C) Every person is given an opportunity to be heard and defend themselves before judgement D) The government can punish anyone without legal procedures
A) Police enter a house without a warrant and without consent to look for evidence B) Police conduct a search with a valid warrant issued by a judge C) A person consents to a bag inspection at a security checkpoint D) Customs officers inspect luggage at the airport
A) Right to refuse all kinds of police questioning B) Right to remain at home during investigation C) Right to remain silent and to have competent and independent counsel D) Right to bail regardless of the offense
A) Sharing opinions online about political issues B) Criticizing government policies peacefully C) Expressing religious publicly D) Posting false and malicious statements that damage another person`s reputation
A) Writ of Amparo B) Writ of Habeas Corpus C) Writ of Prohibition D) Writ of Mandamus
A) Territoriality B) Generality C) Prospectivity D) Extraterritoriality
A) The act is performed through negligence B) The act is done without consent C) The act is done by accident D) The act is performed with deliberate intent
A) Complex crime B) Continuing crime C) Impossible crime D) Frustrated felony
A) A person cooperates in the execution of a crime by another without taking direct part in it B) A person who takes direct part in the execution of the criminal act C) A person who helps in planning but not executing the crime D) A person who assists in hiding the body of the victim after the crime
A) Instigation B) Conspiracy C) Proposal D) Provocation
A) Two or more persons agree and decide to commit a felony B) The offender already begins executing does not agree C) One person proposes to another the execution of a felony but the other does not agree D) One person decides to commit a felony without informing others
A) Accessory B) Accomplice C) Principal D) Instigator
A) The offender has commenced the commission of a felony directly by overt acts B) The offender desists voluntarily before performing all acts of execution C) The offender performs all acts of execution but does not accomplish the felony D) The offender performs all acts necessary for its accomplishment and the felony is produced
A) The penalty is fine only B) The penalty is arresto menor or destierro C) The penalty is imprisonment of less than 6 months D) The penalty is death, reclusion perpetua, or reclusion temporal
A) Frustrated B) Consummated C) Attempted D) Impossible
A) Lack of intent to commit so grave a wrong B) M(below 15 years old)inority C) Insanity D) Defense of one`s self or rights
A) Criminally liable as a principal B) Liable as an accessory C) Exempt from criminal liability D) Criminally liable as an accomplice
A) Justifying circumstance B) Alternative circumstance C) Mitigating circumstance D) Aggravating circumstance
A) Exempting circumstance B) Aggravating circumstance C) Mitigating circumstance due to passion or obfuscation D) Justifying circumstance
A) Exempting circumstance B) Mitigating circumstance C) Justifying circumstance D) Alternative circumstance
A) Filling of an appeal B) Amnesty granted by the government C) Escaped of the accused D) Delay of trial
A) It transfers liability to the heirs B) It extinguishes only civil liability C) It totally extinguishes criminal and civil liability D) It suspends the criminal liability
A) It is reduced but not removed B) It is transferred to another jurisdiction C) It is suspended until review D) It becomes extinguished
A) Death of the offender B) Prescription of crime C) Conditional pardon D) Service of sentence
A) The offender committed the crime with evident premeditation B) The offender is below 18 years old but above 15 and acted with discernment C) The crime is committed at nighttime to facilitate its commission D) The offender took advantage of public position
A) Relationship between the offender and victim B) Lack of intent to kill C) Treachery or evident premeditation D) Absence of weapon used
A) Killing of another person without qualifying circumstances B) Killing by means of poison C) Killing of ones parent D) Killing with cruelty
A) Homicide B) Murder C) infanticide D) Parricide
A) Absence of weapon used B) Relationship between the offender and victim C) Treachery or evident premeditation D) Lack of intent to kill
A) Killing with cruelty B) Killing of one's parent C) Killing of another person without qualifying circumstances D) Killing by means of poison
A) Infanticide B) Murder C) Homicide D) Parricide
A) Infanticide B) Parricide C) Murder D) Abortion
A) A man has carnal knowledge of a woman through force, threat, or intimidation B) There is consent and the woman is of legal age C) Both parties agreed to sexual intercourse D) The victim is over 18 and married
A) The injury requires no medical attention B) The injury causes death C) The injury heals immediately D) The injury incapacitates the victim for more than 30 days
A) Slight physical injuries B) Less serious physical injuries C) Serious physical injuries D) Attempted homicide
A) Reckless imprudence B) Attempted homicide C) Illegal discharge of firearm D) Alarm and scandal
A) Robbery requires that the property be of high value B) Both involve taking property with intent to gain C) Robbery is committed with violence or intimidation; theft is not D) Theft is committed only by strangers
A) Brigandage B) Estafa C) Qualified theft D) Robbery in band
A) Defrauding another by abuse of confidence or deceit B) Damaging property with intent to annoy C) Using force to steal from another D) Taking property without violence
A) Robbery B) Estafa C) Grave Threats D) Malicious Mischief
A) Unlawful arrest B) Light coercion C) Serious illegal detention D) Grave coercion
A) Estafa B) Unlawful arrest C) Grave coercion D) Grave threats
A) Arresting a suspect under a valid warrant B) Detaining a person to secure testimony C) Detaining a person without lawful cause by a private individual D) Detaining a person by a public officer without legal grounds
A) RPC piracy applies only to foreign vessels, while PD 532 applies to all vessels, including those within Philippine waters. B) RPC covers both air and land piracy, while PD 532 covers only sea piracy. C) RPC piracy applies to ships in ports, not in high seas. D) PD 532 covers only government vessels.
A) Delay in the delivery of detained persons to judicial authorities B) Illegal search C) Arbitrary detention D) Unlawful arrest
A) Infidelity in the custody of documents B) Malversation of funds C) Direct bribery D) Infidelity in the custody of prisoners through connivance
A) Allow entry as long as the officer is in uniform. B) Enter homes if the suspect is known to live there, even without a warrant. C) Enter residences only with a valid warrant D) Conduct search operations anytime for faster results.
A) A defamatory act done in public to cause dishonor, discredit, or contempt. B) A malicious rumor intended to cause shame. C) An oral statement attacking a person's character. D) False accusation that harms another's reputation through writing.
A) Intriguing against honor involves spreading gossip; slander by deed involves written insult. B) Intriguing against honor consists of maliciously spreading rumors to harm another's reputation, while slander by deed is a physical act that causes dishonor. C) There is no difference; both are oral defamation. D) Intriguing against honor is by act, while slander by deed is by speech.
A) Simple slander B) Intriguing against honor C) Slander by deed D) Direct assault
A) Both crimes can be prosecuted by the State even without complaint. B) Both require consent from the offender's parents. C) In adultery, only the husband can file a case; in concubinage, anyone can. D) Both require public complaint, but adultery may be filed only by the husband, and concubinage only by the wife.
A) Concubinage B) Adultery C) Bigamy D) Illegal marriage
A) Decriminalize all adultery and concubinage cases. B) Promote awareness of marital rights and responsibilities. C) Increase imprisonment for women offenders. D) Encourage private settlements to avoid shame.
A) Recruiting persons for lawful employment abroad B) Recruiting, transporting, or harboring persons through coercion for exploitation or prostitution C) Hiring a worker with a valid work permit D) Sending domestic helpers abroad through legal agencies
A) Criticizing the government on social media B) Acts intended to cause death or serious injury to persons to intimidate the public or government C) Armed rebellion by military officers D) Peaceful protest without violence
A) Hazing resulting in serious physical injuries B) Physical injuries only C) Frustrated homicide D) Grave coercion
A) A police officer directs traffic in a public area. B) A teacher scolds a student for cheating. C) A man catcalls a woman walking on the street. D) A store owner posts a sale announcement.
A) RA 11479 - Anti-Terrorism Act B) RA 10364 - Expanded Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act C) RA 11053 - Anti-Hazing Law D) RA 11313 - Safe Spaces Act
A) A witness describing the suspect's face B) The accused posting a confession online C) A video footage showing the suspect committing the crime D) A fingerprint lifted from the crime scene
A) Statements from a witness who saw the suspect B) Weapons recovered during the investigation C) DNA samples gathered from the victim D) Fingerprints matched in a database
A) Knife left by the suspect B) CCTV footage of the incident C) Eyewitness pointing at the accused D) Signed contract presented in court
A) Testimonial evidence B) Circumstantial evidence C) Real or physical evidence D) Demonstrative evidence
A) Material and competent B) Based on personal beliefs C) Obtained from a private source D) Accepted by the witness
A) Evidence authenticated by expert witness B) Evidence gathered through warrantless and unjustified search C) Evidence voluntarily given by suspect D) Evidence with proper search warrant
A) Exclusionary Rule B) Hearsay Rule C) Best Evidence Rule D) Res Gestae Rule
A) Relevance B) Judicial Notice C) Materiality D) Best Evidence
A) Judicially noticed facts B) Circumstantial evidence C) Testimonial evidence D) Documentary evidence
A) Hearsay rule B) Chain of custody C) Opinion rule D) Parol evidence
A) After a witness has testified or when the evidence is identified B) Only after the judgment is issued C) Immediately after the pre-trial D) Anytime during arraignment
A) Ignore it and argue in closing statements B) Write a letter to the judge later C) File a motion after the case is finished D) Make a timely objection stating specific legal grounds
A) The popularity of the person who wrote it B) That it came from a government agency only C) That it has been posted online D) Its authenticity and relevance
A) Exclusionary Rule B) Hearsay Rule C) Best Evidence Rule D) Parol Evidence Rule
A) Is based entirely on hearsay B) Produces moral certainty of the accused's guilt beyond reasonable doubt C) Is presented by multiple witnesses regardless of credibility D) Creates suspicion that a crime may have been committed
A) Mere preponderance of evidence B) Proof beyond reasonable doubt C) Clear and convincing evidence D) Substantial evidence
A) Court of Appeals B) Municipal Trial Court (MTC) C) Regional Trial Court (RTC) D) Sandiganbayan
A) Court of Appeals B) Municipal Trial Court C) Sandiganbayan D) Regional Trial Court
A) Municipal Trial Court B) Court of Appeals C) Sandiganbayan D) Regional Trial Court
A) It is the law that defines crimes and prescribes penalties. B) It governs the steps or process by which a person accused of a crime is investigated, prosecuted, tried, and punished. C) It determines the jurisdiction of courts in civil cases. D) It refers to the set of rules governing evidence in administrative cases.
A) To establish an orderly method for prosecuting offenders. B) To promote fair and speedy administration of justice. C) To ensure the protection of the rights of the accused. D) To determine what acts constitute crimes and their penalties.
A) The right to choose the judge who will try his case. B) The right to remain silent and to have competent and independent counsel. C) The right to decide what evidence the prosecution may present. D) The right to set the schedule of hearings.
A) No, because arraignment must precede the presentation of evidence. B) No, because it violates the right to speedy trial. C) Yes, because the accused has the right to confront the witnesses against him. D) Yes, if the accused waives his right to counsel.
A) Right to preliminary investigation B) Right against self-incrimination C) Right against double jeopardy D) Right to due process of law
A) Arrest made when the suspect was caught in the act of committing a crime. B) Arrest made one day after the crime, based on witness description. C) Arrest made during a random checkpoint without probable cause. D) Arrest based on a tip from an anonymous informant.
A) Search conducted in a private home without a warrant or consent. B) Search incident to a lawful arrest. C) Search made with a valid warrant issued by a competent court. D) Search conducted in a private home without a warrant or consent.
A) When a person refuses to submit to a checkpoint search. B) When the police officer suspects that a crime is about to be committed. C) When the suspect has a prior criminal record. D) When there is probable cause personally determined by the judge after examination under oath of the complainant and witnesses.
A) The search is valid because the police acted in good faith. B) The search is valid because the drugs were found in plain view. C) The search is valid since there was probable cause based on the anonymous tip. D) The search is invalid because there was no valid warrant or lawful arrest.
A) When the accused is caught in the act of committing the offense. B) When the case is filed directly before the Municipal Trial Court. C) When the complainant demands it. D) When the penalty prescribed is at least 4 years and 2 months imprisonment, regardless of fine.
A) Preliminary investigation B) Arraignment C) Trial proper D) Inquest proceeding
A) A case where one party is a corporation. B) A criminal case punishable by imprisonment not exceeding 1 year or fine not exceeding P5,000, and both parties reside in the same city or municipality. C) A case involving offenses punishable by reclusion perpetua. D) A crime involving government employees acting in their official capacity.
A) Certificate of Appearance B) Certificate of Compliance C) Certification to File Action D) Certificate of Non-Participation
A) The court must conduct a hearing to determine whether evidence of guilt is strong. B) The police officer may approve the bail application. C) The prosecutor can decide whether to grant bail. D) Bail shall automatically be granted if he files an application.
A) Dismiss the case automatically. B) Enter a plea of "not guilty" for the accused. C) Postpone the arraignment until the accused agrees to plead. D) Consider the accused as having pleaded guilty.
A) To simplify and expedite the trial by identifying issues and evidence. B) To determine the guilt or innocence of the accused. C) To record the plea of the accused. D) To allow the prosecution to amend the information.
A) Motion for new trial B) Motion for reconsideration C) Demurrer to evidence D) Motion to quash
A) Continue the questioning until the child answers. B) Allow the child to rest and resume later in a child-friendly environment. C) Disallow further questioning to protect the accused's rights. D) Dismiss the child as incompetent to testify. |