A) PNP B) PDEA C) NBI D) BFP
A) PDEA B) BJMP C) NBI D) BFP
A) Investigate fire-related incidents B) Defend the accused in criminal cases C) Conduct preliminary investigations and prosecute offenders D) Guard prisoners in correctional facilities
A) Regional Trial Court - Municipal Trial Court - Court of Appelas - Supreme Court B) Supreme Court - Court of Appeals - Regional Trial Court - Municipal Trial Court C) Court of Appeals - Municipal Trial Court - Regional Trial Court - Supreme Court D) Municipal Trial Court - Regional Trial Court - Supreme Court
A) NBI B) PNP C) BuCor D) BJMP
A) Law enforcement can arrest without warrants in all cases B) The government can punish anyone without legal procedures C) Only the rich can access fair trials D) Every person is given an opportunity to be heard and defend themselves before judgement
A) Police enter a house without a warrant and without consent to look for evidence B) A person consents to a bag inspection at a security checkpoint C) Police conduct a search with a valid warrant issued by a judge D) Customs officers inspect luggage at the airport
A) Right to remain at home during investigation B) Right to bail regardless of the offense C) Right to remain silent and to have competent and independent counsel D) Right to refuse all kinds of police questioning
A) Expressing religious publicly B) Sharing opinions online about political issues C) Criticizing government policies peacefully D) Posting false and malicious statements that damage another person`s reputation
A) Writ of Habeas Corpus B) Writ of Amparo C) Writ of Mandamus D) Writ of Prohibition
A) Extraterritoriality B) Prospectivity C) Generality D) Territoriality
A) The act is done without consent B) The act is performed through negligence C) The act is performed with deliberate intent D) The act is done by accident
A) Continuing crime B) Frustrated felony C) Complex crime D) Impossible crime
A) A person who assists in hiding the body of the victim after the crime B) A person who takes direct part in the execution of the criminal act C) A person who helps in planning but not executing the crime D) A person cooperates in the execution of a crime by another without taking direct part in it
A) Instigation B) Conspiracy C) Proposal D) Provocation
A) One person decides to commit a felony without informing others B) The offender already begins executing does not agree C) Two or more persons agree and decide to commit a felony D) One person proposes to another the execution of a felony but the other does not agree
A) Accomplice B) Principal C) Instigator D) Accessory
A) The offender performs all acts necessary for its accomplishment and the felony is produced B) The offender performs all acts of execution but does not accomplish the felony C) The offender desists voluntarily before performing all acts of execution D) The offender has commenced the commission of a felony directly by overt acts
A) The penalty is death, reclusion perpetua, or reclusion temporal B) The penalty is imprisonment of less than 6 months C) The penalty is fine only D) The penalty is arresto menor or destierro
A) Consummated B) Frustrated C) Impossible D) Attempted
A) M(below 15 years old)inority B) Insanity C) Lack of intent to commit so grave a wrong D) Defense of one`s self or rights
A) Exempt from criminal liability B) Liable as an accessory C) Criminally liable as an accomplice D) Criminally liable as a principal
A) Alternative circumstance B) Mitigating circumstance C) Aggravating circumstance D) Justifying circumstance
A) Justifying circumstance B) Mitigating circumstance due to passion or obfuscation C) Exempting circumstance D) Aggravating circumstance
A) Justifying circumstance B) Mitigating circumstance C) Exempting circumstance D) Alternative circumstance
A) Delay of trial B) Amnesty granted by the government C) Filling of an appeal D) Escaped of the accused
A) It suspends the criminal liability B) It transfers liability to the heirs C) It totally extinguishes criminal and civil liability D) It extinguishes only civil liability
A) It is suspended until review B) It becomes extinguished C) It is reduced but not removed D) It is transferred to another jurisdiction
A) Conditional pardon B) Service of sentence C) Death of the offender D) Prescription of crime
A) The offender committed the crime with evident premeditation B) The offender is below 18 years old but above 15 and acted with discernment C) The offender took advantage of public position D) The crime is committed at nighttime to facilitate its commission
A) Treachery or evident premeditation B) Lack of intent to kill C) Relationship between the offender and victim D) Absence of weapon used
A) Killing with cruelty B) Killing of another person without qualifying circumstances C) Killing by means of poison D) Killing of ones parent
A) Parricide B) Murder C) Homicide D) infanticide
A) Treachery or evident premeditation B) Absence of weapon used C) Relationship between the offender and victim D) Lack of intent to kill
A) Killing of another person without qualifying circumstances B) Killing by means of poison C) Killing with cruelty D) Killing of one's parent
A) Murder B) Homicide C) Parricide D) Infanticide
A) Murder B) Abortion C) Infanticide D) Parricide
A) Both parties agreed to sexual intercourse B) There is consent and the woman is of legal age C) A man has carnal knowledge of a woman through force, threat, or intimidation D) The victim is over 18 and married
A) The injury causes death B) The injury incapacitates the victim for more than 30 days C) The injury requires no medical attention D) The injury heals immediately
A) Less serious physical injuries B) Attempted homicide C) Slight physical injuries D) Serious physical injuries
A) Reckless imprudence B) Alarm and scandal C) Attempted homicide D) Illegal discharge of firearm
A) Both involve taking property with intent to gain B) Theft is committed only by strangers C) Robbery is committed with violence or intimidation; theft is not D) Robbery requires that the property be of high value
A) Estafa B) Qualified theft C) Brigandage D) Robbery in band
A) Defrauding another by abuse of confidence or deceit B) Using force to steal from another C) Taking property without violence D) Damaging property with intent to annoy
A) Malicious Mischief B) Estafa C) Robbery D) Grave Threats
A) Unlawful arrest B) Light coercion C) Grave coercion D) Serious illegal detention
A) Grave coercion B) Estafa C) Unlawful arrest D) Grave threats
A) Detaining a person by a public officer without legal grounds B) Detaining a person to secure testimony C) Arresting a suspect under a valid warrant D) Detaining a person without lawful cause by a private individual
A) PD 532 covers only government vessels. B) RPC covers both air and land piracy, while PD 532 covers only sea piracy. C) RPC piracy applies to ships in ports, not in high seas. D) RPC piracy applies only to foreign vessels, while PD 532 applies to all vessels, including those within Philippine waters.
A) Arbitrary detention B) Delay in the delivery of detained persons to judicial authorities C) Illegal search D) Unlawful arrest
A) Infidelity in the custody of prisoners through connivance B) Infidelity in the custody of documents C) Malversation of funds D) Direct bribery
A) Allow entry as long as the officer is in uniform. B) Conduct search operations anytime for faster results. C) Enter residences only with a valid warrant D) Enter homes if the suspect is known to live there, even without a warrant.
A) An oral statement attacking a person's character. B) A malicious rumor intended to cause shame. C) False accusation that harms another's reputation through writing. D) A defamatory act done in public to cause dishonor, discredit, or contempt.
A) There is no difference; both are oral defamation. B) Intriguing against honor consists of maliciously spreading rumors to harm another's reputation, while slander by deed is a physical act that causes dishonor. C) Intriguing against honor is by act, while slander by deed is by speech. D) Intriguing against honor involves spreading gossip; slander by deed involves written insult.
A) Intriguing against honor B) Simple slander C) Direct assault D) Slander by deed
A) Both require consent from the offender's parents. B) Both require public complaint, but adultery may be filed only by the husband, and concubinage only by the wife. C) In adultery, only the husband can file a case; in concubinage, anyone can. D) Both crimes can be prosecuted by the State even without complaint.
A) Bigamy B) Adultery C) Concubinage D) Illegal marriage
A) Increase imprisonment for women offenders. B) Encourage private settlements to avoid shame. C) Decriminalize all adultery and concubinage cases. D) Promote awareness of marital rights and responsibilities.
A) Recruiting, transporting, or harboring persons through coercion for exploitation or prostitution B) Recruiting persons for lawful employment abroad C) Hiring a worker with a valid work permit D) Sending domestic helpers abroad through legal agencies
A) Acts intended to cause death or serious injury to persons to intimidate the public or government B) Armed rebellion by military officers C) Criticizing the government on social media D) Peaceful protest without violence
A) Grave coercion B) Frustrated homicide C) Physical injuries only D) Hazing resulting in serious physical injuries
A) A police officer directs traffic in a public area. B) A man catcalls a woman walking on the street. C) A teacher scolds a student for cheating. D) A store owner posts a sale announcement.
A) RA 11479 - Anti-Terrorism Act B) RA 10364 - Expanded Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act C) RA 11053 - Anti-Hazing Law D) RA 11313 - Safe Spaces Act
A) A fingerprint lifted from the crime scene B) A witness describing the suspect's face C) A video footage showing the suspect committing the crime D) The accused posting a confession online
A) DNA samples gathered from the victim B) Fingerprints matched in a database C) Weapons recovered during the investigation D) Statements from a witness who saw the suspect
A) Eyewitness pointing at the accused B) Signed contract presented in court C) Knife left by the suspect D) CCTV footage of the incident
A) Demonstrative evidence B) Real or physical evidence C) Testimonial evidence D) Circumstantial evidence
A) Obtained from a private source B) Accepted by the witness C) Based on personal beliefs D) Material and competent
A) Evidence with proper search warrant B) Evidence gathered through warrantless and unjustified search C) Evidence authenticated by expert witness D) Evidence voluntarily given by suspect
A) Exclusionary Rule B) Best Evidence Rule C) Hearsay Rule D) Res Gestae Rule
A) Judicial Notice B) Best Evidence C) Materiality D) Relevance
A) Circumstantial evidence B) Judicially noticed facts C) Documentary evidence D) Testimonial evidence
A) Opinion rule B) Chain of custody C) Parol evidence D) Hearsay rule
A) Immediately after the pre-trial B) Anytime during arraignment C) Only after the judgment is issued D) After a witness has testified or when the evidence is identified
A) File a motion after the case is finished B) Write a letter to the judge later C) Ignore it and argue in closing statements D) Make a timely objection stating specific legal grounds
A) That it came from a government agency only B) That it has been posted online C) Its authenticity and relevance D) The popularity of the person who wrote it
A) Hearsay Rule B) Exclusionary Rule C) Parol Evidence Rule D) Best Evidence Rule
A) Produces moral certainty of the accused's guilt beyond reasonable doubt B) Is based entirely on hearsay C) Creates suspicion that a crime may have been committed D) Is presented by multiple witnesses regardless of credibility
A) Substantial evidence B) Proof beyond reasonable doubt C) Mere preponderance of evidence D) Clear and convincing evidence
A) Sandiganbayan B) Regional Trial Court (RTC) C) Court of Appeals D) Municipal Trial Court (MTC)
A) Regional Trial Court B) Sandiganbayan C) Court of Appeals D) Municipal Trial Court
A) Court of Appeals B) Municipal Trial Court C) Sandiganbayan D) Regional Trial Court
A) It governs the steps or process by which a person accused of a crime is investigated, prosecuted, tried, and punished. B) It refers to the set of rules governing evidence in administrative cases. C) It determines the jurisdiction of courts in civil cases. D) It is the law that defines crimes and prescribes penalties.
A) To ensure the protection of the rights of the accused. B) To establish an orderly method for prosecuting offenders. C) To promote fair and speedy administration of justice. D) To determine what acts constitute crimes and their penalties.
A) The right to remain silent and to have competent and independent counsel. B) The right to set the schedule of hearings. C) The right to choose the judge who will try his case. D) The right to decide what evidence the prosecution may present.
A) No, because it violates the right to speedy trial. B) Yes, because the accused has the right to confront the witnesses against him. C) Yes, if the accused waives his right to counsel. D) No, because arraignment must precede the presentation of evidence.
A) Right to preliminary investigation B) Right to due process of law C) Right against self-incrimination D) Right against double jeopardy
A) Arrest based on a tip from an anonymous informant. B) Arrest made when the suspect was caught in the act of committing a crime. C) Arrest made during a random checkpoint without probable cause. D) Arrest made one day after the crime, based on witness description.
A) Search conducted in a private home without a warrant or consent. B) Search made with a valid warrant issued by a competent court. C) Search conducted in a private home without a warrant or consent. D) Search incident to a lawful arrest.
A) When there is probable cause personally determined by the judge after examination under oath of the complainant and witnesses. B) When a person refuses to submit to a checkpoint search. C) When the suspect has a prior criminal record. D) When the police officer suspects that a crime is about to be committed.
A) The search is invalid because there was no valid warrant or lawful arrest. B) The search is valid because the drugs were found in plain view. C) The search is valid since there was probable cause based on the anonymous tip. D) The search is valid because the police acted in good faith.
A) When the accused is caught in the act of committing the offense. B) When the complainant demands it. C) When the penalty prescribed is at least 4 years and 2 months imprisonment, regardless of fine. D) When the case is filed directly before the Municipal Trial Court.
A) Preliminary investigation B) Arraignment C) Inquest proceeding D) Trial proper
A) A case involving offenses punishable by reclusion perpetua. B) A case where one party is a corporation. C) A crime involving government employees acting in their official capacity. D) A criminal case punishable by imprisonment not exceeding 1 year or fine not exceeding P5,000, and both parties reside in the same city or municipality.
A) Certificate of Non-Participation B) Certificate of Compliance C) Certification to File Action D) Certificate of Appearance
A) The court must conduct a hearing to determine whether evidence of guilt is strong. B) Bail shall automatically be granted if he files an application. C) The prosecutor can decide whether to grant bail. D) The police officer may approve the bail application.
A) Dismiss the case automatically. B) Enter a plea of "not guilty" for the accused. C) Postpone the arraignment until the accused agrees to plead. D) Consider the accused as having pleaded guilty.
A) To simplify and expedite the trial by identifying issues and evidence. B) To allow the prosecution to amend the information. C) To determine the guilt or innocence of the accused. D) To record the plea of the accused.
A) Motion for reconsideration B) Motion for new trial C) Demurrer to evidence D) Motion to quash
A) Disallow further questioning to protect the accused's rights. B) Continue the questioning until the child answers. C) Dismiss the child as incompetent to testify. D) Allow the child to rest and resume later in a child-friendly environment. |