A) BFP B) NBI C) PDEA D) PNP
A) BJMP B) BFP C) PDEA D) NBI
A) Investigate fire-related incidents B) Conduct preliminary investigations and prosecute offenders C) Defend the accused in criminal cases D) Guard prisoners in correctional facilities
A) Regional Trial Court - Municipal Trial Court - Court of Appelas - Supreme Court B) Supreme Court - Court of Appeals - Regional Trial Court - Municipal Trial Court C) Municipal Trial Court - Regional Trial Court - Supreme Court D) Court of Appeals - Municipal Trial Court - Regional Trial Court - Supreme Court
A) PNP B) BJMP C) BuCor D) NBI
A) The government can punish anyone without legal procedures B) Law enforcement can arrest without warrants in all cases C) Every person is given an opportunity to be heard and defend themselves before judgement D) Only the rich can access fair trials
A) Police enter a house without a warrant and without consent to look for evidence B) A person consents to a bag inspection at a security checkpoint C) Police conduct a search with a valid warrant issued by a judge D) Customs officers inspect luggage at the airport
A) Right to refuse all kinds of police questioning B) Right to bail regardless of the offense C) Right to remain silent and to have competent and independent counsel D) Right to remain at home during investigation
A) Expressing religious publicly B) Sharing opinions online about political issues C) Posting false and malicious statements that damage another person`s reputation D) Criticizing government policies peacefully
A) Writ of Mandamus B) Writ of Habeas Corpus C) Writ of Prohibition D) Writ of Amparo
A) Prospectivity B) Generality C) Extraterritoriality D) Territoriality
A) The act is performed with deliberate intent B) The act is done without consent C) The act is done by accident D) The act is performed through negligence
A) Frustrated felony B) Complex crime C) Continuing crime D) Impossible crime
A) A person who assists in hiding the body of the victim after the crime B) A person who helps in planning but not executing the crime C) A person who takes direct part in the execution of the criminal act D) A person cooperates in the execution of a crime by another without taking direct part in it
A) Proposal B) Instigation C) Conspiracy D) Provocation
A) Two or more persons agree and decide to commit a felony B) The offender already begins executing does not agree C) One person proposes to another the execution of a felony but the other does not agree D) One person decides to commit a felony without informing others
A) Accessory B) Principal C) Instigator D) Accomplice
A) The offender has commenced the commission of a felony directly by overt acts B) The offender desists voluntarily before performing all acts of execution C) The offender performs all acts necessary for its accomplishment and the felony is produced D) The offender performs all acts of execution but does not accomplish the felony
A) The penalty is fine only B) The penalty is arresto menor or destierro C) The penalty is death, reclusion perpetua, or reclusion temporal D) The penalty is imprisonment of less than 6 months
A) Frustrated B) Consummated C) Impossible D) Attempted
A) Lack of intent to commit so grave a wrong B) Defense of one`s self or rights C) Insanity D) M(below 15 years old)inority
A) Criminally liable as an accomplice B) Liable as an accessory C) Criminally liable as a principal D) Exempt from criminal liability
A) Mitigating circumstance B) Alternative circumstance C) Aggravating circumstance D) Justifying circumstance
A) Justifying circumstance B) Mitigating circumstance due to passion or obfuscation C) Exempting circumstance D) Aggravating circumstance
A) Alternative circumstance B) Exempting circumstance C) Justifying circumstance D) Mitigating circumstance
A) Filling of an appeal B) Amnesty granted by the government C) Escaped of the accused D) Delay of trial
A) It transfers liability to the heirs B) It extinguishes only civil liability C) It totally extinguishes criminal and civil liability D) It suspends the criminal liability
A) It is suspended until review B) It is reduced but not removed C) It becomes extinguished D) It is transferred to another jurisdiction
A) Death of the offender B) Prescription of crime C) Service of sentence D) Conditional pardon
A) The offender took advantage of public position B) The offender committed the crime with evident premeditation C) The offender is below 18 years old but above 15 and acted with discernment D) The crime is committed at nighttime to facilitate its commission
A) Relationship between the offender and victim B) Treachery or evident premeditation C) Absence of weapon used D) Lack of intent to kill
A) Killing by means of poison B) Killing of another person without qualifying circumstances C) Killing of ones parent D) Killing with cruelty
A) infanticide B) Homicide C) Murder D) Parricide
A) Absence of weapon used B) Relationship between the offender and victim C) Treachery or evident premeditation D) Lack of intent to kill
A) Killing by means of poison B) Killing of another person without qualifying circumstances C) Killing with cruelty D) Killing of one's parent
A) Murder B) Parricide C) Infanticide D) Homicide
A) Murder B) Abortion C) Infanticide D) Parricide
A) Both parties agreed to sexual intercourse B) There is consent and the woman is of legal age C) A man has carnal knowledge of a woman through force, threat, or intimidation D) The victim is over 18 and married
A) The injury requires no medical attention B) The injury incapacitates the victim for more than 30 days C) The injury causes death D) The injury heals immediately
A) Serious physical injuries B) Slight physical injuries C) Attempted homicide D) Less serious physical injuries
A) Illegal discharge of firearm B) Alarm and scandal C) Attempted homicide D) Reckless imprudence
A) Robbery requires that the property be of high value B) Theft is committed only by strangers C) Robbery is committed with violence or intimidation; theft is not D) Both involve taking property with intent to gain
A) Qualified theft B) Estafa C) Brigandage D) Robbery in band
A) Using force to steal from another B) Defrauding another by abuse of confidence or deceit C) Damaging property with intent to annoy D) Taking property without violence
A) Grave Threats B) Malicious Mischief C) Robbery D) Estafa
A) Light coercion B) Unlawful arrest C) Serious illegal detention D) Grave coercion
A) Unlawful arrest B) Estafa C) Grave coercion D) Grave threats
A) Detaining a person to secure testimony B) Detaining a person by a public officer without legal grounds C) Arresting a suspect under a valid warrant D) Detaining a person without lawful cause by a private individual
A) RPC covers both air and land piracy, while PD 532 covers only sea piracy. B) RPC piracy applies to ships in ports, not in high seas. C) RPC piracy applies only to foreign vessels, while PD 532 applies to all vessels, including those within Philippine waters. D) PD 532 covers only government vessels.
A) Illegal search B) Delay in the delivery of detained persons to judicial authorities C) Arbitrary detention D) Unlawful arrest
A) Direct bribery B) Infidelity in the custody of documents C) Malversation of funds D) Infidelity in the custody of prisoners through connivance
A) Enter residences only with a valid warrant B) Conduct search operations anytime for faster results. C) Enter homes if the suspect is known to live there, even without a warrant. D) Allow entry as long as the officer is in uniform.
A) A malicious rumor intended to cause shame. B) A defamatory act done in public to cause dishonor, discredit, or contempt. C) An oral statement attacking a person's character. D) False accusation that harms another's reputation through writing.
A) Intriguing against honor is by act, while slander by deed is by speech. B) Intriguing against honor involves spreading gossip; slander by deed involves written insult. C) There is no difference; both are oral defamation. D) Intriguing against honor consists of maliciously spreading rumors to harm another's reputation, while slander by deed is a physical act that causes dishonor.
A) Intriguing against honor B) Slander by deed C) Direct assault D) Simple slander
A) Both require public complaint, but adultery may be filed only by the husband, and concubinage only by the wife. B) Both require consent from the offender's parents. C) Both crimes can be prosecuted by the State even without complaint. D) In adultery, only the husband can file a case; in concubinage, anyone can.
A) Bigamy B) Concubinage C) Adultery D) Illegal marriage
A) Decriminalize all adultery and concubinage cases. B) Promote awareness of marital rights and responsibilities. C) Increase imprisonment for women offenders. D) Encourage private settlements to avoid shame.
A) Recruiting persons for lawful employment abroad B) Sending domestic helpers abroad through legal agencies C) Recruiting, transporting, or harboring persons through coercion for exploitation or prostitution D) Hiring a worker with a valid work permit
A) Criticizing the government on social media B) Armed rebellion by military officers C) Acts intended to cause death or serious injury to persons to intimidate the public or government D) Peaceful protest without violence
A) Hazing resulting in serious physical injuries B) Frustrated homicide C) Grave coercion D) Physical injuries only
A) A man catcalls a woman walking on the street. B) A teacher scolds a student for cheating. C) A police officer directs traffic in a public area. D) A store owner posts a sale announcement.
A) RA 10364 - Expanded Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act B) RA 11479 - Anti-Terrorism Act C) RA 11313 - Safe Spaces Act D) RA 11053 - Anti-Hazing Law
A) The accused posting a confession online B) A witness describing the suspect's face C) A fingerprint lifted from the crime scene D) A video footage showing the suspect committing the crime
A) DNA samples gathered from the victim B) Statements from a witness who saw the suspect C) Fingerprints matched in a database D) Weapons recovered during the investigation
A) Eyewitness pointing at the accused B) Signed contract presented in court C) CCTV footage of the incident D) Knife left by the suspect
A) Circumstantial evidence B) Testimonial evidence C) Demonstrative evidence D) Real or physical evidence
A) Obtained from a private source B) Accepted by the witness C) Based on personal beliefs D) Material and competent
A) Evidence gathered through warrantless and unjustified search B) Evidence authenticated by expert witness C) Evidence with proper search warrant D) Evidence voluntarily given by suspect
A) Hearsay Rule B) Best Evidence Rule C) Exclusionary Rule D) Res Gestae Rule
A) Best Evidence B) Judicial Notice C) Materiality D) Relevance
A) Testimonial evidence B) Circumstantial evidence C) Documentary evidence D) Judicially noticed facts
A) Parol evidence B) Hearsay rule C) Chain of custody D) Opinion rule
A) Immediately after the pre-trial B) Anytime during arraignment C) After a witness has testified or when the evidence is identified D) Only after the judgment is issued
A) File a motion after the case is finished B) Ignore it and argue in closing statements C) Write a letter to the judge later D) Make a timely objection stating specific legal grounds
A) That it has been posted online B) That it came from a government agency only C) Its authenticity and relevance D) The popularity of the person who wrote it
A) Hearsay Rule B) Parol Evidence Rule C) Exclusionary Rule D) Best Evidence Rule
A) Creates suspicion that a crime may have been committed B) Is presented by multiple witnesses regardless of credibility C) Produces moral certainty of the accused's guilt beyond reasonable doubt D) Is based entirely on hearsay
A) Proof beyond reasonable doubt B) Clear and convincing evidence C) Substantial evidence D) Mere preponderance of evidence
A) Court of Appeals B) Municipal Trial Court (MTC) C) Regional Trial Court (RTC) D) Sandiganbayan
A) Regional Trial Court B) Court of Appeals C) Municipal Trial Court D) Sandiganbayan
A) Regional Trial Court B) Municipal Trial Court C) Sandiganbayan D) Court of Appeals
A) It refers to the set of rules governing evidence in administrative cases. B) It determines the jurisdiction of courts in civil cases. C) It is the law that defines crimes and prescribes penalties. D) It governs the steps or process by which a person accused of a crime is investigated, prosecuted, tried, and punished.
A) To ensure the protection of the rights of the accused. B) To determine what acts constitute crimes and their penalties. C) To promote fair and speedy administration of justice. D) To establish an orderly method for prosecuting offenders.
A) The right to remain silent and to have competent and independent counsel. B) The right to set the schedule of hearings. C) The right to decide what evidence the prosecution may present. D) The right to choose the judge who will try his case.
A) Yes, if the accused waives his right to counsel. B) Yes, because the accused has the right to confront the witnesses against him. C) No, because it violates the right to speedy trial. D) No, because arraignment must precede the presentation of evidence.
A) Right against self-incrimination B) Right to due process of law C) Right to preliminary investigation D) Right against double jeopardy
A) Arrest based on a tip from an anonymous informant. B) Arrest made one day after the crime, based on witness description. C) Arrest made when the suspect was caught in the act of committing a crime. D) Arrest made during a random checkpoint without probable cause.
A) Search made with a valid warrant issued by a competent court. B) Search conducted in a private home without a warrant or consent. C) Search incident to a lawful arrest. D) Search conducted in a private home without a warrant or consent.
A) When a person refuses to submit to a checkpoint search. B) When the suspect has a prior criminal record. C) When the police officer suspects that a crime is about to be committed. D) When there is probable cause personally determined by the judge after examination under oath of the complainant and witnesses.
A) The search is valid because the police acted in good faith. B) The search is valid since there was probable cause based on the anonymous tip. C) The search is valid because the drugs were found in plain view. D) The search is invalid because there was no valid warrant or lawful arrest.
A) When the case is filed directly before the Municipal Trial Court. B) When the accused is caught in the act of committing the offense. C) When the complainant demands it. D) When the penalty prescribed is at least 4 years and 2 months imprisonment, regardless of fine.
A) Trial proper B) Preliminary investigation C) Inquest proceeding D) Arraignment
A) A case where one party is a corporation. B) A crime involving government employees acting in their official capacity. C) A case involving offenses punishable by reclusion perpetua. D) A criminal case punishable by imprisonment not exceeding 1 year or fine not exceeding P5,000, and both parties reside in the same city or municipality.
A) Certificate of Non-Participation B) Certification to File Action C) Certificate of Appearance D) Certificate of Compliance
A) The court must conduct a hearing to determine whether evidence of guilt is strong. B) The police officer may approve the bail application. C) The prosecutor can decide whether to grant bail. D) Bail shall automatically be granted if he files an application.
A) Postpone the arraignment until the accused agrees to plead. B) Dismiss the case automatically. C) Enter a plea of "not guilty" for the accused. D) Consider the accused as having pleaded guilty.
A) To determine the guilt or innocence of the accused. B) To allow the prosecution to amend the information. C) To simplify and expedite the trial by identifying issues and evidence. D) To record the plea of the accused.
A) Motion for reconsideration B) Demurrer to evidence C) Motion to quash D) Motion for new trial
A) Allow the child to rest and resume later in a child-friendly environment. B) Continue the questioning until the child answers. C) Dismiss the child as incompetent to testify. D) Disallow further questioning to protect the accused's rights. |