A) NBI B) BFP C) PNP D) PDEA
A) BJMP B) BFP C) NBI D) PDEA
A) Investigate fire-related incidents B) Guard prisoners in correctional facilities C) Conduct preliminary investigations and prosecute offenders D) Defend the accused in criminal cases
A) Municipal Trial Court - Regional Trial Court - Supreme Court B) Supreme Court - Court of Appeals - Regional Trial Court - Municipal Trial Court C) Regional Trial Court - Municipal Trial Court - Court of Appelas - Supreme Court D) Court of Appeals - Municipal Trial Court - Regional Trial Court - Supreme Court
A) PNP B) NBI C) BuCor D) BJMP
A) The government can punish anyone without legal procedures B) Only the rich can access fair trials C) Law enforcement can arrest without warrants in all cases D) Every person is given an opportunity to be heard and defend themselves before judgement
A) Police conduct a search with a valid warrant issued by a judge B) Customs officers inspect luggage at the airport C) A person consents to a bag inspection at a security checkpoint D) Police enter a house without a warrant and without consent to look for evidence
A) Right to remain at home during investigation B) Right to bail regardless of the offense C) Right to remain silent and to have competent and independent counsel D) Right to refuse all kinds of police questioning
A) Posting false and malicious statements that damage another person`s reputation B) Criticizing government policies peacefully C) Sharing opinions online about political issues D) Expressing religious publicly
A) Writ of Mandamus B) Writ of Prohibition C) Writ of Habeas Corpus D) Writ of Amparo
A) Extraterritoriality B) Territoriality C) Generality D) Prospectivity
A) The act is performed through negligence B) The act is done by accident C) The act is performed with deliberate intent D) The act is done without consent
A) Complex crime B) Frustrated felony C) Continuing crime D) Impossible crime
A) A person who assists in hiding the body of the victim after the crime B) A person cooperates in the execution of a crime by another without taking direct part in it C) A person who takes direct part in the execution of the criminal act D) A person who helps in planning but not executing the crime
A) Provocation B) Proposal C) Instigation D) Conspiracy
A) One person decides to commit a felony without informing others B) One person proposes to another the execution of a felony but the other does not agree C) The offender already begins executing does not agree D) Two or more persons agree and decide to commit a felony
A) Accomplice B) Instigator C) Accessory D) Principal
A) The offender performs all acts necessary for its accomplishment and the felony is produced B) The offender desists voluntarily before performing all acts of execution C) The offender performs all acts of execution but does not accomplish the felony D) The offender has commenced the commission of a felony directly by overt acts
A) The penalty is arresto menor or destierro B) The penalty is fine only C) The penalty is imprisonment of less than 6 months D) The penalty is death, reclusion perpetua, or reclusion temporal
A) Frustrated B) Consummated C) Attempted D) Impossible
A) Defense of one`s self or rights B) Lack of intent to commit so grave a wrong C) Insanity D) M(below 15 years old)inority
A) Exempt from criminal liability B) Liable as an accessory C) Criminally liable as an accomplice D) Criminally liable as a principal
A) Justifying circumstance B) Alternative circumstance C) Aggravating circumstance D) Mitigating circumstance
A) Exempting circumstance B) Mitigating circumstance due to passion or obfuscation C) Justifying circumstance D) Aggravating circumstance
A) Justifying circumstance B) Mitigating circumstance C) Exempting circumstance D) Alternative circumstance
A) Amnesty granted by the government B) Escaped of the accused C) Filling of an appeal D) Delay of trial
A) It suspends the criminal liability B) It totally extinguishes criminal and civil liability C) It extinguishes only civil liability D) It transfers liability to the heirs
A) It becomes extinguished B) It is reduced but not removed C) It is suspended until review D) It is transferred to another jurisdiction
A) Conditional pardon B) Service of sentence C) Prescription of crime D) Death of the offender
A) The offender committed the crime with evident premeditation B) The crime is committed at nighttime to facilitate its commission C) The offender is below 18 years old but above 15 and acted with discernment D) The offender took advantage of public position
A) Treachery or evident premeditation B) Relationship between the offender and victim C) Absence of weapon used D) Lack of intent to kill
A) Killing by means of poison B) Killing with cruelty C) Killing of another person without qualifying circumstances D) Killing of ones parent
A) Homicide B) Murder C) infanticide D) Parricide
A) Treachery or evident premeditation B) Relationship between the offender and victim C) Absence of weapon used D) Lack of intent to kill
A) Killing by means of poison B) Killing of one's parent C) Killing of another person without qualifying circumstances D) Killing with cruelty
A) Homicide B) Murder C) Parricide D) Infanticide
A) Murder B) Abortion C) Infanticide D) Parricide
A) There is consent and the woman is of legal age B) The victim is over 18 and married C) Both parties agreed to sexual intercourse D) A man has carnal knowledge of a woman through force, threat, or intimidation
A) The injury causes death B) The injury requires no medical attention C) The injury incapacitates the victim for more than 30 days D) The injury heals immediately
A) Attempted homicide B) Slight physical injuries C) Serious physical injuries D) Less serious physical injuries
A) Illegal discharge of firearm B) Alarm and scandal C) Reckless imprudence D) Attempted homicide
A) Robbery requires that the property be of high value B) Both involve taking property with intent to gain C) Theft is committed only by strangers D) Robbery is committed with violence or intimidation; theft is not
A) Brigandage B) Robbery in band C) Qualified theft D) Estafa
A) Using force to steal from another B) Defrauding another by abuse of confidence or deceit C) Taking property without violence D) Damaging property with intent to annoy
A) Estafa B) Robbery C) Grave Threats D) Malicious Mischief
A) Grave coercion B) Unlawful arrest C) Serious illegal detention D) Light coercion
A) Grave coercion B) Grave threats C) Estafa D) Unlawful arrest
A) Arresting a suspect under a valid warrant B) Detaining a person to secure testimony C) Detaining a person without lawful cause by a private individual D) Detaining a person by a public officer without legal grounds
A) RPC covers both air and land piracy, while PD 532 covers only sea piracy. B) PD 532 covers only government vessels. C) RPC piracy applies to ships in ports, not in high seas. D) RPC piracy applies only to foreign vessels, while PD 532 applies to all vessels, including those within Philippine waters.
A) Unlawful arrest B) Illegal search C) Arbitrary detention D) Delay in the delivery of detained persons to judicial authorities
A) Infidelity in the custody of prisoners through connivance B) Infidelity in the custody of documents C) Direct bribery D) Malversation of funds
A) Conduct search operations anytime for faster results. B) Enter homes if the suspect is known to live there, even without a warrant. C) Enter residences only with a valid warrant D) Allow entry as long as the officer is in uniform.
A) A defamatory act done in public to cause dishonor, discredit, or contempt. B) False accusation that harms another's reputation through writing. C) A malicious rumor intended to cause shame. D) An oral statement attacking a person's character.
A) Intriguing against honor is by act, while slander by deed is by speech. B) Intriguing against honor consists of maliciously spreading rumors to harm another's reputation, while slander by deed is a physical act that causes dishonor. C) Intriguing against honor involves spreading gossip; slander by deed involves written insult. D) There is no difference; both are oral defamation.
A) Slander by deed B) Direct assault C) Simple slander D) Intriguing against honor
A) Both require consent from the offender's parents. B) Both crimes can be prosecuted by the State even without complaint. C) In adultery, only the husband can file a case; in concubinage, anyone can. D) Both require public complaint, but adultery may be filed only by the husband, and concubinage only by the wife.
A) Illegal marriage B) Concubinage C) Bigamy D) Adultery
A) Promote awareness of marital rights and responsibilities. B) Increase imprisonment for women offenders. C) Encourage private settlements to avoid shame. D) Decriminalize all adultery and concubinage cases.
A) Hiring a worker with a valid work permit B) Recruiting persons for lawful employment abroad C) Recruiting, transporting, or harboring persons through coercion for exploitation or prostitution D) Sending domestic helpers abroad through legal agencies
A) Acts intended to cause death or serious injury to persons to intimidate the public or government B) Armed rebellion by military officers C) Criticizing the government on social media D) Peaceful protest without violence
A) Grave coercion B) Frustrated homicide C) Hazing resulting in serious physical injuries D) Physical injuries only
A) A store owner posts a sale announcement. B) A police officer directs traffic in a public area. C) A man catcalls a woman walking on the street. D) A teacher scolds a student for cheating.
A) RA 11053 - Anti-Hazing Law B) RA 10364 - Expanded Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act C) RA 11313 - Safe Spaces Act D) RA 11479 - Anti-Terrorism Act
A) The accused posting a confession online B) A video footage showing the suspect committing the crime C) A witness describing the suspect's face D) A fingerprint lifted from the crime scene
A) DNA samples gathered from the victim B) Weapons recovered during the investigation C) Fingerprints matched in a database D) Statements from a witness who saw the suspect
A) CCTV footage of the incident B) Signed contract presented in court C) Knife left by the suspect D) Eyewitness pointing at the accused
A) Demonstrative evidence B) Real or physical evidence C) Testimonial evidence D) Circumstantial evidence
A) Based on personal beliefs B) Obtained from a private source C) Material and competent D) Accepted by the witness
A) Evidence voluntarily given by suspect B) Evidence with proper search warrant C) Evidence gathered through warrantless and unjustified search D) Evidence authenticated by expert witness
A) Res Gestae Rule B) Best Evidence Rule C) Exclusionary Rule D) Hearsay Rule
A) Materiality B) Best Evidence C) Judicial Notice D) Relevance
A) Documentary evidence B) Circumstantial evidence C) Judicially noticed facts D) Testimonial evidence
A) Parol evidence B) Chain of custody C) Opinion rule D) Hearsay rule
A) Anytime during arraignment B) After a witness has testified or when the evidence is identified C) Only after the judgment is issued D) Immediately after the pre-trial
A) Ignore it and argue in closing statements B) Write a letter to the judge later C) Make a timely objection stating specific legal grounds D) File a motion after the case is finished
A) Its authenticity and relevance B) That it came from a government agency only C) The popularity of the person who wrote it D) That it has been posted online
A) Best Evidence Rule B) Hearsay Rule C) Parol Evidence Rule D) Exclusionary Rule
A) Is based entirely on hearsay B) Produces moral certainty of the accused's guilt beyond reasonable doubt C) Is presented by multiple witnesses regardless of credibility D) Creates suspicion that a crime may have been committed
A) Proof beyond reasonable doubt B) Mere preponderance of evidence C) Substantial evidence D) Clear and convincing evidence
A) Sandiganbayan B) Regional Trial Court (RTC) C) Municipal Trial Court (MTC) D) Court of Appeals
A) Court of Appeals B) Regional Trial Court C) Municipal Trial Court D) Sandiganbayan
A) Court of Appeals B) Regional Trial Court C) Municipal Trial Court D) Sandiganbayan
A) It refers to the set of rules governing evidence in administrative cases. B) It determines the jurisdiction of courts in civil cases. C) It is the law that defines crimes and prescribes penalties. D) It governs the steps or process by which a person accused of a crime is investigated, prosecuted, tried, and punished.
A) To promote fair and speedy administration of justice. B) To determine what acts constitute crimes and their penalties. C) To ensure the protection of the rights of the accused. D) To establish an orderly method for prosecuting offenders.
A) The right to choose the judge who will try his case. B) The right to decide what evidence the prosecution may present. C) The right to remain silent and to have competent and independent counsel. D) The right to set the schedule of hearings.
A) Yes, because the accused has the right to confront the witnesses against him. B) No, because arraignment must precede the presentation of evidence. C) Yes, if the accused waives his right to counsel. D) No, because it violates the right to speedy trial.
A) Right against self-incrimination B) Right against double jeopardy C) Right to due process of law D) Right to preliminary investigation
A) Arrest made one day after the crime, based on witness description. B) Arrest made during a random checkpoint without probable cause. C) Arrest based on a tip from an anonymous informant. D) Arrest made when the suspect was caught in the act of committing a crime.
A) Search incident to a lawful arrest. B) Search made with a valid warrant issued by a competent court. C) Search conducted in a private home without a warrant or consent. D) Search conducted in a private home without a warrant or consent.
A) When the police officer suspects that a crime is about to be committed. B) When there is probable cause personally determined by the judge after examination under oath of the complainant and witnesses. C) When a person refuses to submit to a checkpoint search. D) When the suspect has a prior criminal record.
A) The search is valid since there was probable cause based on the anonymous tip. B) The search is valid because the drugs were found in plain view. C) The search is valid because the police acted in good faith. D) The search is invalid because there was no valid warrant or lawful arrest.
A) When the complainant demands it. B) When the penalty prescribed is at least 4 years and 2 months imprisonment, regardless of fine. C) When the case is filed directly before the Municipal Trial Court. D) When the accused is caught in the act of committing the offense.
A) Preliminary investigation B) Arraignment C) Inquest proceeding D) Trial proper
A) A case where one party is a corporation. B) A crime involving government employees acting in their official capacity. C) A criminal case punishable by imprisonment not exceeding 1 year or fine not exceeding P5,000, and both parties reside in the same city or municipality. D) A case involving offenses punishable by reclusion perpetua.
A) Certification to File Action B) Certificate of Compliance C) Certificate of Non-Participation D) Certificate of Appearance
A) The court must conduct a hearing to determine whether evidence of guilt is strong. B) The police officer may approve the bail application. C) The prosecutor can decide whether to grant bail. D) Bail shall automatically be granted if he files an application.
A) Postpone the arraignment until the accused agrees to plead. B) Enter a plea of "not guilty" for the accused. C) Dismiss the case automatically. D) Consider the accused as having pleaded guilty.
A) To determine the guilt or innocence of the accused. B) To allow the prosecution to amend the information. C) To record the plea of the accused. D) To simplify and expedite the trial by identifying issues and evidence.
A) Demurrer to evidence B) Motion for new trial C) Motion to quash D) Motion for reconsideration
A) Disallow further questioning to protect the accused's rights. B) Dismiss the child as incompetent to testify. C) Allow the child to rest and resume later in a child-friendly environment. D) Continue the questioning until the child answers. |