ThatQuiz Test Library Take this test now
(TEAM1)-MCQ-(AREA1) CRIMLAW1 CM4K TAGONGAN - Quiz
Contributed by: TAGONGAN
  • 1. 1. What is the principal law governing crimes and penalties in the Philippines?
A) Constitution
B) Civil Code
C) Rules of Court
D) Revised Penal Code
E) Revised Penal Code
  • 2. 2. The Revised Penal Code was enacted through
A) Act No. 3326
B) Act No. 3815
C) R.A. No. 10951
D) Act No. 3815
E) R.A. No. 10592
  • 3. 3. The Revised Penal Code took effect on
A) July 1, 1932
B) January 1, 1932
C) January 1, 1930
D) July 1, 1933
E) July 1, 1932
  • 4. 4. Article 2 of the Revised Penal Code primarily deals with
A) Territorial application of the Cod
B) Criminal negligence
C) Territorial application of the Code
D) Penalties
E) Conspiracy
  • 5. 5. Which of the following is generally NOT covered by the territorial application of the
    Revised Penal Code?
A) Crimes committed within Philippine territory
B) Crimes committed outside the Philippines by Philippine citizens in all circumstances
C) Crimes committed on Philippine ships or airships
D) Crimes committed in Philippine territory by foreigners
E) Crimes committed outside the Philippines by Philippine citizens in all circumstances
  • 6. 6. Felonies are acts or omissions punishable by law that are committed through
A) Intent only
B) Dolo or culpa
C) Negligence only
D) Mistake only
E) Dolo or culpa
  • 7. 7. Dolo refers to
A) Ignorance
B) Negligence
C) Accident
D) Malice or deliberate intent
E) Malice or deliberate intent
  • 8. 8. Culpa refers to
A) Conspiracy
B) Negligence or imprudence
C) Intentional wrongdoing
D) Treachery
E) Negligence or imprudence
  • 9. 9. Which principle means that there is no crime when there is no law punishing the act?
A) Nullum crimen, nulla poena sine lege
B) Presumption of innocence
C) Res judicata
D) Double jeopardy
E) Nullum crimen, nulla poena sine lege
  • 10. 10. Criminal liability generally arises from
A) Immoral thoughts
B) Mere suspicion
C) Acts or omissions defined and punished by law
D) Thoughts alone
E) Acts or omissions defined and punished by law
  • 11. 11. Felonies are classified according to their gravity as
A) Criminal, civil, administrative
B) Grave, less grave, and light
C) Capital, ordinary, minor
D) Major, moderate, minor
E) Grave, less grave, and light
  • 12. 12. A light felony is generally one punishable by
A) Arresto menor or a fine within the statutory threshold
B) Arresto menor or a fine within the statutory threshold
C) Prisión mayor
D) Reclusion perpetua
E) Reclusion temporal
  • 13. 13. Under R.A. No. 10951, a fine is considered a light penalty when it is
A) Exactly ₱40,000
B) More than ₱1,200,000
C) More than ₱40,000
D) Less than ₱40,000
E) Less than ₱40,000
  • 14. 14. A fine exceeding ₱1,200,000 is considered
A) Correctional
B) Light
C) Afflictive
D) Accessory
E) Afflictive
  • 15. 15. A fine of ₱500,000 is generally classified as
A) Capital
B) Afflictive
C) B.Correctional
D) Light
E) Correctional
  • 16. 16. A felony committed by means of dolo requires:
A) Accident
B) Intent
C) Intent
D) Mistake
E) Negligence
  • 17. 17. A felony committed by means of culpa is characterized by:
A) Negligence, imprudence, or lack of precaution
B) Treachery
C) Malice
D) Negligence, imprudence, or lack of precaution
E) Deliberate intent
  • 18. 18. Which is an example of an intentional felony?
A) Damage caused by unavoidable accident
B) Reckless imprudence resulting in homicide
C) Murder committed deliberately
D) Injury caused without negligence
E) Murder committed deliberately
  • 19. 19. Which is an example of a culpable felony?
A) Theft
B) Murder
C) Robbery
D) Reckless imprudence resulting in homicide
E) Reckless imprudence resulting in homicide
  • 20. 20. Criminal intent is generally essential in crimes committed through:
A) Culpa
B) Accident
C) Dolo
D) Fortuitous event
E) Dolo
  • 21. 21. An impossible crime exists when the act performed would be an offense against:
A) Persons or property, but accomplishment is inherently impossible or the means are inadequate
B) Persons or property, but accomplishment is inherently impossible or the means are inadequate
C) Public order only
D) Property only
E) Persons only
  • 22. 22. Which is NOT an element of an impossible crime?
A) The offender successfully completed the intended crime
B) The offender successfully completed the intended crime
C) The act was done with evil intent
D) Accomplishment was inherently impossible or the means inadequate
E) The act would ordinarily constitute an offense against persons or property
  • 23. 23. The stages of execution of a felony are:
A) Attempted, frustrated, consummated
B) Initiated, continuing, completed
C) Attempted, frustrated, consummated
D) Planned, attempted, completed
E) Preparatory, attempted, completed
  • 24. 24. A felony is consummated when:
A) The offender begins execution
B) All elements necessary for its execution and accomplishment are present
C) The offender performs some acts of execution
D) All elements necessary for its execution and accomplishment are present
E) The offender merely plans the crime
  • 25. 25. A felony is frustrated when:
A) The offender does nothing
B) The offender merely plans the crime
C) The offender performs all acts of execution but the felony is not produced due to causes independent of his will
D) The felony is completed
E) The offender performs all acts of execution but the felony is not produced due to causes independent of his will
  • 26. 26. In an attempted felony, the offender:
A) Abandons the crime before any overt act
B) Performs overt acts but does not perform all acts of execution
C) Completes the crime
D) Performs overt acts but does not perform all acts of execution
E) Performs all acts of execution
  • 27. 27. Which stages are generally punished less severely than the consummated stage?
A) Attempted only
B) Frustrated only
C) Both attempted and frustrated
D) Neither
E) Both attempted and frustrated
  • 28. 28. The impossible crime is considered a:
A) Civil offense only
B) Separate offense under Article
C) Light felony in every case
D) Separate offense under Article 4
E) Consummated felony
  • 29. 29. Preparatory acts are generally:
A) Always punishable
B) Always considered attempted felonies
C) Not punishable as the intended felony unless independently criminalized
D) Not punishable as the intended felony unless independently criminalized
E) Never punishable under any law
  • 30. 30. A person fires a gun at another intending to kill him, but the bullet misses and no
    injury occurs. If the offender commenced execution but did not perform all acts
    necessary, this may constitute:
A) Attempted homicide
B) Impossible crime automatically
C) Frustrated homicide
D) Attempted homicide
E) Consummated homicide
  • 31. 31. Conspiracy exists when:
A) Two persons accidentally commit the same offense
B) One person thinks about committing a felony
C) Two or more persons merely know each other
D) Two or more persons agree and decide to commit a felony
E) Two or more persons agree and decide to commit a felony
  • 32. 32. As a general rule, conspiracy is:
A) Never relevant to criminal liability
B) Always punishable
C) Punishable only in light felonies
D) Not punishable unless the law specially provides
E) Not punishable unless the law specially provides
  • 33. 33. Proposal to commit a felony exists when:
A) A person who has decided to commit a felony proposes its execution to another person
B) A crime has already been consummated
C) A person decides alone to commit a crime
D) A person who has decided to commit a felony proposes its execution to another person
E) Two persons accidentally meet
  • 34. 34. Conspiracy may be established through:
A) Circumstantial evidence showing a common purpose and concerted action
B) Express agreement only
C) Confession only
D) Circumstantial evidence showing a common purpose and concerted action
E) Written agreement only
  • 35. 35. When conspiracy is established in a felony, the conspirators generally become:
A) Principals
B) Principals
C) Civilly liable only
D) Accomplices automatically in all cases
E) Accessories only
  • 36. 36. Under Article 4, criminal liability may arise from:
A) Thoughts alone
B) A felonious act resulting in a wrongful consequence different from that intended
C) A felonious act resulting in a wrongful consequence different from that intended
D) Purely accidental acts without negligence
E) Lawful acts only
  • 37. 37. The rule el que es causa de la causa es causa del mal causado means:
A) Only direct perpetrators are liable
B) Ignorance excuses everyone
C) The cause of the cause is the cause of the evil caused
D) The cause of the cause is the cause of the evil caused
E) No one is liable for another's act
  • 38. 38. A person who commits an intentional felony is generally liable for:
A) Civil liability only
B) The natural and logical consequences of his felonious act, subject to law
C) Only the precise result he intended
D) The natural and logical consequences of his felonious act, subject to law
E) No consequences beyond his intention
  • 39. 39.Aberratio ictus refers to:
A) Accident
B) Mistake in blow
C) Mistake in blow
D) Mistake in identity
E) Mistake of law
  • 40. 40. Error in personae means:
A) Mistake in law
B) Mistake in the weapon
C) Mistake in identity of the victim
D) Mistake in identity of the victim
E) Mistake in motive
  • 41. 41.Praeter intentionem refers to:
A) Mistake in location
B) Accident without negligence
C) Mistake in identity
D) Consequence more serious than that intended
E) Consequence more serious than that intended
  • 42. 42. Which circumstance may mitigate criminal liability when properly established?
A) Treachery
B) Recidivism
C) Evident premeditation
D) Praeter intentionem
E) Praeter intentionem
  • 43. 43. A person intends to kill A but mistakenly kills B. This is an example of:
A) Error in personae
B) Aberratio ictus
C) Praeter intentionem
D) Impossible crime
E) Error in personae
  • 44. 44. A person aims at A but the bullet hits B instead. This is generally called:
A) Conspiracy
B) Aberratio ictus
C) Aberratio ictus
D) Praeter intentionem
E) Error in personae
  • 45. 45. A person intends only to cause slight physical injury but unexpectedly causes death.
    This may involve:
A) Error in personae
B) Praeter intentionem
C) Praeter intentionem
D) Conspiracy
E) Aberratio ictus
  • 46. 46. Which is a justifying circumstance under Article 11?
A) Treachery
B) Self-defense
C) Recidivism
D) Voluntary surrender
E) Self-defense
  • 47. 47. The basic elements of self-defense include unlawful aggression, reasonable
    necessity of the means employed, and:
A) Lack of sufficient provocation by the defender
B) Conspiracy
C) Lack of sufficient provocation by the defender
D) Previous conviction
E) Voluntary surrender
  • 48. 48. The indispensable element of self-defense is:
A) Premeditation
B) Unlawful aggression
C) Unlawful aggression
D) Treachery
E) Motive
  • 49. 49. If there is no unlawful aggression, there can generally be no:
A) Conspiracy
B) Self-defense
C) Alibi
D) Self-defense
E) Recidivism
  • 50. 50. Defense of relatives requires, among other things:
A) Prior conviction of the aggressor
B) Treachery
C) Recidivism
D) Unlawful aggression
E) Unlawful aggression
  • 51. 51. Defense of strangers may be invoked when the defender is not induced by:
A) Revenge, resentment, or other evil motive
B) Fear
C) Necessity
D) Revenge, resentment, or other evil motive
E) Good faith
  • 52. 52. A person acts in defense of property. Under the law, the use of force must still be:
A) Reasonably necessary under the circumstances
B) Reasonably necessary under the circumstances
C) Automatically deadly
D) Punishable in every case
E) Always unlimited
  • 53. 53. State of necessity may justify an act when the person causing the lesser injury:
A) Was not acting with evil motive and the statutory requirements are met
B) Was not acting with evil motive and the statutory requirements are met
C) Intended to commit a felony
D) Was motivated by revenge
E) Was a habitual delinquent
  • 54. 54. Fulfillment of duty or lawful exercise of a right is a:
A) Mitigating circumstance
B) Aggravating circumstance
C) Justifying circumstance
D) Justifying circumstance
E) Alternative circumstance
  • 55. 55. A person who exceeds the limits of a justifying circumstance may incur:
A) Civil liability only
B) No liability under any circumstances
C) Liability, subject to the applicable rules
D) Automatic acquittal
E) Liability, subject to the applicable rules
  • 56. 56. Which is generally an exempting circumstance?
A) Insanity under the circumstances provided by law
B) Evident premeditation
C) Recidivism
D) Insanity under the circumstances provided by law
E) Treachery
  • 57. 57. Insanity may exempt an accused when the person was:
A) Drunk
B) Merely angry
C) Mentally incapable of understanding the nature or significance of the act at the time of its commission, under the legal standard
D) Emotionally upset
E) Mentally incapable of understanding the nature or significance of the act at the time ofits commission, under the legal standard
  • 58. 58. Minority may affect criminal liability under:
A) Article 12 and special laws applicable to minors
B) Article 25 only
C) Article 100 only
D) Article 12 and special laws applicable to minors
E) Article 1 only
  • 59. 59. A person who acts under irresistible force may be:
A) Exempt from criminal liability if the legal requirements are present
B) Always mitigating only
C) Exempt from criminal liability if the legal requirements are present
D) Always aggravating
E) Automatically an accessory
  • 60. 60. Uncontrollable fear may exempt a person when the fear is:
A) Merely inconvenient
B) Real, imminent, and sufficiently compelling under the law
C) Real, imminent, and sufficiently compelling under the law
D) Imaginary
E) Based solely on embarrassment
  • 61. 61. An accident may exempt a person when the act was:
A) Lawful, performed with due care, and without fault or intent
B) Performed recklessly
C) Felonious and intentional
D) Lawful, performed with due care, and without fault or intent
E) Performed with negligence
  • 62. 62. A person acting under an irresistible force is exempt because the person's act lacks:
A) A victim
B) Voluntariness required for criminal responsibility
C) A motive
D) A weapon
E) Voluntariness required for criminal responsibility
  • 63. 63. Which is a mitigating circumstance?
A) Evident premeditation
B) Voluntary surrender
C) Voluntary surrender
D) Recidivism
E) Treachery
  • 64. 64. Voluntary surrender requires that the offender:
A) Be arrested after a long chase
B) Deny the offense
C) Hide from authorities
D) Spontaneously submit to a person in authority or agent and acknowledge the offense or surrender under the legal requirements
E) Spontaneously submit to a person in authority or agent and acknowledge the offense or surrender under the legal requirements
  • 65. 65. Voluntary surrender is generally considered:
A) Mitigating
B) Justifying
C) Aggravating
D) Mitigating
E) Exempting
  • 66. 66. Plea of guilty is mitigating when:
A) Made only after conviction
B) Made after presentation of all prosecution evidence
C) Made before the prosecution begins presenting evidence, under the legal requirements
D) Made before the prosecution begins presenting evidence, under the legal requirements
E) Made during appeal only
  • 67. 67. Treachery is also known as:
A) Passion
B) Alevosia
C) Alevosia
D) Recidivism
E) Reiteracion
  • 68. 68. Treachery exists when the offender:
A) Uses means that ensure execution without risk to himself arising from the defense theoffended party might makeActs in self-defense
B) Uses means that ensure execution without risk to himself arising from the defense the offended party might make
C) Voluntarily surrenders
D) Commits the offense through negligence
  • 69. 69. Evident premeditation relates primarily to:
A) The offender's voluntary surrender
B) The offender's prior determination to commit the crime
C) The offender's intoxication
D) The offender's prior determination to commit the crime
E) The victim's provocation
  • 70. 70. Recidivism exists when the offender:
A) Is a first-time offender
B) Has previously been convicted by final judgment of another crime embraced in the same title of the Revised Penal Code
C) Commits a crime through negligence
D) Has previously been convicted by final judgment of another crime embraced in the same title of the Revised Penal Code
E) Has never been convicted
  • 71. 71. Which is an aggravating circumstance?
A) Treachery
B) Plea of guilty
C) Voluntary surrender
D) Minority
E) Treachery
  • 72. 72. Which circumstance may be considered an alternative circumstance?
A) Relationship
B) Evident premeditation
C) Recidivism
D) Treachery
E) Relationship
  • 73. 73. Intoxication is generally:
A) Mitigating if not habitual or subsequent and if the legal requirements are met; aggravating when habitual or intentional
B) Always mitigating
C) Always exempting
D) Always aggravating
E) Mitigating if not habitual or subsequent and if the legal requirements are met; aggravating when habitual or intentional
  • 74. 74. Passion or obfuscation may be:
A) Exempting
B) Aggravating
C) Mitigating
D) Justifying
E) Mitigating
  • 75. 75. Ignorance of the law is generally:
A) An aggravating circumstance
B) An excuse from criminal liability
C) A justifying circumstance
D) Not an excuse from compliance with penal laws
E) Not an excuse from compliance with penal laws
  • 76. 76. Under Article 16, persons criminally liable for grave and less grave felonies may
    include:
A) Witnesses only
B) Principals, accomplices, and accessories
C) Judges only
D) Principals, accomplices, and accessories
E) Victims only
  • 77. 77. The person who directly takes part in the execution of a felony is generally a:
A) Accomplice
B) Principal
C) Accessory
D) Principal
E) Witness
  • 78. 78. A principal by inducement is one who:
A) Directly induces another to commit the felony, with the inducement being the determining cause
B) Merely knows about the crime
C) Helps conceal the crime afterward
D) Receives stolen property without knowledge
E) Directly induces another to commit the felony, with the inducement being the determining cause
  • 79. 79. A principal by indispensable cooperation is one whose cooperation:
A) Is indispensable to the commission of the offense
B) Is purely accidental
C) Is indispensable to the commission of the offense
D) Is unnecessary
E) Occurs only after the crime
  • 80. 80. An accomplice is one who:
A) Is the victim
B) Participates before or during the commission of the crime by previous or simultaneous acts, but is not a principal
C) Helps the offender after the crime only
D) Merely knows the offender
E) Participates before or during the commission of the crime by previous or simultaneous acts, but is not a principal
  • 81. 81. An accessory participates:
A) After the crime, under circumstances specified by law
B) Before the crime only
C) After the crime, under circumstances specified by law
D) Only through negligence
E) During the crime only
  • 82. 82. Which is an example of an accessory act?
A) Profiting from the effects of the crime with the knowledge specified by law
B) Profiting from the effects of the crime with the knowledge specified by law
C) Accidentally meeting the offender
D) Merely witnessing the crime
E) Refusing to testify
  • 83. 83.An accessory who harbors or conceals the principal may incur liability when:
A) He is the victim
B) He acts under lawful authority
C) The statutory conditions are present
D) He is completely unaware of the crime
E) The statutory conditions are present
  • 84. 84. As a general rule, certain relatives specified in Article 20 may be exempt from
    accessory liability, subject to:
A) Exceptions provided by law
B) Automatic imprisonment
C) Civil Code provisions only
D) Exceptions provided by law
E) No exceptions
  • 85. 85. The liability of principals, accomplices, and accessories is:
A) Determined solely by the victim
B) Determined by the police officer
C) Distinguished according to their participation and the law
D) Distinguished according to their participation and the law
E) Always exactly the same
  • 86. 86. Which is a principal penalty under the Revised Penal Code?
A) Costs
B) Confiscation
C) Reclusion perpetua
D) Reclusion perpetua
E) Civil indemnity
  • 87. 87. Which is an accessory penalty?
A) Reclusion temporal
B) Perpetual or temporary absolute disqualification
C) Perpetual or temporary absolute disqualification
D) Arresto mayor
E) Prisión mayor
  • 88. 88. The principal penalties are classified as:
A) Afflictive, correctional, and light, among other classifications provided by law
B) Afflictive, correctional, and light, among other classifications provided by law
C) Criminal and constitutional
D) Civil and administrative only
E) Monetary only
  • 89. 89. Reclusion perpetua is classified as:
A) Afflictive
B) Afflictive
C) Municipal
D) Light
E) Correctional
  • 90. 90.Prisión correctional is generally classified as:
A) Capital
B) Correctional
C) Afflictive
D) Correctional
E) Light
  • 91. 91. Arresto menor is generally classified as:
A) Afflictive
B) Capital
C) Correctional
D) Light
E) Light
  • 92. 92. The duration of prisión mayor is:
A) 12 years and 1 day to 20 years
B) 6 months and 1 day to 6 years
C) 20 years and 1 day to 40 years
D) 6 years and 1 day to 12 years
E) 6 years and 1 day to 12 years
  • 93. 93. The duration of reclusion temporal is generally:
A) 12 years and 1 day to 20 years
B) 12 years and 1 day to 20 years
C) 6 years and 1 day to 12 years
D) 20 years and 1 day to 40 years
E) 6 months and 1 day to 6 years
  • 94. 94. The duration of prisión correctional is generally:
A) 6 years and 1 day to 12 years
B) 12 years and 1 day to 20 years
C) 6 months and 1 day to 6 years
D) month and 1 day to 6 months
E) 6 months and 1 day to 6 years
  • 95. 95. The three periods of divisible penalties are:
A) First, second, third
B) Minimum, medium, maximum
C) Low, middle, high
D) Ordinary, special, extraordinary
E) Minimum, medium, maximum
  • 96. 96. Under the three-fold rule, the maximum duration of the convict's imprisonment shallnot exceed:
A) Three times the length of time corresponding to the most severe penalty imposed
B) Three times the length of time corresponding to the most severe penalty imposed
C) Five times the shortest penalty
D) Twice the most severe penalty
E) Ten years in all cases
  • 97. 97. The three-fold rule is subject to a maximum limit of:
A) 30 years
B) 20 years
C) 40 years
D) 50 years
E) 40 years
  • 98. 98.Which is a mode of total extinction of criminal liability?
A) Death of the accused, as to personal penalties, subject to the law
B) Death of the accused, as to personal penalties, subject to the law
C) Conditional pardon
D) Good conduct allowance
E) Commutation
  • 99. 99. Which is a mode of partial extinction of criminal liability under Article 94?
A) Prescription of the crime
B) Conditional pardon
C) Acquittal
D) Conditional pardon
E) Death of the offender
  • 100. 100. Under R.A. No. 10592, good-conduct time allowance may result in:
A) Erasure of the criminal record
B) Automatic acquittal
C) Deduction from the period of imprisonment
D) Cancellation of the conviction
E) Deduction from the period of imprisonment
Created with That Quiz — a math test site for students of all grade levels.