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Bloodstream infection - Quiz
Contributed by: Roe
  • 1. What is the definition of bacteremia?
A) The presence of living and reproducing bacteria in the bloodstream.
B) A condition where bacteria are only found in the heart.
C) A type of virus found in the respiratory tract.
D) The presence of toxins released by dead bacteria in the blood.
  • 2. How is primary bacteremia typically introduced?
A) Bacteria travel from a localized skin infection.
B) Bacteria are directly introduced into the bloodstream.
C) Bacteria originate from an infected heart valve.
D) Bacteria spread from the urinary tract.
  • 3. What is a common cause of primary bacteremia in hospital settings?
A) Tooth brushing.
B) Pneumonia.
C) Skin cuts.
D) Contaminated blood vessel catheters.
  • 4. When does secondary bacteremia occur?
A) When bacteria are introduced during a blood transfusion.
B) When bacteria enter the body at another site and spread.
C) When a sterile catheter is inserted.
D) When a needle is injected directly into a vein.
  • 5. How long do bacteria typically remain in the bloodstream during transient bacteremia?
A) Only a few seconds.
B) Minutes to a few hours.
C) Weeks until treated with antibiotics.
D) Several days.
  • 6. What is a common cause of transient bacteremia?
A) Central line-associated infections.
B) Dental procedures.
C) Infected heart valves.
D) Septic shock.
  • 7. What characterizes intermittent bacteremia?
A) Continuous presence of bacteria in the blood.
B) Single introduction of bacteria by an IV.
C) Lack of any existing infection elsewhere in the body.
D) Periodic seeding of bacteria from an existing infection.
  • 8. Which condition is a common cause of persistent bacteremia?
A) Flossing teeth.
B) Minor dental cleaning.
C) Transient skin cuts.
D) Infected heart valve.
  • 9. What is the clinical difference between bacteremia and sepsis?
A) Sepsis involves an inflammatory response from the body.
B) Sepsis only occurs in the lungs.
C) Bacteremia is always fatal, while sepsis is not.
D) Bacteremia is defined by high blood pressure.
  • 10. What is a defining sign of septic shock?
A) The absence of any inflammatory response.
B) High blood pressure requiring medication.
C) Blood pressure low enough to require special drugs.
D) Total recovery without antibiotics.
  • 11. What should the initial treatment for bacteremia be?
A) Surgery to remove the heart valve.
B) Observation without medical intervention.
C) Oral pain medication.
D) Empiric intravenous antibiotics.
  • 12. When should empiric antibiotic coverage be narrowed?
A) Once the blood culture identifies the specific bacteria.
B) When the patient's fever breaks.
C) When the patient reports feeling better.
D) Immediately after the first dose.
  • 13. Which of these can lead to secondary bacteremia?
A) Insertion of a sterile catheter.
B) Direct intravenous drug use.
C) Exposure to cold air.
D) Infection in the intestines.
  • 14. What is the result of multiple organ dysfunction syndrome?
A) Full recovery with oral antibiotics.
B) A temporary spike in white blood cells.
C) Improved heart rate and breathing.
D) Organ damage that can become fatal.
  • 15. Which of the following is an example of a site where secondary bacteremia might originate?
A) Blood vessel catheter.
B) Urinary tract.
C) Intravenous medication delivery.
D) Direct injection into the vein.
  • 16. Which of the following is listed as a risk factor for bacteremia?
A) Obesity
B) Diabetes Mellitus
C) Hypertension
D) Asthma
  • 17. Which condition is specifically mentioned as a type of bone infection linked to hematogenous spread?
A) Osteomyelitis
B) Arthritis
C) Osteoporosis
D) Scoliosis
  • 18. Which of these devices is noted as being especially vulnerable to infection from bacteremia?
A) Prosthetic cardiac implants
B) Artificial hip joints
C) Dental implants
D) Pacemaker batteries
  • 19. Which organism is rarely considered a contaminant when found in a blood culture?
A) Staphylococcus epidermidis
B) Skin flora
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Cutibacterium acnes
  • 20. What is a benefit of molecular-based methods like PCR panels compared to blood culture?
A) Shorter turnaround times
B) Lower cost of production
C) Higher sensitivity than blood culture
D) Ability to bypass sterile processes
  • 21. Which of these is considered a common contaminant in blood cultures?
A) Escherichia coli
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Staphylococcus epidermidis
  • 22. How many blood cultures drawn from separate sites are often sufficient to diagnose bacteremia?
A) Four
B) Two
C) Ten
D) One
  • 23. What happens if only one out of two blood cultures returns positive?
A) The result is automatically ignored
B) The patient is immediately discharged
C) A repeat set is usually drawn
D) Immediate surgery is required
  • 24. What is the consequence of limited diagnostic microbiology services in many LMICs?
A) Higher rates of surgical intervention
B) Improved antibiotic stewardship
C) Reduced mortality rates
D) Reliance on empirical antibiotic therapy
  • 25. Which of these can lead to bacteria entering the bloodstream?
A) Eating healthy food
B) Physical exercise
C) Drinking water
D) Pneumonia or meningitis
  • 26. What can happen during surgery that introduces bacteria into the blood?
A) Intervention involving mucous membranes
B) Proper cleaning of equipment
C) Use of anesthesia
D) Healing of the incision site
  • 27. What is a primary cause of community-acquired staph aureus bacteremia?
A) Colon cancer
B) Chemotherapy
C) IV drug use
D) Dental procedures
  • 28. Which streptococcal group is a significant cause of bacteremia in neonates?
A) Streptococcus bovis
B) Group A streptococcus
C) Viridans streptococci
D) Group B streptococcus
  • 29. Where is the normal habitat for Viridans streptococci?
A) The skin surface
B) The lower gastrointestinal tract
C) The mouth
D) The female genital tract
  • 30. Which activity can cause temporary bacteremia due to Viridans streptococci?
A) Surgical procedures
B) Flossing
C) Urinary catheterization
D) IV drug use
  • 31. Streptococcus bovis bacteremia is commonly associated with which underlying condition?
A) Neonatal birth
B) Respiratory tract infections
C) Colon cancer
D) Intravenous catheters
  • 32. What percentage of community-acquired bacteremia cases are caused by gram-negative bacteria?
A) 75%
B) 45%
C) 24%
D) 50%
  • 33. What is the most common cause of community-acquired bacteremia?
A) E. coli
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C) Klebsiella pneumoniae
D) Proteus mirabilis
  • 34. What percentage of community-acquired bacteremia is caused by E. coli?
A) 45%
B) 10%
C) 24%
D) 75%
  • 35. What is a common cause of bacteremia in Africa that primarily affects children and HIV+ patients?
A) Pseudomonas
B) Klebsiella
C) Salmonella
D) E. coli
  • 36. What percentage of healthcare-associated bacteremia cases are caused by gram-negative bacteria?
A) 15%
B) 75%
C) 24%
D) 45%
  • 37. What is the recommended treatment duration for uncomplicated MRSA bacteremia according to IDSA?
A) 30 days
B) 21 days
C) 14 days
D) 7 days
  • 38. Which antibiotic is recommended for uncomplicated MRSA bacteremia?
A) Vancomycin
B) Ceftriaxone
C) Piperacillin-tazobactam
D) Penicillin
  • 39. What should be considered if a patient has a recent history of healthcare exposure?
A) Treatment only with oral medication
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa coverage
C) Avoiding beta-lactam antibiotics
D) Discontinuation of all antibiotics
  • 40. Which medication is an example of an extended generation cephalosporin?
A) Vancomycin
B) Piperacillin
C) Tazobactam
D) Ceftriaxone
  • 41. Which antibiotic is a beta lactam/beta lactamase inhibitor used for gram negative bacteremia?
A) Piperacillin-tazobactam
B) Ceftriaxone
C) Vancomycin
D) MRSA-specific medication
  • 42. Which bacteria group requires removal of a short-term catheter if causing bacteremia?
A) Mycobacteria
B) Only viruses
C) None of the above
D) Normal skin flora only
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