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Meiosis - Quiz
Contributed by: Morris
  • 1. What is the term for the normal separation of chromosomes in meiosis I or sister chromatids in meiosis II?
A) Nondisjunction
B) Aneuploidy
C) Disjunction
D) Segregation
  • 2. Nondisjunction can occur during which of the following?
A) Only meiosis I
B) Only mitosis
C) Only meiosis II
D) Meiosis I, meiosis II, or mitosis
  • 3. Which syndrome is associated with a trisomy of chromosome 21?
A) Patau syndrome
B) Turner syndrome
C) Down syndrome
D) Edwards syndrome
  • 4. What is the chromosomal composition of individuals with Turner syndrome?
A) XYY
B) XXX
C) XXY
D) X0
  • 5. Why does the probability of nondisjunction in human oocytes increase with maternal age?
A) Presumed loss of cohesin over time
B) Reduced temperature
C) Decrease in cytoplasm volume
D) Increased metabolic rate
  • 6. What acts to maintain meiotic arrest in mammalian oocytes?
A) Natriuretic peptide type C (NPPC)
B) Luteinizing hormone
C) Cyclin B
D) Cdc25B
  • 7. What does cGMP inhibit to help maintain meiotic arrest?
A) Cyclin B
B) Phosphodiesterase 3A (PDE3A)
C) Adenylyl cyclase
D) Protein kinase A (PKA)
  • 8. What effect does a spike in luteinizing hormone (LH) have on oocytes?
A) Induces meiotic arrest
B) Activates PDE3A
C) Increases cAMP levels
D) Spurs oocyte maturation
  • 9. Which protein catalyzes double-stranded breaks during meiotic recombination?
A) Spo11
B) Sae2
C) Exo1
D) Mre11
  • 10. What is the primary role of the Mei2 protein in S. pombe?
A) Represses IME1
B) Activates Cdc25
C) Major meiotic regulator
D) Inhibits APC/C
  • 11. Which molecule is responsible for degrading cyclin B during anaphase I?
A) WEE2
B) Cdc25B
C) Anaphase-promoting complex (APC)
D) PKA
  • 12. Which syndrome is caused by an extra Y chromosome in males?
A) Edwards syndrome
B) Down syndrome
C) Klinefelter syndrome
D) Jacobs syndrome
  • 13. Which pathway results in a noncrossover product during recombination?
A) Double Holliday junction (dHJ) pathway
B) Synthesis-dependent strand annealing (SDSA)
C) Ubiquitin-dependent pathway
D) CSF pathway
  • 14. What is the clinical feature of Edwards syndrome?
A) Trisomy of chromosome 21
B) Trisomy of chromosome 13
C) Trisomy of chromosome 18
D) Monosomy of X chromosome
  • 15. What effect do LH-induced epidermal growth factor-like factors have on gap junctions?
A) Stabilize gap junctions
B) Promote NPPC production
C) Increase cGMP transport
D) Reduce cGMP transport
  • 16. Which organisms are known to undergo one-divisional meiosis?
A) Humans and primates
B) Parabasalids and oxymonads
C) Wood-feeding cockroaches
D) Yeast and mice
  • 17. In which specific host organism are flagellates that undergo one-divisional meiosis found?
A) Homo sapiens
B) Mus musculus
C) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
D) Cryptocercus
  • 18. How many pairs of chromosomes do humans have?
A) 1
B) 23
C) 10
D) 46
  • 19. How much higher is the recombination rate in human females compared to males?
A) 1.6-fold
B) 3-fold
C) 1.2-fold
D) 2-fold
  • 20. Where is female recombination generally higher in humans?
A) At the nucleolus
B) At the centromeres
C) At the telomeres
D) At the mid-point of the chromosome
  • 21. Where is male recombination generally higher in humans?
A) At the centromeres
B) At the kinetochores
C) At the heterochromatin
D) At the telomeres
  • 22. What does 1 cMorgan represent in terms of recombination frequency?
A) 100%
B) 10%
C) 1%
D) 0.1%
  • 23. How many base pairs correspond to 1 cMorgan?
A) 100,000 bp
B) 1 million bp
C) 10 million bp
D) 1,000 bp
  • 24. What is the estimated number of double-strand breaks formed per meiotic cell in humans?
A) Fewer than 50
B) Exactly 100
C) At least 200
D) Exactly 23
  • 25. Approximately how many times does maternal DNA recombine on average in humans?
A) 10 times
B) 27 times
C) 200 times
D) 42 times
  • 26. Approximately how many times does paternal DNA recombine on average in humans?
A) 27 times
B) 15 times
C) 42 times
D) 50 times
  • 27. What percentage of double-strand breaks go on to produce crossovers?
A) 1–2%
B) 50–100%
C) 5–30%
D) 90–100%
  • 28. How many cross-overs are estimated to occur per human chromosome?
A) 1–2
B) 5–10
C) 20–30
D) 100–200
  • 29. What happens to kinetochore microtubules during Anaphase I?
A) They lengthen
B) They stabilize
C) They disappear
D) They shorten
  • 30. What happens to the cohesin on the chromosome arms during Anaphase I?
A) It is protected
B) It is doubled
C) It is synthesized
D) It is degraded
  • 31. Do chromosomes replicate during interkinesis?
A) Only in plant cells
B) No
C) Yes, once
D) Yes, twice
  • 32. What are the daughter cells at the end of Meiosis I called?
A) Diploid
B) Triploid
C) Tetraploid
D) Haploid
  • 33. How many cells are produced by the end of Meiosis II?
A) Two
B) Six
C) Four
D) Eight
  • 34. How is the metaphase II plate oriented compared to meiosis I?
A) Rotated by 90 degrees
B) Identical
C) Rotated by 180 degrees
D) Parallel
  • 35. What happens to sister chromatids in Anaphase II?
A) They condense
B) They replicate
C) They segregate
D) They fuse
  • 36. What are sister chromatids called after they separate in Anaphase II?
A) Tetrads
B) Centrosomes
C) Homologous pairs
D) Sister chromosomes
  • 37. What marks the end of telophase II?
A) Two daughter cells
B) DNA replication
C) Four daughter cells
D) One diploid cell
  • 38. What persists between daughter cells until the end of meiosis II?
A) Centrosomes
B) Nuclear envelopes
C) Spindle fibers
D) Cytoplasmic bridges
  • 39. What happens to non-kinetochore microtubules in Anaphase I?
A) They shorten
B) They dissolve
C) They lengthen
D) They replicate
  • 40. What happens to the nuclear envelope in Prophase II?
A) It doubles
B) It reforms
C) It grows
D) It disappears
  • 41. What does the term 'diakinesis' mean in Greek?
A) Two poles
B) Crossing over
C) Moving through
D) Sister separation
  • 42. At which stage are the four parts of tetrads first visible?
A) Diakinesis
B) Metaphase I
C) Anaphase I
D) Prometaphase
  • 43. What becomes clearly visible due to the overlapping of crossing over sites during diakinesis?
A) Centrosomes
B) Chiasmata
C) Cohesin complexes
D) Nuclear membrane
  • 44. Which of the following occurs during diakinesis?
A) Nucleoli disappear
B) Independent assortment finishes
C) Bipolar attachments dissolve
D) Cohesin is cleaved
  • 45. What structure is absent in human and mouse oocytes for producing the meiotic spindle?
A) Chromosomes
B) Microtubules
C) Kinetochores
D) Centrosomes
  • 46. How many MTOCs initially form a sphere in mouse oocytes?
A) Over 200
B) Approximately 80
C) About 40
D) Exactly 2
  • 47. What is the final shape of the spindle in mouse oocytes after MTOCs merge?
A) Spherical
B) Linear
C) Barrel shaped
D) Circular
  • 48. What structure forms around chromosomes in human oocytes during spindle assembly?
A) A centrosome
B) A nuclear envelope
C) A kinetochore plate
D) An aster
  • 49. What is the attachment of kinetochore microtubules from both poles to homologous chromosomes called?
A) Equatorial attachment
B) Bipolar attachment
C) Unipolar attachment
D) Chiasmata attachment
  • 50. What must be established in meiosis to progress to anaphase?
A) Vesicle fusion
B) Tension
C) Centrosome alignment
D) Nucleolar reformation
  • 51. Who discovered meiosis in sea urchin eggs in 1876?
A) Edouard Van Beneden
B) August Weismann
C) Thomas Hunt Morgan
D) Oscar Hertwig
  • 52. In what year did Edouard Van Beneden describe meiosis at the chromosome level?
A) 1876
B) 1883
C) 1890
D) 1911
  • 53. Who noted that two cell divisions are necessary to turn one diploid cell into four haploid cells?
A) Oscar Hertwig
B) Thomas Hunt Morgan
C) August Weismann
D) J.B. Farmer
  • 54. What organism was used by Thomas Hunt Morgan to detect crossovers in 1911?
A) Sea urchin
B) Drosophila melanogaster
C) Bacteria
D) Ascaris roundworm
  • 55. From which language is the term 'meiosis' derived?
A) German
B) Greek
C) Latin
D) French
  • 56. What is the meaning of the Greek word 'meiosis'?
A) Division
B) Lessening
C) Replication
D) Doubling
  • 57. Who changed the spelling of 'maiosis' to 'meiosis' to follow Greek transliteration conventions?
A) Flemming
B) August Weismann
C) Thomas Hunt Morgan
D) Koernicke
  • 58. During which phase of interphase does DNA replication occur?
A) S phase
B) Prophase I
C) G1 phase
D) G2 phase
  • 59. What structure holds two identical sister chromatids together?
A) Nucleus
B) Centromere
C) Chromosome
D) Ribosome
  • 60. Which phase of the mitotic cell cycle is notably absent in meiosis?
A) G2 phase
B) Prophase
C) S phase
D) G1 phase
  • 61. What is the resting phase between meiosis I and meiosis II called?
A) Interkinesis
B) Prophase I
C) Telophase I
D) G2 phase
  • 62. What kind of cell does meiosis begin with?
A) Gamete
B) Zygote
C) Diploid
D) Haploid
  • 63. What are the two copies of each chromosome in a diploid cell called?
A) Sister chromatids
B) Homologs
C) Polar bodies
D) Spindles
  • 64. What is the term for the physical connections between homologs?
A) Sister chromatids
B) Spindle apparatus
C) Binary fission
D) Crossovers
  • 65. How many rounds of DNA replication occur between the first and second meiotic division?
A) Four
B) Two
C) One
D) None
  • 66. What are the haploid cells formed during meiosis in some plants and fungi called?
A) Gametes
B) Ovum
C) Polar bodies
D) Spores
  • 67. Which organism is mentioned as reproducing via parthenogenesis?
A) Archaea
B) Bacteria
C) Fungi
D) Bdelloid rotifers
  • 68. How do bacteria generally reproduce?
A) Spore formation
B) Meiosis
C) Parthenogenesis
D) Binary fission
  • 69. What is the "sexual" process found in bacteria and archaea?
A) Mitosis
B) Meiosis
C) Binary fission
D) Horizontal gene transfer
  • 70. What is the primary function of meiosis in sexually reproducing organisms?
A) Replacing damaged tissue
B) Increasing the number of diploid cells
C) Producing gametes
D) Creating identical somatic cells
  • 71. What is the term for a cell formed by the fusion of a male and female gamete?
A) Polar body
B) Zygote
C) Sperm cell
D) Ova
  • 72. What is a leading known cause of miscarriage related to meiosis?
A) S-phase duplication
B) Sister chromatid cohesion
C) Aneuploidy
D) Excessive recombination
  • 73. What process occurs during prophase I to exchange genetic information?
A) Homologous recombination
B) Chromosome deletion
C) Sister chromatid synthesis
D) Mitotic division
  • 74. What is the term for paired and replicated chromosomes consisting of four chromatids?
A) Chromatin
B) Tetrads
C) Diploids
D) Haploids
  • 75. What is another name for a bivalent?
A) Tetrad
B) Homologous pair
C) Sister chromatid
D) Haploid cell
  • 76. What does the term 'leptotene' mean in Greek?
A) Thin threads
B) Double threads
C) Paired threads
D) Thick threads
  • 77. What is the approximate distance between homologues during leptotene in mice?
A) ~800 nm
B) ~400 nm
C) ~200 nm
D) ~100 nm
  • 78. What is another name for the zygotene stage?
A) Leptonema
B) Diplonema
C) Pachynema
D) Zygonema
  • 79. What process involves the close pairing of homologous chromosomes during zygotene?
A) Recombination
B) Synapsis
C) Crossing over
D) Gene conversion
  • 80. What is the approximate distance between paired homologous chromosomes in zygotene?
A) ~400 nm
B) ~100 nm
C) ~1000 nm
D) ~50 nm
  • 81. What does the term 'pachytene' mean in Greek?
A) Paired threads
B) Thick threads
C) Separated threads
D) Thin threads
  • 82. At which stage are all autosomal chromosomes synapsed?
A) Zygotene
B) Pachytene
C) Diplotene
D) Leptotene
  • 83. What is the suspended state of human fetal oocytes in prophase I called?
A) Dictyotene
B) Leptonema
C) Zygonema
D) Pachynema
  • 84. Which biological domain is meiosis a fundamental characteristic of?
A) Viral organisms
B) Eukaryotic organisms
C) Prokaryotic organisms
D) Bacterial organisms
  • 85. How were amoeba historically viewed by scientists?
A) As viral pathogens
B) As multicellular
C) As asexual
D) As exclusively sexual
  • 86. According to Dacks and Rogers, what was present in the common ancestor of eukaryotes?
A) Binary fission only
B) Facultative sex
C) Obligate asexual reproduction
D) No genetic exchange
  • 87. Which organism is mentioned as having achiasmate meiosis?
A) Homo sapiens
B) Volvox carteri
C) Schizosaccharomyces pombe
D) Bombyx mori
  • 88. What is the proposed biological purpose for the informational redundancy in prophase I arrested oocytes?
A) Preventing mutation
B) Accelerating cell division
C) Increasing chromosome number
D) Repairing DNA damage
  • 89. What type of DNA damage are prophase I arrested oocytes particularly capable of repairing?
A) Point mutations
B) Chromosomal deletions
C) Double-strand breaks
D) Base pair substitutions
  • 90. What induces meiotic sex in Volvox carteri?
A) Heat shock
B) Antioxidants
C) Hydrogen peroxide
D) Synaptonemal complexes
  • 91. What chemical inhibits the induction of meiotic sex in Volvox carteri?
A) Antioxidants
B) Hydrogen peroxide
C) Heat shock
D) Recombinational enzymes
  • 92. What is the term for the lack of crossing over during meiosis?
A) Synaptonemal
B) Dictyate
C) Achiasmate
D) Redundant
  • 93. In which life cycle is the organism diploid?
A) Haplontic
B) Diplontic
C) Haplodiplontic
D) Sporic
  • 94. In the haplontic life cycle, when does meiosis occur?
A) During gamete formation
B) During the mitotic phase
C) Post-zygotic
D) Pre-gametic
  • 95. In diplontic organisms, what are the haploid gametes produced by males called?
A) Spermatozoa
B) Spores
C) Ova
D) Zygotes
  • 96. In females, what cells undergo meiosis?
A) Spermatogonia
B) Oocytes
C) Follicle cells
D) Germinal vesicles
  • 97. What is the name for the oocyte nucleus while it is dormant?
A) Polar body
B) Spindle
C) Somatic shell
D) Germinal vesicle
  • 98. What hormone stimulates follicles to mature during the menstrual cycle?
A) Nanos
B) DAZL
C) Retinoic acid
D) FSH
  • 99. What is the long period of meiotic arrest in females called?
A) Folliculogenesis
B) Spermatogenesis
C) Atresia
D) Dictyate stage
  • 100. In males, where does meiosis occur?
A) Germinal vesicle
B) Primitive kidney
C) Anterior pituitary
D) Seminiferous tubules
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