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CDI #8 TECWRI 2 - Quiz
Contributed by: APPI
  • 1. Which law is known as the Cybercrime Prevention Act of 2012?
A) RA 10175
B) RA 9484
C) RA 9995
D) RA 10173
  • 2. Which law protects personal information and regulates its processing?
A) RA 4200
B) RA 10175
C) RA 9995
D) RA 10173
  • 3. Unauthorized access to another person’s computer system is known as:
A) Cyber-sabotage
B) Illegal Access
C) Data Interference
D) Cyber-libel
  • 4. Which of the following is a violation of RA 10173?
A) Hacking a Wi-Fi password
B) Posting fake news online
C) Unauthorized fishing activities
D) Stealing personal data without consent
  • 5. Cyber-libel under RA 10175 refers to libel committed through:
A) Radio broadcast
B) Computer system or online platform
C) Personal letters
D) Text messages
  • 6. Which is NOT protected under the Data Privacy Act?
A) Privileged information
B) Personal information
C) Statistical raw data with identity
D) Anonymous data with no identifiers
  • 7. Who is the chief implementing agency of RA 10173?
A) NBI
B) PNP-ACG
C) DICT
D) NPC (National Privacy Commission)
  • 8. Cybersex is punishable under:
A) RA 9262
B) RA 9208
C) RA 9995
D) RA 10175
  • 9. Which is considered “computer-related identity theft”?
A) Using another’s personal data without authority
B) Posting insults online
C) Changing online photos
D) Downloading pirated movies
  • 10. The destruction of computer data is called:
A) Illegal access
B) Cyber-libel
C) System interference
D) Data interference
  • 11. RA 10173 applies to personal information processed by:
A) All of the above
B) Private companies
C) Individuals
D) Government agencies
  • 12. Phishing is best described as:
A) Using malware to crash systems
B) Tracking IP addresses
C) Fraudulently acquiring personal information
D) Unauthorized CCTV monitoring
  • 13. Highly sensitive personal information includes:
A) Nickname
B) Citizenship
C) Age
D) Health information
  • 14. Child pornography online is punishable under:
A) RA 9165
B) RA 9262
C) RA 9775 and RA 10175
D) RA 9003
  • 15. “Spoofing” refers to:
A) Unauthorized surveillance
B) Destroying data
C) DNS corruption
D) Using fake identity or email headers
  • 16. The unauthorized alteration of computer data is:
A) System interference
B) Data interference
C) Computer forgery
D) Cyber fraud
  • 17. The use of a computer to commit fraud is punishable under:
A) Content-related offense
B) Device misuse
C) All of the above
D) Computer-related offense
  • 18. The Data Privacy Act primarily protects:
A) Rights of data subjects
B) Digital files
C) Government databases
D) Corporate records
  • 19. Which is NOT required under Data Privacy Act?
A) Data privacy officer
B) Consent for data processing
C) Unlimited free access to data
D) Data retention policy
  • 20. Who is responsible for securing personal data within an organization?
A) Data Privacy Officer
B) All employees
C) CEO
D) IT staff
  • 21. “Digital evidence” refers to information stored or transferred using:
A) Radio
B) Newspapers
C) Digital devices
D) Books
  • 22. A cybercrime search warrant is needed when accessing:
A) Blogs
B) Bulletin boards
C) Private computer files
D) Public social media posts
  • 23. Failing to secure personal information resulting in a data breach is a:
A) All of the above
B) Criminal offense
C) Administrative offense
D) Civil offense
  • 24. Which is an example of “content-related offense”?
A) Data interference
B) Illegal access
C) Cyber fraud
D) Child pornography
  • 25. Under RA 10175, aiding in the commission of a cybercrime results in:
A) Administrative charge
B) Penalty reduction
C) Same penalty as principal
D) No liability
  • 26. RA 9147 is known as:
A) Fisheries Code
B) Clean Air Act
C) Solid Waste Management Act
D) Wildlife Resources Conservation and Protection Act
  • 27. RA 9003 focuses on:
A) Wildlife protection
B) Solid waste management
C) Water pollution
D) Air pollution control
  • 28. RA 8749 regulates:
A) Toxic chemicals
B) Water quality
C) Mining operations
D) Air quality
  • 29. RA 9275 deals with:
A) Marine wildlife
B) Clean water regulation
C) Clean air regulation
D) Hazardous waste
  • 30. The Philippine Fisheries Code prohibits:
A) Using dynamite in fishing
B) Using nets
C) Using bamboo traps
D) Handline fishing
  • 31. Possession of wildlife without permit violates:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9003
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9275
  • 32. Open dumping is prohibited under:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9147
C) RA 9003
D) RA 8749
  • 33. Smoke belching vehicles violate:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9003
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9147
  • 34. Discharging untreated wastewater into rivers violates:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9275
C) RA 9147
D) RA 8749
  • 35. Which activity violates the Fisheries Code?
A) Handline fishing
B) Using fine-mesh nets
C) Harvesting seaweeds
D) Culturing fish in ponds
  • 36. Burning garbage is prohibited in:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9003 and RA 8749
D) RA 9147
  • 37. Killing endangered species is punishable under:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9003
D) RA 9147
  • 38. A barangay is required to establish a materials recovery facility (MRF) under:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9003
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9275
  • 39. Monitoring air quality is mandated under:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9147
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9003
  • 40. Illegal trading of wildlife is punished under:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9275
C) RA 9003
D) RA 9147
  • 41. RA 9275 regulates discharges from:
A) Commercial establishments
B) Households
C) All of the above
D) Industrial plants
  • 42. Use of cyanide in fishing violates:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 8749
C) Fisheries Code
D) RA 9003
  • 43. Operating factories without wastewater treatment is a violation of:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9147
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9275
  • 44. Burning plastics violates:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9275
C) RA 9003 and RA 8749
  • 45. Importation of wildlife without a permit violates:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9003
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9147
  • 46. River contamination with toxic chemicals violates:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9003
C) Fisheries code
D) RA 8749
  • 47. Factories emitting excessive black smoke violate:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9003
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9147
  • 48. Anti-littering measures are part of:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9147
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9003
  • 49. Hunting wildlife inside protected areas violates:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9275
D) RA 9147
  • 50. Dumping waste into bodies of water violates:
A) All of the above
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9003
D) RA 9275
  • 51. Fishing within closed seasons violates:
A) RA 9147
B) Fisheries Code
C) RA 9003
D) RA 8749
  • 52. Hazardous waste disposal is regulated under:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9275
D) RA 9147
  • 53. Killing critically endangered animals is punishable by:
A) Community service
B) Fine only
C) Fine and imprisonment
D) Administrative penalty only
  • 54. Open burning of household waste violates:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9147
C) RA 8749 and RA 9003
D) Fisheries Code
  • 55. Establishments must secure a discharge permit under:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9275
D) RA 9147
  • 56. Wildlife trafficking involves:
A) Selling domestic dogs
B) Selling aquarium fish
C) Selling common livestock
D) Selling endangered wildlife
  • 57. Health effects from smog relate to violations of:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9275
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9147
  • 58. Drying fish on beaches violates:
A) RA 9003
B) No law
C) Fisheries Code
D) RA 8749
  • 59. Improper segregation of garbage violates:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9147
D) RA 9275
  • 60. Fishing with explosives violates:
A) Clean Air Act
B) Solid Waste Management Act
C) Wildlife Act
D) Fisheries Code
  • 61. A Cybercrime Search Warrant is issued under:
A) Data Privacy Act
B) NBI guidelines
C) Rules of Court
D) Rules on Cybercrime Warrants
  • 62. Which requires a Cybercrime Warrant?
A) Accessing private emails
B) Interviewing witnesses
C) Checking CCTV
D) Viewing public Facebook posts
  • 63. “Basic incident response” begins with:
A) Seizing devices
B) Threat hunting
C) Arresting suspects
D) Identification of the incident
  • 64. Digital evidence must be collected using:
A) Random methods
B) Verbal descriptions
C) Handwritten notes
D) Forensically sound procedures
  • 65. A write-blocker is used to:
A) Delete malicious files
B) Speed up copying
C) Encrypt drives
D) Prevent data alteration
  • 66. Chain of custody documents:
A) Police assignments
B) Criminal profiles
C) Interrogation details
D) Evidence handling history
  • 67. Seizure of digital evidence requires:
A) Cyber Warrant
B) Verbal permission
C) Consent of suspect
D) Judge’s certification only
  • 68. Seizure of digital evidence requires:
A) Preventing data alteration
B) Packing devices
C) Photographing the scene
D) Arresting suspects
  • 69. Volatile data is found in:
A) Hard drives
B) Memory cards
C) USB drives
D) RAM
  • 70. Which is NOT volatile evidence?
A) Hard drive files
B) Network connections
C) RAM data
D) Running processes
  • 71. Hash values ensure:
A) Data deletion
B) Network security
C) Encryption
D) Data authenticity
  • 72. Imaging a drive creates:
A) Compressed folder
B) Password-protected file
C) A complete bit-for-bit copy
D) Partial copy
  • 73. Emergency disclosure of data by a service provider requires:
A) Imminent danger
B) Court warrant
C) Subpoena only
D) Executive order
  • 74. Evidence is inadmissible if:
A) Tampered or altered
B) Acquired legally
C) Authenticated
D) Properly documented
  • 75. Capturing screenshots of ongoing cybercrime activity is part of:
A) Preservation
B) Examination
C) Analysis
D) Collection
  • 76. Incident containment aims to:
A) Erase malware
B) Stop further damage
C) Identify motives
D) Arrest hackers
  • 77. “Live forensics” is done when the device is:
A) Corrupt
B) Destroyed
C) In use / powered on
D) Turned off
  • 78. Which is NOT part of incident response?
A) Containment
B) Identification
C) Punishment
D) Eradication
  • 79. Search Warrant for Subscriber Information is called:
A) SW-DI
B) SW-SI
C) SW-CL
D) SW-ARA
  • 80. ISP logs are an example of:
A) None
B) Content data
C) Non-content data
D) Physical data
  • 81. Forensic analysis must be done in:
A) Home office
B) Laboratory
C) Police car
D) Anywhere
  • 82. Password cracking should be done using:
A) Forensic tools
B) Social media
C) Guessing
D) Brute-force methods
  • 83. Examination of digital evidence must produce:
A) Altered copies
B) None
C) Deleted data
D) Reports
  • 84. Which is considered digital evidence?
A) Cellphones
B) All of these
C) Emails
D) Hard drives
  • 85. Final phase of incident response:
A) Lessons learned
B) Recovery
C) Containment
D) Eradication
  • 86. Environmental cases use the:
A) Civil Code
B) Rules of Procedure for Environmental Cases
C) Special Penal Laws
D) Rules of Court
  • 87. Who may file an environmental complaint?
A) Only direct victims
B) Only police
C) NGOs and citizens
D) Only government agencies
  • 88. Fisheries violations are filed before:
A) Regular trial courts
B) Family courts
C) Labor courts
D) Sandiganbayan
  • 89. Chain of custody is essential for:
A) All environmental evidence
B) Water samples
C) Seized explosives
D) Wildlife evidence
  • 90. Writ of Kalikasan protects:
A) Private contracts
B) Property disputes
C) Individuals only
D) Large-scale environmental rights
  • 91. An MRF must be maintained under:
A) Clean Air Act
B) Clean Water Act
C) Fisheries Code
D) RA 9003
  • 92. Wildlife violations require documents from:
A) DICT
B) DOH
C) DA
D) DENR
  • 93. Water pollution cases are filed under:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9275
C) RA 9147
D) RA 8749
  • 94. Evidence for wildlife trafficking includes:
A) Transport documents
B) Confiscated cages
C) Specimens
D) All of the above
  • 95. LGUs must prepare a 10-year solid waste plan under:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9275
C) RA 9003
D) Fisheries Code
  • 96. Imprisonment for wildlife killing depends on:
A) Age of violator
B) Species classification
C) Weather condition
D) Municipality type
  • 97. Evidence collection in environmental crimes must follow:
A) Scientific protocols
B) Verbal timelines
C) No documentation needed
D) Guesswork
  • 98. Pollution cases usually require:
A) Lie detector tests
B) Laboratory tests
C) None
D) DNA tests
  • 99. Confiscated explosives in fishing cases are handled by:
A) PNP EOD
B) Bureau of Fisheries
C) DA
D) DENR
  • 100. Final step in filing environmental cases:
A) Arrest
B) Filing complaint and evidence with prosecutor
C) Laboratory test
D) Collection only
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