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CDI #8 TECWRI 2
Contributed by: APPI
  • 1. Which law is known as the Cybercrime Prevention Act of 2012?
A) RA 10173
B) RA 10175
C) RA 9995
D) RA 9484
  • 2. Which law protects personal information and regulates its processing?
A) RA 10173
B) RA 9995
C) RA 4200
D) RA 10175
  • 3. Unauthorized access to another person’s computer system is known as:
A) Data Interference
B) Cyber-libel
C) Illegal Access
D) Cyber-sabotage
  • 4. Which of the following is a violation of RA 10173?
A) Hacking a Wi-Fi password
B) Stealing personal data without consent
C) Unauthorized fishing activities
D) Posting fake news online
  • 5. Cyber-libel under RA 10175 refers to libel committed through:
A) Text messages
B) Computer system or online platform
C) Personal letters
D) Radio broadcast
  • 6. Which is NOT protected under the Data Privacy Act?
A) Personal information
B) Statistical raw data with identity
C) Anonymous data with no identifiers
D) Privileged information
  • 7. Who is the chief implementing agency of RA 10173?
A) NPC (National Privacy Commission)
B) NBI
C) DICT
D) PNP-ACG
  • 8. Cybersex is punishable under:
A) RA 9995
B) RA 10175
C) RA 9262
D) RA 9208
  • 9. Which is considered “computer-related identity theft”?
A) Changing online photos
B) Downloading pirated movies
C) Posting insults online
D) Using another’s personal data without authority
  • 10. The destruction of computer data is called:
A) Data interference
B) Illegal access
C) System interference
D) Cyber-libel
  • 11. RA 10173 applies to personal information processed by:
A) Government agencies
B) All of the above
C) Individuals
D) Private companies
  • 12. Phishing is best described as:
A) Unauthorized CCTV monitoring
B) Tracking IP addresses
C) Using malware to crash systems
D) Fraudulently acquiring personal information
  • 13. Highly sensitive personal information includes:
A) Health information
B) Age
C) Citizenship
D) Nickname
  • 14. Child pornography online is punishable under:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9775 and RA 10175
C) RA 9165
D) RA 9262
  • 15. “Spoofing” refers to:
A) DNS corruption
B) Using fake identity or email headers
C) Unauthorized surveillance
D) Destroying data
  • 16. The unauthorized alteration of computer data is:
A) Computer forgery
B) System interference
C) Data interference
D) Cyber fraud
  • 17. The use of a computer to commit fraud is punishable under:
A) All of the above
B) Content-related offense
C) Device misuse
D) Computer-related offense
  • 18. The Data Privacy Act primarily protects:
A) Rights of data subjects
B) Corporate records
C) Digital files
D) Government databases
  • 19. Which is NOT required under Data Privacy Act?
A) Unlimited free access to data
B) Consent for data processing
C) Data privacy officer
D) Data retention policy
  • 20. Who is responsible for securing personal data within an organization?
A) CEO
B) Data Privacy Officer
C) IT staff
D) All employees
  • 21. “Digital evidence” refers to information stored or transferred using:
A) Digital devices
B) Newspapers
C) Radio
D) Books
  • 22. A cybercrime search warrant is needed when accessing:
A) Bulletin boards
B) Private computer files
C) Blogs
D) Public social media posts
  • 23. Failing to secure personal information resulting in a data breach is a:
A) Criminal offense
B) Civil offense
C) All of the above
D) Administrative offense
  • 24. Which is an example of “content-related offense”?
A) Cyber fraud
B) Illegal access
C) Data interference
D) Child pornography
  • 25. Under RA 10175, aiding in the commission of a cybercrime results in:
A) No liability
B) Penalty reduction
C) Same penalty as principal
D) Administrative charge
  • 26. RA 9147 is known as:
A) Solid Waste Management Act
B) Wildlife Resources Conservation and Protection Act
C) Clean Air Act
D) Fisheries Code
  • 27. RA 9003 focuses on:
A) Water pollution
B) Wildlife protection
C) Solid waste management
D) Air pollution control
  • 28. RA 8749 regulates:
A) Mining operations
B) Water quality
C) Toxic chemicals
D) Air quality
  • 29. RA 9275 deals with:
A) Hazardous waste
B) Marine wildlife
C) Clean water regulation
D) Clean air regulation
  • 30. The Philippine Fisheries Code prohibits:
A) Handline fishing
B) Using bamboo traps
C) Using dynamite in fishing
D) Using nets
  • 31. Possession of wildlife without permit violates:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9275
C) RA 9003
D) RA 9147
  • 32. Open dumping is prohibited under:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9275
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9003
  • 33. Smoke belching vehicles violate:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9147
C) RA 8749
D) RA 8749
  • 34. Discharging untreated wastewater into rivers violates:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9147
C) RA 9003
D) RA 9275
  • 35. Which activity violates the Fisheries Code?
A) Culturing fish in ponds
B) Handline fishing
C) Harvesting seaweeds
D) Using fine-mesh nets
  • 36. Burning garbage is prohibited in:
A) RA 9003 and RA 8749
B) RA 9147
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9003
  • 37. Killing endangered species is punishable under:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9003
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9275
  • 38. A barangay is required to establish a materials recovery facility (MRF) under:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9147
D) RA 9275
  • 39. Monitoring air quality is mandated under:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9003
D) RA 9147
  • 40. Illegal trading of wildlife is punished under:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9147
D) RA 9275
  • 41. RA 9275 regulates discharges from:
A) Industrial plants
B) Commercial establishments
C) All of the above
D) Households
  • 42. Use of cyanide in fishing violates:
A) Fisheries Code
B) RA 9003
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9147
  • 43. Operating factories without wastewater treatment is a violation of:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9003
D) RA 9147
  • 44. Burning plastics violates:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9003 and RA 8749
C) RA 9275
  • 45. Importation of wildlife without a permit violates:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9275
C) RA 9147
D) RA 9003
  • 46. River contamination with toxic chemicals violates:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9275
C) RA 8749
D) Fisheries code
  • 47. Factories emitting excessive black smoke violate:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9147
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9003
  • 48. Anti-littering measures are part of:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9147
C) RA 9003
D) RA 9275
  • 49. Hunting wildlife inside protected areas violates:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9003
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9147
  • 50. Dumping waste into bodies of water violates:
A) All of the above
B) RA 9275
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9003
  • 51. Fishing within closed seasons violates:
A) RA 9147
B) Fisheries Code
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9003
  • 52. Hazardous waste disposal is regulated under:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9275
C) RA 9003
D) RA 9147
  • 53. Killing critically endangered animals is punishable by:
A) Administrative penalty only
B) Fine only
C) Fine and imprisonment
D) Community service
  • 54. Open burning of household waste violates:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9147
C) Fisheries Code
D) RA 8749 and RA 9003
  • 55. Establishments must secure a discharge permit under:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9147
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9275
  • 56. Wildlife trafficking involves:
A) Selling endangered wildlife
B) Selling aquarium fish
C) Selling common livestock
D) Selling domestic dogs
  • 57. Health effects from smog relate to violations of:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9275
C) RA 9147
D) RA 8749
  • 58. Drying fish on beaches violates:
A) RA 8749
B) No law
C) Fisheries Code
D) RA 9003
  • 59. Improper segregation of garbage violates:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9275
D) RA 8749
  • 60. Fishing with explosives violates:
A) Fisheries Code
B) Solid Waste Management Act
C) Clean Air Act
D) Wildlife Act
  • 61. A Cybercrime Search Warrant is issued under:
A) NBI guidelines
B) Rules on Cybercrime Warrants
C) Rules of Court
D) Data Privacy Act
  • 62. Which requires a Cybercrime Warrant?
A) Viewing public Facebook posts
B) Checking CCTV
C) Interviewing witnesses
D) Accessing private emails
  • 63. “Basic incident response” begins with:
A) Arresting suspects
B) Seizing devices
C) Threat hunting
D) Identification of the incident
  • 64. Digital evidence must be collected using:
A) Verbal descriptions
B) Forensically sound procedures
C) Random methods
D) Handwritten notes
  • 65. A write-blocker is used to:
A) Speed up copying
B) Prevent data alteration
C) Encrypt drives
D) Delete malicious files
  • 66. Chain of custody documents:
A) Police assignments
B) Interrogation details
C) Criminal profiles
D) Evidence handling history
  • 67. Seizure of digital evidence requires:
A) Verbal permission
B) Consent of suspect
C) Judge’s certification only
D) Cyber Warrant
  • 68. Seizure of digital evidence requires:
A) Packing devices
B) Photographing the scene
C) Arresting suspects
D) Preventing data alteration
  • 69. Volatile data is found in:
A) RAM
B) Hard drives
C) USB drives
D) Memory cards
  • 70. Which is NOT volatile evidence?
A) Network connections
B) Hard drive files
C) RAM data
D) Running processes
  • 71. Hash values ensure:
A) Data deletion
B) Data authenticity
C) Network security
D) Encryption
  • 72. Imaging a drive creates:
A) Partial copy
B) Compressed folder
C) A complete bit-for-bit copy
D) Password-protected file
  • 73. Emergency disclosure of data by a service provider requires:
A) Subpoena only
B) Imminent danger
C) Court warrant
D) Executive order
  • 74. Evidence is inadmissible if:
A) Properly documented
B) Authenticated
C) Tampered or altered
D) Acquired legally
  • 75. Capturing screenshots of ongoing cybercrime activity is part of:
A) Preservation
B) Examination
C) Collection
D) Analysis
  • 76. Incident containment aims to:
A) Identify motives
B) Erase malware
C) Arrest hackers
D) Stop further damage
  • 77. “Live forensics” is done when the device is:
A) Destroyed
B) Corrupt
C) In use / powered on
D) Turned off
  • 78. Which is NOT part of incident response?
A) Eradication
B) Containment
C) Punishment
D) Identification
  • 79. Search Warrant for Subscriber Information is called:
A) SW-CL
B) SW-DI
C) SW-ARA
D) SW-SI
  • 80. ISP logs are an example of:
A) Content data
B) None
C) Physical data
D) Non-content data
  • 81. Forensic analysis must be done in:
A) Anywhere
B) Home office
C) Laboratory
D) Police car
  • 82. Password cracking should be done using:
A) Brute-force methods
B) Guessing
C) Social media
D) Forensic tools
  • 83. Examination of digital evidence must produce:
A) Altered copies
B) Reports
C) None
D) Deleted data
  • 84. Which is considered digital evidence?
A) Hard drives
B) Cellphones
C) All of these
D) Emails
  • 85. Final phase of incident response:
A) Recovery
B) Lessons learned
C) Eradication
D) Containment
  • 86. Environmental cases use the:
A) Rules of Court
B) Special Penal Laws
C) Rules of Procedure for Environmental Cases
D) Civil Code
  • 87. Who may file an environmental complaint?
A) Only direct victims
B) Only government agencies
C) Only police
D) NGOs and citizens
  • 88. Fisheries violations are filed before:
A) Regular trial courts
B) Labor courts
C) Sandiganbayan
D) Family courts
  • 89. Chain of custody is essential for:
A) All environmental evidence
B) Water samples
C) Seized explosives
D) Wildlife evidence
  • 90. Writ of Kalikasan protects:
A) Property disputes
B) Large-scale environmental rights
C) Individuals only
D) Private contracts
  • 91. An MRF must be maintained under:
A) RA 9003
B) Clean Air Act
C) Fisheries Code
D) Clean Water Act
  • 92. Wildlife violations require documents from:
A) DENR
B) DOH
C) DA
D) DICT
  • 93. Water pollution cases are filed under:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9147
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9275
  • 94. Evidence for wildlife trafficking includes:
A) All of the above
B) Transport documents
C) Specimens
D) Confiscated cages
  • 95. LGUs must prepare a 10-year solid waste plan under:
A) RA 9003
B) Fisheries Code
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9275
  • 96. Imprisonment for wildlife killing depends on:
A) Municipality type
B) Age of violator
C) Species classification
D) Weather condition
  • 97. Evidence collection in environmental crimes must follow:
A) Scientific protocols
B) Verbal timelines
C) No documentation needed
D) Guesswork
  • 98. Pollution cases usually require:
A) None
B) DNA tests
C) Lie detector tests
D) Laboratory tests
  • 99. Confiscated explosives in fishing cases are handled by:
A) Bureau of Fisheries
B) DENR
C) DA
D) PNP EOD
  • 100. Final step in filing environmental cases:
A) Collection only
B) Arrest
C) Filing complaint and evidence with prosecutor
D) Laboratory test
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