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CDI #8 TECWRI 2
Contributed by: APPI
  • 1. Which law is known as the Cybercrime Prevention Act of 2012?
A) RA 10173
B) RA 9995
C) RA 10175
D) RA 9484
  • 2. Which law protects personal information and regulates its processing?
A) RA 10175
B) RA 4200
C) RA 10173
D) RA 9995
  • 3. Unauthorized access to another person’s computer system is known as:
A) Cyber-sabotage
B) Illegal Access
C) Cyber-libel
D) Data Interference
  • 4. Which of the following is a violation of RA 10173?
A) Hacking a Wi-Fi password
B) Posting fake news online
C) Unauthorized fishing activities
D) Stealing personal data without consent
  • 5. Cyber-libel under RA 10175 refers to libel committed through:
A) Radio broadcast
B) Text messages
C) Computer system or online platform
D) Personal letters
  • 6. Which is NOT protected under the Data Privacy Act?
A) Statistical raw data with identity
B) Personal information
C) Privileged information
D) Anonymous data with no identifiers
  • 7. Who is the chief implementing agency of RA 10173?
A) NPC (National Privacy Commission)
B) PNP-ACG
C) NBI
D) DICT
  • 8. Cybersex is punishable under:
A) RA 9262
B) RA 9208
C) RA 10175
D) RA 9995
  • 9. Which is considered “computer-related identity theft”?
A) Using another’s personal data without authority
B) Posting insults online
C) Downloading pirated movies
D) Changing online photos
  • 10. The destruction of computer data is called:
A) Cyber-libel
B) Illegal access
C) Data interference
D) System interference
  • 11. RA 10173 applies to personal information processed by:
A) All of the above
B) Private companies
C) Individuals
D) Government agencies
  • 12. Phishing is best described as:
A) Unauthorized CCTV monitoring
B) Using malware to crash systems
C) Fraudulently acquiring personal information
D) Tracking IP addresses
  • 13. Highly sensitive personal information includes:
A) Citizenship
B) Age
C) Health information
D) Nickname
  • 14. Child pornography online is punishable under:
A) RA 9775 and RA 10175
B) RA 9165
C) RA 9262
D) RA 9003
  • 15. “Spoofing” refers to:
A) Destroying data
B) Unauthorized surveillance
C) Using fake identity or email headers
D) DNS corruption
  • 16. The unauthorized alteration of computer data is:
A) Cyber fraud
B) Data interference
C) Computer forgery
D) System interference
  • 17. The use of a computer to commit fraud is punishable under:
A) All of the above
B) Device misuse
C) Content-related offense
D) Computer-related offense
  • 18. The Data Privacy Act primarily protects:
A) Corporate records
B) Digital files
C) Government databases
D) Rights of data subjects
  • 19. Which is NOT required under Data Privacy Act?
A) Data retention policy
B) Consent for data processing
C) Data privacy officer
D) Unlimited free access to data
  • 20. Who is responsible for securing personal data within an organization?
A) All employees
B) Data Privacy Officer
C) IT staff
D) CEO
  • 21. “Digital evidence” refers to information stored or transferred using:
A) Books
B) Radio
C) Newspapers
D) Digital devices
  • 22. A cybercrime search warrant is needed when accessing:
A) Private computer files
B) Public social media posts
C) Bulletin boards
D) Blogs
  • 23. Failing to secure personal information resulting in a data breach is a:
A) Criminal offense
B) All of the above
C) Administrative offense
D) Civil offense
  • 24. Which is an example of “content-related offense”?
A) Child pornography
B) Cyber fraud
C) Illegal access
D) Data interference
  • 25. Under RA 10175, aiding in the commission of a cybercrime results in:
A) Same penalty as principal
B) Administrative charge
C) Penalty reduction
D) No liability
  • 26. RA 9147 is known as:
A) Wildlife Resources Conservation and Protection Act
B) Solid Waste Management Act
C) Fisheries Code
D) Clean Air Act
  • 27. RA 9003 focuses on:
A) Wildlife protection
B) Solid waste management
C) Air pollution control
D) Water pollution
  • 28. RA 8749 regulates:
A) Water quality
B) Mining operations
C) Toxic chemicals
D) Air quality
  • 29. RA 9275 deals with:
A) Clean water regulation
B) Marine wildlife
C) Hazardous waste
D) Clean air regulation
  • 30. The Philippine Fisheries Code prohibits:
A) Using dynamite in fishing
B) Using nets
C) Using bamboo traps
D) Handline fishing
  • 31. Possession of wildlife without permit violates:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9275
D) RA 8749
  • 32. Open dumping is prohibited under:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9275
C) RA 9147
D) RA 8749
  • 33. Smoke belching vehicles violate:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9147
D) RA 8749
  • 34. Discharging untreated wastewater into rivers violates:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9275
D) RA 9003
  • 35. Which activity violates the Fisheries Code?
A) Culturing fish in ponds
B) Using fine-mesh nets
C) Handline fishing
D) Harvesting seaweeds
  • 36. Burning garbage is prohibited in:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9003
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9003 and RA 8749
  • 37. Killing endangered species is punishable under:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9147
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9275
  • 38. A barangay is required to establish a materials recovery facility (MRF) under:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9275
D) RA 9147
  • 39. Monitoring air quality is mandated under:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9275
C) RA 9147
D) RA 8749
  • 40. Illegal trading of wildlife is punished under:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9275
D) RA 8749
  • 41. RA 9275 regulates discharges from:
A) All of the above
B) Households
C) Industrial plants
D) Commercial establishments
  • 42. Use of cyanide in fishing violates:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9147
C) Fisheries Code
D) RA 8749
  • 43. Operating factories without wastewater treatment is a violation of:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9003
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9147
  • 44. Burning plastics violates:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9003 and RA 8749
C) RA 9147
  • 45. Importation of wildlife without a permit violates:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9147
D) RA 9003
  • 46. River contamination with toxic chemicals violates:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9003
D) Fisheries code
  • 47. Factories emitting excessive black smoke violate:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9275
D) RA 9003
  • 48. Anti-littering measures are part of:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9147
D) RA 9003
  • 49. Hunting wildlife inside protected areas violates:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9003
D) RA 9275
  • 50. Dumping waste into bodies of water violates:
A) All of the above
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9275
D) RA 9003
  • 51. Fishing within closed seasons violates:
A) Fisheries Code
B) RA 9003
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9147
  • 52. Hazardous waste disposal is regulated under:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9147
D) RA 9275
  • 53. Killing critically endangered animals is punishable by:
A) Fine and imprisonment
B) Fine only
C) Community service
D) Administrative penalty only
  • 54. Open burning of household waste violates:
A) Fisheries Code
B) RA 9275
C) RA 8749 and RA 9003
D) RA 9147
  • 55. Establishments must secure a discharge permit under:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9147
D) RA 9275
  • 56. Wildlife trafficking involves:
A) Selling domestic dogs
B) Selling endangered wildlife
C) Selling aquarium fish
D) Selling common livestock
  • 57. Health effects from smog relate to violations of:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9275
C) RA 9147
D) RA 8749
  • 58. Drying fish on beaches violates:
A) RA 8749
B) No law
C) RA 9003
D) Fisheries Code
  • 59. Improper segregation of garbage violates:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9275
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9003
  • 60. Fishing with explosives violates:
A) Clean Air Act
B) Solid Waste Management Act
C) Wildlife Act
D) Fisheries Code
  • 61. A Cybercrime Search Warrant is issued under:
A) Data Privacy Act
B) Rules on Cybercrime Warrants
C) NBI guidelines
D) Rules of Court
  • 62. Which requires a Cybercrime Warrant?
A) Viewing public Facebook posts
B) Checking CCTV
C) Accessing private emails
D) Interviewing witnesses
  • 63. “Basic incident response” begins with:
A) Seizing devices
B) Threat hunting
C) Identification of the incident
D) Arresting suspects
  • 64. Digital evidence must be collected using:
A) Random methods
B) Verbal descriptions
C) Handwritten notes
D) Forensically sound procedures
  • 65. A write-blocker is used to:
A) Speed up copying
B) Encrypt drives
C) Delete malicious files
D) Prevent data alteration
  • 66. Chain of custody documents:
A) Police assignments
B) Evidence handling history
C) Criminal profiles
D) Interrogation details
  • 67. Seizure of digital evidence requires:
A) Verbal permission
B) Cyber Warrant
C) Consent of suspect
D) Judge’s certification only
  • 68. Seizure of digital evidence requires:
A) Photographing the scene
B) Preventing data alteration
C) Arresting suspects
D) Packing devices
  • 69. Volatile data is found in:
A) Hard drives
B) RAM
C) USB drives
D) Memory cards
  • 70. Which is NOT volatile evidence?
A) Hard drive files
B) RAM data
C) Network connections
D) Running processes
  • 71. Hash values ensure:
A) Encryption
B) Data authenticity
C) Network security
D) Data deletion
  • 72. Imaging a drive creates:
A) Partial copy
B) Password-protected file
C) A complete bit-for-bit copy
D) Compressed folder
  • 73. Emergency disclosure of data by a service provider requires:
A) Imminent danger
B) Executive order
C) Court warrant
D) Subpoena only
  • 74. Evidence is inadmissible if:
A) Acquired legally
B) Properly documented
C) Authenticated
D) Tampered or altered
  • 75. Capturing screenshots of ongoing cybercrime activity is part of:
A) Examination
B) Preservation
C) Analysis
D) Collection
  • 76. Incident containment aims to:
A) Arrest hackers
B) Erase malware
C) Stop further damage
D) Identify motives
  • 77. “Live forensics” is done when the device is:
A) In use / powered on
B) Corrupt
C) Turned off
D) Destroyed
  • 78. Which is NOT part of incident response?
A) Punishment
B) Identification
C) Eradication
D) Containment
  • 79. Search Warrant for Subscriber Information is called:
A) SW-CL
B) SW-SI
C) SW-ARA
D) SW-DI
  • 80. ISP logs are an example of:
A) None
B) Physical data
C) Non-content data
D) Content data
  • 81. Forensic analysis must be done in:
A) Home office
B) Anywhere
C) Police car
D) Laboratory
  • 82. Password cracking should be done using:
A) Guessing
B) Brute-force methods
C) Social media
D) Forensic tools
  • 83. Examination of digital evidence must produce:
A) None
B) Reports
C) Altered copies
D) Deleted data
  • 84. Which is considered digital evidence?
A) Cellphones
B) Emails
C) Hard drives
D) All of these
  • 85. Final phase of incident response:
A) Recovery
B) Eradication
C) Lessons learned
D) Containment
  • 86. Environmental cases use the:
A) Special Penal Laws
B) Rules of Procedure for Environmental Cases
C) Rules of Court
D) Civil Code
  • 87. Who may file an environmental complaint?
A) Only police
B) Only direct victims
C) NGOs and citizens
D) Only government agencies
  • 88. Fisheries violations are filed before:
A) Sandiganbayan
B) Family courts
C) Labor courts
D) Regular trial courts
  • 89. Chain of custody is essential for:
A) Seized explosives
B) Wildlife evidence
C) All environmental evidence
D) Water samples
  • 90. Writ of Kalikasan protects:
A) Individuals only
B) Private contracts
C) Property disputes
D) Large-scale environmental rights
  • 91. An MRF must be maintained under:
A) Fisheries Code
B) Clean Air Act
C) RA 9003
D) Clean Water Act
  • 92. Wildlife violations require documents from:
A) DOH
B) DA
C) DENR
D) DICT
  • 93. Water pollution cases are filed under:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9147
C) RA 9003
D) RA 9275
  • 94. Evidence for wildlife trafficking includes:
A) Specimens
B) Transport documents
C) All of the above
D) Confiscated cages
  • 95. LGUs must prepare a 10-year solid waste plan under:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9003
C) Fisheries Code
D) RA 9275
  • 96. Imprisonment for wildlife killing depends on:
A) Municipality type
B) Species classification
C) Age of violator
D) Weather condition
  • 97. Evidence collection in environmental crimes must follow:
A) Guesswork
B) Verbal timelines
C) Scientific protocols
D) No documentation needed
  • 98. Pollution cases usually require:
A) Lie detector tests
B) None
C) Laboratory tests
D) DNA tests
  • 99. Confiscated explosives in fishing cases are handled by:
A) DA
B) Bureau of Fisheries
C) PNP EOD
D) DENR
  • 100. Final step in filing environmental cases:
A) Arrest
B) Laboratory test
C) Filing complaint and evidence with prosecutor
D) Collection only
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