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CDI #8 TECWRI 2
Contributed by: APPI
  • 1. Which law is known as the Cybercrime Prevention Act of 2012?
A) RA 10175
B) RA 9484
C) RA 9995
D) RA 10173
  • 2. Which law protects personal information and regulates its processing?
A) RA 9995
B) RA 10173
C) RA 4200
D) RA 10175
  • 3. Unauthorized access to another person’s computer system is known as:
A) Data Interference
B) Illegal Access
C) Cyber-libel
D) Cyber-sabotage
  • 4. Which of the following is a violation of RA 10173?
A) Posting fake news online
B) Hacking a Wi-Fi password
C) Stealing personal data without consent
D) Unauthorized fishing activities
  • 5. Cyber-libel under RA 10175 refers to libel committed through:
A) Computer system or online platform
B) Radio broadcast
C) Text messages
D) Personal letters
  • 6. Which is NOT protected under the Data Privacy Act?
A) Anonymous data with no identifiers
B) Statistical raw data with identity
C) Privileged information
D) Personal information
  • 7. Who is the chief implementing agency of RA 10173?
A) NPC (National Privacy Commission)
B) NBI
C) PNP-ACG
D) DICT
  • 8. Cybersex is punishable under:
A) RA 9995
B) RA 9262
C) RA 10175
D) RA 9208
  • 9. Which is considered “computer-related identity theft”?
A) Downloading pirated movies
B) Changing online photos
C) Using another’s personal data without authority
D) Posting insults online
  • 10. The destruction of computer data is called:
A) Illegal access
B) Cyber-libel
C) Data interference
D) System interference
  • 11. RA 10173 applies to personal information processed by:
A) All of the above
B) Private companies
C) Government agencies
D) Individuals
  • 12. Phishing is best described as:
A) Tracking IP addresses
B) Unauthorized CCTV monitoring
C) Using malware to crash systems
D) Fraudulently acquiring personal information
  • 13. Highly sensitive personal information includes:
A) Health information
B) Nickname
C) Age
D) Citizenship
  • 14. Child pornography online is punishable under:
A) RA 9262
B) RA 9775 and RA 10175
C) RA 9165
D) RA 9003
  • 15. “Spoofing” refers to:
A) Unauthorized surveillance
B) DNS corruption
C) Using fake identity or email headers
D) Destroying data
  • 16. The unauthorized alteration of computer data is:
A) Computer forgery
B) Cyber fraud
C) System interference
D) Data interference
  • 17. The use of a computer to commit fraud is punishable under:
A) Device misuse
B) All of the above
C) Content-related offense
D) Computer-related offense
  • 18. The Data Privacy Act primarily protects:
A) Corporate records
B) Government databases
C) Digital files
D) Rights of data subjects
  • 19. Which is NOT required under Data Privacy Act?
A) Consent for data processing
B) Data retention policy
C) Data privacy officer
D) Unlimited free access to data
  • 20. Who is responsible for securing personal data within an organization?
A) CEO
B) Data Privacy Officer
C) IT staff
D) All employees
  • 21. “Digital evidence” refers to information stored or transferred using:
A) Digital devices
B) Radio
C) Newspapers
D) Books
  • 22. A cybercrime search warrant is needed when accessing:
A) Blogs
B) Bulletin boards
C) Public social media posts
D) Private computer files
  • 23. Failing to secure personal information resulting in a data breach is a:
A) Administrative offense
B) Criminal offense
C) All of the above
D) Civil offense
  • 24. Which is an example of “content-related offense”?
A) Child pornography
B) Illegal access
C) Cyber fraud
D) Data interference
  • 25. Under RA 10175, aiding in the commission of a cybercrime results in:
A) Same penalty as principal
B) No liability
C) Administrative charge
D) Penalty reduction
  • 26. RA 9147 is known as:
A) Fisheries Code
B) Clean Air Act
C) Solid Waste Management Act
D) Wildlife Resources Conservation and Protection Act
  • 27. RA 9003 focuses on:
A) Water pollution
B) Solid waste management
C) Wildlife protection
D) Air pollution control
  • 28. RA 8749 regulates:
A) Air quality
B) Mining operations
C) Water quality
D) Toxic chemicals
  • 29. RA 9275 deals with:
A) Clean air regulation
B) Hazardous waste
C) Marine wildlife
D) Clean water regulation
  • 30. The Philippine Fisheries Code prohibits:
A) Handline fishing
B) Using dynamite in fishing
C) Using bamboo traps
D) Using nets
  • 31. Possession of wildlife without permit violates:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9275
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9003
  • 32. Open dumping is prohibited under:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9275
D) RA 8749
  • 33. Smoke belching vehicles violate:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9147
D) RA 9003
  • 34. Discharging untreated wastewater into rivers violates:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9275
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9003
  • 35. Which activity violates the Fisheries Code?
A) Harvesting seaweeds
B) Using fine-mesh nets
C) Culturing fish in ponds
D) Handline fishing
  • 36. Burning garbage is prohibited in:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9003 and RA 8749
C) RA 9147
D) RA 9003
  • 37. Killing endangered species is punishable under:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9275
D) RA 8749
  • 38. A barangay is required to establish a materials recovery facility (MRF) under:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9275
C) RA 9003
D) RA 8749
  • 39. Monitoring air quality is mandated under:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9147
D) RA 9275
  • 40. Illegal trading of wildlife is punished under:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9147
D) RA 8749
  • 41. RA 9275 regulates discharges from:
A) Households
B) All of the above
C) Industrial plants
D) Commercial establishments
  • 42. Use of cyanide in fishing violates:
A) Fisheries Code
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9147
D) RA 9003
  • 43. Operating factories without wastewater treatment is a violation of:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9147
D) RA 8749
  • 44. Burning plastics violates:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9003 and RA 8749
C) RA 9275
  • 45. Importation of wildlife without a permit violates:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9147
C) RA 9003
D) RA 8749
  • 46. River contamination with toxic chemicals violates:
A) Fisheries code
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9275
D) RA 9003
  • 47. Factories emitting excessive black smoke violate:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9147
D) RA 8749
  • 48. Anti-littering measures are part of:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9003
D) RA 9275
  • 49. Hunting wildlife inside protected areas violates:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9275
D) RA 9147
  • 50. Dumping waste into bodies of water violates:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 8749
C) All of the above
D) RA 9003
  • 51. Fishing within closed seasons violates:
A) Fisheries Code
B) RA 9003
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9147
  • 52. Hazardous waste disposal is regulated under:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9147
D) RA 9275
  • 53. Killing critically endangered animals is punishable by:
A) Community service
B) Fine and imprisonment
C) Administrative penalty only
D) Fine only
  • 54. Open burning of household waste violates:
A) Fisheries Code
B) RA 9147
C) RA 9275
D) RA 8749 and RA 9003
  • 55. Establishments must secure a discharge permit under:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9275
C) RA 9147
D) RA 8749
  • 56. Wildlife trafficking involves:
A) Selling endangered wildlife
B) Selling domestic dogs
C) Selling aquarium fish
D) Selling common livestock
  • 57. Health effects from smog relate to violations of:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9147
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9003
  • 58. Drying fish on beaches violates:
A) RA 8749
B) No law
C) Fisheries Code
D) RA 9003
  • 59. Improper segregation of garbage violates:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9147
C) RA 9275
D) RA 8749
  • 60. Fishing with explosives violates:
A) Wildlife Act
B) Solid Waste Management Act
C) Fisheries Code
D) Clean Air Act
  • 61. A Cybercrime Search Warrant is issued under:
A) Rules of Court
B) Data Privacy Act
C) NBI guidelines
D) Rules on Cybercrime Warrants
  • 62. Which requires a Cybercrime Warrant?
A) Accessing private emails
B) Viewing public Facebook posts
C) Checking CCTV
D) Interviewing witnesses
  • 63. “Basic incident response” begins with:
A) Arresting suspects
B) Threat hunting
C) Seizing devices
D) Identification of the incident
  • 64. Digital evidence must be collected using:
A) Verbal descriptions
B) Forensically sound procedures
C) Random methods
D) Handwritten notes
  • 65. A write-blocker is used to:
A) Prevent data alteration
B) Speed up copying
C) Encrypt drives
D) Delete malicious files
  • 66. Chain of custody documents:
A) Criminal profiles
B) Police assignments
C) Interrogation details
D) Evidence handling history
  • 67. Seizure of digital evidence requires:
A) Verbal permission
B) Consent of suspect
C) Judge’s certification only
D) Cyber Warrant
  • 68. Seizure of digital evidence requires:
A) Arresting suspects
B) Photographing the scene
C) Preventing data alteration
D) Packing devices
  • 69. Volatile data is found in:
A) Hard drives
B) RAM
C) USB drives
D) Memory cards
  • 70. Which is NOT volatile evidence?
A) RAM data
B) Hard drive files
C) Network connections
D) Running processes
  • 71. Hash values ensure:
A) Data deletion
B) Encryption
C) Data authenticity
D) Network security
  • 72. Imaging a drive creates:
A) Compressed folder
B) Partial copy
C) Password-protected file
D) A complete bit-for-bit copy
  • 73. Emergency disclosure of data by a service provider requires:
A) Executive order
B) Subpoena only
C) Court warrant
D) Imminent danger
  • 74. Evidence is inadmissible if:
A) Properly documented
B) Acquired legally
C) Authenticated
D) Tampered or altered
  • 75. Capturing screenshots of ongoing cybercrime activity is part of:
A) Collection
B) Preservation
C) Examination
D) Analysis
  • 76. Incident containment aims to:
A) Stop further damage
B) Arrest hackers
C) Identify motives
D) Erase malware
  • 77. “Live forensics” is done when the device is:
A) Destroyed
B) Turned off
C) Corrupt
D) In use / powered on
  • 78. Which is NOT part of incident response?
A) Identification
B) Punishment
C) Containment
D) Eradication
  • 79. Search Warrant for Subscriber Information is called:
A) SW-DI
B) SW-ARA
C) SW-CL
D) SW-SI
  • 80. ISP logs are an example of:
A) Non-content data
B) Content data
C) None
D) Physical data
  • 81. Forensic analysis must be done in:
A) Home office
B) Laboratory
C) Anywhere
D) Police car
  • 82. Password cracking should be done using:
A) Brute-force methods
B) Guessing
C) Forensic tools
D) Social media
  • 83. Examination of digital evidence must produce:
A) None
B) Altered copies
C) Reports
D) Deleted data
  • 84. Which is considered digital evidence?
A) All of these
B) Emails
C) Hard drives
D) Cellphones
  • 85. Final phase of incident response:
A) Recovery
B) Containment
C) Lessons learned
D) Eradication
  • 86. Environmental cases use the:
A) Special Penal Laws
B) Rules of Procedure for Environmental Cases
C) Civil Code
D) Rules of Court
  • 87. Who may file an environmental complaint?
A) Only police
B) Only direct victims
C) Only government agencies
D) NGOs and citizens
  • 88. Fisheries violations are filed before:
A) Family courts
B) Sandiganbayan
C) Labor courts
D) Regular trial courts
  • 89. Chain of custody is essential for:
A) Wildlife evidence
B) Seized explosives
C) All environmental evidence
D) Water samples
  • 90. Writ of Kalikasan protects:
A) Property disputes
B) Individuals only
C) Large-scale environmental rights
D) Private contracts
  • 91. An MRF must be maintained under:
A) Clean Water Act
B) Clean Air Act
C) RA 9003
D) Fisheries Code
  • 92. Wildlife violations require documents from:
A) DENR
B) DICT
C) DA
D) DOH
  • 93. Water pollution cases are filed under:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9147
D) RA 9275
  • 94. Evidence for wildlife trafficking includes:
A) Confiscated cages
B) Transport documents
C) All of the above
D) Specimens
  • 95. LGUs must prepare a 10-year solid waste plan under:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9003
C) RA 8749
D) Fisheries Code
  • 96. Imprisonment for wildlife killing depends on:
A) Age of violator
B) Weather condition
C) Municipality type
D) Species classification
  • 97. Evidence collection in environmental crimes must follow:
A) Verbal timelines
B) Scientific protocols
C) No documentation needed
D) Guesswork
  • 98. Pollution cases usually require:
A) DNA tests
B) Lie detector tests
C) None
D) Laboratory tests
  • 99. Confiscated explosives in fishing cases are handled by:
A) Bureau of Fisheries
B) PNP EOD
C) DA
D) DENR
  • 100. Final step in filing environmental cases:
A) Filing complaint and evidence with prosecutor
B) Arrest
C) Laboratory test
D) Collection only
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