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Diagnosis of HIV/AIDS - Quiz
Contributed by: Cole
  • 1. What bodily fluids can HIV tests detect the virus in?
A) Urine, sweat, or saliva
B) Sweat, tears, or serum
C) Saliva, mucus, or blood plasma
D) Serum, saliva, or urine
  • 2. What components can HIV tests detect?
A) Antibodies, antigens, or RNA
B) RNA, hormones, or antibodies
C) Antigens, enzymes, or cells
D) DNA, proteins, or antibodies
  • 3. What is the threshold CD4+ T cell count for an AIDS diagnosis?
A) Below 300 cells per μL
B) Below 200 cells per μL
C) Below 500 cells per μL
D) Below 100 cells per μL
  • 4. What is the median duration of the eclipse period?
A) 18 days
B) 1 day
C) 200 days
D) 11.5 days
  • 5. What is the median window period for antibody/antigen testing?
A) 18 days
B) 2.5 million days
C) 11.5 days
D) 200 days
  • 6. What does test sensitivity measure?
A) The time it takes to detect the virus
B) The number of antibodies present in the serum
C) Percentage of results that are negative when HIV is absent
D) Percentage of results that are positive when HIV is present
  • 7. What does test specificity measure?
A) The ability of a test to identify RNA
B) Percentage of results that are negative when HIV is not present
C) Percentage of results that are positive when HIV is present
D) The duration of the eclipse period
  • 8. What is a false positive result?
A) Test incorrectly indicates HIV is present in a non-infected person
B) Test incorrectly indicates HIV is absent in an infected person
C) Test correctly identifies a non-infected person
D) Test fails to detect the virus during the window period
  • 9. What is a false negative result?
A) Test incorrectly indicates HIV is absent in an infected person
B) Test incorrectly indicates HIV is present in a non-infected person
C) Test fails due to hypergammaglobulinemia
D) Test correctly identifies an infected person
  • 10. Which of these is a potential cause of false positive HIV results?
A) The window period
B) High CD4+ T cell counts
C) Autoimmune diseases
D) The eclipse period
  • 11. What is the primary cause of most false negative results?
A) Systemic lupus erythematosus
B) Nonspecific reactions
C) The window period
D) Hypergammaglobulinemia
  • 12. Why is high sensitivity required for blood donor screening?
A) To shorten the eclipse period
B) To ensure HIV is detected if present
C) To reduce the cost of testing
D) To identify autoimmune diseases
  • 13. What combined testing do blood banks in Western countries use?
A) Antibody, antigen, and nucleic acid tests
B) Only antibody tests
C) Only nucleic acid tests
D) Only antigen tests
  • 14. How many new HIV infections did the WHO estimate resulted from inadequate blood screening as of 2000?
A) 2.5 million
B) 1 million
C) 200,000
D) 11.5 million
  • 15. What does the FDA require for screening donated blood in the US?
A) Only antibody testing (EIA)
B) Only nucleic acid testing (NAT)
C) Combination of antibody testing (EIA) and nucleic acid testing (NAT)
D) Visual inspection of blood samples
  • 16. What was the risk of transfusion-acquired HIV in the US as of 2001?
A) Approximately one in 18 million
B) Approximately one in 11.5 million
C) Approximately one in 2.5 million
D) Approximately one in 1 million
  • 17. What is the eclipse period?
A) A period starting from exposure in which no test can detect HIV
B) The time required for CD4+ cells to drop below 200
C) The time between exposure and positive antibody test
D) A clinical condition of immunosuppression
  • 18. Which HIV types does the FDA require donated blood to be screened for?
A) Only HIV-1
B) HIV-1, HIV-2, and HIV-3
C) HIV-1 and HIV-2
D) Only HIV-2
  • 19. What is the definition of AIDS based on clinical conditions?
A) A CD4+ T cell count above 500 cells per μL
B) Presence of nonspecific reactions in the blood
C) A positive test result during the eclipse period
D) Development of an AIDS-defining clinical condition
  • 20. Which method is used for the initial HIV antibody test in the United States?
A) Western blot
B) Rapid antibody strip test
C) ELISA
D) Polymerase chain reaction
  • 21. According to the UNAIDS/WHO policy, HIV testing must be conducted with what?
A) Public notification
B) Mandatory reporting to police
C) Informed consent
D) Compulsory treatment
  • 22. Which condition is required for individuals who test positive for HIV according to ethical principles?
A) Automatic insurance enrollment
B) Accompanied by counseling
C) Immediate quarantine
D) Mandatory workplace notification
  • 23. What is the primary method of identification in anonymous HIV testing?
A) A social security number
B) A number
C) A medical record ID
D) A fingerprint
  • 24. What is the CDC recommended age range for voluntary routine HIV testing?
A) 12–70
B) 18–65
C) 16–60
D) 13–64
  • 25. What percentage of HIV-infected individuals were estimated to be unaware of their status in 2006?
A) 10%
B) 50%
C) 25%
D) 5%
  • 26. Which state was the first to require that hospitals offer HIV tests to all patients between 13 and 64?
A) New York
B) Florida
C) Texas
D) California
  • 27. What percentage of people have detectable antibodies by two months after HIV exposure?
A) 75%
B) 50%
C) 99%
D) 90%
  • 28. Can an infected person transmit HIV during the window period?
A) No
B) Only if symptoms are present
C) Yes
D) Only after the window period ends
  • 29. What does ELISA stand for?
A) Enhanced laboratory immunological screening assay
B) Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
C) Extended linkage internal serum assay
D) Enzyme-level immune system analysis
  • 30. How much is the serum diluted in an ELISA test?
A) 100-fold
B) 200-fold
C) 1000-fold
D) 400-fold
  • 31. What is the most controversial aspect of the ELISA test?
A) Determining the cut-off point
B) The time taken for analysis
C) The cost of the reagents
D) The storage of HIV antigens
  • 32. Which institution produced the ELISA test dongle?
A) Oxford University
B) Stanford University
C) Columbia University
D) Harvard University
  • 33. How long does the ELISA dongle take to analyze a blood sample?
A) Fifteen minutes
B) Thirty minutes
C) Five minutes
D) One hour
  • 34. In Western blot, what is used to level the electrical charge of proteins?
A) Cellulose acetate
B) Sodium lauryl sulfate
C) Recombinant DNA
D) Secondary antibody enzyme
  • 35. What is the result called if less than the required number of viral bands are detected in a Western blot?
A) Inconclusive failure
B) Indeterminate
C) Equivocal-positive
D) False negative
  • 36. What does the term RIBA stand for?
A) Recombinant internal biological assay
B) Rapid immunosorbent blot assay
C) Recombinant immunoblot assay
D) Radioactive immunoblot analysis
  • 37. If an indeterminate Western blot result persists for how long does it suggest it is not due to HIV?
A) Six months
B) One month
C) Three months
D) One year
  • 38. What does a person with an indeterminate result need to do?
A) Get retested
B) Perform a blood transfusion
C) Start HIV medication immediately
D) Ignore the result
  • 39. Which disease, besides HIV, can the ELISA dongle detect?
A) Malaria
B) Tuberculosis
C) Hepatitis C
D) Syphilis
  • 40. For which population has the positive predictive value of Rapid Antibody Tests not been evaluated?
A) Patients with acute symptoms
B) High-risk populations
C) Low-risk populations
D) Populations in endemic areas
  • 41. What is required for the statistical validation of rapid HIV test results?
A) A single rapid test
B) A physician's observation only
C) A patient's self-report
D) Multi-test algorithms
  • 42. What should be done if a rapid HIV test result is positive?
A) Retest using the same rapid test kit
B) Ignore the result as a false positive
C) Start HIV treatment immediately
D) Confirm the result using the western blot
  • 43. What test must be used in the US to confirm an ELISA positive result before reporting it as 'positive'?
A) A second ELISA test
B) A blood cell count
C) Western blot
D) A rapid combination antigen/antibody test
  • 44. What happens to the rate of false positives when ELISA is combined with a western blot?
A) The rate becomes unpredictable
B) The rate remains unchanged
C) The rate increases significantly
D) The rate becomes extremely low
  • 45. What should an individual with an inconclusive test do?
A) Assume they are HIV negative
B) Stop all future testing
C) Be re-tested at a later date
D) Assume they are HIV positive
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