A) Sandiganbayan B) RTC C) Court of Appeals D) MTC
A) MTC B) Court of Appeals C) Supreme Court D) Sandiganbayan
A) MTC B) Court of Appeals C) RTC D) Supreme Court
A) RTC B) MTC C) Sandiganbayan D) Supreme Court
A) Court of Appeals B) RTC C) Barangay Justice System D) MTC
A) Supreme Court B) MTC C) RTC D) Sandiganbayan
A) MTC B) Sandiganbayan C) RTC D) Court of Appeals
A) RTC B) MTC C) Court of Appeals D) Supreme Court
A) Sandiganbayan B) Court of Appeals C) RTC (Family Court) D) MTC
A) Court of Appeals B) Supreme Court C) MTC D) RTC
A) Administrative penalties B) Arbitration procedures C) Steps by which the State prosecutes violations of law D) Civil litigation procedures
A) Impose penalties B) Determine guilt C) Assess whether probable cause exists to file a case D) Conduct trial
A) A prosecutor’s opinion B) A reasonable belief that an offense has been committed C) Absolute proof of guilt D) Mere suspicion
A) Informs the accused of the charges and receives the plea B) Conducts mandatory mediation C) Decides on evidence admissibility D) Evaluates mitigating circumstances
A) File an information B) Initiate a complaint C) Conduct preliminary investigation Answer: C D) Place the accused under lawful custody
A) Guarantee an acquittal B) Replace detention with probation C) Reduce the penalty upon conviction D) Ensure the accused appears in court
A) Can negotiate penalties B) Is protected from coercion and uninformed waivers C) May be tried immediately D) Can escape detention
A) The acts complained of and the law violated B) Witness names only C) Accused’s personal opinion D) Proposed punishment
A) Witnesses may be excluded B) Evidence obtained illegally is inadmissible C) Confessions are always valid D) All evidence is admissible
A) Trial procedure B) Judgment C) Validity of the complaint or information D) Credibility of witnesses
A) Civil suits B) Multiple fines C) Bail denial D) Being tried again for the same offense after acquittal
A) Witnesses appear first B) Judge instructs them C) The State carries the burden of proof D) Defense is always last
A) Public interest B) Evidence presented and the applicable law C) Prosecutor’s opinion D) Defense preference
A) Filing appeals B) Reviewing evidence C) Drafting the decision D) Enforcing the final penalty imposed by the court
A) Valid because suspicion is enough B) Valid only if a warrant follows within 24 hours C) Invalid because no element of in flagrante delicto is present D) Valid if officer believes crime might occur
A) Invalid because future acts do not justify warrantless arrest B) Valid if the suspect is known in the community C) Valid as long as informant is reliable D) Valid if suspect previously had a record
A) Valid if approved by a judge B) Valid because purpose is clear C) Invalid due to lack of particularity D) Valid only if the search happens immediately
A) Valid only if consent is implied B) Valid if officers believe evidence is inside C) Valid if within the same barangay D) Invalid because a warrant is limited to its specific location
A) Valid if the checkpoint is authorized B) Valid because checkpoints allow all searches C) Invalid because only visual inspection is allowed D) Valid if the driver appears nervous
A) Valid only if homeowner consents B) Invalid because theft is not a serious crime C) Valid as hot pursuit allows warrantless entry D) Invalid if suspect hides for more than 30 minutes
A) Valid because it is still hot pursuit B) Invalid because personal knowledge of the officer is lacking C) Valid if the offense is grave D) Valid if suspect tries to flee
A) Valid because instinct may justify action B) Valid if officers are experienced C) Invalid because warrantless home arrests require urgent necessity D) Valid if the suspect was still awake
A) Valid since the warrant is lawful B) Invalid because nighttime service requires express authorization C) Valid if probable cause existed D) Valid if officers announce their identity
A) Valid because officers maintain public order B) Invalid because not all ordinances justify custodial arrest C) Valid only if the area has a curfew D) Invalid unless confirmed by a barangay official
A) Valid if digital crimes are later discovered B) Invalid because laptops are unrelated to firearms search C) Valid under plain view doctrine if immediately incriminating D) Valid only if owner does not object
A) Valid because one person was a suspect B) Valid if both individuals knew each other C) Invalid because no overt act showing involvement was observed D) Valid because association is enough
A) Valid if search is within the same house B) Valid because consent is presumed broad C) Valid if evidence is eventually found D) Invalid if consent did not expressly include closed compartments
A) Invalid because such intrusive searches require probable cause B) Invalid only when done by non-uniformed personnel C) Valid only if the driver is alone D) Valid if checkpoint is legal
A) Motion for reconsideration B) Barangay mediation C) Preliminary investigation filing D) Inquest review
A) Police arbitration B) Judicial dispute resolution C) Court-annexed mediation D) Barangay Justice System
A) Pre-trial conference B) Summary trial C) Judicial affidavit rule D) Inquest proceeding
A) Direct filing privilege B) Prosecutorial endorsement C) Certification to File Action D) Automatic judicial referral
A) Proper only if the defense requests it B) Improper because counter-affidavits are always required C) Proper if evidence is patently insufficient D) Proper if the case involves a barangay referral
A) Incorrect because suspects must stay under custody B) Correct when warrantless arrest is invalid C) Incorrect because only courts may release suspects D) Correct only for capital offenses
A) Valid because slander is a private crime B) Invalid only when the accused refuses mediation C) Valid if the complainant has legal counsel D) Invalid because it must first undergo Katarungang Pambarangay conciliation
A) Acceptable; the respondent may rely solely on legal arguments B) Acceptable if endorsed by the barangay C) Improper; failure to submit counter-affidavits waives the right to rebut evidence D) Acceptable only if complainant’s affidavit is weak
A) Valid only after three scheduled hearings B) Invalid because mediation must be completed C) Invalid unless arbitrators are present D) Valid because non-appearance is ground for issuance
A) Invalid because hearings are always mandatory B) Valid because clarificatory hearings are discretionary C) Invalid unless witness examination happens D) Valid only if the accused waives rights
A) Valid when barangay endorsement is unavailable B) Invalid because offenses requiring PI must go through the prosecutor C) Valid if police have personal knowledge D) Valid if the accused is detained
A) Valid if the barangay issues certification B) Valid if the arresting officer is a barangay official C) Valid as long as the suspect admits guilt D) Invalid because the offense is not covered by warrantless arrest rules
A) To excuse the crime B) To release the accused permanently C) To ensure the accused appears in court D) To reduce the penalty
A) Bail is automatically granted B) Pre-trial and preparation for trial are scheduled C) Judge dismisses the case D) Trial begins immediately
A) Assign a prosecutor B) Schedule judgment C) Decide on civil liabilities D) Negotiate plea bargaining and mark evidence
A) Burden of proof lies with the State B) Defense cannot start immediately C) Witnesses must speak first D) Judge requires opening statements
A) Proper if the accused lacks counsel B) Proper only if complainant objects C) Proper because bail is discretionary D) Improper because bail is a matter of right
A) Valid since arraignment is formal B) Invalid because counsel is mandatory unless properly waived C) Valid if the accused understood the charge D) Valid if court is overloaded
A) Court may impose sanctions and proceed as justice requires B) Case must be dismissed C) Defense must postpone D) Court requires accused to present evidence
A) Valid if prosecutor agrees B) Valid if evidence is strong C) Valid if freely made D) Invalid because the judge must ensure voluntariness and full understanding
A) Acceptable; prosecutors determine guilt B) Acceptable if affidavits are complete C) Acceptable if case involves moral turpitude D) Invalid; only the court decides after hearing
A) Invalid; violates right to full cross-examination B) Valid in minor offenses C) Valid for efficiency D) Valid if both parties agree
A) Improper; motion to quash must be resolved first B) Proper; arraignment must always proceed C) Proper only if accused insists D) Proper if judge wants to expedite
A) Improper; prosecution consent is essential B) Proper if defense offers restitution C) Proper only if offense is light D) Proper; court has full authority
A) Valid if witness is material B) Valid if trial is almost finished C) Invalid; violates due process and right to rebut D) Valid; court may accept additional evidence anytime
A) Grossly improper; violates right to present evidence B) Valid only if counsel agrees C) Valid to shorten trial D) Valid if prosecution evidence is strong
A) Hearsay objection B) Improper leading C) Proper direct examination considering age D) Cross-examination
A) Ignore and proceed B) Dismiss the witness C) Force the witness D) Allow short breaks and comforting assistance
A) Generally improper, except for hostile or child witnesses B) Always prohibited C) Always permitted D) Required to expedite trial
A) During direct examination B) Only during rebuttal C) During cross-examination D) Only for expert witnesses
A) Hearsay B) Leading question C) Proper direct examination strategy D) Improper narrative
A) Leading questioning B) Violation of impartiality C) Improper testimony D) Accommodation for child witnesses
A) Cross-examination strategy B) Improper leading C) Direct examination D) Hearsay
A) Direct examination B) Cross-examination C) Rebuttal evidence D) Improper if done in court
A) Cross-examination B) Reading testimony verbatim (improper) C) Refreshing memory (proper) D) Leading question
A) Improper demonstration B) Proper accommodation to enhance understanding C) Cross-examination tactic D) Leading question
A) Proper direct examination B) Leading question C) Hearsay D) Cross-examination
A) Direct examination B) Cross-examination technique C) Hearsay evidence D) Improper impeachment
A) Proper accommodation for child witness protection B) Improper C) Leading question D) Cross-examination violation
A) Proper direct examination B) Cross-examination C) Leading questions D) Hearsay
A) Cross-examination B) Preliminary investigation C) Direct examination D) Pre-trial conference
A) Leading question B) Proper witness protection and accommodation C) Improper coaching D) Cross-examination violation
A) Replace detention with probation B) Guarantee acquittal C) Reduce penalty D) Ensure accused appears during trial
A) Trial begins immediately B) Pre-trial is scheduled C) Case dismissed D) Bail granted automatically
A) Decide civil liabilities B) Negotiate plea bargaining and mark evidence C) Schedule judgment D) Assign a prosecutor
A) Prosecutor’s theory B) Witness’s memory, perception, and credibility C) Procedural technicalities D) Judge’s discretion
A) Facilitate understanding and protect them from trauma B) Influence testimony C) Make trial faster D) Replace direct questioning
A) Suggest answers to witnesses B) Accelerate trial C) Violate rights D) Test credibility and impeach statements
A) Open-ended questions B) Hearsay questions C) Closed-ended questions only D) Leading questions only
A) Challenge witness credibility B) Confirm hearsay C) End trial D) Support witness credibility
A) Replacing witness B) Oral suggestion C) Leading questions D) Reviewing documents or reports to recall facts
A) Testing witness statements and credibility B) Unlimited questioning without relevance C) Skipping procedural rules D) Introducing new evidence without notice
A) Violate impartiality B) Protect emotional well-being C) Influence verdict D) Avoid cross-examination
A) Guilt B) Voluntariness and understanding C) Plea bargaining D) Sentence reduction
A) Verdict announcement B) Trial starts immediately C) Witness selection only D) Clarification of issues, marking of evidence, and plea bargaining
A) Informing accused of charges and receiving plea B) Trial on the merits C) Bail denial D) Evidence evaluation
A) Officer has mere suspicion B) In flagrante delicto or hot pursuit C) Ordinance requires detention D) Accused looks guilty
A) Evidence is in plain view and exigent circumstances exist B) Consent is given C) Officer feels probable cause D) Any officer orders it
A) Case is dismissed B) Suspect is arrested without warrant and brought to prosecutor within 12 hours C) Bail is granted D) Pre-trial is conducted
A) Sentence B) Guilt C) Bail amount D) Probable cause
A) Settle disputes amicably before filing in courts B) Conduct arrest C) Replace courts D) Collect fines
A) Coercion B) Age-appropriate, understandable, and trauma-sensitive methods C) Leading questions only D) Hearsay evidence |