A) Court of Appeals B) RTC C) Sandiganbayan D) MTC
A) Sandiganbayan B) Supreme Court C) Court of Appeals D) MTC
A) Court of Appeals B) MTC C) Supreme Court D) RTC
A) Supreme Court B) RTC C) MTC D) Sandiganbayan
A) MTC B) RTC C) Barangay Justice System D) Court of Appeals
A) Supreme Court B) Sandiganbayan C) RTC D) MTC
A) RTC B) Court of Appeals C) MTC D) Sandiganbayan
A) Supreme Court B) RTC C) Court of Appeals D) MTC
A) MTC B) Court of Appeals C) RTC (Family Court) D) Sandiganbayan
A) MTC B) Court of Appeals C) Supreme Court D) RTC
A) Administrative penalties B) Civil litigation procedures C) Steps by which the State prosecutes violations of law D) Arbitration procedures
A) Determine guilt B) Conduct trial C) Assess whether probable cause exists to file a case D) Impose penalties
A) Absolute proof of guilt B) A reasonable belief that an offense has been committed C) Mere suspicion D) A prosecutor’s opinion
A) Informs the accused of the charges and receives the plea B) Conducts mandatory mediation C) Decides on evidence admissibility D) Evaluates mitigating circumstances
A) Initiate a complaint B) Place the accused under lawful custody C) Conduct preliminary investigation Answer: C D) File an information
A) Guarantee an acquittal B) Ensure the accused appears in court C) Replace detention with probation D) Reduce the penalty upon conviction
A) Can escape detention B) May be tried immediately C) Is protected from coercion and uninformed waivers D) Can negotiate penalties
A) Witness names only B) Accused’s personal opinion C) The acts complained of and the law violated D) Proposed punishment
A) Evidence obtained illegally is inadmissible B) All evidence is admissible C) Confessions are always valid D) Witnesses may be excluded
A) Trial procedure B) Validity of the complaint or information C) Credibility of witnesses D) Judgment
A) Civil suits B) Bail denial C) Being tried again for the same offense after acquittal D) Multiple fines
A) Defense is always last B) Judge instructs them C) Witnesses appear first D) The State carries the burden of proof
A) Defense preference B) Evidence presented and the applicable law C) Prosecutor’s opinion D) Public interest
A) Enforcing the final penalty imposed by the court B) Reviewing evidence C) Drafting the decision D) Filing appeals
A) Valid only if a warrant follows within 24 hours B) Valid because suspicion is enough C) Invalid because no element of in flagrante delicto is present D) Valid if officer believes crime might occur
A) Valid if suspect previously had a record B) Invalid because future acts do not justify warrantless arrest C) Valid as long as informant is reliable D) Valid if the suspect is known in the community
A) Valid only if the search happens immediately B) Invalid due to lack of particularity C) Valid because purpose is clear D) Valid if approved by a judge
A) Invalid because a warrant is limited to its specific location B) Valid if within the same barangay C) Valid only if consent is implied D) Valid if officers believe evidence is inside
A) Valid if the checkpoint is authorized B) Invalid because only visual inspection is allowed C) Valid because checkpoints allow all searches D) Valid if the driver appears nervous
A) Invalid if suspect hides for more than 30 minutes B) Valid as hot pursuit allows warrantless entry C) Invalid because theft is not a serious crime D) Valid only if homeowner consents
A) Valid if the offense is grave B) Valid because it is still hot pursuit C) Invalid because personal knowledge of the officer is lacking D) Valid if suspect tries to flee
A) Valid because instinct may justify action B) Invalid because warrantless home arrests require urgent necessity C) Valid if officers are experienced D) Valid if the suspect was still awake
A) Invalid because nighttime service requires express authorization B) Valid if probable cause existed C) Valid since the warrant is lawful D) Valid if officers announce their identity
A) Invalid because not all ordinances justify custodial arrest B) Invalid unless confirmed by a barangay official C) Valid because officers maintain public order D) Valid only if the area has a curfew
A) Valid if digital crimes are later discovered B) Invalid because laptops are unrelated to firearms search C) Valid under plain view doctrine if immediately incriminating D) Valid only if owner does not object
A) Valid if both individuals knew each other B) Invalid because no overt act showing involvement was observed C) Valid because one person was a suspect D) Valid because association is enough
A) Valid because consent is presumed broad B) Invalid if consent did not expressly include closed compartments C) Valid if evidence is eventually found D) Valid if search is within the same house
A) Valid if checkpoint is legal B) Valid only if the driver is alone C) Invalid only when done by non-uniformed personnel D) Invalid because such intrusive searches require probable cause
A) Preliminary investigation filing B) Barangay mediation C) Motion for reconsideration D) Inquest review
A) Judicial dispute resolution B) Barangay Justice System C) Court-annexed mediation D) Police arbitration
A) Inquest proceeding B) Judicial affidavit rule C) Pre-trial conference D) Summary trial
A) Direct filing privilege B) Certification to File Action C) Automatic judicial referral D) Prosecutorial endorsement
A) Proper if evidence is patently insufficient B) Improper because counter-affidavits are always required C) Proper only if the defense requests it D) Proper if the case involves a barangay referral
A) Incorrect because only courts may release suspects B) Correct only for capital offenses C) Correct when warrantless arrest is invalid D) Incorrect because suspects must stay under custody
A) Invalid because it must first undergo Katarungang Pambarangay conciliation B) Invalid only when the accused refuses mediation C) Valid if the complainant has legal counsel D) Valid because slander is a private crime
A) Acceptable if endorsed by the barangay B) Acceptable; the respondent may rely solely on legal arguments C) Improper; failure to submit counter-affidavits waives the right to rebut evidence D) Acceptable only if complainant’s affidavit is weak
A) Valid only after three scheduled hearings B) Invalid because mediation must be completed C) Valid because non-appearance is ground for issuance D) Invalid unless arbitrators are present
A) Invalid unless witness examination happens B) Invalid because hearings are always mandatory C) Valid because clarificatory hearings are discretionary D) Valid only if the accused waives rights
A) Invalid because offenses requiring PI must go through the prosecutor B) Valid if police have personal knowledge C) Valid if the accused is detained D) Valid when barangay endorsement is unavailable
A) Valid if the barangay issues certification B) Invalid because the offense is not covered by warrantless arrest rules C) Valid as long as the suspect admits guilt D) Valid if the arresting officer is a barangay official
A) To reduce the penalty B) To release the accused permanently C) To ensure the accused appears in court D) To excuse the crime
A) Judge dismisses the case B) Pre-trial and preparation for trial are scheduled C) Trial begins immediately D) Bail is automatically granted
A) Assign a prosecutor B) Schedule judgment C) Decide on civil liabilities D) Negotiate plea bargaining and mark evidence
A) Judge requires opening statements B) Witnesses must speak first C) Burden of proof lies with the State D) Defense cannot start immediately
A) Proper if the accused lacks counsel B) Improper because bail is a matter of right C) Proper only if complainant objects D) Proper because bail is discretionary
A) Invalid because counsel is mandatory unless properly waived B) Valid since arraignment is formal C) Valid if the accused understood the charge D) Valid if court is overloaded
A) Court may impose sanctions and proceed as justice requires B) Defense must postpone C) Case must be dismissed D) Court requires accused to present evidence
A) Invalid because the judge must ensure voluntariness and full understanding B) Valid if freely made C) Valid if prosecutor agrees D) Valid if evidence is strong
A) Acceptable if affidavits are complete B) Invalid; only the court decides after hearing C) Acceptable; prosecutors determine guilt D) Acceptable if case involves moral turpitude
A) Invalid; violates right to full cross-examination B) Valid if both parties agree C) Valid in minor offenses D) Valid for efficiency
A) Proper; arraignment must always proceed B) Improper; motion to quash must be resolved first C) Proper only if accused insists D) Proper if judge wants to expedite
A) Proper; court has full authority B) Improper; prosecution consent is essential C) Proper if defense offers restitution D) Proper only if offense is light
A) Valid if witness is material B) Valid if trial is almost finished C) Valid; court may accept additional evidence anytime D) Invalid; violates due process and right to rebut
A) Grossly improper; violates right to present evidence B) Valid if prosecution evidence is strong C) Valid to shorten trial D) Valid only if counsel agrees
A) Proper direct examination considering age B) Cross-examination C) Hearsay objection D) Improper leading
A) Dismiss the witness B) Allow short breaks and comforting assistance C) Force the witness D) Ignore and proceed
A) Always permitted B) Required to expedite trial C) Always prohibited D) Generally improper, except for hostile or child witnesses
A) Only during rebuttal B) Only for expert witnesses C) During direct examination D) During cross-examination
A) Hearsay B) Leading question C) Proper direct examination strategy D) Improper narrative
A) Improper testimony B) Leading questioning C) Violation of impartiality D) Accommodation for child witnesses
A) Direct examination B) Hearsay C) Improper leading D) Cross-examination strategy
A) Improper if done in court B) Cross-examination C) Direct examination D) Rebuttal evidence
A) Leading question B) Reading testimony verbatim (improper) C) Cross-examination D) Refreshing memory (proper)
A) Leading question B) Improper demonstration C) Proper accommodation to enhance understanding D) Cross-examination tactic
A) Proper direct examination B) Hearsay C) Cross-examination D) Leading question
A) Direct examination B) Hearsay evidence C) Improper impeachment D) Cross-examination technique
A) Proper accommodation for child witness protection B) Improper C) Cross-examination violation D) Leading question
A) Cross-examination B) Leading questions C) Hearsay D) Proper direct examination
A) Direct examination B) Cross-examination C) Pre-trial conference D) Preliminary investigation
A) Proper witness protection and accommodation B) Cross-examination violation C) Improper coaching D) Leading question
A) Guarantee acquittal B) Reduce penalty C) Replace detention with probation D) Ensure accused appears during trial
A) Bail granted automatically B) Trial begins immediately C) Pre-trial is scheduled D) Case dismissed
A) Schedule judgment B) Assign a prosecutor C) Decide civil liabilities D) Negotiate plea bargaining and mark evidence
A) Procedural technicalities B) Prosecutor’s theory C) Witness’s memory, perception, and credibility D) Judge’s discretion
A) Influence testimony B) Facilitate understanding and protect them from trauma C) Replace direct questioning D) Make trial faster
A) Accelerate trial B) Violate rights C) Suggest answers to witnesses D) Test credibility and impeach statements
A) Open-ended questions B) Leading questions only C) Closed-ended questions only D) Hearsay questions
A) Support witness credibility B) End trial C) Confirm hearsay D) Challenge witness credibility
A) Replacing witness B) Leading questions C) Reviewing documents or reports to recall facts D) Oral suggestion
A) Testing witness statements and credibility B) Unlimited questioning without relevance C) Introducing new evidence without notice D) Skipping procedural rules
A) Protect emotional well-being B) Avoid cross-examination C) Influence verdict D) Violate impartiality
A) Guilt B) Sentence reduction C) Voluntariness and understanding D) Plea bargaining
A) Trial starts immediately B) Verdict announcement C) Clarification of issues, marking of evidence, and plea bargaining D) Witness selection only
A) Trial on the merits B) Bail denial C) Informing accused of charges and receiving plea D) Evidence evaluation
A) Officer has mere suspicion B) In flagrante delicto or hot pursuit C) Ordinance requires detention D) Accused looks guilty
A) Consent is given B) Any officer orders it C) Officer feels probable cause D) Evidence is in plain view and exigent circumstances exist
A) Pre-trial is conducted B) Case is dismissed C) Bail is granted D) Suspect is arrested without warrant and brought to prosecutor within 12 hours
A) Probable cause B) Bail amount C) Sentence D) Guilt
A) Replace courts B) Collect fines C) Settle disputes amicably before filing in courts D) Conduct arrest
A) Age-appropriate, understandable, and trauma-sensitive methods B) Hearsay evidence C) Coercion D) Leading questions only |