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CLJ6-CPCTES - Quiz
Contributed by: Three
  • 1. A case involving qualified theft with an amount of ₱1,300,000 is filed. Which court has original jurisdiction?
A) MTC
B) Court of Appeals
C) Sandiganbayan
D) RTC
  • 2. A city prosecutor elevates an appeal on a dismissal order of the RTC in a criminal case. Which court reviews it?
A) Court of Appeals
B) Supreme Court
C) MTC
D) Sandiganbayan
  • 3. An accused challenges the constitutionality of a search warrant issued by the RTC. Which court has authority to resolve the petition?
A) RTC
B) Court of Appeals
C) Supreme Court
D) MTC
  • 4. A barangay official is charged with violation of the Anti-Graft and Corrupt Practices Act. Which court tries the case?
A) Sandiganbayan
B) MTC
C) Supreme Court
D) RTC
  • 5. A civil action for damages amounting to ₱250,000 arising from a vehicular accident in a province is filed. Where should it be filed?
A) Court of Appeals
B) RTC
C) MTC
D) Barangay Justice System
  • 6. An accused petitions for bail after being charged with a capital offense. Which court determines the bail application?
A) RTC
B) MTC
C) Supreme Court
D) Sandiganbayan
  • 7. A petition for writ of amparo is filed against military personnel. Where is the proper venue?
A) Court of Appeals
B) MTC
C) Sandiganbayan
D) RTC
  • 8. A foreign corporation sues a local company for contractual disputes. Which court hears the case initially?
A) MTC
B) Court of Appeals
C) Supreme Court
D) RTC
  • 9. A party seeks annulment of marriage. Which court has jurisdiction?
A) Court of Appeals
B) Sandiganbayan
C) MTC
D) RTC (Family Court)
  • 10. A motion for reconsideration of a Sandiganbayan decision is denied. Where is the next legal remedy filed?
A) Court of Appeals
B) RTC
C) Supreme Court
D) MTC
  • 11. Criminal procedure primarily governs which aspect of the justice process?
A) Civil litigation procedures
B) Administrative penalties
C) Arbitration procedures
D) Steps by which the State prosecutes violations of law
  • 12. The purpose of a preliminary investigation is mainly to:
A) Impose penalties
B) Determine guilt
C) Assess whether probable cause exists to file a case
D) Conduct trial
  • 13. The concept of “probable cause” in criminal procedure refers to?
A) Absolute proof of guilt
B) Mere suspicion
C) A prosecutor’s opinion
D) A reasonable belief that an offense has been committed
  • 14. Arraignment is the stage where the court?
A) Evaluates mitigating circumstances
B) Decides on evidence admissibility
C) Informs the accused of the charges and receives the plea
D) Conducts mandatory mediation
  • 15. The purpose of a warrant of arrest is to:
A) Conduct preliminary investigation Answer: C
B) File an information
C) Place the accused under lawful custody
D) Initiate a complaint
  • 16. Bail primarily serves to:
A) Reduce the penalty upon conviction
B) Guarantee an acquittal
C) Replace detention with probation
D) Ensure the accused appears in court
  • 17. The right to counsel during custodial investigation ensures that the accused:
A) Can negotiate penalties
B) Is protected from coercion and uninformed waivers
C) Can escape detention
D) May be tried immediately
  • 18. The information filed by the prosecutor must contain:
A) The acts complained of and the law violated
B) Accused’s personal opinion
C) Proposed punishment
D) Witness names only
  • 19. The exclusionary rule in criminal procedure means that:
A) Evidence obtained illegally is inadmissible
B) All evidence is admissible
C) Witnesses may be excluded
D) Confessions are always valid
  • 20. A motion to quash challenges the:
A) Validity of the complaint or information
B) Judgment
C) Credibility of witnesses
D) Trial procedure
  • 21. The concept of “double jeopardy” protects an accused from:
A) Being tried again for the same offense after acquittal
B) Multiple fines
C) Bail denial
D) Civil suits
  • 22. During trial, the prosecution presents evidence first because:
A) Witnesses appear first
B) The State carries the burden of proof
C) Judge instructs them
D) Defense is always last
  • 23. The judgment in a criminal case must be based on:
A) Prosecutor’s opinion
B) Evidence presented and the applicable law
C) Defense preference
D) Public interest
  • 24. The execution of judgment in criminal procedure refers to:
A) Reviewing evidence
B) Drafting the decision
C) Enforcing the final penalty imposed by the court
D) Filing appeals
  • 25. Police officers arrested a suspect after he “acted suspiciously” but committed no overt act. Analyze the arrest.
A) Invalid because no element of in flagrante delicto is present
B) Valid if officer believes crime might occur
C) Valid because suspicion is enough
D) Valid only if a warrant follows within 24 hours
  • 26. Officers arrest a suspect after a reliable informant claims the suspect “might transport drugs tomorrow.” Assess the legality.
A) Valid if the suspect is known in the community
B) Valid as long as informant is reliable
C) Invalid because future acts do not justify warrantless arrest
D) Valid if suspect previously had a record
  • 27. A search warrant states “illegal drugs and related contraband.” Evaluate the warrant.
A) Valid because purpose is clear
B) Valid if approved by a judge
C) Valid only if the search happens immediately
D) Invalid due to lack of particularity
  • 28. Police conduct a search of a house using a warrant issued for a different address. Evaluate the action.
A) Invalid because a warrant is limited to its specific location
B) Valid if within the same barangay
C) Valid only if consent is implied
D) Valid if officers believe evidence is inside
  • 29. During a checkpoint, officers search all closed bags inside a vehicle without probable cause. Assess the search.
A) Valid if the checkpoint is authorized
B) Valid because checkpoints allow all searches
C) Invalid because only visual inspection is allowed
D) Valid if the driver appears nervous
  • 30. Officers enter a residence without a warrant because a suspect ran inside after committing theft. Analyze the entry.
A) Invalid because theft is not a serious crime
B) Valid as hot pursuit allows warrantless entry
C) Invalid if suspect hides for more than 30 minutes
D) Valid only if homeowner consents
  • 31. Police arrest a suspect hours after a crime based only on a vague description from a bystander. Evaluate the arrest.
A) Valid if suspect tries to flee
B) Invalid because personal knowledge of the officer is lacking
C) Valid if the offense is grave
D) Valid because it is still hot pursuit
  • 32. Officers arrest a man inside his home without a warrant, claiming they “felt something was wrong.” Evaluate the arrest.
A) Valid because instinct may justify action
B) Invalid because warrantless home arrests require urgent necessity
C) Valid if officers are experienced
D) Valid if the suspect was still awake
  • 33. A valid warrant is served at 1:00 a.m. despite no justification for nighttime service. Evaluate the service.
A) Valid if officers announce their identity
B) Invalid because nighttime service requires express authorization
C) Valid since the warrant is lawful
D) Valid if probable cause existed
  • 34. Police arrest a person for loitering in a public place at night, claiming it is a crime. Assess the arrest.
A) Invalid because not all ordinances justify custodial arrest
B) Valid only if the area has a curfew
C) Invalid unless confirmed by a barangay official
D) Valid because officers maintain public order
  • 35. Officers seize laptops during a search for firearms. Evaluate the seizure.
A) Valid under plain view doctrine if immediately incriminating
B) Valid only if owner does not object
C) Valid if digital crimes are later discovered
D) Invalid because laptops are unrelated to firearms search
  • 36. During a warrantless arrest in flagrante delicto, police only saw the suspect talking to a person involved in a crime. Analyze the procedure.
A) Invalid because no overt act showing involvement was observed
B) Valid because association is enough
C) Valid if both individuals knew each other
D) Valid because one person was a suspect
  • 37. Police search a locked drawer during a consented search of a living room. The homeowner did not specify limits. Evaluate the search.
A) Valid if evidence is eventually found
B) Valid because consent is presumed broad
C) Invalid if consent did not expressly include closed compartments
D) Valid if search is within the same house
  • 38. Officers conduct a full-body search of a driver at a checkpoint without any suspicious behavior. Evaluate the action.
A) Valid only if the driver is alone
B) Valid if checkpoint is legal
C) Invalid only when done by non-uniformed personnel
D) Invalid because such intrusive searches require probable cause
  • 39. A complainant submits a sworn statement and evidence to the prosecutor’s office for a criminal offense. What procedural stage is being initiated?
A) Preliminary investigation filing
B) Barangay mediation
C) Motion for reconsideration
D) Inquest review
  • 40. A barangay captain attempts conciliation between neighbors involved in a minor physical injury case. Which mechanism is being used?
A) Police arbitration
B) Judicial dispute resolution
C) Court-annexed mediation
D) Barangay Justice System
  • 41. A suspect arrested without a warrant is brought before the prosecutor within 12 hours. What proceeding must commence?
A) Inquest proceeding
B) Pre-trial conference
C) Judicial affidavit rule
D) Summary trial
  • 42. A party files a criminal complaint directly with the MTC after failing to settle at the barangay level. Which requirement has been met?
A) Prosecutorial endorsement
B) Certification to File Action
C) Automatic judicial referral
D) Direct filing privilege
  • 43. A prosecutor dismisses a complaint for lack of probable cause without requiring counter-affidavits. Analyze the action.
A) Improper because counter-affidavits are always required
B) Proper if the case involves a barangay referral
C) Proper if evidence is patently insufficient
D) Proper only if the defense requests it
  • 44. An inquest officer orders the release of a suspect and converts the inquest into a regular preliminary investigation. Evaluate this decision.
A) Incorrect because only courts may release suspects
B) Incorrect because suspects must stay under custody
C) Correct only for capital offenses
D) Correct when warrantless arrest is invalid
  • 45. A complaint involving slander is filed directly with the prosecutor without barangay conciliation. Assess the filing.
A) Invalid only when the accused refuses mediation
B) Invalid because it must first undergo Katarungang Pambarangay conciliation
C) Valid because slander is a private crime
D) Valid if the complainant has legal counsel
  • 46. During preliminary investigation, the respondent refuses to submit counter-affidavits but asks for outright dismissal. Evaluate this action.
A) Acceptable if endorsed by the barangay
B) Acceptable only if complainant’s affidavit is weak
C) Improper; failure to submit counter-affidavits waives the right to rebut evidence
D) Acceptable; the respondent may rely solely on legal arguments
  • 47. A barangay issues a Certification to File Action even though parties refuse to appear at mediation. Analyze the issuance.
A) Invalid unless arbitrators are present
B) Valid only after three scheduled hearings
C) Valid because non-appearance is ground for issuance
D) Invalid because mediation must be completed
  • 48. A prosecutor conducts preliminary investigation solely based on affidavits without clarificatory hearings. Evaluate the procedure.
A) Invalid unless witness examination happens
B) Valid because clarificatory hearings are discretionary
C) Invalid because hearings are always mandatory
D) Valid only if the accused waives rights
  • 49. Police file a criminal complaint directly in court for a crime requiring preliminary investigation. Assess the filing.
A) Invalid because offenses requiring PI must go through the prosecutor
B) Valid if police have personal knowledge
C) Valid if the accused is detained
D) Valid when barangay endorsement is unavailable
  • 50. A suspect is arrested without warrant for an offense punishable only by a fine. Evaluate the arrest.
A) Valid if the arresting officer is a barangay official
B) Valid if the barangay issues certification
C) Valid as long as the suspect admits guilt
D) Invalid because the offense is not covered by warrantless arrest rules
  • 51. Bail is filed for an accused in a non-capital offense. Which is the primary purpose?
A) To release the accused permanently
B) To ensure the accused appears in court
C) To reduce the penalty
D) To excuse the crime
  • 52. During arraignment, the accused pleads “not guilty.” What happens next?
A) Pre-trial and preparation for trial are scheduled
B) Trial begins immediately
C) Judge dismisses the case
D) Bail is automatically granted
  • 53. Pre-trial in criminal cases primarily aims to:
A) Schedule judgment
B) Negotiate plea bargaining and mark evidence
C) Assign a prosecutor
D) Decide on civil liabilities
  • 54. During trial, the prosecution must present its evidence first because:
A) Witnesses must speak first
B) Judge requires opening statements
C) Defense cannot start immediately
D) Burden of proof lies with the State
  • 55. A judge refuses to hear a petition for bail in a non-capital offense and requires the accused to remain detained. Analyze the judge’s action.
A) Proper because bail is discretionary
B) Proper if the accused lacks counsel
C) Proper only if complainant objects
D) Improper because bail is a matter of right
  • 56. The court arraigned an accused without counsel and without valid waiver. Evaluate the arraignment.
A) Valid if court is overloaded
B) Valid since arraignment is formal
C) Invalid because counsel is mandatory unless properly waived
D) Valid if the accused understood the charge
  • 57. Pre-trial is scheduled, but the prosecution fails to appear without justification. What should occur?
A) Case must be dismissed
B) Court may impose sanctions and proceed as justice requires
C) Court requires accused to present evidence
D) Defense must postpone
  • 58. A judge accepts a guilty plea to a serious offense without conducting a searching inquiry. Assess the plea.
A) Valid if prosecutor agrees
B) Valid if evidence is strong
C) Valid if freely made
D) Invalid because the judge must ensure voluntariness and full understanding
  • 59. The defense requests a bail hearing, but prosecution claims it is unnecessary because they “believe evidence of guilt is strong.” Evaluate.
A) Acceptable if case involves moral turpitude
B) Acceptable if affidavits are complete
C) Invalid; only the court decides after hearing
D) Acceptable; prosecutors determine guilt
  • 60. During trial, the judge restricts cross-examination to “two questions per witness.” Assess.
A) Valid in minor offenses
B) Valid if both parties agree
C) Invalid; violates right to full cross-examination
D) Valid for efficiency
  • 61. The accused was arraigned before the resolution of a pending motion to quash. Evaluate.
A) Proper only if accused insists
B) Improper; motion to quash must be resolved first
C) Proper; arraignment must always proceed
D) Proper if judge wants to expedite
  • 62. Court approves plea bargaining even though prosecution objects. Assess.
A) Proper; court has full authority
B) Proper if defense offers restitution
C) Proper only if offense is light
D) Improper; prosecution consent is essential
  • 63. Prosecution introduces a new witness after resting, without giving defense time to prepare. Evaluate.
A) Invalid; violates due process and right to rebut
B) Valid if trial is almost finished
C) Valid if witness is material
D) Valid; court may accept additional evidence anytime
  • 64. During trial, judge repeatedly prevents defense from presenting witnesses, claiming they are “unnecessary.” Evaluate.
A) Grossly improper; violates right to present evidence
B) Valid to shorten trial
C) Valid only if counsel agrees
D) Valid if prosecution evidence is strong
  • 65. During direct examination, a prosecutor asks a child witness simple, age-appropriate questions. This illustrates:
A) Hearsay objection
B) Improper leading
C) Cross-examination
D) Proper direct examination considering age
  • 66. During direct examination, a witness hesitates to answer due to trauma. What is correct?
A) Dismiss the witness
B) Allow short breaks and comforting assistance
C) Force the witness
D) Ignore and proceed
  • 67. Defense attorney asks leading questions during direct examination. This is:
A) Always prohibited
B) Always permitted
C) Generally improper, except for hostile or child witnesses
D) Required to expedite trial
  • 68. Prosecution presents evidence to refresh a witness’ memory. This occurs?
A) During cross-examination
B) Only for expert witnesses
C) During direct examination
D) Only during rebuttal
  • 69. Witness is asked to describe events chronologically during direct examination. This illustrates?
A) Leading question
B) Proper direct examination strategy
C) Improper narrative
D) Hearsay
  • 70. Child witness testifies with a social worker assisting in simple language. This demonstrates?
A) Leading questioning
B) Improper testimony
C) Accommodation for child witnesses
D) Violation of impartiality
  • 71. During cross-examination, the attorney asks questions to test the witness’ perception and memory. This is?
A) Cross-examination strategy
B) Hearsay
C) Direct examination
D) Improper leading
  • 72. Defense attorney impeaches a witness using prior inconsistent statements. This procedure is:
A) Improper if done in court
B) Direct examination
C) Cross-examination
D) Rebuttal evidence
  • 73. During direct examination, witness refers to a written report to explain events. This is:
A) Leading question
B) Reading testimony verbatim (improper)
C) Cross-examination
D) Refreshing memory (proper)
  • 74. Judge allows child witness to testify with simple props. This is an example of?
A) Cross-examination tactic
B) Leading question
C) Proper accommodation to enhance understanding
D) Improper demonstration
  • 75. Prosecutor asks a child witness to recount events in their own words, without suggesting answers. This demonstrates?
A) Hearsay
B) Cross-examination
C) Proper direct examination
D) Leading question
  • 76. During cross-examination, attorney asks witness to clarify statements made in direct examination. This illustrates?
A) Hearsay evidence
B) Direct examination
C) Cross-examination technique
D) Improper impeachment
  • 77. Child witness becomes scared and refuses to answer. Court allows testimony via closed-circuit TV. This is?
A) Leading question
B) Cross-examination violation
C) Improper
D) Proper accommodation for child witness protection
  • 78. During direct examination, witness is asked only open-ended questions to narrate the incident. This exemplifies:
A) Hearsay
B) Leading questions
C) Proper direct examination
D) Cross-examination
  • 79. Attorney asks witness about contradictory statements made outside court to challenge credibility. This occurs during?
A) Pre-trial conference
B) Direct examination
C) Preliminary investigation
D) Cross-examination
  • 80. Child witness testifies in the presence of a familiar adult to reduce stress while questions are simplified. This procedure is
A) Improper coaching
B) Leading question
C) Proper witness protection and accommodation
D) Cross-examination violation
  • 81. Bail primarily exists to?
A) Ensure accused appears during trial
B) Reduce penalty
C) Replace detention with probation
D) Guarantee acquittal
  • 82. During arraignment, accused pleads “not guilty.” What happens next?
A) Pre-trial is scheduled
B) Case dismissed
C) Trial begins immediately
D) Bail granted automatically
  • 83. Pre-trial aims to?
A) Schedule judgment
B) Negotiate plea bargaining and mark evidence
C) Assign a prosecutor
D) Decide civil liabilities
  • 84. Cross-examination of witnesses primarily tests?
A) Prosecutor’s theory
B) Judge’s discretion
C) Witness’s memory, perception, and credibility
D) Procedural technicalities
  • 85. Child witnesses may testify using props or closed-circuit television to?
A) Influence testimony
B) Facilitate understanding and protect them from trauma
C) Replace direct questioning
D) Make trial faster
  • 86. Leading questions are generally allowed during cross-examination to
A) Test credibility and impeach statements
B) Suggest answers to witnesses
C) Accelerate trial
D) Violate rights
  • 87. Direct examination should be conducted with?
A) Open-ended questions
B) Leading questions only
C) Closed-ended questions only
D) Hearsay questions
  • 88. In impeachment, prior inconsistent statements are used to?
A) Challenge witness credibility
B) Confirm hearsay
C) End trial
D) Support witness credibility
  • 89. Witness testimony may be refreshed by?
A) Leading questions
B) Reviewing documents or reports to recall facts
C) Oral suggestion
D) Replacing witness
  • 90. Proper cross-examination allows?
A) Testing witness statements and credibility
B) Introducing new evidence without notice
C) Unlimited questioning without relevance
D) Skipping procedural rules
  • 91. Child witness testifies with assistance to?
A) Influence verdict
B) Protect emotional well-being
C) Avoid cross-examination
D) Violate impartiality
  • 92. Judge ensures searching inquiry during plea to verify
A) Guilt
B) Sentence reduction
C) Plea bargaining
D) Voluntariness and understanding
  • 93. Pre-trial ensures
A) Verdict announcement
B) Clarification of issues, marking of evidence, and plea bargaining
C) Trial starts immediately
D) Witness selection only
  • 94. Arraignment involves
A) Evidence evaluation
B) Informing accused of charges and receiving plea
C) Bail denial
D) Trial on the merits
  • 95. Arrest without a warrant is allowed when?
A) In flagrante delicto or hot pursuit
B) Accused looks guilty
C) Ordinance requires detention
D) Officer has mere suspicion
  • 96. Search and seizure without a warrant is valid if?
A) Consent is given
B) Any officer orders it
C) Evidence is in plain view and exigent circumstances exist
D) Officer feels probable cause
  • 97. Inquest proceeding occurs when?
A) Pre-trial is conducted
B) Bail is granted
C) Case is dismissed
D) Suspect is arrested without warrant and brought to prosecutor within 12 hours
  • 98. Preliminary investigation determines?
A) Guilt
B) Probable cause
C) Bail amount
D) Sentence
  • 99. Barangay Justice System aims to?
A) Replace courts
B) Settle disputes amicably before filing in courts
C) Collect fines
D) Conduct arrest
  • 100. Witness presentation, including child witnesses, must be conducted using?
A) Hearsay evidence
B) Coercion
C) Leading questions only
D) Age-appropriate, understandable, and trauma-sensitive methods
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