- 1. Which pillar of the Philippine Criminal Justice System is often referred to as the "prime mover" because it initiates the operation of the entire machinery upon the commission of a crime?
A) Judiciary
B) Corrections
C) Law Enforcement initiates PCJS process
D) Prosecution
- 2. Which agency under the Department of Justice (DOJ) serves as the main investigative body specializing in complex, high profile, and transnational crimes?
A) Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
B) Bureau of Immigration
C) National Bureau of Investigation
D) Philippine National Police
- 3. What informal summary proceeding is conducted by a prosecutor to determine the legality of an arrest made without a warrant?.
A) Summary Hearing
B) Inquest Proceedings
C) Pre-Trial Conference
D) Preliminary Investigation
- 4. The Bureau of Jail Management and Penology (BJMP) exercises administrative control over which type of detention facilities?
A) National Penitentiaries
B) City, Municipal, and District Jails
C) Provincial Jails
D) Youth Rehabilitation Centers
- 5. Under Republic Act No. 7160 (Local Government Code), what body administers the Barangay Justice System (Katarungang Pambarangay)?
A) Sangguniang Barangay
B) Barangay Peacekeeping Action Team
C) People's Law Enforcement Board
D) Lupong Tagapamayapa.
- 6. Who has the sole authority to grant Executive Clemency, including absolute pardon, conditional pardon, reprieve, and commutation of sentence?
A) President of the Philippines
B) Board of Pardons and Parole
C) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
D) Secretary of Justice
- 7. Under Presidential Decree No. 968, as amended by RA 10707, a grant of probation is a matter of:
A) Statutory Obligation
B) Executive Clemency
C) Absolute Right
D) Judicial discretion
- 8. What form of executive clemency abolishes and puts into oblivion the offense itself, usually granted to political offenders with the concurrence of Congress?
A) Amnesty
B) Commutation
C) Reprieve
D) Absolute Pardon
- 9. What primary law governs the juvenile justice and welfare system in the Philippines, establishing the minimum age of criminal responsibility?
A) RA 8353
B) RA 9262
C) RA 7610
D) RA 9344
- 10. Under RA 9344 as amended by RA 10630, what is the minimum age of absolute criminal irresponsibility?
A) 18 years of age
B) 12 years of age
C) 9 years of age
D) 15 years old or under exempt.
- 11. The Parole and Probation Administration (PPA) is an attached agency under which executive department?
A) Office of the President
B) Department of Justice
C) Department of the Interior and Local Government
D) Department of Social Welfare and Development
- 12. Which pillar is responsible for the adjudication of cases, determination of guilt, and imposition of lawful penalties?
A) Law Enforcement
B) Prosecution
C) Judiciary
D) Community
- 13. Provincial Jails in the Philippines are managed and supervised by which government entity?
A) Bureau of Corrections
B) Provincial Government
C) BJMP
D) Department of Justice
- 14. What restorative philosophy emphasizes repairing the harm caused by criminal behavior through conciliation and
community involvement?
A) Utilitarian Justice
B) Restorative Justice
C) Retributive Justice
D) Deterrent Justice
- 15. A law enforcer arrests a suspect who was caught in the act of committing a crime. Under what doctrine does this fall?
A) Escaped Prisoner Arrest
B) Hot Pursuit Arrest
C) Citizen's Discretionary Arrest
D) In Flagrante Delicto Arrest
- 16. What is the maximum penalty of imprisonment for an offense to be covered by the Katarungang Pambarangay
conciliation requirement?
A) Any crime regardless of penalty
B) Not exceeding 1 year or fine not exceeding 5,000 pesos
C) Exceeding 6 years
D) Not exceeding 6 months or fine not exceeding 1,000 pesos
- 17. Which component agency of BuCor is located in Muntinlupa City and houses maximum, medium, and minimum security
prisoners?
A) San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm
B) New Bilibid Prison
C) Sablayan Prison and Penal Farm
D) Iwahig Prison and Penal Farm
- 18. On what historic date was the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) adopted by the United Nations General
Assembly?
A) December 10, 1948
B) June 12, 1898
C) December 30, 1950
D) October 24, 1945
- 19. Which Republic Act defines and penalizes crimes against International Humanitarian Law, Genocide, and other Crimes
Against Humanity in the Philippines?
A) RA 10353
B) RA 9851
C) RA 9745
D) RA 7438
- 20. Under Section 12, Article III of the 1987 Philippine Constitution, any confession or admission obtained in violation of
custodial investigation rights is:
A) Voidable upon motion of defense counsel
B) Admissible if corroborated by physical evidence
C) Inadmissible for any purpose in any proceeding
D) Admissible at the discretion of the trial judge
- 21. Republic Act No. 7438 explicitly defines the rights of persons:
A) Subject to Extradition Proceedings
B) Convicted of Capital Offenses
C) Arrested, Detained or Under Custodial Investigation
D) Under Parole and Probation
- 22. What judicial remedy is available to any person whose right to life, liberty, and security is violated or threatened with
violation by an unlawful act or omission of a public official or private entity?
A) Writ of Kalikasan
B) Writ of Habeas Corpus
C) Writ of Amparo
D) Writ of Habeas Data
- 23. The Anti-Torture Act of 2009 is codified as which Special Penal Law?
- 24. What prerogative writ provides a remedy for any person whose right to privacy in life, liberty, or security is violated or
threatened by an unlawful gathering or storing of data or information?
A) Writ of Mandamus
B) Writ of Habeas Corpus
C) Writ of Habeas Data
D) Writ of Quo Warranto
- 25. Under the 1987 Philippine Constitution, the Commission on Human Rights (CHR) is created as an independent body
with what primary nature of powers?
A) Adjudicative and Prosecutorial
B) Investigatory and Fact-Finding
C) Judicial and Legislative
D) Punitive and Correctional
- 26. Republic Act No. 10353 is landmark human rights legislation in Asia that criminalizes which act?
A) Domestic Violence
B) Enforced or Involuntary Disappearance
C) Cyber Harassment
D) Human Trafficking
- 27. Which doctrine excludes evidence obtained through an illegal search or warrantless arrest from being presented in
court?
A) Fruit of the Poisonous Tree Doctrine
B) Plain View Doctrine
C) Silver Platter Doctrine
D) Res Gestae Doctrine
- 28. Under RA 7438, an extrajudicial confession made by a person under custodial investigation must be in writing and
signed in the presence of:
A) The Barangay Chairman
B) Any police officer on duty
C) Independent and competent counsel, preferably of his own choice
D) A Prosecutor
- 29. What right guaranteed in Section 1, Article III of the Constitution commands that no person shall be deprived of life,
liberty, or property without:
A) Legislative approval
B) Due process of law
C) Prior judicial conviction
D) Executive authorization
- 30. Which classification of human rights cannot be suspended, restricted, or derogated even in times of war or national
public emergency?
A) Economic Rights
B) Cultural Rights
C) Non-Derogable (Absolute) Rights
D) Political Rights
- 31. Can an extrajudicial confession executed without the assistance of counsel be validated by a subsequent ratification made
before a judge?
A) Yes, if witnessed by relatives
B) Yes, if the prosecutor agrees
C) Yes, provided it is voluntary
D) No, it remains permanently inadmissible
- 32. The privilege of the Writ of Habeas Corpus may be suspended by the President only in which two constitutionally
specified grounds?
A) Rebellion or Invasion, when public safety requires it
B) Martial Law or Widespread Corruption
C) Public Health Emergency or War
D) Insurrection or Economic Crisis
- 33. Who among the following may be held criminally liable under RA 9745 for failing to prevent or report acts of torture
committed by subordinates?
A) The custodial doctor
B) Desk Officers on duty
C) Only the direct perpetrator
D) Superior Officers under the Doctrine of Command Responsibility
- 34. Felonies committed by means of deceit (dolo) require the concurrence of which three essential elements?
A) Motive, Opportunity, and Means
B) Freedom, Intelligence, and Intent
C) Malice, Force, and Coercion
D) Negligence, Imprudence, and Lack of Skill
- 35. Article 4, Paragraph 2 of the Revised Penal Code penalizes an "Impossible Crime." Which of the following is a requisite
of an impossible crime?
A) That the act performed would be an offense against persons or property
B) That the perpetrator was forced by violence
C) That the crime was committed due to negligence
D) That the offense is actually completed
- 36. A person intends to kill B by firing a gun at B's bedroom. Unbeknownst to A, B had already died of a heart attack an
hour earlier. What crime, if any, did A commit?
A) Impossible Crime
B) Attempted Homicide
C) Frustrated Murder
D) No crime because B was already dead
- 37. In which stage of execution does the offender perform all acts of execution which would produce the felony as a
consequence but which, nevertheless, do not produce it by reason of causes independent of the will of the perpetrator?
A) Attempted
B) Consummated
C) Frustrated
D) Proposed
- 38. Which justifying circumstance under Article 11 requires: (1) Unlawful aggression, (2) Reasonable necessity of the means
employed, and (3) Lack of sufficient provocation on the part of the person defending himself?
A) Avoidance of Greater Evil
B) Fulfillment of Duty
C) Self-Defense
D) Obedience to Superior Order
- 39. What is the indispensable requisite without which self-defense, defense of relatives, or defense of strangers cannot be
successfully invoked?
A) Reasonable means
B) Unlawful aggression
C) Absence of motive
D) Lack of provocation
- 40. Insanity or imbecility under Article 12 of the Revised Penal Code is classified as what type of circumstance?
A) Exempting Circumstance
B) Mitigating Circumstance
C) Justifying Circumstance
D) Absolutory Cause
- 41. What is the legal effect of a Justifying Circumstance compared to an Exempting Circumstance?
A) Both merely reduce the penalty by one degree
B) Justifying means no crime and no civil liability; Exempting means there is a crime but no criminal liability (civil liability remains)
C) Justifying removes criminal liability but leaves civil liability; Exempting removes both
D) Both remove criminal and civil liability entirely
- 42. Treachery (Alevosia) is an aggravating circumstance under Article 14. For treachery to be appreciated, what is required?
A) Means of execution were employed to ensure safety of offender from any defense by the victim
B) The crime was planned days before execution
C) The offender used superior strength
D) The offender committed the crime at nighttime
- 43. What type of aggravating circumstance changes the nature of the crime (e.g., qualifying homicide to murder)?
A) Generic Aggravating
B) Inherent Aggravating
C) Qualifying Aggravating
D) Specific Aggravating
- 44. Under Article 17, who are considered principals by indispensable cooperation?
A) Those who profit themselves by the effects of the crime
B) Those who directly force or induce others to execute the act
C) Those who cooperate in the execution of the offense by another act without which it would not have been accomplished
D) Those who take a direct part in the execution of the act
- 45. Persons who, having knowledge of the commission of the crime, take part subsequent to its commission by concealing the
body or effects of the crime are:
A) Accessories
B) Principals
C) Accomplices
D) Conspirators
- 46. What type of complex crime exists under Article 48 when a single act constitutes two or more grave or less grave
felonies?
A) Complex Crime Proper (Delito Complejo)
B) Special Complex Crime
C) Continuous Crime
D) Compound Crime (Delito Compuesto)
- 47. Under Article 89 of the RPC, how is total criminal liability extinguished upon the death of the convict?
A) Criminal liability is converted into pecuniary fine
B) Personal liabilities are extinguished; civil liability survives automatically
C) Death extinguishes criminal liability, and civil liability solely arising from the crime is also extinguished
D) Civil liability is transferred to heirs in all cases
- 48. What principle of criminal law provides that penal laws shall have no retroactive effect, except when favorable to the
accused who is not a habitual delinquent?
A) Extraterritoriality
B) Territoriality
C) Generality
D) Prospectivity
- 49. What is the duration of the divisible penalty of Prision Mayor under the Revised Penal Code?
A) 6 months and 1 day to 6 years
B) 12 years and 1 day to 20 years
C) 6 years and 1 day to 12 years
D) 20 years and 1 day to 40 years
- 50. Every person criminally liable for a felony is also civilly liable under Article 100. Civil liability includes which three
elements?
A) Pardon, Commutation, and Parole
B) Restitution, Reparation of damage, and Indemnification for consequential damages
C) Fine, Forfeiture, and Imprisonment
D) Community service, Probation, and Costs
- 51. What crime is committed by a person owing allegiance to the Philippines who levies war against it or adheres to its
enemies, giving them aid or comfort?
A) Sedition
B) Rebellion
C) Coup d'etat
D) Treason
- 52. What crime is committed under Article 148 when a person attacks, employs force, or seriously resists any person in
authority while engaged in the performance of official duties?
A) Direct Assault
B) Tumultuous Affray
C) Resistance and Disobedience
D) Indirect Assault
- 53. A public officer who takes and appropriates public funds entrusted to him by reason of his office commits:
A) Malversation of Public Funds
B) Estafa
C) Illegal Exaction
D) Qualified Theft
- 54. What is the key distinction between Direct Bribery (Art. 210) and Indirect Bribery (Art. 211)?
A) Direct Bribery is a felony; Indirect Bribery is a misdemeanor
B) Direct Bribery applies only to judges
C) Direct Bribery requires an agreement to perform or omit an act; Indirect Bribery accepts gifts by reason of office without prior agreement
D) Direct Bribery involves private persons; Indirect involves public officers
- 55. What felony is committed when a person kills his father, mother, child (whether legitimate or illegitimate), or legitimate
spouse?
A) Homicide
B) Infanticide
C) Murder
D) Parricide
- 56. Killing a child less than three days (72 hours) of age constitutes what crime?
A) Murder
B) Abortion
C) Parricide
D) Infanticide
- 57. The unlawful taking of personal property belonging to another, with intent to gain, accomplished with violence against or
intimidation of persons, is:
A) Theft
B) Estafa
C) Robbery
D) Malicious Mischief
- 58. If a domestic servant takes money from her employer's safe without consent, intent to gain, but without violence or
intimidation, what crime is committed?
A) Simple Theft
B) Estafa
C) Robbery
D) Qualified Theft
- 59. Under Article 266-A of the RPC (as amended by RA 8353), Rape by sexual assault is committed when:
A) An instrument or object is inserted into the genital or anal orifice of another person without consent
B) Carnal knowledge is achieved through force
C) There is promise of marriage
D) The victim is seduced by deceit
- 60. What Special Penal Law governs the unlawful issuance of checks without sufficient funds?
A) RA 9262
B) RA 9165
C) RA 6539
D) Batas Pambansa Blg. 22
- 61. Under Republic Act No. 9165 (Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002), what is the penalty for Sale, Trading, or
Administration of dangerous drugs regardless of quantity?
A) Life Imprisonment to Death and a fine
B) Prision Correccional
C) Prision Mayor
D) 6 years and 1 day to 12 years
- 62. Under RA 9262 (Anti-VAWC Act), who CANNOT be held liable as a principal offender for acts of violence against
women and their children?
A) A stranger who has no relationship with the woman
B) A former boyfriend who had a sexual/dating relationship
C) The father of the woman's child
D) The husband of the victim
- 63. What Republic Act is known as the "Comprehensive Firearms and Ammunition Regulation Act"?
A) RA 8294
B) RA 9165
C) RA 10883
D) RA 10591
- 64. What is the crime committed under RA 10883 when motor vehicles are taken with intent to gain, without consent, by
means of violence or intimidation?
A) New Anti-Carnapping Act of 2016
B) Qualified Theft of Vehicle
C) Robbery of Vehicle
D) Hijacking
- 65. A public officer who makes false entries in an official document to distort the truth commits:
A) Falsification by a Public Officer (Art. 171)
B) False Testimony
C) Perjury
D) Forgery
- 66. Making a false statement under oath upon a material matter before a competent officer authorized to administer oath
constitutes:
A) False Testimony in Civil Cases
B) Contempt of Court
C) Perjury (Art. 183)
D) Falsification
- 67. Under RA 11648, what is the statutory age of sexual consent in the Philippines to determine statutory rape?
A) Under 12 years of age
B) Under 18 years of age
C) Under 14 years of age
D) Under 16 years of age
- 68. Under Rule 128, Section 3 of the Revised Rules on Evidence, evidence is admissible when it is:
A) Direct and Conclusive
B) Relevant to the issue and Not Excluded by the Constitution, law, or rules
C) Primary and Original
D) Material and Clear
- 69. What rule requires that when the subject of inquiry is the contents of a document, no evidence is admissible other than
the original document itself (subject to exceptions)?
A) Original Document Rule (Best Evidence Rule)
B) Res Inter Alios Acta Rule
C) Hearsay Rule
D) Parol Evidence Rule
- 70. What rule forbids the presentation of oral or extrinsic evidence to modify, explain, or add to the terms of a written
agreement?
A) Best Evidence Rule
B) Secondary Evidence Rule
C) Doctrine of Completeness
D) Parol Evidence Rule (Rule 130, Sec 10)
- 71. What exception to the Hearsay rule applies to statements made by a dying person under a consciousness of impending death regarding the cause and circumstances of his death?
A) Declaration Against Interest
B) Dying Declaration (Rule 130, Sec 38)
C) Pedigree Declaration
D) Res Gestae
- 72. Statements made by a person while a startling occurrence is taking place or immediately prior or subsequent thereto with respect to the circumstances thereof are admissible as:
A) Part of the Res Gestae (Rule 130, Sec 44)
B) Verbal Acts
C) Admission by Silence
D) Dying Declaration
- 73. Under the Disqualification by Reason of Marriage (Marital Disqualification Rule), can a husband or wife testify against each other in a criminal case?
A) Yes, without consent during marriage
B) No, except in a civil case by one against the other, or in a criminal case for a crime committed by one against the other or the direct descendants/ascendants
C) Yes, provided the marriage was annulled
D) Never under any circumstanc
- 74. What degree of proof is required to establish the guilt of the accused in a criminal prosecution?
A) ubstantial Evidence
B) Proof Beyond Reasonable Doubt
C) Preponderance of Evidence
D) Clear and Convincing Evidence
- 75. What quantum of evidence is required in administrative cases before executive bodies?
A) Substantial Evidence
B) Proof Beyond Reasonable Doubt
C) Clear and Convincing Evidence
D) Preponderance of Evidence
- 76. What quantum of evidence is required in civil cases to establish a claim?
A) Substantial Evidence
B) Proof Beyond Reasonable Doubt
C) Absolute Certainty
D) Preponderance of Evidence
- 77. Under the doctrine of "Res Inter Alios Acta", the rights of a party cannot be prejudiced by an act, declaration, or omission of:
A) Another
B) The Judge
C) Himself
D) His Counsel
- 78. Under Section 21 of RA 9165, what procedural standard must law enforcers observe to guarantee the integrity and identity of seized dangerous drugs?
A) Best Evidence Rule
B) Fruit of the Poisonous Tree
C) Chain of Custody Rule
D) Judicial Notice
- 79. Facts which are of public knowledge, or are capable of unquestionable demonstration, or ought to be known to judges because of their judicial functions may be taken by courts as:
A) Mandatory Judicial Notice (Rule 129)
B) Presumptive Evidence
C) Hearsay Evidence
D) Judicial Admission
- 80. An admission made by a party in the course of the proceedings in the same case does not require proof. This is known as:
A) Judicial Notice
B) Extrajudicial Admission
C) Judicial Admission (Rule 129, Sec 4)
D) Implied Confession
- 81. Evidence addressing the physical senses of the court (e.g., weapon used in a crime) is classified as:
A) Object or Real Evidence (Rule 130, Sec 1)
B) Documentary Evidence
C) Testimonial Evidence
D) Secondary Evidence
- 82. Burden of Proof (Onus Probandi) in a criminal case always rests upon:
A) The Accused to prove innocence
B) The Court to investigate
C) The Defense Counsel
D) The Prosecution to prove guilt
- 83. Under the Revised Rules on Evidence, when a witness testifies to an opinion on a matter requiring special knowledge, skill, experience, or training, he is an:
A) Expert Witness (Rule 130, Sec 49)
B) Ordinary Witness
C) Hostile Witness
D) Character Witness
- 84. Under Rule 110, Section 1 of the Rules of Court, how are criminal actions instituted for offenses where a preliminary investigation is required?
A) By filing an arrest warrant with the police
B) By serving notice to the accused
C) By filing the complaint directly with the Regional Trial Court
D) By filing the complaint with the proper officer for the purpose of conducting preliminary investigation
- 85. What is the formal charge subscribed by the prosecutor and filed in court called?
A) Complaint
B) Information (Rule 110, Sec 4)
C) Affidavit-Complaint
D) Indictment Warrant
- 86. A Preliminary Investigation is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether there is sufficient ground to engender a well-founded belief that a crime has been committed. It is required for offenses punishable by imprisonment of at least:
A) 4 years, 2 months and 1 day
B) 1 year, 2 months and 1 day
C) 6 months and 1 day
D) 6 years and 1 day
- 87. Under Rule 113, Section 5(a), a peace officer may make a warrantless arrest when, in his presence, the person to be arrested has committed, is actually committing, or is attempting to commit an offense. This is known as:
A) Escaped Convict Arrest
B) Stop and Frisk
C) In Flagrante Delicto Arrest
D) Hot Pursuit Arrest
- 88. When an offense has just been committed, and the arresting officer has probable cause to believe based on personal knowledge of facts or circumstances that the person to be arrested has committed it, the lawful warrantless arrest is under:
A) Escaped Prisoner Rule
B) In Flagrante Delicto
C) Administrative Custody
D) Hot Pursuit (Rule 113, Sec 5[b])
- 89. What security is given for the release of a person in custody of the law, furnished by him or a guarantor, to guarantee his appearance before any court?
A) Recognizance
B) Bail (Rule 114, Sec 1)
C) Executive Clearance
D) Bond Certificate
- 90. Under Section 13, Article III of the Constitution and Rule 114, bail is a matter of RIGHT before conviction in which cases?
A) All offenses NOT punishable by Reclusion Perpetua when evidence of guilt is strong
B) All cases without exception
C) Only light offenses
D) Capital offenses
- 91. The formal reading of the complaint or information to the accused in open court, informing him of the nature of the charge and asking him whether he pleads guilty or not guilty, is:
A) Pre-Trial Conference
B) Arraignment (Rule 116)
C) Promulgation
D) Preliminary Investigation
- 92. What motion may the accused file before entering his plea to challenge the legal sufficiency or validity of the complaint or information?
A) Motion for New Trial
B) Demurrer to Evidence
C) Motion for Reconsideration
D) Motion to Quash (Rule 117)
- 93. Which of the following is a requisite for Double Jeopardy (Rule 117, Sec 7) to attach?
A) All of the above
B) Accused had been arraigned and pleaded to the charge
C) Case was dismissed or terminated without express consent of the accused (or upon acquittal/conviction)
D) Valid complaint or information filed in a competent court
- 94. What mandatory stage in criminal procedure considers plea bargaining, marking of exhibits, and stipulation of facts prior to trial?
A) Custodial Interrogation
B) Inquest
C) Pre-Trial (Rule 118)
D) Preliminary Investigation
- 95. After the prosecution rests its case, the defense may move for dismissal of the action on the ground of insufficiency of evidence. This motion is called:
A) Motion to Quash
B) Motion for Directed Verdict
C) Demurrer to Evidence (Rule 119, Sec 23)
D) Motion for Acquittal
- 96. Under Rule 126, a Search Warrant issued by a judge remains valid for how many days from its date?
A) 15 days
B) 10 days (Rule 126, Sec 10)
C) 30 days
D) 5 days
- 97. An order in writing issued in the name of the People of the Philippines, signed by a judge, commanding a peace officer to search for personal property and bring it before the court is a:
A) Subpoena Duces Tecum
B) Search Warrant (Rule 126, Sec 1)
C) Warrant of Arrest
D) Writ of Execution
- 98. Under what exception may police officers seize illegal contraband that is inadvertently seen in plain sight during a lawful police action?
A) Stop and Frisk
B) Plain View Doctrine
C) Consent Search
D) Exigent Circumstance
- 99. When a police officer takes the witness stand to testify, the first examination conducted by the prosecutor who called him is the:
A) Direct Examination (Rule 132, Sec 5)
B) Re-Cross Examination
C) Re-Direct Examination
D) Cross-Examination
- 100. During court testimony, when defense counsel asks leading questions to test the credibility, accuracy, and truthfulness of a police witness, the examination is:
A) Preliminary Examination
B) Impeachment Hearing
C) Cross-Examination (Rule 132, Sec 6)
D) Direct Examination
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