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Cellular differentiation - Quiz
Contributed by: Heaton
  • 1. Which three transcription factors are highly expressed in undifferentiated embryonic stem cells?
A) Klf4, c-Myc, and Oct4
B) OCT4, SOX2, and NANOG
C) PRC1, PRC2, and Oct4
D) Sox2, Nanog, and TrxG
  • 2. What is the result of increased levels of Oct4 and decreased levels of Sox2?
A) Suppression of NANOG
B) Neural ectodermal fate
C) Mesendodermal fate
D) Maintenance of pluripotency
  • 3. Which transcription factor is necessary to suppress for differentiation to occur?
A) NANOG
B) Klf4
C) SOX2
D) OCT4
  • 4. What histone modification does PRC2 catalyze?
A) Trimethylation of H3K4
B) Mono-ubiquitinylation of H2A
C) Histone acetylation
D) Di- and tri-methylation of H3K27
  • 5. What is the primary function of PRC1?
A) Promoting gene activation
B) Catalyzing mono-ubiquitinylation of H2AK119
C) Maintaining pluripotency
D) Trimethylation of H3K4
  • 6. What happens when PRC1 or PRC2 genes are deleted in ES cells?
A) Increased expression of lineage-affiliated genes
B) Stable maintenance of pluripotency
C) Inhibition of TrxG recruitment
D) Decreased differentiation potential
  • 7. Which group of proteins acts in opposition to Polycomb group (PcG) proteins?
A) Trithorax group (TrxG) proteins
B) Histone methyltransferases
C) RNA polymerase II
D) Pioneer factors
  • 8. What modification do TrxG proteins catalyze to promote gene activation?
A) Demethylation of H3K27
B) Trimethylation of H3K4
C) Mono-ubiquitinylation of H2A
D) Tri-methylation of H3K27
  • 9. What characterizes a 'bivalent domain' at developmental loci?
A) Constitutive high expression
B) Permanent silencing of all genes
C) High levels of DNA methylation
D) Competition between PcG and TrxG complexes
  • 10. How does SOX2 influence neural ectodermal fate?
A) It suppresses NANOG but not SOX2
B) Decreased levels of SOX2 promote neural ectodermal fate
C) Increased levels of SOX2 promote neural ectodermal fate
D) It has no effect on germ layer selection
  • 11. PcG-deficient ES cells have what specific problem regarding differentiation?
A) They cannot maintain the differentiated phenotype
B) They cannot initiate differentiation
C) They are forced into a neural fate
D) They express excessive amounts of NANOG
  • 12. What is the function of OCT4 in relation to neural ectodermal fate?
A) It is not expressed in the presence of SOX2
B) It has no function regarding neural fate
C) It promotes neural ectodermal genes
D) It actively suppresses neural ectodermal genes
  • 13. What is one hypothesis regarding the cause of cancers mentioned in the text?
A) Excessive gene expression
B) Over-differentiation of cells
C) Dedifferentiation as an aberration
D) Loss of cell culture ability
  • 14. What is reversine?
A) A gene regulatory network
B) A type of stem cell
C) A purine analog
D) A protein found in worms
  • 15. What is the focus of the systems biology approach to developmental biology?
A) How cells revert to an earlier stage
B) The effects of purine analogs on human immunity
C) The random selection of genes for expression
D) How developmental mechanisms interact to produce morphogenesis
  • 16. According to the alternative view mentioned, what is the cause of cellular differentiation?
A) A Darwinian selective process occurring among cells
B) The change in cell shape in the laboratory
C) A predefined genetic roadmap
D) The administration of chemical analogs
  • 17. What life forms besides animals exhibit dedifferentiation?
A) Archaea
B) Viruses
C) Plants
D) Prions
  • 18. What is another term used in the text for dedifferentiation?
A) Stochasticity
B) Integration
C) Morphogenesis
D) Redifferentiation
  • 19. What do manifestly dedifferentiated cells perform as after treatment with reversine?
A) Stem cells
B) Specialized neurons
C) Muscle fibers
D) Cancerous tumors
  • 20. How many basic categories of cells make up the mammalian body?
A) Five
B) Three
C) Two
D) Four
  • 21. What is the approximate number of cells in an adult human body?
A) 37.2 billion
B) 3.72 trillion
C) 37.2 trillion
D) 3.72 billion
  • 22. What term describes cells that have two copies of each chromosome?
A) Monoploid
B) Haploid
C) Diploid
D) Polyploid
  • 23. What is the hollow sphere of cells formed after fertilization called?
A) Blastula
B) Zygote
C) Blastocyst
D) Gastrula
  • 24. What are the cells of the inner cell mass capable of forming?
A) Virtually all human body tissues
B) An entire organism
C) Only skin cells
D) Only neural tissue
  • 25. How are cells that can form almost every cell type but not an entire organism described?
A) Multipotent
B) Pluripotent
C) Unipotent
D) Totipotent
  • 26. Which primary germ layer forms the skin and the nervous system?
A) Endoderm
B) Ectoderm
C) Blastoderm
D) Mesoderm
  • 27. Which primary germ layer forms the internal organ tissues?
A) Ectoderm
B) Epidermis
C) Endoderm
D) Mesoderm
  • 28. Bones and muscular tissue are formed by which primary germ layer?
A) Mesoderm
B) Endoderm
C) Dermis
D) Ectoderm
  • 29. When does cellular differentiation occur in a multicellular organism?
A) Only after reaching adulthood
B) Multiple times during development
C) Only when the organism is injured
D) Only during the embryonic stage
  • 30. What process is responsible for the changes in gene expression during differentiation?
A) Natural selection
B) Epigenetics
C) Genetic mutation
D) DNA recombination
  • 31. Does cellular differentiation typically involve a change in DNA sequence?
A) Yes, during aging
B) Yes, always
C) Yes, in stem cells only
D) No
  • 32. What is the term for cells that permanently leave the cell cycle?
A) Terminal differentiation
B) Pluripotency
C) Totipotency
D) Self-renewal
  • 33. What determines a cell's ability to differentiate into other cell types?
A) Cell potency
B) Cell size
C) Cell membrane thickness
D) Cell metabolic rate
  • 34. Which cells can differentiate into all cell types, including placental tissue?
A) Unipotent
B) Totipotent
C) Pluripotent
D) Multipotent
  • 35. What is the primary function of unipotent cells?
A) Permanent cell cycle arrest
B) Differentiating into all cell types
C) Self-renewal
D) Creating placental tissue
  • 36. What are the signaling molecules that convey information to control cellular differentiation often called?
A) Dormant receptors
B) Growth factors
C) Regulatory enzymes
D) Cytoskeletal proteins
  • 37. What term refers to the ability of cells and tissues to respond to external signals?
A) Competence
B) Induction
C) Dormancy
D) Asymmetry
  • 38. What causes asymmetric cell division according to the text?
A) Asymmetrically expressed maternal cytoplasmic determinants or signaling
B) The lack of enzymatic activity in the receptor
C) The uniform distribution of regulatory molecules
D) The absence of phosphorylation cascades
  • 39. Which molecule is specifically mentioned as an important type of intracellular differentiation control signal?
A) RNA molecules
B) Ligands
C) Growth factors
D) Receptors
  • 40. Which organism is mentioned as a model system for studying the evolution from unicellular to multicellular organisms?
A) Drosophila
B) Cave-dwelling fish
C) Surface-dwelling fish
D) Volvox
  • 41. Which of the following is mentioned as a possible type of attractor in cell-fate determination?
A) Linear attractor
B) Random attractor
C) Progenitor attractor
D) Strange attractor
  • 42. On which organism type does the epigenetic section focus primarily?
A) Plants
B) Unicellular eukaryotes
C) Bacteria
D) Mammals
  • 43. How are molecular processes involved in animal cell differentiation described in relation to evolution?
A) Entirely novel and unique to animals
B) Convergent with bacterial systems
C) Evolutionarily conserved
D) Randomly evolved
  • 44. Which researchers authored the 2011 paper on aberrant epigenomic programming in iPSCs?
A) Darwin and Wallace
B) Mendel and Morgan
C) Lister R, et al.
D) Watson and Crick
  • 45. What percentage of CG dinucleotides are typically methylated in ESCs and iPSCs?
A) 40%
B) 80%
C) 20%
D) 60%
  • 46. What percentage of CG dinucleotides are typically methylated in somatic cells?
A) 30%
B) 60%
C) 80%
D) 50%
  • 47. How many regions of differential CG dinucleotide methylation were discovered between ES and iPS cell lines?
A) 88
B) 44
C) 56
D) 1175
  • 48. What percentage of differentially methylated regions reflected the patterns of original progenitor somatic cells?
A) 51-56%
B) 44-49%
C) 1.5%
D) 88%
  • 49. What percentage of differentially methylated regions were dissimilar to both progenitor and embryonic cell lines?
A) 44-49%
B) 80%
C) 51-56%
D) 12%
  • 50. During in vitro-induced differentiation of iPSC lines, what percentage of hyper-methylated regions were transmitted?
A) 88%
B) 44%
C) 46%
D) 56%
  • 51. During in vitro-induced differentiation of iPSC lines, what percentage of hypo-methylated regions were transmitted?
A) 49%
B) 51%
C) 46%
D) 88%
  • 52. What process mediates the methylation of cytosine residues in CpG dinucleotides?
A) Histone acetyltransferase
B) Histone deacetylase
C) Pioneer factors
D) DNA methyltransferase
  • 53. What is the primary function of DNA methylation in gene regulation?
A) Increases chromatin accessibility
B) Promotes active transcription
C) Reverses histone acetylation
D) Maintains heritable repression
  • 54. In embryonic stem cells, most CpG sites are associated with which type of nucleosomes?
A) Deacetylated nucleosomes
B) H3K27me3-carrying
C) Heterochromatic nucleosomes
D) H3K4me3-carrying
  • 55. What determines transcription factor binding patterns in cells with the same DNA sequence?
A) Nucleotide sequence order
B) RNA interference
C) Total DNA quantity
D) Chromatin accessibility
  • 56. Which technique can determine if a nucleosome is covering a specific genomic binding site?
A) DNA methylation profiling
B) Histone acetylation mapping
C) Apoptosis assay
D) Chromatin immunoprecipitation assay
  • 57. What term describes the tightly bound, transcriptionally inactive state of DNA-nucleosome interactions?
A) Heterochromatin
B) Methylated euchromatin
C) Euchromatin
D) Pioneer chromatin
  • 58. What enzyme removes acetyl groups from Lysine residues in histones?
A) Histone acetyltransferases
B) DNA methyltransferases
C) Histone demethylases
D) Histone deacetylases
  • 59. Which histone modification is associated with gene activation?
A) DNA methylation
B) Histone deacetylation
C) H3K4me3
D) H3K27me3
  • 60. What is the characteristic of euchromatin?
A) Tightly bound
B) Transcriptionally inactive
C) Loosely bound
D) Always permanently repressed
  • 61. What residue in histones is targeted by acetyltransferases and deacetylases?
A) Guanine
B) Adenine
C) Cytosine
D) Lysine
  • 62. KDM1A interacts with which complex?
A) Mi-2/NuRD complex.
B) Smad complex.
C) PcG complex.
D) Jak-STAT3 complex.
  • 63. What happens when beta-catenin is disrupted in neural progenitors?
A) Increased apoptosis.
B) Decreased proliferation.
C) Rapid differentiation.
D) Increased proliferation.
  • 64. Which pathway is necessary and sufficient for maintaining mouse ESC pluripotency?
A) Jak-STAT3 pathway.
B) Notch signaling.
C) Bmi1 signaling.
D) Sonic hedgehog pathway.
  • 65. Sonic hedgehog (Shh) promotes the production of which PcG complex component?
A) KDM1A.
B) BMI1.
C) STAT3.
D) OCT4.
  • 66. In the alternative model of differentiation, what provides positional information?
A) Random cellular movement.
B) Genetic mutation rates.
C) Oxygen concentration levels.
D) Mechanical signalling by the cytoskeleton.
  • 67. What does BMI1 recognize?
A) Smad proteins.
B) H3K27me3.
C) Wnt3a.
D) OCT4.
  • 68. Which structures act as the cellular mechano-transducer for sensing matrix elasticity?
A) Mitochondria
B) Focal adhesions
C) Cell nuclei
D) Ribosomes
  • 69. Which protein isoforms generate the forces required for signaling early commitment markers?
A) Actin filaments
B) Non-muscle myosin IIa-c
C) Microtubules
D) Keratin filaments
  • 70. Which agent can inhibit non-muscle myosin II, making cells blind to matrix elasticity?
A) Chemokine
B) Bicellum
C) Blebbistatin
D) RhoA
  • 71. Which non-muscle myosin II isoform generates the least amount of force?
A) IIc
B) IIa
C) IIb
D) IId
  • 72. How old is the fossil Bicellum brasieri?
A) Fifty million years
B) Two billion years
C) Five hundred million years
D) One billion years
  • 73. Where is it suggested that differentiated multicellularity may have mainly occurred?
A) Arctic glaciers
B) Deep ocean trenches
C) Freshwater lakes
D) Volcanic vents
  • 74. What is the origin of mesenchymal stem cells (MSCs) mentioned in the text?
A) Skin epidermis
B) Bone marrow
C) Muscle tissue
D) Brain tissue
  • 75. What properties were induced in HEK 239 cells by providing a soft matrix?
A) Stem-cell like properties
B) Bone mineralization
C) Muscle fiber properties
D) Brain neuronal activity
  • 76. What provides the tension linked to stem-cell properties in cells?
A) Cell wall
B) Endoplasmic reticulum
C) Actin network
D) Nuclear envelope
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