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CLJ set A
Contributed by: ESCARIO
  • 1. Which agency is primarily mandated to enforce laws on illegal drugs in the
    Philippines?
A) Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency (PDEA)
B) Philippine National Police (PNP)
C) Bureau of Fire Protection (BFP)
D) National Bureau of Investigation (NBI)
  • 2. Which agency serves as the investigative arm of the Department of Justice for
    highprofile and complex crimes?
A) BFP
B) NBI
C) PNP
D) BJMP
  • 3. During inquest proceedings, what is the primary duty of the prosecutor?
A) Decide the proper penalty
B) Conduct trial
C) Determine validity of warrantless arrest and probable cause
D) Determine guilt beyond reasonable doubt
  • 4. Which court has jurisdiction over criminal offenses punishable by imprisonment
    exceeding six years?
A) Municipal Trial Court
B) Regional Trial Court
C) Court of Appeals
  • 5. A convict sentenced to eight years imprisonment will generally serve sentence in
    which institution
A) BJMP jail
B) PNP detention cell
C) Bureau of Corrections facility
D) Prosecutor’s Office
  • 6. Which constitutional principle guarantees fairness in the administration of justice?
A) Police power
B) Double jeopardy
C) Due process
D) Eminent domain
  • 7. A suspect under custodial investigation must be informed of his:
A) Miranda rights
B) Voting rights
C) Property rights
D) Political rights only
  • 8. Which requirement is essential before a judge may issue a search warrant?
A) Preliminary investigation
B) Conviction
C) Written confession
D) Probable cause
  • 9. Which right protects a person from being compelled to testify against himself?
A) Right against self-incrimination
B) Right to privacy
C) Right to suffrage
D) Right to travel
  • 10. Which writ protects a person against unlawful detention?
A) Writ of Certiorari
B) Writ of Execution
C) Writ of Habeas Corpus
D) Writ of Amparo
  • 11. Felonies committed with deliberate intent are known as:
A) Quasi-offenses
B) Mala prohibita
C) Culpa
D) Dolo
  • 12. Criminal laws are generally binding on all persons who live or sojourn in Philippine
    territory under the principle of:
A) Territoriality
B) Prospectivity
C) Generality
D) Retroactivity
  • 13. Felonies committed through negligence are called:
A) Culpable felonies
B) Consummated felonies
C) Impossible crimes
D) Intentional felonies
  • 14. When two or more persons agree and decide to commit a felony, there is:
A) Treachery
B) Proposal
C) Conspiracy
D) Recidivism
  • 15. A person who cooperates in the execution of the offense by previous or
    simultaneous acts is:
A) Principal
B) Accomplice
C) Witness
D) Accessory
  • 16. A person who profits from the effects of the crime after its commission is generally
    liable as:
A) Co-conspirator
B) Principal
C) Accomplice
D) Accessory
  • 17. Which of the following best describes conspiracy?
A) Mere knowledge of the crime
B) Presence at the crime scene
C) Unity of purpose and intention in committing the crime
D) Concealing evidence after the crime
  • 18. The offender performed all acts of execution but the felony was not produced due to
    causes independent of his will. The felony is:
A) Frustrated
B) Consummated
C) Attempted
D) Impossible
  • 19. The offender commences the commission of a felony directly by overt acts but does
    not perform all acts of execution. The felony is:
A) Attempted
B) Frustrated
C) Consummated
D) Impossible
  • 20. Which is an indivisible penalty?
A) Reclusion perpetua
B) Destierro
C) Prision correccional
D) Arresto menor
  • 21. Which circumstance exempts a person from criminal liability?
A) Insanity
B) Treachery
C) Voluntary surrender
D) Recidivism
  • 22. Voluntary surrender is a:
A) Exempting circumstance
B) Justifying circumstance
C) Aggravating circumstance
D) Mitigating circumstance
  • 23. Which aggravating circumstance exists when the offender employs mean tending
    directly to insure execution without risk to himself?
A) Treachery
B) Habituality
C) Cruelty
D) Dwelling
  • 24. Self-defense requires unlawful aggression, reasonable necessity of the means
    employed, and:
A) Relationship
B) Revenge
C) Intent to kill
D) Lack of sufficient provocation
  • 25. Recidivism exists when the offender:
A) Uses a deadly weapon
B) Escapes during trial
C) Repeats the same crime before conviction
D) Commits another crime after final conviction
  • 26. Passion and obfuscation are classified as a:
A) Mitigating circumstance
B) Qualifying circumstance
C) Justifying circumstance
D) Aggravating circumstance
  • 27. Criminal liability is totally extinguished by:
A) Escape from prison
B) Concealment
C) Death of the convict
D) Recidivism
  • 28. Service of sentence extinguishes:
A) Criminal liability
B) Civil liability only
C) Damages only
D) Subsidiary liability only
  • 29. Marriage between the offender and offended party in certain crimes against chastity
    may extinguish:
A) Civil liability only
B) Criminal liability
C) Political rights
D) Administrative liability
  • 30. Amnesty extinguishes:
A) Civil liability only
B) Criminal liability and penalty
C) Property rights
D) Evidence
  • 31. A person who kills another without any qualifying circumstance commits:
A) Infanticide
B) Murder
C) Homicide
D) Parricide
  • 32. Killing attended by treachery is:
A) Parricide
B) Infanticide
C) Murder
D) Homicide
  • 33. The killing of a child less than three days old is:
A) Infanticide
B) Homicide
C) Parricide
D) Murder
  • 34. Which crime is committed when physical injuries incapacitate the victim for labor for
    more than 30 days?
A) Slight physical injuries
B) Grave coercion
C) Grave threats
D) Serious physical injuries
  • 35. Illegal discharge of firearm is committed when:
A) A firearm is discharged against another person without intent to kill
B) Firearm is displayed publicly
C) Firearm is used in robbery
D) Firearm is possessed illegally
  • 36. Which crime against persons requires a qualifying circumstance for its existence?
A) Murder
B) Physical injuries
C) Homicide
D) Duel
  • 37. Which crime is committed when a person kills another under exceptional
    circumstances provided by law?
A) Death under exceptional circumstances
B) Homicide
C) Parricide
D) Murder
  • 38. Taking personal property without violence and with intent to gain is:
A) Theft
B) Robbery
C) Malicious mischief
D) Estafa
  • 39. Robbery differs from theft because robbery involves:
A) Forgery
B) Violence or intimidation
C) Abuse of confidence
D) Public officer participation
  • 40. Which crime is committed by defrauding another through abuse of confidence or
    deceit?
A) Malversation
B) Theft
C) Robbery
D) Estafa
  • 41. Deliberately damaging another person’s property is:
A) Estafa
B) Malicious mischief
C) Arson
D) Robbery
  • 42. Kidnapping is a crime against:
A) Honor
B) Chastity
C) Public order
D) Liberty
  • 43. Arbitrary detention is committed by:
A) Prosecutor conducting inquest
B) Judge issuing warrant
C) Public officer detaining a person without legal grounds
D) Any private person
  • 44. Grave threats are committed by:
A) Defaming another person
B) Taking property
C) Concealing a crime
D) Threatening another with infliction of wrong
  • 45. Grave coercion involves:
A) Public scandal
B) Compelling another by violence or intimidation to do something against his will
C) Taking property through deceit
D) Falsification
  • 46. Arbitrary detention is classified as a crime against:
A) Persons
B) Public order
C) Chastity
D) Fundamental law of the State
  • 47. Violation of domicile is committed by:
A) A tenant refusing to vacate
B) Private individual entering a house
C) Trespasser entering property
D) Public officer entering a dwelling against the owner’s will without judicial order
  • 48. Alarm and scandal are committed by:
A) Defaming another person
B) Falsifying documents
C) Taking property
D) Causing disturbance in public places
  • 49. Direct bribery is committed when a public officer:
A) Falsifies testimony
B) Accepts consideration in connection with official duties
C) Commits homicide
D) Escapes detention
  • 50. Libel is committed through:
A) Mere gestures
B) Writing or similar means
C) Spoken words only
D) Physical assault
  • 51. Oral defamation is also known as:
A) Perjury
B) Slander
C) Estafa
D) Libel
  • 52. Concubinage is committed by:
A) Married woman having intercourse with another man
B) Public officer abusing authority
C) Married man cohabiting with another woman under scandalous circumstances
D) Single man seducing a minor
  • 53. Adultery is committed by:
A) Married man alone
B) Widow remarrying early
C) Married woman having sexual intercourse with another man
D) Single woman only
  • 54. Bigamy is committed by:
A) Living together without marriage
B) Cohabiting scandalously
C) Contracting another marriage before dissolution of the first valid marriage
D) Seducing a minor
  • 55. Intriguing against honor is committed by:
A) Swearing falsely
B) Publishing defamatory articles
C) Threatening another
D) Making intrigue intended to blemish another’s honor
  • 56. Human trafficking is punishable under:
A) Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act
B) Cybercrime Law
C) Revised Penal Code only
D) Dangerous Drugs Act
  • 57. Which law penalizes acts of terrorism in the Philippines?
A) Juvenile Justice Act
B) Safe Spaces Act
C) Local Government Code
D) Anti-Terrorism Act
  • 58. The Safe Spaces Act penalizes:
A) Gender-based sexual harassment
B) Illegal detention
C) Human trafficking
D) Drug trafficking
  • 59. Illegal recruitment committed by syndicates may constitute:
A) Arbitrary detention
B) Robbery
C) Libel
D) Human trafficking
  • 60. The amount of evidence required in criminal cases is proof beyond:
A) Probability
B) Reasonable doubt
C) Doubt
D) Suspicion
  • 61. Which quantum of evidence is required in civil cases?
A) Prima facie evidence
B) Preponderance of evidence
C) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
D) Substantial evidence
  • 62. Testimonial evidence refers to:
A) Oral statements made by witnesses in court
B) Fingerprints
C) Physical objects
D) Written contracts
  • 63. Documentary evidence consists of:
A) Written instruments and documents
B) Tangible objects
C) Demonstrations
D) Oral testimony
  • 64. Evidence which directly proves a fact without inference is:
A) Direct evidence
B) Secondary evidence
C) Circumstantial evidence
D) Hearsay evidence
  • 65. Circumstantial evidence is sufficient for conviction when:
A) The accused confesses
B) The circumstances form an unbroken chain leading to guilt
C) There is no eyewitness
D) There is only one circumstance
  • 66. Evidence is admissible when it is:
A) Relevant only
B) Material only
C) Relevant and competent
D) Competent only
  • 67. Evidence obtained in violation of constitutional rights is generally:
A) Admissible
B) Conclusive
C) Preferred
D) Inadmissible
  • 68. The doctrine that excludes illegally obtained evidence is known as:
A) Plain view doctrine
B) Res gestae doctrine
C) Fruit of the poisonous tree doctrine
D) Equipoise doctrine
  • 69. Which rule requires the original document when its contents are the subject of
    inquiry?
A) Opinion rule
B) Best evidence rule
C) Character evidence rule
D) Hearsay rule
  • 70. Hearsay evidence is generally:
A) Mandatory
B) Inadmissible
C) Conclusive
D) Admissible
  • 71. A dying declaration is an exception to the:
A) Hearsay rule
B) Best evidence rule
C) Opinion rule
D) Character evidence rule
  • 72. Evidence not formally offered cannot generally be:
A) Copied
B) Marked
C) Attached to records
D) Appreciated by the court
  • 73. Which party may object to inadmissible evidence during trial?
A) Judge only
B) Adverse party
C) Witness only
D) Prosecutor only
  • 74. Public documents are generally admissible without:
A) Identification
B) Certification
C) Marking
D) Authentication
  • 75. An affidavit is:
A) A search warrant
B) A judicial notice
C) A sworn written statement
D) A subpoena
  • 76. Positive identification generally prevails over:
A) Documentary evidence
B) Circumstantial evidence
C) Denial and alibi
D) Object evidence
  • 77. The prosecution must rely on the strength of:
A) Its own evidence
B) Public opinion
C) Police report alone
D) Defense evidence
  • 78. Which court generally tries criminal offenses punishable by imprisonment exceeding
    six years?
A) MTC
B) Court of Appeals
C) RTC
D) Sandiganbayan
  • 79. Appeals from decisions of the Municipal Trial Court in criminal cases are generally
    brought to the:
A) Court of Appeals
B) DOJ
C) Supreme Court
D) Regional Trial Court
  • 80. The Sandiganbayan primarily has jurisdiction over:
A) Election offenses
B) Family cases
C) Cases involving public officers and graft-related offenses
D) Drug cases
  • 81. Criminal actions are instituted by filing a:
A) Petition only
B) Complaint or Information
C) Memorandum only
D) Appeal only
  • 82. Preliminary investigation is required for offenses punishable by at least:
A) 10 years
B) 6 months
C) 4 years, 2 months and 1 day
D) 1 year
  • 83. The accused is presumed:
A) Liable
B) Innocent until proven guilty
C) Dangerous
D) Guilty
  • 84. The right to speedy trial protects the accused against:
A) Excessive bail
B) Double jeopardy
C) Illegal search
D) Delay in proceedings
  • 85. Which right guarantees that an accused understands the accusation against him?
A) Right to travel
B) Right to be informed of the nature and cause of accusation
C) Right to bail
D) Right to property
  • 86. A warrant of arrest may be issued only upon finding of:
A) Probable cause
B) Suspicion
C) Conviction
D) Rumor
  • 87. Which warrantless arrest is lawful when the offense is committed in the presence of
    the arresting officer?
A) Escapee arrest
B) In flagrante delicto arrest
C) Citizen’s arrest
D) Hot pursuit arrest
  • 88. A valid search warrant must particularly describe:
A) The witnesses
B) The prosecutor
C) The place to be searched and things to be seized
D) The penalty
  • 89. Search incidental to lawful arrest is:
A) Invalid always
B) Allowed only with prosecutor approval
C) Allowed only in drug cases
D) An exception to the warrant requirement
  • 90. The purpose of preliminary investigation is to determine:
A) Guilt beyond reasonable doubt
B) Exact penalty
C) Damages
D) Probable cause
  • 91. In inquest proceedings, the prosecutor first determines:
A) Validity of warrantless arrest and probable cause
B) Penalty to be imposed
C) Guilt beyond reasonable doubt
D) Civil liability
  • 92. Which official files the Information in court?
A) Prosecutor
B) Judge
C) Barangay captain
D) Police officer
  • 93. The primary purpose of bail is to:
A) Acquit the accused
B) Terminate the case
C) Ensure appearance of the accused in court
D) Reduce penalty
  • 94. Arraignment consists of:
A) Cross-examination
B) Reading the Information in open court and asking the accused to plead
C) Bail hearing
D) Issuance of warrant
  • 95. Double jeopardy attaches after:
A) Filing of complaint only
B) Valid arraignment and plea
C) Arrest only
D) Sentencing only
  • 96. Trial in absentia may proceed if the accused:
A) Escapes after arraignment and due notice
B) Has not been arraigned
C) Refuses to hire counsel
D) Is a minor
  • 97. Direct examination is conducted by:
A) The judge only
B) The party presenting the witness
C) Adverse counsel
D) The clerk of court
  • 98. Cross-examination is intended to:
A) Test credibility and truthfulness of the witness
B) Repeat testimony
C) Introduce judgment
D) Dismiss the case
  • 99. A child witness may testify if the child:
A) Is related to the victim
B) Can perceive and truthfully communicate facts
C) Is at least 18 years old
D) Has written testimony
  • 100. Which warrantless arrest is lawful when the offense is committed in the presence of
    the arresting officer?
A) Hot pursuit arrest
B) Escapee arrest
C) Citizen’s arrest
D) In flagrante delicto arrest
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