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CLJ set A - Quiz
Contributed by: ESCARIO
  • 1. Which agency is primarily mandated to enforce laws on illegal drugs in the
    Philippines?
A) Philippine National Police (PNP)
B) National Bureau of Investigation (NBI)
C) Bureau of Fire Protection (BFP)
D) Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency (PDEA)
  • 2. Which agency serves as the investigative arm of the Department of Justice for
    highprofile and complex crimes?
A) BJMP
B) PNP
C) BFP
D) NBI
  • 3. During inquest proceedings, what is the primary duty of the prosecutor?
A) Determine guilt beyond reasonable doubt
B) Decide the proper penalty
C) Determine validity of warrantless arrest and probable cause
D) Conduct trial
  • 4. Which court has jurisdiction over criminal offenses punishable by imprisonment
    exceeding six years?
A) Court of Appeals
B) Regional Trial Court
C) Municipal Trial Court
  • 5. A convict sentenced to eight years imprisonment will generally serve sentence in
    which institution
A) Prosecutor’s Office
B) Bureau of Corrections facility
C) PNP detention cell
D) BJMP jail
  • 6. Which constitutional principle guarantees fairness in the administration of justice?
A) Double jeopardy
B) Due process
C) Police power
D) Eminent domain
  • 7. A suspect under custodial investigation must be informed of his:
A) Miranda rights
B) Political rights only
C) Property rights
D) Voting rights
  • 8. Which requirement is essential before a judge may issue a search warrant?
A) Preliminary investigation
B) Probable cause
C) Written confession
D) Conviction
  • 9. Which right protects a person from being compelled to testify against himself?
A) Right against self-incrimination
B) Right to suffrage
C) Right to privacy
D) Right to travel
  • 10. Which writ protects a person against unlawful detention?
A) Writ of Amparo
B) Writ of Execution
C) Writ of Habeas Corpus
D) Writ of Certiorari
  • 11. Felonies committed with deliberate intent are known as:
A) Mala prohibita
B) Dolo
C) Quasi-offenses
D) Culpa
  • 12. Criminal laws are generally binding on all persons who live or sojourn in Philippine
    territory under the principle of:
A) Territoriality
B) Retroactivity
C) Prospectivity
D) Generality
  • 13. Felonies committed through negligence are called:
A) Culpable felonies
B) Consummated felonies
C) Intentional felonies
D) Impossible crimes
  • 14. When two or more persons agree and decide to commit a felony, there is:
A) Conspiracy
B) Proposal
C) Recidivism
D) Treachery
  • 15. A person who cooperates in the execution of the offense by previous or
    simultaneous acts is:
A) Accessory
B) Principal
C) Witness
D) Accomplice
  • 16. A person who profits from the effects of the crime after its commission is generally
    liable as:
A) Co-conspirator
B) Accomplice
C) Accessory
D) Principal
  • 17. Which of the following best describes conspiracy?
A) Presence at the crime scene
B) Unity of purpose and intention in committing the crime
C) Concealing evidence after the crime
D) Mere knowledge of the crime
  • 18. The offender performed all acts of execution but the felony was not produced due to
    causes independent of his will. The felony is:
A) Frustrated
B) Consummated
C) Attempted
D) Impossible
  • 19. The offender commences the commission of a felony directly by overt acts but does
    not perform all acts of execution. The felony is:
A) Frustrated
B) Impossible
C) Attempted
D) Consummated
  • 20. Which is an indivisible penalty?
A) Arresto menor
B) Prision correccional
C) Reclusion perpetua
D) Destierro
  • 21. Which circumstance exempts a person from criminal liability?
A) Treachery
B) Voluntary surrender
C) Insanity
D) Recidivism
  • 22. Voluntary surrender is a:
A) Exempting circumstance
B) Aggravating circumstance
C) Mitigating circumstance
D) Justifying circumstance
  • 23. Which aggravating circumstance exists when the offender employs mean tending
    directly to insure execution without risk to himself?
A) Habituality
B) Dwelling
C) Treachery
D) Cruelty
  • 24. Self-defense requires unlawful aggression, reasonable necessity of the means
    employed, and:
A) Revenge
B) Intent to kill
C) Lack of sufficient provocation
D) Relationship
  • 25. Recidivism exists when the offender:
A) Commits another crime after final conviction
B) Escapes during trial
C) Uses a deadly weapon
D) Repeats the same crime before conviction
  • 26. Passion and obfuscation are classified as a:
A) Aggravating circumstance
B) Qualifying circumstance
C) Mitigating circumstance
D) Justifying circumstance
  • 27. Criminal liability is totally extinguished by:
A) Recidivism
B) Escape from prison
C) Death of the convict
D) Concealment
  • 28. Service of sentence extinguishes:
A) Criminal liability
B) Damages only
C) Civil liability only
D) Subsidiary liability only
  • 29. Marriage between the offender and offended party in certain crimes against chastity
    may extinguish:
A) Political rights
B) Administrative liability
C) Civil liability only
D) Criminal liability
  • 30. Amnesty extinguishes:
A) Evidence
B) Criminal liability and penalty
C) Civil liability only
D) Property rights
  • 31. A person who kills another without any qualifying circumstance commits:
A) Homicide
B) Parricide
C) Murder
D) Infanticide
  • 32. Killing attended by treachery is:
A) Murder
B) Homicide
C) Parricide
D) Infanticide
  • 33. The killing of a child less than three days old is:
A) Murder
B) Infanticide
C) Homicide
D) Parricide
  • 34. Which crime is committed when physical injuries incapacitate the victim for labor for
    more than 30 days?
A) Grave coercion
B) Grave threats
C) Slight physical injuries
D) Serious physical injuries
  • 35. Illegal discharge of firearm is committed when:
A) Firearm is possessed illegally
B) Firearm is displayed publicly
C) Firearm is used in robbery
D) A firearm is discharged against another person without intent to kill
  • 36. Which crime against persons requires a qualifying circumstance for its existence?
A) Homicide
B) Duel
C) Murder
D) Physical injuries
  • 37. Which crime is committed when a person kills another under exceptional
    circumstances provided by law?
A) Parricide
B) Death under exceptional circumstances
C) Murder
D) Homicide
  • 38. Taking personal property without violence and with intent to gain is:
A) Theft
B) Estafa
C) Robbery
D) Malicious mischief
  • 39. Robbery differs from theft because robbery involves:
A) Violence or intimidation
B) Forgery
C) Public officer participation
D) Abuse of confidence
  • 40. Which crime is committed by defrauding another through abuse of confidence or
    deceit?
A) Robbery
B) Malversation
C) Estafa
D) Theft
  • 41. Deliberately damaging another person’s property is:
A) Robbery
B) Arson
C) Malicious mischief
D) Estafa
  • 42. Kidnapping is a crime against:
A) Liberty
B) Honor
C) Public order
D) Chastity
  • 43. Arbitrary detention is committed by:
A) Any private person
B) Judge issuing warrant
C) Public officer detaining a person without legal grounds
D) Prosecutor conducting inquest
  • 44. Grave threats are committed by:
A) Defaming another person
B) Threatening another with infliction of wrong
C) Taking property
D) Concealing a crime
  • 45. Grave coercion involves:
A) Public scandal
B) Taking property through deceit
C) Falsification
D) Compelling another by violence or intimidation to do something against his will
  • 46. Arbitrary detention is classified as a crime against:
A) Chastity
B) Persons
C) Public order
D) Fundamental law of the State
  • 47. Violation of domicile is committed by:
A) Public officer entering a dwelling against the owner’s will without judicial order
B) Private individual entering a house
C) A tenant refusing to vacate
D) Trespasser entering property
  • 48. Alarm and scandal are committed by:
A) Defaming another person
B) Falsifying documents
C) Causing disturbance in public places
D) Taking property
  • 49. Direct bribery is committed when a public officer:
A) Accepts consideration in connection with official duties
B) Commits homicide
C) Falsifies testimony
D) Escapes detention
  • 50. Libel is committed through:
A) Spoken words only
B) Writing or similar means
C) Physical assault
D) Mere gestures
  • 51. Oral defamation is also known as:
A) Estafa
B) Libel
C) Slander
D) Perjury
  • 52. Concubinage is committed by:
A) Married man cohabiting with another woman under scandalous circumstances
B) Public officer abusing authority
C) Married woman having intercourse with another man
D) Single man seducing a minor
  • 53. Adultery is committed by:
A) Widow remarrying early
B) Married woman having sexual intercourse with another man
C) Married man alone
D) Single woman only
  • 54. Bigamy is committed by:
A) Contracting another marriage before dissolution of the first valid marriage
B) Living together without marriage
C) Cohabiting scandalously
D) Seducing a minor
  • 55. Intriguing against honor is committed by:
A) Swearing falsely
B) Threatening another
C) Making intrigue intended to blemish another’s honor
D) Publishing defamatory articles
  • 56. Human trafficking is punishable under:
A) Dangerous Drugs Act
B) Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act
C) Revised Penal Code only
D) Cybercrime Law
  • 57. Which law penalizes acts of terrorism in the Philippines?
A) Local Government Code
B) Juvenile Justice Act
C) Anti-Terrorism Act
D) Safe Spaces Act
  • 58. The Safe Spaces Act penalizes:
A) Illegal detention
B) Drug trafficking
C) Gender-based sexual harassment
D) Human trafficking
  • 59. Illegal recruitment committed by syndicates may constitute:
A) Human trafficking
B) Libel
C) Arbitrary detention
D) Robbery
  • 60. The amount of evidence required in criminal cases is proof beyond:
A) Probability
B) Doubt
C) Suspicion
D) Reasonable doubt
  • 61. Which quantum of evidence is required in civil cases?
A) Substantial evidence
B) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
C) Preponderance of evidence
D) Prima facie evidence
  • 62. Testimonial evidence refers to:
A) Physical objects
B) Fingerprints
C) Oral statements made by witnesses in court
D) Written contracts
  • 63. Documentary evidence consists of:
A) Tangible objects
B) Demonstrations
C) Written instruments and documents
D) Oral testimony
  • 64. Evidence which directly proves a fact without inference is:
A) Secondary evidence
B) Circumstantial evidence
C) Direct evidence
D) Hearsay evidence
  • 65. Circumstantial evidence is sufficient for conviction when:
A) There is only one circumstance
B) The accused confesses
C) There is no eyewitness
D) The circumstances form an unbroken chain leading to guilt
  • 66. Evidence is admissible when it is:
A) Material only
B) Relevant only
C) Relevant and competent
D) Competent only
  • 67. Evidence obtained in violation of constitutional rights is generally:
A) Inadmissible
B) Conclusive
C) Admissible
D) Preferred
  • 68. The doctrine that excludes illegally obtained evidence is known as:
A) Res gestae doctrine
B) Equipoise doctrine
C) Plain view doctrine
D) Fruit of the poisonous tree doctrine
  • 69. Which rule requires the original document when its contents are the subject of
    inquiry?
A) Best evidence rule
B) Character evidence rule
C) Opinion rule
D) Hearsay rule
  • 70. Hearsay evidence is generally:
A) Conclusive
B) Inadmissible
C) Mandatory
D) Admissible
  • 71. A dying declaration is an exception to the:
A) Hearsay rule
B) Character evidence rule
C) Best evidence rule
D) Opinion rule
  • 72. Evidence not formally offered cannot generally be:
A) Marked
B) Appreciated by the court
C) Attached to records
D) Copied
  • 73. Which party may object to inadmissible evidence during trial?
A) Judge only
B) Witness only
C) Adverse party
D) Prosecutor only
  • 74. Public documents are generally admissible without:
A) Identification
B) Marking
C) Certification
D) Authentication
  • 75. An affidavit is:
A) A judicial notice
B) A subpoena
C) A search warrant
D) A sworn written statement
  • 76. Positive identification generally prevails over:
A) Object evidence
B) Circumstantial evidence
C) Documentary evidence
D) Denial and alibi
  • 77. The prosecution must rely on the strength of:
A) Police report alone
B) Public opinion
C) Defense evidence
D) Its own evidence
  • 78. Which court generally tries criminal offenses punishable by imprisonment exceeding
    six years?
A) Court of Appeals
B) Sandiganbayan
C) MTC
D) RTC
  • 79. Appeals from decisions of the Municipal Trial Court in criminal cases are generally
    brought to the:
A) Regional Trial Court
B) Court of Appeals
C) Supreme Court
D) DOJ
  • 80. The Sandiganbayan primarily has jurisdiction over:
A) Cases involving public officers and graft-related offenses
B) Drug cases
C) Family cases
D) Election offenses
  • 81. Criminal actions are instituted by filing a:
A) Appeal only
B) Memorandum only
C) Petition only
D) Complaint or Information
  • 82. Preliminary investigation is required for offenses punishable by at least:
A) 1 year
B) 4 years, 2 months and 1 day
C) 10 years
D) 6 months
  • 83. The accused is presumed:
A) Liable
B) Dangerous
C) Innocent until proven guilty
D) Guilty
  • 84. The right to speedy trial protects the accused against:
A) Double jeopardy
B) Excessive bail
C) Delay in proceedings
D) Illegal search
  • 85. Which right guarantees that an accused understands the accusation against him?
A) Right to travel
B) Right to bail
C) Right to be informed of the nature and cause of accusation
D) Right to property
  • 86. A warrant of arrest may be issued only upon finding of:
A) Rumor
B) Probable cause
C) Suspicion
D) Conviction
  • 87. Which warrantless arrest is lawful when the offense is committed in the presence of
    the arresting officer?
A) Escapee arrest
B) Hot pursuit arrest
C) Citizen’s arrest
D) In flagrante delicto arrest
  • 88. A valid search warrant must particularly describe:
A) The place to be searched and things to be seized
B) The penalty
C) The prosecutor
D) The witnesses
  • 89. Search incidental to lawful arrest is:
A) Invalid always
B) Allowed only in drug cases
C) An exception to the warrant requirement
D) Allowed only with prosecutor approval
  • 90. The purpose of preliminary investigation is to determine:
A) Exact penalty
B) Probable cause
C) Guilt beyond reasonable doubt
D) Damages
  • 91. In inquest proceedings, the prosecutor first determines:
A) Validity of warrantless arrest and probable cause
B) Guilt beyond reasonable doubt
C) Civil liability
D) Penalty to be imposed
  • 92. Which official files the Information in court?
A) Barangay captain
B) Police officer
C) Judge
D) Prosecutor
  • 93. The primary purpose of bail is to:
A) Ensure appearance of the accused in court
B) Reduce penalty
C) Acquit the accused
D) Terminate the case
  • 94. Arraignment consists of:
A) Issuance of warrant
B) Cross-examination
C) Bail hearing
D) Reading the Information in open court and asking the accused to plead
  • 95. Double jeopardy attaches after:
A) Valid arraignment and plea
B) Filing of complaint only
C) Sentencing only
D) Arrest only
  • 96. Trial in absentia may proceed if the accused:
A) Has not been arraigned
B) Refuses to hire counsel
C) Escapes after arraignment and due notice
D) Is a minor
  • 97. Direct examination is conducted by:
A) Adverse counsel
B) The party presenting the witness
C) The judge only
D) The clerk of court
  • 98. Cross-examination is intended to:
A) Dismiss the case
B) Introduce judgment
C) Repeat testimony
D) Test credibility and truthfulness of the witness
  • 99. A child witness may testify if the child:
A) Has written testimony
B) Can perceive and truthfully communicate facts
C) Is related to the victim
D) Is at least 18 years old
  • 100. Which warrantless arrest is lawful when the offense is committed in the presence of
    the arresting officer?
A) Hot pursuit arrest
B) Citizen’s arrest
C) In flagrante delicto arrest
D) Escapee arrest
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