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CLJ set A
Contributed by: ESCARIO
  • 1. Which agency is primarily mandated to enforce laws on illegal drugs in the
    Philippines?
A) Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency (PDEA)
B) Bureau of Fire Protection (BFP)
C) Philippine National Police (PNP)
D) National Bureau of Investigation (NBI)
  • 2. Which agency serves as the investigative arm of the Department of Justice for
    highprofile and complex crimes?
A) BFP
B) PNP
C) BJMP
D) NBI
  • 3. During inquest proceedings, what is the primary duty of the prosecutor?
A) Determine guilt beyond reasonable doubt
B) Decide the proper penalty
C) Determine validity of warrantless arrest and probable cause
D) Conduct trial
  • 4. Which court has jurisdiction over criminal offenses punishable by imprisonment
    exceeding six years?
A) Municipal Trial Court
B) Regional Trial Court
C) Court of Appeals
  • 5. A convict sentenced to eight years imprisonment will generally serve sentence in
    which institution
A) Prosecutor’s Office
B) PNP detention cell
C) BJMP jail
D) Bureau of Corrections facility
  • 6. Which constitutional principle guarantees fairness in the administration of justice?
A) Police power
B) Double jeopardy
C) Eminent domain
D) Due process
  • 7. A suspect under custodial investigation must be informed of his:
A) Voting rights
B) Miranda rights
C) Property rights
D) Political rights only
  • 8. Which requirement is essential before a judge may issue a search warrant?
A) Conviction
B) Preliminary investigation
C) Written confession
D) Probable cause
  • 9. Which right protects a person from being compelled to testify against himself?
A) Right to travel
B) Right against self-incrimination
C) Right to privacy
D) Right to suffrage
  • 10. Which writ protects a person against unlawful detention?
A) Writ of Amparo
B) Writ of Execution
C) Writ of Habeas Corpus
D) Writ of Certiorari
  • 11. Felonies committed with deliberate intent are known as:
A) Mala prohibita
B) Culpa
C) Dolo
D) Quasi-offenses
  • 12. Criminal laws are generally binding on all persons who live or sojourn in Philippine
    territory under the principle of:
A) Generality
B) Retroactivity
C) Territoriality
D) Prospectivity
  • 13. Felonies committed through negligence are called:
A) Culpable felonies
B) Impossible crimes
C) Consummated felonies
D) Intentional felonies
  • 14. When two or more persons agree and decide to commit a felony, there is:
A) Conspiracy
B) Proposal
C) Recidivism
D) Treachery
  • 15. A person who cooperates in the execution of the offense by previous or
    simultaneous acts is:
A) Witness
B) Accessory
C) Accomplice
D) Principal
  • 16. A person who profits from the effects of the crime after its commission is generally
    liable as:
A) Co-conspirator
B) Accessory
C) Principal
D) Accomplice
  • 17. Which of the following best describes conspiracy?
A) Unity of purpose and intention in committing the crime
B) Presence at the crime scene
C) Concealing evidence after the crime
D) Mere knowledge of the crime
  • 18. The offender performed all acts of execution but the felony was not produced due to
    causes independent of his will. The felony is:
A) Impossible
B) Frustrated
C) Attempted
D) Consummated
  • 19. The offender commences the commission of a felony directly by overt acts but does
    not perform all acts of execution. The felony is:
A) Consummated
B) Impossible
C) Attempted
D) Frustrated
  • 20. Which is an indivisible penalty?
A) Reclusion perpetua
B) Prision correccional
C) Arresto menor
D) Destierro
  • 21. Which circumstance exempts a person from criminal liability?
A) Treachery
B) Insanity
C) Recidivism
D) Voluntary surrender
  • 22. Voluntary surrender is a:
A) Justifying circumstance
B) Mitigating circumstance
C) Exempting circumstance
D) Aggravating circumstance
  • 23. Which aggravating circumstance exists when the offender employs mean tending
    directly to insure execution without risk to himself?
A) Habituality
B) Dwelling
C) Treachery
D) Cruelty
  • 24. Self-defense requires unlawful aggression, reasonable necessity of the means
    employed, and:
A) Intent to kill
B) Revenge
C) Relationship
D) Lack of sufficient provocation
  • 25. Recidivism exists when the offender:
A) Repeats the same crime before conviction
B) Uses a deadly weapon
C) Commits another crime after final conviction
D) Escapes during trial
  • 26. Passion and obfuscation are classified as a:
A) Aggravating circumstance
B) Mitigating circumstance
C) Justifying circumstance
D) Qualifying circumstance
  • 27. Criminal liability is totally extinguished by:
A) Recidivism
B) Death of the convict
C) Concealment
D) Escape from prison
  • 28. Service of sentence extinguishes:
A) Criminal liability
B) Civil liability only
C) Subsidiary liability only
D) Damages only
  • 29. Marriage between the offender and offended party in certain crimes against chastity
    may extinguish:
A) Administrative liability
B) Civil liability only
C) Political rights
D) Criminal liability
  • 30. Amnesty extinguishes:
A) Civil liability only
B) Criminal liability and penalty
C) Property rights
D) Evidence
  • 31. A person who kills another without any qualifying circumstance commits:
A) Homicide
B) Infanticide
C) Murder
D) Parricide
  • 32. Killing attended by treachery is:
A) Parricide
B) Homicide
C) Infanticide
D) Murder
  • 33. The killing of a child less than three days old is:
A) Infanticide
B) Murder
C) Parricide
D) Homicide
  • 34. Which crime is committed when physical injuries incapacitate the victim for labor for
    more than 30 days?
A) Grave threats
B) Serious physical injuries
C) Grave coercion
D) Slight physical injuries
  • 35. Illegal discharge of firearm is committed when:
A) A firearm is discharged against another person without intent to kill
B) Firearm is possessed illegally
C) Firearm is used in robbery
D) Firearm is displayed publicly
  • 36. Which crime against persons requires a qualifying circumstance for its existence?
A) Homicide
B) Physical injuries
C) Duel
D) Murder
  • 37. Which crime is committed when a person kills another under exceptional
    circumstances provided by law?
A) Death under exceptional circumstances
B) Parricide
C) Murder
D) Homicide
  • 38. Taking personal property without violence and with intent to gain is:
A) Estafa
B) Theft
C) Malicious mischief
D) Robbery
  • 39. Robbery differs from theft because robbery involves:
A) Forgery
B) Violence or intimidation
C) Public officer participation
D) Abuse of confidence
  • 40. Which crime is committed by defrauding another through abuse of confidence or
    deceit?
A) Malversation
B) Theft
C) Estafa
D) Robbery
  • 41. Deliberately damaging another person’s property is:
A) Arson
B) Malicious mischief
C) Estafa
D) Robbery
  • 42. Kidnapping is a crime against:
A) Honor
B) Liberty
C) Public order
D) Chastity
  • 43. Arbitrary detention is committed by:
A) Prosecutor conducting inquest
B) Any private person
C) Judge issuing warrant
D) Public officer detaining a person without legal grounds
  • 44. Grave threats are committed by:
A) Concealing a crime
B) Taking property
C) Threatening another with infliction of wrong
D) Defaming another person
  • 45. Grave coercion involves:
A) Falsification
B) Public scandal
C) Compelling another by violence or intimidation to do something against his will
D) Taking property through deceit
  • 46. Arbitrary detention is classified as a crime against:
A) Persons
B) Chastity
C) Public order
D) Fundamental law of the State
  • 47. Violation of domicile is committed by:
A) Trespasser entering property
B) Public officer entering a dwelling against the owner’s will without judicial order
C) A tenant refusing to vacate
D) Private individual entering a house
  • 48. Alarm and scandal are committed by:
A) Falsifying documents
B) Causing disturbance in public places
C) Defaming another person
D) Taking property
  • 49. Direct bribery is committed when a public officer:
A) Falsifies testimony
B) Accepts consideration in connection with official duties
C) Commits homicide
D) Escapes detention
  • 50. Libel is committed through:
A) Writing or similar means
B) Physical assault
C) Mere gestures
D) Spoken words only
  • 51. Oral defamation is also known as:
A) Libel
B) Estafa
C) Slander
D) Perjury
  • 52. Concubinage is committed by:
A) Single man seducing a minor
B) Married man cohabiting with another woman under scandalous circumstances
C) Public officer abusing authority
D) Married woman having intercourse with another man
  • 53. Adultery is committed by:
A) Single woman only
B) Married woman having sexual intercourse with another man
C) Widow remarrying early
D) Married man alone
  • 54. Bigamy is committed by:
A) Cohabiting scandalously
B) Contracting another marriage before dissolution of the first valid marriage
C) Living together without marriage
D) Seducing a minor
  • 55. Intriguing against honor is committed by:
A) Making intrigue intended to blemish another’s honor
B) Swearing falsely
C) Publishing defamatory articles
D) Threatening another
  • 56. Human trafficking is punishable under:
A) Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act
B) Cybercrime Law
C) Revised Penal Code only
D) Dangerous Drugs Act
  • 57. Which law penalizes acts of terrorism in the Philippines?
A) Safe Spaces Act
B) Local Government Code
C) Juvenile Justice Act
D) Anti-Terrorism Act
  • 58. The Safe Spaces Act penalizes:
A) Gender-based sexual harassment
B) Illegal detention
C) Drug trafficking
D) Human trafficking
  • 59. Illegal recruitment committed by syndicates may constitute:
A) Human trafficking
B) Arbitrary detention
C) Libel
D) Robbery
  • 60. The amount of evidence required in criminal cases is proof beyond:
A) Doubt
B) Suspicion
C) Probability
D) Reasonable doubt
  • 61. Which quantum of evidence is required in civil cases?
A) Substantial evidence
B) Preponderance of evidence
C) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
D) Prima facie evidence
  • 62. Testimonial evidence refers to:
A) Fingerprints
B) Physical objects
C) Written contracts
D) Oral statements made by witnesses in court
  • 63. Documentary evidence consists of:
A) Written instruments and documents
B) Demonstrations
C) Tangible objects
D) Oral testimony
  • 64. Evidence which directly proves a fact without inference is:
A) Hearsay evidence
B) Circumstantial evidence
C) Secondary evidence
D) Direct evidence
  • 65. Circumstantial evidence is sufficient for conviction when:
A) There is no eyewitness
B) There is only one circumstance
C) The circumstances form an unbroken chain leading to guilt
D) The accused confesses
  • 66. Evidence is admissible when it is:
A) Material only
B) Relevant only
C) Relevant and competent
D) Competent only
  • 67. Evidence obtained in violation of constitutional rights is generally:
A) Inadmissible
B) Conclusive
C) Preferred
D) Admissible
  • 68. The doctrine that excludes illegally obtained evidence is known as:
A) Fruit of the poisonous tree doctrine
B) Plain view doctrine
C) Res gestae doctrine
D) Equipoise doctrine
  • 69. Which rule requires the original document when its contents are the subject of
    inquiry?
A) Character evidence rule
B) Opinion rule
C) Hearsay rule
D) Best evidence rule
  • 70. Hearsay evidence is generally:
A) Admissible
B) Inadmissible
C) Conclusive
D) Mandatory
  • 71. A dying declaration is an exception to the:
A) Character evidence rule
B) Opinion rule
C) Best evidence rule
D) Hearsay rule
  • 72. Evidence not formally offered cannot generally be:
A) Copied
B) Marked
C) Attached to records
D) Appreciated by the court
  • 73. Which party may object to inadmissible evidence during trial?
A) Witness only
B) Judge only
C) Adverse party
D) Prosecutor only
  • 74. Public documents are generally admissible without:
A) Authentication
B) Certification
C) Identification
D) Marking
  • 75. An affidavit is:
A) A subpoena
B) A search warrant
C) A sworn written statement
D) A judicial notice
  • 76. Positive identification generally prevails over:
A) Denial and alibi
B) Documentary evidence
C) Circumstantial evidence
D) Object evidence
  • 77. The prosecution must rely on the strength of:
A) Police report alone
B) Its own evidence
C) Public opinion
D) Defense evidence
  • 78. Which court generally tries criminal offenses punishable by imprisonment exceeding
    six years?
A) MTC
B) Sandiganbayan
C) RTC
D) Court of Appeals
  • 79. Appeals from decisions of the Municipal Trial Court in criminal cases are generally
    brought to the:
A) Supreme Court
B) DOJ
C) Court of Appeals
D) Regional Trial Court
  • 80. The Sandiganbayan primarily has jurisdiction over:
A) Family cases
B) Election offenses
C) Drug cases
D) Cases involving public officers and graft-related offenses
  • 81. Criminal actions are instituted by filing a:
A) Complaint or Information
B) Memorandum only
C) Appeal only
D) Petition only
  • 82. Preliminary investigation is required for offenses punishable by at least:
A) 6 months
B) 10 years
C) 1 year
D) 4 years, 2 months and 1 day
  • 83. The accused is presumed:
A) Liable
B) Guilty
C) Innocent until proven guilty
D) Dangerous
  • 84. The right to speedy trial protects the accused against:
A) Illegal search
B) Delay in proceedings
C) Excessive bail
D) Double jeopardy
  • 85. Which right guarantees that an accused understands the accusation against him?
A) Right to be informed of the nature and cause of accusation
B) Right to bail
C) Right to travel
D) Right to property
  • 86. A warrant of arrest may be issued only upon finding of:
A) Suspicion
B) Conviction
C) Rumor
D) Probable cause
  • 87. Which warrantless arrest is lawful when the offense is committed in the presence of
    the arresting officer?
A) Escapee arrest
B) Hot pursuit arrest
C) In flagrante delicto arrest
D) Citizen’s arrest
  • 88. A valid search warrant must particularly describe:
A) The place to be searched and things to be seized
B) The witnesses
C) The penalty
D) The prosecutor
  • 89. Search incidental to lawful arrest is:
A) Allowed only in drug cases
B) An exception to the warrant requirement
C) Invalid always
D) Allowed only with prosecutor approval
  • 90. The purpose of preliminary investigation is to determine:
A) Damages
B) Probable cause
C) Exact penalty
D) Guilt beyond reasonable doubt
  • 91. In inquest proceedings, the prosecutor first determines:
A) Validity of warrantless arrest and probable cause
B) Civil liability
C) Penalty to be imposed
D) Guilt beyond reasonable doubt
  • 92. Which official files the Information in court?
A) Police officer
B) Barangay captain
C) Prosecutor
D) Judge
  • 93. The primary purpose of bail is to:
A) Acquit the accused
B) Ensure appearance of the accused in court
C) Reduce penalty
D) Terminate the case
  • 94. Arraignment consists of:
A) Bail hearing
B) Reading the Information in open court and asking the accused to plead
C) Cross-examination
D) Issuance of warrant
  • 95. Double jeopardy attaches after:
A) Arrest only
B) Filing of complaint only
C) Valid arraignment and plea
D) Sentencing only
  • 96. Trial in absentia may proceed if the accused:
A) Escapes after arraignment and due notice
B) Refuses to hire counsel
C) Is a minor
D) Has not been arraigned
  • 97. Direct examination is conducted by:
A) The party presenting the witness
B) The judge only
C) The clerk of court
D) Adverse counsel
  • 98. Cross-examination is intended to:
A) Introduce judgment
B) Repeat testimony
C) Dismiss the case
D) Test credibility and truthfulness of the witness
  • 99. A child witness may testify if the child:
A) Has written testimony
B) Is related to the victim
C) Can perceive and truthfully communicate facts
D) Is at least 18 years old
  • 100. Which warrantless arrest is lawful when the offense is committed in the presence of
    the arresting officer?
A) In flagrante delicto arrest
B) Citizen’s arrest
C) Hot pursuit arrest
D) Escapee arrest
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