ThatQuiz Test Library Take this test now
CRIM 3: Human Behavior And Victimology - Quiz
Contributed by: Edradan
(Original author: Drian B.)
  • 1. This term describes the idea that specific thoughts, behaviors and emotions are considered deviant when they are unacceptable or not common in society.
A) Dysfunction
B) Distress
C) Danger
D) Deviance
  • 2. This term involves dangerous or violent behavior directed at the individual, or others in the environment. An example of dangerous behavior that may suggest a psychological disorder is engaging in suicidal activity
A) Dysfunction
B) Distress
C) Danger
D) Deviance
  • 3. This term accounts for negative feelings by the individual with the disorder. He or she may feel deeply troubled and affected by their illness.
A) Distress
B) Deviance
C) Danger
D) Dysfunction
  • 4. This term involves maladaptive behavior that impairs the individual's ability to perform normal daily functions, such as getting ready for work in the morning, or driving a car
A) Deviance
B) Danger
C) Distress
D) Dysfunction
  • 5. is something deviating from the normal or differing from the typical, is a subjectively defined behaviors characteristic, assigned to those with rare or dysfunctional conditions.
A) Abnormal Behavior
B) Deviance
C) Psychopathology
D) Danger
  • 6. is the scientific study of mental disorders, including efforts to understand their genetic, biological, psychological, and social causes, effective classification schemes (nosology); course across all stages of development; manifestations, and treatment.
A) Anxiety
B) Psychopathology
C) Abnormal behavior
D) Mental Disorder
  • 7. The word abnormal means away from the norm.
A) Deviation from Social Norm
B) Personal Distress
C) intelligence
D) Deviation from Statistical Norm
  • 8. It is statistically abnormal for a person get a score about 145 on an IQ test or to get a score below 55, but only the lowest score is considered abnormal.
A) Maladaptive to Society
B) Maladaptive Behavior
C) Deviation from Statistical Norm
D) Intelligence
  • 9. A person who is anxious all the time or has ahigh level of anxiety and someone who almost never feels anxiety are all considered to be abnormal.
A) Intelligence
B) Deviation from Statistical Norm
C) Personal Distress
D) Anxiety
  • 10. Every culture has certain standards for acceptable behavior, behavior that deviates from that standard is considered to be abnormal behavior
A) Personal Distress
B) Deviation from Statistical Norm
C) Maladaptive to One's self
D) Deviation from Social Norm
  • 11. This third criterion is how the behavior affects the well- being of the individual and/or social group. A man who attempts suicide or a paranoid individual who tries to assassinate national leaders are illustrations under this criterion. The two aspects of maladaptive behavior are: (nahihirapan mag adopt or nahihirapan mag adjust sa society)
A) Deviation from Statistical Norm
B) Maladaptive to One's self
C) Maladaptive to Society
D) Maladaptive Behavior
  • 12. It refers to the inability of a person to reach goals or to adapt the demands of life.
A) Maladaptive Behavior
B) Maladaptive to Society-
C) Personal Distress
D) Maladaptive to One's self
  • 13. It refers to a person's obstruction or disruption to social group functioning.
A) Deviation from Social Norm
B) Maladaptive to Society
C) Maladaptive to One's self
D) Personal Distress
  • 14. The fourth criterion considers abnormality in terms of the individual's subjective feelings, personal distress, rather than his behavior. Most people commonly diagnosed as mentally ill.
A) Personal Distress
B) Maladaptive Behavior
C) Maladaptive to One's self
D) Intelligence
  • 15. is a broad term used to group physical and psychological symptoms that cause abnormal thoughts and behaviors.
A) Mental Retardation
B) Deviance
C) Abnormal Behavior
D) Mental Disorder
  • 16. a condition of limited ability in which an individual has a low Intelligence Quotient (IQ), usually below 70 on a traditional intelligence test, and has difficulty adapting to everyday life: he/she first exhibited these characteristics during the so-called developmental period by age 18.
A) Mental Retardation (MR)
B) Severe Mental Retardation
C) Profound Mental Retardation
D) Moderate Mental Retardation
  • 17. About 10% of the mentally retarded population is considered moderately retarded. Moderately retarded persons have IQ scores ranging from 35-55. They can carry out work and self- care tasks with moderate supervision.
A) Moderate Mental Retardation
B) Profound Mental Retardation
C) Mental Retardation
D) Severe Mental Retardation
  • 18. About 3-4% of the mentally retarded population is severely retarded. Severely retarded persons have 1Q scores of 20-40. They may master very basic self-care skills and some communication skills
A) Profound Mental Retardation
B) Severe Mental Retardation
C) Moderate Mental Retardation
D) Mild Mental Retardation
  • 19. Only 1-2% of the mentally retarded population is classified as profoundly retarded. Profoundly retarded individuals have IQ scores under 20-25
A) Moderate Mental Retardation
B) Profound Mental Retardation
C) Severe Mental Retardation
D) Mild Mental Retardation
  • 20. reflects a very general mental capability that, among other things, involves the ability to reason, plan, solve problems, think abstractly, comprehend complex ideas, learn quickly and learn from experience.
A) Criminal behavior
B) Human intelligence
C) Mental retardation
D) Mental Disorder
  • 21. CRIMINAL LAW AND INTELLIGENCE What is the McNaughton (M'Naghten) Rule?
A) The formal insanity defense has its beginnings in 1833, when Daniel McNaughton tried to kill Robert Peel, the British prime minister (he shot and killed his secretary instead).
B) The formal insanity defense has its beginnings in 1853, when Daniel McNaughton tried to kill Robert Peel, the British prime minister (he shot and killed his secretary instead).
C) The formal insanity defense has its beginnings in 1843, when Daniel McNaughton tried to kill Robert Peel, the British prime minister (he shot and killed his secretary instead).
D) The formal insanity defense has its beginnings in 1873, when Daniel McNaughton tried to kill Robert Peel, the British prime minister (he shot and killed his secretary instead).
  • 22. What is the Durham Rule?
A) Any person who has committed a crime while the said person was imbecile or insane during the commission.
B) an accused is not criminally responsible if his unlawful act is the product of mental disease or mental defect.
C) substantial capacity to appreciate the criminality of his act or to conform his conduct to the requirements of the law.
D) A person over nine years of age and under fifteen, unless he has acted with discernment, in which case, such minor shall be proceeded against in accordance with the provisions of Art. 80 of this Code (Revised Penal Code).
  • 23. What is ALI Substantial Capacity Test?
A) A person over nine years of age and under fifteen, unless he has acted with discernment, in which case, such minor shall be proceeded against in accordance with the provisions of Art. 80 of this Code (Revised Penal Code).
B) Some States added to their statutes this doctrine which is also known as "irresistible impulse" recognizing some ill individuals may respond correctly but may be unable to control their behavior
C) The new rule stated that a person is not responsible for his criminal act if, as a result of the mental disease or defect, he lacks substantial capacity to appreciate the criminality of his act or to conform his conduct to the requirements of the law.
D) known as Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006, as amended by Republic Act 10630, raised the criminal exemption from 9 to 15 years old
  • 24. Making up acceptable excuses for unacceptable behavior.
A) Rationalization
B) Delusion of Persecution
C) Repression
D) Self-actualization
  • 25. Which Freudian personality component operates according to the pleasure principle?
A) Superego
B) Ego
C) Conscience
D) Id
  • 26. Which personality component follows the reality principle in Freud's theory?
A) Conscience
B) Id
C) Ego
D) Superego
  • 27. Which Freudian component represents internalized moral standards?
A) Ego
B) Id
C) Superego
D) Conscience
  • 28. What is a phobia?
A) An intense, disproportionate fear of a particular object or situation
B) A temporary lack of motivation
C) A form of criminal punishment
D) A normal preference for privacy
  • 29. What does PTSD stand for?
A) Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder.
B) Personal Trauma and Stress Disorder
C) Psychological Treatment and Safety Diagnosis
D) Persistent Thought and Sleep Disturbance
  • 30. Which is a common possible response to a traumatic event?
A) Intrusive memories or nightmares
B) Improved memory in every case
C) Permanent loss of all emotions
D) Guaranteed violent behavior
  • 31. What is a defense mechanism?
A) A legal argument
B) A psychological process that helps manage anxiety or conflict
C) A police protection strategy
D) A method of physical punishment
  • 32. What is a personality trait?
A) A legal responsibility
B) A single temporary emotion
C) A relatively enduring characteristic of a person
D) A physical injury
  • 33. What is an important principle when assessing abnormal behavior?
A) cultural differences as proof of illness
B) Consider symptoms, context, distress, and impairment
C) Assume every unusual behavior is criminal
D) Diagnose someone based on one unusual action
  • 34. Which statement about mental illness and criminality is most accurate?
A) Every person with a mental disorder is dangerous
B) Mental illness always causes criminal behavior
C) Mental illness automatically removes legal responsibility
D) Mental illness does not automatically mean a person is violent or criminal
  • 35. Which theory explains behavior through rewards and punishments?
A) Psychoanalytic theory
B) Trait theory
C) Humanistic theory
D) Operant conditioning
  • 36. What does social learning theory emphasize in explaining behavior?
A) Genetic inheritance alone
B) Physical appearance
C) Unconscious dreams only
D) Observation, imitation, and reinforcement
  • 37. What is differential association theory primarily concerned with?
A) Personality development during infancy
B) Biological differences between people
C) Learning criminal behavior through interaction with others
D) Punishment as the only cause of crime
  • 38. Who developed differential association theory?
A) Robert Merton
B) Edwin H. Sutherland
C) Travis Hirschi
D) Edwin Lemert
  • 39. What does strain theory examine?
A) How blocked goals and social pressures can contribute to deviance
B) How physical injuries heal
C) How witnesses remember faces
D) How fingerprints identify offenders
  • 40. What is labeling theory concerned with?
A) How societal labels can influence identity and behavior
B) The biological origins of personality
C) physical causes of injury
D) The punishment for every offense
  • 41. Which theory emphasizes the importance of bonds to family, school, and society in discouraging crime?
A) Psychoanalytic theory
B) Trait theory
C) Classical conditioning
D) Social control theory
  • 42. There is dysfunctional conflict if conflict disrupts, hinders job performance, and upsets personal psychological functioning
A) Multiple-Approach-Avoidance Conflict
B) Functional Conflict
C) Approach-Avoidance Conflict- Approach
D) Dysfunctional Conflict
  • 43. There is functional conflict if conflict is responsive and innovative aiding in creativity and viability.
A) Approach-Avoidance Conflict- Approach
B) Dysfunctional Conflict
C) Functional Conflic
D) Multiple-Approach-Avoidance Conflict
  • 44. What is the main idea of routine activity theory?
A) Crime opportunities arise when a motivated offender, suitable target, and absence of a capable guardian converge
B) Punishment always prevents crime
C) Every crime is caused by mental illness
D) Crime is determined entirely by birth
  • 45. Study or do the dishes. I don't want this and I don't want that. A woman with an unwanted pregnancy may be morally opposed by abortion
A) Approach-Avoidance Conflict- Approach
B) Multiple-Approach-Avoidance Conflict
C) Avoidance-Avoidance Conflict
D) Approach-Approach Conflict
  • 46. What is the main purpose of studying criminal behavior in criminology?
A) To justify discrimination against suspects
B) To assume everyone will commit a crime
C) To understand possible causes and support prevention and rehabilitation
D) To excuse every unlawful act
  • 47. What does social learning theory emphasize in explaining behavior?
A) Unconscious dreams only
B) Physical appearance
C) Observation, imitation, and reinforcement
D) Genetic inheritance alone
  • 48. Who developed differential association theory?
A) Edwin H. Sutherland
B) Edwin Lemert
C) Hirschi
D) Robert Merton
  • 49. What does strain theory examine?
A) How blocked goals and social pressures can contribute to deviance
B) How physical injuries heal
C) How fingerprints identify offenders
D) How witnesses remember faces
  • 50. What is the purpose of offender rehabilitation in relation to victim and community safety?
A) To eliminate the need for accountability
B) To support behavioral change and reduce the risk of reoffending
C) To transfer responsibility for crime to the victim
D) To guarantee that reoffending becomes impossible
  • 51. Why should crime victims be treated without discrimination?
A) So victims will always agree with authorities
B) So investigators can avoid legal procedures
C) To uphold dignity, equality, and fair access to services.
D) So that only selected victims receive assistance
  • 52. Which is an example of cybervictimization?
A) Reading a public news report
B) Receiving a routine school announcement
C) Attending an online class
D) Being targeted by online harassment or unauthorized disclosure of private information
  • 53. What is an appropriate response to a victim experiencing severe anxiety after a crime?
A) Offer support and, when appropriate, referral to a qualified mental health professional
B) Assume the victim is lying
C) Force the victim to confront the offender
D) Tell the victim to forget the incident
  • 54. What is the purpose of victim impact statements?
A) To replace all physical evidence
B) To allow witnesses to decide guilt
C) To explain how an offense affected the victim, subject to applicable court procedures
D) To guarantee a particular sentence
  • 55. Which is an example of community-based crime prevention?
A) Encouraging people to take revenge
B) Ignoring suspicious safety concerns
C) Organizing lawful neighborhood safety and awareness programs
D) Publicly identifying all crime victims
  • 56. What is restorative justice primarily concerned with?
A) Addressing harm, accountability, and appropriate opportunities for repair
B) Preventing offenders from accepting responsibility
C) Removing victims from the justice process
D) Increasing punishment in every case
  • 57. What is a safety plan?
A) A practical plan to reduce danger and identify support resources
B) A record of a victim's personality traits
C) A list of criminal penalties
D) A document that guarantees an offender's arrest
  • 58. What does confidentiality mean in victim assistance?
A) Sharing information with friends
B) Refusing to provide any assistance
C) Hiding every crime from authorities
D) Protecting private information and disclosing it only when authorized or legally required
  • 59. What is the best way to respond when a victim discloses abuse?
A) Immediately post the story online
B) Promise a guaranteed conviction
C) Listen respectfully, take the disclosure seriously, and explain available help
D) Blame the victim for the incident
  • 60. should an investigator do when interviewing a child victim?
A) Follow child-sensitive procedures and protect the child's welfare
B) Publicly disclose the child's identity
C) Allow unauthorized people to observe the interview
D) Use threatening questions to obtain answers
  • 61. Which law penalizes photo and video voyeurism in the Philippines?
A) Republic Act No. 9262
B) Republic Act No. 7610
C) Republic Act No. 6981
D) Republic Act No. 9995
  • 62. Which law established a comprehensive program for children in conflict with the law and juvenile justice?
A) Republic Act No. 7877
B) Republic Act No. 9344, as amended by RA 10630
C) Republic Act No. 9165
D) Republic Act No. 9262
  • 63. What is a trauma-informed approach?
A) Recognizing trauma's effects and avoiding practices that may cause further harm
B) Requiring victims to describe every detail
C) Ignoring emotional reactions
D) Assuming every victim reacts identically
  • 64. What is the first priority when assisting a victim in immediate danger?
A) Protecting the victim's immediate safety
B) Interviewing every witness
C) Completing paperwork
D) Preparing a court presentation
  • 65. What is the main objective of victim support services?
A) To promote safety, recovery, information, and access to assistance
B) To guarantee conviction in every case
C) To prevent victims from reporting crimes
D) To force victims to forgive offenders
  • 66. Which is a possible consequence of victimization?
A) Physical injury, emotional distress, or financial loss
B) Every victim loses the ability to work
C) Every victim develops a mental disorder
D) Every victim becomes an offender
  • 67. What is victim restitution?
A) A psychological diagnosis
B) A form of community gossip
C) An order requiring an offender to compensate a victim for eligible losses
D) A method of witness intimidation
  • 68. what is a victimization survey used for?
A) Measuring the personality of judges
B) Gathering information about people's experiences of crime, including
C) Replacing every police investigation
D) Determining guilt without trial
  • 69. What does the term victim precipitation traditionally examine?
A) Whether victim-related actions or interactions played a role in the sequence of events
B) The amount of compensation received
C) The number of police officers at a scene
D) The sentence imposed on an offender
  • 70. A which is an example of indirect victimization?
A) A judge issuing a ruling
B) family member experiencing distress after a loved one is murdered
C) A police officer completing a report
D) A thief losing stolen property
  • 71. What is a direct victim?
A) A person who directly suffers harm from an offense
B) A person who investigates a crime
C) A person who prosecutes an offender
D) A person who reads about a crime
  • 72. What is revictimization?
A) Receiving compensation
B) Reporting an incident
C) Experiencing victimization again
D) Attending a court hearing
  • 73. What is secondary victimization?
A) Harm caused only by court proceedings
B) Harm caused by social stigma after a crime
C) Harm directly resulting from the criminal act
D) Harm caused by media reports
  • 74. What is victimization?
A) The classification of criminal evidence
B) The process of sentencing an offender
C) The rehabilitation of a convicted person
D) The process through which a person experiences harm or becomes a victim
  • 75. Who is commonly credited with introducing the term victimology?
A) Robert Merton
B) Benjamin Mendelsohn
C) Edwin Sutherland
D) Cesare Lombroso
  • 76. What is victimology?
A) The study of fingerprints
B) The study of prison architecture
C) The study of victims, victimization, and its consequences
D) The study of police administration
  • 77. What is personality?
A) A person's permanent physical appearance
B) A person's characteristic patterns of thinking, feeling, and behaving
C) A person's social status only
D) A person's educational attainment
  • 78. Which process involves learning society's norms and values?
A) Regression
B) Isolation
C) Socialization
D) Frustration
  • 79. What is motivation?
A) A person's physical appearance
B) An inherited physical trait
C) A process that directs and energizes behavior
D) A type of punishment
  • 80. Which term describes the ability to understand another person's feelings?
A) Prejudice
B) Aggression
C) Empathy
D) Conformity
  • 81. What is perception?
A) Controlling another person
B) Interpreting sensory information
C) Punishing inappropriate behavior
D) Memorizing every event
  • 82. Which psychologist is associated with social learning theory?
A) Abraham Maslow
B) Jean Piaget
C) Sigmund Freud
D) Albert Bandura
  • 83. What is reinforcement?
A) A method of avoiding all social contact
B) A type of memory loss
C) A permanent personality disorder
D) A consequence that increases the likelihood of a behavior
  • 84. Which term refers to behavior that violates accepted social norms?
A) Deviance
B) Cooperation
C) Adaptation
D) Socialization
  • 85. What is aggression?
A) Helping a person in need
B) Following a lawful instruction
C) Showing sympathy toward others
D) Behavior intended to harm another person
  • 86. What is frustration?
A) A learned academic skill
B) Complete emotional stability
C) A form of social reward
D) A state arising when goals are blocked
  • 87. What is conformity?
A) Adjusting behavior to group expectations
B) Rejecting every social rule
C) Diagnosing a psychological disorder
D) Acting without awareness
  • 88. What is cognitive development primarily concerned with?
A) Changes in physical appearance only
B) Changes in legal procedures
C) Changes in thinking, learning, and reasoning
D) Changes in criminal penalties
  • 89. Which theory emphasizes personal growth and human potential?
A) Conflict theory
B) Psychoanalytic theory
C) Humanistic theory
D) Classical conditioning
  • 90. What is heredity?
A) Transmission of genetic characteristics from parents
B) Acquiring knowledge from school
C) Learning through punishment
D) Learning social expectations
  • 91. What is the primary focus of developmental psychology?
A) Changes in people across their lifespan
B) Crime-scene processing
C) Criminal sentencing
D) Police organizational structure
  • 92. What is a social role?
A) A person's genetic makeup
B) A criminal investigation technique
C) Expected behavior associated with a particular position
D) A medical diagnosis
  • 93. Which term refers to the process of remembering information?
A) Motivation
B) Memory
C) Conditioning
D) Perception
  • 94. What is the nature-versus-nurture debate about?
A) Victims versus witnesses
B) Punishment versus rehabilitation
C) Genetic influences versus environmental influences on behavior
D) Police versus courts
  • 95. What is a phobia?
A) A normal preference for privacy
B) An intense, disproportionate fear of a particular object or situation
C) form of criminal punishment
D) temporary lack of motivation
  • 96. What is displacement in psychology?
A) Learning through observation
B) Redirecting emotions from their original source to another target
C) Accepting responsibility for a mistake
D) Forgetting every childhood experience
  • 97. What is projection?
A) Copying a successful person's behavior
B) Avoiding a dangerous location
C) Attributing one's own unacceptable feelings to another person
D) Developing a new habit
  • 98. What is emotional intelligence?
A) The ability to avoid every conflict
B) The ability to recognize and manage emotions
C) The ability to control other people
D) The ability to memorize laws quickly
  • 99. Which term describes learning by observing another person's behavior?
A) Observational learning
B) Extinction
C) Repression
D) Displacement
  • 100. Which concept refers to a person's belief in their ability to perform a task successfully?
A) Self-esteem
B) Self-efficacy
C) Frustration
D) Conformity
Created with That Quiz — the math test generation site with resources for other subject areas.