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CA2-Non Institutional Corrections - Quiz
Contributed by: G-2
  • 1. Non-institutional corrections are also known as:
A) Prison-based corrections
B) Penal confinement
C) Detention corrections
D) Community-based corrections
  • 2. It refers to the method of correcting and rehabilitating an offender without sending them to prison
A) Non-institutional correction
B) Penal servitude
C) Confinement
D) Institutional correction
  • 3. Which agency directly supervises non-institutional correctional programs in the Philippines?
A) BUCOR
B) BJMP
C) NBI
D) Parole and Probation Administration (PPA)
  • 4. The primary legal basis for the Probation System in the Philippines is:
A) RA 10592
B) PD 29
C) RA 9344
D) PD No. 968, as amended
  • 5. The granting of probation is essentially a function of the:
A) Court
B) President
C) PPA Administrator
D) Congress
  • 6. Who reviews the application for probation and submits recommendation to the court?
A) Police officer
B) Social worker
C) Prosecutor
D) Probation and Parole Officer
  • 7. non-institutional corrections is generally preferred over imprisonment because it is:
A) More secure
B) More punitive
C) More expensive
D) Less costly and rehabilitative
  • 8. The following are forms of non-institutional corrections EXCEPT:
A) Reclusion Perpetua
B) Probation
C) Parole
D) Executive Clemency
  • 9. It is a disposition under which a defendant, after conviction and sentence, is released subject to conditions imposed by the court:
A) Probation
B) Parole
C) Amnesty
D) Pardon
  • 10. Probation is granted before the offender begins serving the sentence:
A) Generally
B) Never
C) Only if recommended by the warden
D) Always
  • 11. Who among the following is eligible for probation?
A) Previously convicted by final judgment of an offense punished by imprisonment of not less than 1
B) Sentenced to serve a maximum term of imprisonment of more than 6 years
C) Sentenced to imprisonment of not more than 6 years
D) Convicted of subversion or any crime against national security
  • 12. One of these is NOT a ground for disqualification for probation:
A) Habitual delinquent
B) Sentence of more than 6 years
C) First-time offender sentenced to 4 years
D) Conviction for treason
  • 13. The period for filing an application for probation is within:
A) 30 days after promulgation of sentence
B) Any time before release
C) 60 days after promulgation of sentence
D) 15 days after promulgation of sentence
  • 14. Once an application for probation is filed, the judgment of conviction becomes:
A) Void
B) Executory
C) Final immediately
D) Not final
  • 15. If the court denies probation, the decision is:
A) Not appealable
B) Subject to motion for reconsideration only
C) Reviewable by the President
D) Appealable
  • 16. The duration of the probation period for those sentenced to imprisonment of not more than 1 year is:
A) Minimum of 6 months
B) Exactly 1 year
C) Not less than the period of probation fixed by the court nor more than 2 years
D) Maximum of 5 years
  • 17. For those sentenced to more than 1 year, the probation period shall not exceed:
A) 2 years
B) 6 years
C) 4 years
D) 10 years
  • 18. This is a condition that ALL probationers must comply with:
A) Change residence without notice
B) Donate to charity
C) Report to the probation officer within 72 hours from receipt of order
D) Leave the country anytime
  • 19. Which of the following is a SPECIAL condition of probation?
A) Not commit another offense
B) Remain in the jurisdiction
C) Undergo drug rehabilitation program
D) Support dependents
  • 20. When does the probation period commence to run?
A) Date of promulgation
B) Date of filing application
C) Date the probationer is released from confinement
D) Date of arrest
  • 21. The probationer may be transferred to another province:
A) Never
B) Freely
C) With prior written approval of the probation officer/court
D) After 1 year
  • 22. Failure to comply with the conditions of probation may result in:
A) Warning only
B) Probation revocation
C) Reduction of sentence
D) Dismissal of case
  • 23. Upon revocation of probation, the probationer shall:
A) Serve the original sentence
B) Be granted parole immediately
C) Be given another chance
D) Be acquitted
  • 24. A probationer discharged after successful completion of probation shall be:
A) Granted absolute pardon automatically
B) Fully exempt from payment of fine and costs
C) Released from all penalties and disabilities resulting from the offense
D) Entitled to reparation
  • 25. Can a probationer be granted parole later?
A) Only if they appeal
B) No, never
C) Yes, always
D) Yes, if probation is revoked and they serve part of sentence
  • 26. Parole is the conditional release of a prisoner who has served part of their sentence:
A) Upon acquittal
B) Before the expiration of sentence
C) After full service of sentence
D) Instead of serving sentence
  • 27. The agency that grants parole in the Philippines is the:
A) Court
B) Department of Justice
C) Board of Pardons and Parole (BPP)
D) PPA
  • 28. Who among the following may be granted parole?
A) Those sentenced to death
B) Those serving life imprisonment without eligibility
C) Those who have served the minimum of their indeterminate sentence
D) Those with pending appeals
  • 29. Under the Indeterminate Sentence Law, the minimum period of sentence must be served before:
A) Probation
B) Parole
C) Amnesty
D) Pardon
  • 30. Parole is a __________ right.
A) Absolute
B) Privilege, not a
C) Constitutional
D) Statutory
  • 31. When a prisoner is granted parole, they are released:
A) Unconditionally
B) Permanently
C) Conditionally, under supervision
D) Without any restriction
  • 32. The parolee is supervised by:
A) Prison guards
B) Police
C) Barangay officials
D) Probation and Parole Officers
  • 33. Violation of parole conditions may lead to:
A) Reprimand
B) Return to prison to serve unexpired sentence
C) Warning
D) Fine
  • 34. The parole period is equivalent to:
A) The minimum sentence
B) 5 years
C) 10 years
D) The unexpired portion of the maximum sentence
  • 35. Can a parolee apply for probation?
A) No
B) Yes, after 1 year
C) Yes, if first-time offender
D) Yes
  • 36. The Indeterminate Sentence Law is
A) Act No. 4103
B) RA 10592
C) PD 968
D) RA 9344
  • 37. The purpose of parole includes the following EXCEPT:
A) Reformation
B) Early release as reward
C) Gradual reintegration to community
D) Retribution
  • 38. A prisoner serving a definite sentence CANNOT be granted:
A) Executive clemency
B) Parole
C) Pardon
D) Amnesty
  • 39. Parole is granted after review of:
A) Family status only
B) Wealth
C) Political affiliation
D) Behavior, health, risk, and rehabilitation progress
  • 40. Final release from parole is granted after:
A) Expiration of sentence less time deducted for good conduct
B) 1 year
C) Recommendation of police
D) Approval of the warden
  • 41. Executive clemency is exercised by the:
A) Chief Justice
B) DOJ Secretary
C) President of the Philippines
D) Congress
  • 42. Pardon that does not restore political rights is called:
A) Absolute pardon
B) Partial pardon
C) Limited pardon
D) Conditional pardon
  • 43. Pardon granted to a class of persons is:
A) Absolute pardon
B) Collective pardon
C) General pardon
D) Amnesty
  • 44. Amnesty is usually granted in cases involving:
A) Treason, sedition, political offenses
B) Estafa
C) Theft
D) Murder
  • 45. Conditional pardon may be revoked by the President if:
A) The recipient becomes employed
B) The recipient travels abroad
C) The recipient commits another crime
D) The recipient votes
  • 46. Absolute pardon restores:
A) Freedom only
B) Reputation only
C) Employment
D) Civil and political rights
  • 47. Reprieve means
A) Commutation
B) Temporary suspension of execution of sentence
C) Full pardon
D) Reduction of sentence
  • 48. Commutation of sentence means:
A) Changing to a lesser penalty
B) Amnesty
C) Forgiveness
D) Suspension
  • 49. Can the President grant pardon in cases of impeachment?
A) With Senate approval
B) Yes
C) No
D) With Congress approval
  • 50. Amnesty requires concurrence of:
A) Majority of all members of Congress
B) President alone
C) 2/3 of all members of Congress
D) Senate only
  • 51. The primary role of a Probation and Parole Officer is:
A) Punish the offender
B) Supervise and assist rehabilitation
C) Collect fines
D) Police the community
  • 52. Which is NOT a function of PPA?
A) Monitor compliance
B) Grant parole
C) Investigate prospective clients
D) Supervise probationers and parolees
  • 53. A probationer/parolee is required to submit:
A) No reports
B) Daily reports
C) Periodic progress reports
D) Annual reports only
  • 54. The community-based approach believes that:
A) All offenders are victims
B) Offenders can change with community support
C) Offenders are dangerous and must be locked up
D) Prison is best
  • 55. Restorative justice focuses on:
A) Incapacitation
B) Retaliation
C) Punishment
D) Repairing harm to victim and community
  • 56. A probationer has the right to:
A) Possess firearms
B) Leave country anytime D. Refuse reporting
C) Due process before revocation
D) Refuse reporting
  • 57. During supervision, the officer may conduct:
A) Surprise home visits
B) Seize property
C) Arrest without warrant
D) Search without cause
  • 58. When a violation is alleged, the probationer is entitled to:
A) Hearing
B) No notice
C) Legal aid only if they can pay
D) Immediate revocation
  • 59. Successful completion of probation results in:
A) Automatic pardon
B) Conviction expunged in effect
C) Record erased entirely
D) No more criminal liability
  • 60. Which factor is considered in recommendation for release?
A) Gender
B) Social status
C) Risk to public safety
D) Race
  • 61. The law on Juvenile Justice and Welfare is:
A) RA 10630
B) RA 7610
C) RA 9344
D) PD 968
  • 62. A child in conflict with the law (CICL) under 15 years old is:
A) Criminally liable
B) Imprisoned
C) Tried in adult court
D) Exempt from criminal liability
  • 63. Intervention programs for CICL are:
A) Detention-based
B) Institutional
C) Punitive
D) Non-institutional
  • 64. Diversion means:
A) Fine heavily
B) Send to prison
C) Refer to alternative program instead of court
D) Prosecute immediately
  • 65. RA 10592 relates to:
A) Probation
B) Amnesty
C) Parole
D) Good conduct time allowance
  • 66. Good conduct time allowance benefits:
A) Detainees and prisoners
B) Pardoned persons
C) Parolees only
D) Probationers
  • 67. Who grants probation to children?
A) Police
B) Court
C) PPA only
D) DSWD
  • 68. Post-sentence community-based programs for CICL are managed with:
A) BUCOR
B) PNP
C) BJMP
D) DSWD
  • 69. The principle of restorative justice in juvenile cases promotes
A) Isolation
B) Shaming
C) Labeling
D) Reintegration
  • 70. Can a CICL be placed on probation?
A) Only if above 18
B) Only if sentenced to life
C) No
D) Yes, under applicable rules
  • 71. Probation is granted __________; Parole is granted __________.
A) By President; by Court
B) By BPP; by PPA
C) Before service; after partial service
D) After full service; before service
  • 72. Which is supervised by PPA?
A) Detainees
B) Prisoners
C) Convicts serving life
D) Probationers
  • 73. Which has NO sentence yet being served?
A) Amnesty
B) Commutation
C) Parole
D) Probation
  • 74. The Board of Pardons and Parole does NOT handle:
A) Commutation
B) Executive clemency recommendations
C) Probation applications
D) Parole
  • 75. Which is broader: pardon or amnesty?
A) Pardon
B) Amnesty
C) Equal
D) Depends on crime
  • 76. Absolute pardon vs Conditional pardon:
A) Both have same effect
B) Absolute has no conditions; conditional has terms
C) Conditional is from Court
D) Absolute is from Congress
  • 77. Which is a form of clemency that erases offense as if never committed?
A) Parole
B) Probation
C) Reprieve
D) Amnesty
  • 78. Time spent on probation __________ part of service of sentence.
A) May be
B) Is half
C) Is
D) Is not
  • 79. Time spent on parole __________ part of service of sentence.
A) Is only half
B) Is
C) Is double
D) Is not
  • 80. Which is cheaper for the government?
A) Confinement
B) Non-institutional correction
C) Imprisonment
D) Detention
  • 81. When probation is revoked, the time already spent on probation is:
A) Credited in full
B) Doubled
C) Credited to sentence
D) Not credited
  • 82. The burden of proving violation of probation lies with:
A) Judge
B) Prosecution
C) Probationer
D) Media
  • 83. Before parole is granted, the Board requires:
A) Family wealth report
B) Media approval
C) Prison record and investigation report
D) Political endorsement
  • 84. A parolee who violates conditions may be arrested by:
A) Any peace officer
B) Mayor
C) Private citizen only
D) Judge
  • 85. When can a probationer be granted early discharge?
A) Upon good conduct before end of period
B) Automatically
C) Never
D) After 1 year
  • 86. Early discharge from probation is approved by:
A) PPA Administrator
B) Court
C) Board of Pardons and Parole
D) President
  • 87. Which is NOT a valid reason to revoke parole?
A) Failure to report as required
B) Finding lawful employment
C) Change of residence without approval
D) Commission of another offense
  • 88. Upon final discharge from parole, the parolee receives:
A) Permanent exemption from court appearance
B) Certificate of final release and discharge
C) Right to carry firearms automatically
D) Absolute pardon
  • 89. The period within which to decide on a probation application is generally within:
A) 60 days from receipt of investigation report
B) 1 year
C) 15 days
D) 6 months
  • 90. Can a person sentenced to a term of exactly 6 years apply for probation?
A) No — the law says more than 6 years is disqualified; exactly 6 years is eligible
B) Yes
C) Only with the President’s approval
D) Only if recommended by the prosecutor
  • 91. Which of the following is a mandatory condition of probation under PD 968?
A) Volunteer in the barangay every weekend
B) Complete a college degree
C) Confess publicly the offense
D) Pay all fines and costs imposed by the court
  • 92. The Indeterminate Sentence Law does NOT apply to:
A) First-time offenders
B) Offenders sentenced to death or life imprisonment
C) Offenders under 21 years old
D) Offenders convicted of light felonies
  • 93. When the Board of Pardons and Parole grants parole, the release document is issued by:
A) The President
B) The PPA Administrator
C) The court
D) The Board, through the Department of Justice
  • 94. A probationer who leaves the country without permission may face:
A) Fine only
B) Revocation of probation
C) Automatic extension of probation
D) No penalty
  • 95. The main difference between reprieve and commutation is:
A) Reprieve = from court; Commutation = from Congress
B) Reprieve = temporary suspension; Commutation = reduced sentence
C) No difference
D) Reprieve = permanent release; Commutation = pardon
  • 96. Which agency prepares the Post-Sentence Investigation Report for parole consideration?
A) NBI
B) PNP
C) BUCOR together with PPA
D) BJMP
  • 97. Amnesty is proclaimed by the President with concurrence of Congress; it applies to:
A) Both past and future
B) Future offenses only
C) Civil cases only
D) Past offenses only
  • 98. A person who has been granted absolute pardon may still be disqualified from holding public office if:
A) The pardon does not restore political rights
B) They reapply first
C) Absolute pardon always restores all rights automatically
D) They were convicted of a crime involving moral turpitude and the disqualification is expressly removed
  • 99. The guiding philosophy of non-institutional corrections is
A) Reintegration, rehabilitation, and restorative justice
B) Incapacitation for life
C) Making offenders suffer
D) Punishment and retribution
  • 100. Which statement best summarizes the advantage of non-institutional over institutional corrections?
A) It provides stricter control than prison
B) It preserves family ties, reduces prison overcrowding, and lowers cost
C) It isolates the offender completely from society
D) It guarantees no recidivism
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