A) January 1, 1930 B) December 8, 1930 C) July 4, 1946 D) January 1, 1932
A) Judicial discretion B) Generality C) Prospectivity D) Territoriality
A) A foreign tourist commits an ordinary crime abroad. B) A Filipino commits any crime in any foreign country. C) A private citizen violates a foreign country's law. D) A public officer commits an offense abroad in the exercise of official functions.
A) Irretroactivity B) Favorability C) Legality D) Generality
A) The new law can never apply to past offenses. B) The accused must always serve the original penalty. C) The new law applies only to crimes committed by public officers. D) The favorable penal law may apply retroactively.
A) Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea B) Stare decisis C) Res judicata D) Nullum crimen, nulla poena sine lege
A) Only negligence B) Only acts resulting in actual injury C) Intentional acts or culpable acts arising from imprudence or negligence D) Only deliberate intent
A) Dolo B) Irresistible force C) Culpa D) Accident
A) Treachery B) Conspiracy C) Proposal D) Culpa
A) Criminal statutes must be liberally construed against the accused. B) The accused must prove innocence. C) Doubts in the interpretation of penal laws or in criminal liability are generally resolved in favor of the accused. D) Doubts must always favor the prosecution.
A) When the victim files a complaint. B) When the offender is arrested. C) When all the elements necessary for its execution and accomplishment are present. D) When the offender merely forms the intention to commit it.
A) Consummated homicide B) Impossible crime C) Frustrated homicide D) Attempted homicide
A) Consummated homicide B) Frustrated homicide in all cases C) Impossible crime D) Attempted homicide or attempted murder, depending on the circumstances
A) The existence of a victim B) The offender's apprehension C) The presence of criminal intent D) Whether the offender has performed all acts of execution
A) Attempted B) Frustrated C) Preparatory D) Consummated
A) Consummated theft B) Attempted theft C) No possible criminal liability under any circumstances D) Frustrated theft
A) All light felonies are punishable even when merely attempted. B) Light felonies are punishable only when committed by public officers. C) Light felonies are never punishable. D) Light felonies are punishable only when consummated, except those committed against persons or property.
A) When the law specifically provides a penalty for conspiracy B) Only when all conspirators are arrested C) Only when the intended felony is consummated D) In every case, even when the law does not provide a penalty for conspiracy
A) The actual performance of all acts of execution B) When a person who has decided to commit a felony proposes its execution to another person or persons C) The concealment of a crime after its commission D) An agreement between two or more persons to commit a felony
A) Attempted robbery B) Consummated robbery C) Not punishable as conspiracy under the RPC unless the law specifically penalizes it D) Frustrated robbery
A) Intentional, negligent, and accidental offenses B) Continuing, complex, and special offenses C) Grave, less grave, and light felonies D) Public, private, and administrative offenses
A) A less grave felony B) An administrative offense C) A light felony D) A grave felony
A) Praeter intentionem principle B) Rule on double jeopardy C) Principle of territoriality D) Rule of lenity
A) Justifying circumstance B) Absolutory cause C) Extenuating circumstance only D) Impossible crime
A) The act is inherently incapable of accomplishment or uses inadequate or ineffectual means. B) The offender must have criminal intent. C) The intended offense must actually be consummated. D) The act would be an offense against persons or property were it not for the inherent impossibility or ineffectual means.
A) Minority in every case B) Passion or obfuscation C) Accident without negligence D) Insanity in every case
A) A prior demand to stop B) Unlawful aggression C) Previous conviction of the aggressor D) Serious injury to the defender
A) Lack of sufficient provocation B) Voluntary surrender C) Unlawful aggression D) Reasonable necessity of the means employed
A) The aggressor must die or suffer serious physical injuries B) Lack of sufficient provocation on the part of the defender C) Reasonable necessity of the means employed D) Unlawful aggression
A) The defender must be related to the stranger. B) The defender must have been attacked first. C) The defender must not be motivated by revenge, resentment, or another evil motive. D) The stranger must be a public officer.
A) Avoidance of a greater evil or injury B) Treachery C) Recidivism D) Quasi-recidivism
A) Voluntary surrender B) Minority C) Fulfillment of a duty or lawful exercise of a right or office D) Passion or obfuscation
A) The exemption requires an order issued for a lawful purpose. B) The subordinate is automatically exempt if acting during work hours. C) Every order of a superior is presumed lawful. D) Obedience always exempts the subordinate from liability.
A) Treachery B) Evident premeditation C) Irresistible force D) Abuse of confidence
A) Exempting circumstance of insanity B) Alternative circumstance of intoxication C) Aggravating circumstance of treachery D) Mitigating circumstance of voluntary surrender only
A) Exempt only if the offense is a light felony B) Liable only for civil damages and never subject to intervention C) Always criminally liable as an adult D) Exempt from criminal liability, subject to applicable juvenile justice law
A) Discernment B) Recidivism C) Treachery D) Abuse of confidence
A) Accident B) Mistake of fact in every case C) Uncontrollable fear D) Irresistible force
A) Alternative circumstance B) Aggravating circumstance C) Qualifying circumstance D) Exempting circumstance
A) Recidivism B) A qualifying circumstance C) Treachery D) An exempting circumstance
A) Voluntary surrender B) Dwelling C) Evident premeditation D) Treachery
A) Made only after conviction B) Spontaneous and made to acknowledge guilt or save authorities the trouble and expense of search and capture C) Required by a court order after arrest D) Made only after serving the sentence
A) A mitigating circumstance B) An exempting circumstance C) An aggravating circumstance D) A justifying circumstance
A) Treachery B) A qualifying circumstance C) A mitigating circumstance involving lack of intent to commit so grave a wrong D) Recidivism
A) Praeter intentionem B) Treachery C) Abuse of confidence D) Evident premeditation
A) Treachery B) Recidivism C) Mitigating circumstance of sufficient provocation D) Quasi-recidivism
A) Treachery B) Plea of guilty C) Lack of intent to commit so grave a wrong D) Voluntary surrender
A) Passion or obfuscation B) Treachery C) Accident D) Voluntary surrender
A) Minority B) Accident C) Voluntary surrender D) Dwelling
A) No; it must be shown to have been purposely sought or to have facilitated the crime, or otherwise satisfy the applicable legal requirements B) Yes, in every case C) No, because nighttime can never aggravate a crime D) Yes, whenever the offense occurs after 6:00 p.m.
A) Intoxication B) Evident premeditation C) Unlawful aggression D) Treachery
A) Always present whenever alcohol is consumed B) Automatically proven by the offender's testimony alone C) Neither habitual nor intentional D) Habitual and intentional
A) Relationship is always aggravating. B) Relationship is never considered by the court. C) Its effect depends on the nature of the crime and the statutory rules. D) Relationship is always mitigating.
A) First offender B) Quasi-recidivist in every case C) Recidivist D) Principal by inducement
A) Recidivism requires the second offense to occur while serving sentence. B) Quasi-recidivism involves committing a new felony after conviction by final judgment and before beginning to serve, or while serving, sentence for a prior conviction, as provided by law. C) Quasi-recidivism applies only to negligent felonies. D) They are exactly the same.
A) Accessories only B) Accomplices only C) Principals only D) Principals, accomplices, and accessories
A) Accessory only B) Civilly liable person only C) Witness D) Principal by direct participation
A) Principal by inducement, if the legal requisites are met B) Principal by direct participation in every case C) Accomplice only D) Accessory after the fact only
A) Victim B) Witness C) Accessory only D) Principal by indispensable cooperation
A) Accessory B) Exempt person C) Principal by inducement in all cases D) Accomplice
A) Principal by direct participation B) Victim C) Accomplice before the fact D) Accessory
A) Merely witnessing the crime without participating B) Concealing or destroying the body of the crime to prevent its discovery C) Being related to the offender without assisting D) Reporting the crime to authorities
A) An accessory must always be present during execution. B) All accessories are liable for every felony regardless of circumstances. C) An accessory is necessarily the person who planned the crime. D) Article 19 specifies acts that may make a person an accessory, subject to statutory exceptions.
A) All friends of the principal B) All persons who provide shelter C) Certain relatives of the principal, as specified by law D) All public officers
A) All crimes require conspiracy. B) Agreement alone always establishes guilt beyond reasonable doubt. C) The act of one conspirator may be attributable to the others in the execution of the common design. D) Every person present at the scene is automatically guilty.
A) Reparation of damages B) Reclusion temporal C) Restitution D) Indemnification
A) Public censure B) Reclusion temporal C) Arresto menor D) Fine classified as a light penalty
A) Reclusion temporal B) Reclusion perpetua C) Prision correccional D) Death
A) Prision correccional B) Prision mayor C) Arresto menor D) Reclusion temporal
A) To permit courts to invent penalties for any conduct B) To allow retroactive imposition of harsher penalties C) To remove the requirement of a criminal statute D) To prohibit the imposition of a penalty not prescribed by law before the commission of the offense
A) Generality B) Legality of penalties C) Civil indemnity D) Territoriality
A) Only persons who are public officers B) Persons guilty of a felony, even if serving sentence, subject to the law's exceptions C) No person convicted before the law's enactment D) Only persons who have not been charged
A) The minimum penalty is always imposed. B) The maximum penalty is always imposed. C) Courts disregard all circumstances D) The court applies the statutory rules governing the proper period or degree of the penalty.
A) They apply only to civil liability. B) They cannot be imposed by a court. C) They are imposed according to the applicable statutory rules for indivisible penalties and relevant circumstances. D) They are always divided into three periods.
A) To govern the application of penalties divisible into three periods when the circumstances specified by law are present B) To define impossible crimes C) To determine territorial jurisdiction D) To extinguish civil liability automatically
A) The number of criminal cases that may be filed B) The number of aggravating circumstances C) The maximum duration of the convict's service of multiple penalties D) The amount of civil indemnity in every case
A) Three times the most severe penalty, subject to the statutory maximum of forty years B) The sum of all penalties in every case C) Thirty years in every case D) Twenty years in every case
A) Arresto mayor B) Confiscation of proceeds only C) Restitution only D) Payment of civil indemnity only
A) It is mandatory for every unpaid civil debt. B) It applies to all civil damages. C) It may be imposed only as authorized by law and subject to applicable limits and exceptions. D) It may be imposed without statutory authority.
A) They may attach to principal penalties as provided by law. B) They are equivalent to civil damages. C) They are never imposed by operation of law. D) They are always independent of principal penalties.
A) Plea of guilty B) Payment of civil damages alone C) Prescription of the crime D) Voluntary surrender
A) Criminal liability and civil liability ex delicto, subject to applicable law and jurisprudence B) All civil obligations of the deceased, including those unrelated to the crime C) Only accessory penalties D) Only civil liability arising from the crime
A) It is a mode of total extinction of criminal liability. B) It is merely a mitigating circumstance. C) It automatically extinguishes every civil obligation. D) It prevents the offended party from seeking restitution in every case.
A) A pardon may remit the penalty as provided by law, but does not automatically extinguish civil liability. B) A pardon always extinguishes civil liability. C) A pardon automatically erases the historical fact of conviction for all purposes. D) A pardon is the same as acquittal.
A) It is the payment of a fine. B) It is the reduction of a penalty by the court. C) It is the victim's forgiveness of the offender. D) It is the expiration of the period within which the State may prosecute, as determined by law.
A) The location of the police station B) The penalty prescribed by law and the applicable statutory rules C) The victim's age alone D) The offender's occupation alone
A) Prescription of the crime B) Death of the convict C) Conditional pardon D) Amnesty
A) Deduction from the term of imprisonment for qualifying good conduct, subject to law B) The classification of felonies C) The determination of conspiracy D) The amount of civil indemnity
A) It is granted by a private complainant. B) It automatically applies to every crime. C) It is identical to voluntary surrender. D) It is a governmental act that may extinguish criminal liability for covered offenses, subject to constitutional and legal requirements.
A) Both apply only to light felonies. B) There is no legal distinction between them. C) Both mean that the offender has paid civil damages. D) Prescription of a crime concerns the period to prosecute, while prescription of a penalty concerns the period to enforce a penalty imposed by final judgment.
A) Exempt from restitution B) Liable only for imprisonment C) Automatically disqualified from all employment D) Civilly liable
A) Restitution B) Disqualification from public office C) Arrest D) Imprisonment
A) Restitution is legally available, subject to the statutory protection for certain third-party acquisitions B) The accused has already served the sentence C) The property has sentimental value only D) The victim agrees to waive all rights in every case
A) Payment for the damage caused, determined by the court in accordance with the law B) A pardon granted by the President C) Imprisonment of the accused D) A reduction of the penalty
A) Only the police officer who investigated the crime B) No one other than the direct victim under any circumstances C) Only the accused D) The injured party's family or a third person because of the crime, as legally established
A) The court B) The victim alone, without judicial determination C) The barangay captain in every case D) The police investigator
A) Accessories, accomplices, then principals B) Any order chosen by the victim without regard to law C) Principals, then accomplices, then accessories D) Accomplices, accessories, then principals
A) Make restitution equivalent to the extent of participation in the proceeds B) Pay an automatic fine of ₱100,000 C) Serve the principal's entire sentence D) Return nothing because the participation was gratuitous
A) Continues notwithstanding service of sentence or certain forms of remission of the penalty, unless the civil liability is otherwise extinguished B) Is extinguished by the mere passage of one year C) Automatically ends when imprisonment ends D) Ends whenever the offender receives a pardon
A) Criminal liability and civil liability are identical in all respects. B) Civil liability may survive in circumstances recognized by law even when criminal liability is extinguished, depending on the ground and applicable legal rules. C) Acquittal always extinguishes every form of civil liability. D) Civil liability can never arise from a felony. |