ThatQuiz Test Library Take this test now
CDI-2 SCIMED
Contributed by: Three
  • 1. In the investigation of murder, which of the following is a primary consideration for distinguishing it from homicide?
A) The location of the crime scene
B) The presence of mitigating circumstances
C) The type of weapon used
D) The offender's intent to kill
  • 2. During homicide investigation, what approach helps determine if the act was premeditated?
A) Collection of fingerprints only
B) Recording witness names
C) Analysis of motive, opportunity, and means
D) Conducting polygraph tests
  • 3. Parricide investigation requires a unique focus on:
A) Time of day of the crime
B) Victim’s previous criminal history
C) Relationship between victim and suspect
D) Type of weapon used
  • 4. Infanticide under the Revised Penal Code is differentiated from murder primarily by:
A) Location of the crime
B) Method of killing
C) Age of the victim
D) Age of the offender
  • 5. In cases of abortion, which investigative approach is most critical?
A) Identification of the medical practitioner involved
B) Determining motive for concealment
C) Witness statements about pregnancy
D) Assessment of social status of victim
  • 6. For physical injuries, investigators primarily analyze:
A) Family background of the victim
B) Nature, location, and extent of injuries
C) Time of day the injury occurred
D) Victim's income
  • 7. Rape investigations should prioritize:
A) Social media profiling
B) Checking family history
C) Assessing economic status of suspect
D) Securing forensic evidence and victim’s statement
  • 8. Which principle is central in analyzing the scene of a murder?
A) Physical evidence collection
B) None of the above
C) Motive and opportunity
D) Both A and B
  • 9. In homicide cases, interviewing witnesses requires:
A) Immediate confrontation with the suspec
B) Open-ended questions to elicit detailed accounts
C) Leading questions to confirm assumptions
D) Ignoring inconsistencies in statements
  • 10. Under R.A. 8049 as amended, investigators in hazing-related deaths must
A) Focus only on the organizers
B) Conduct online investigations exclusively
C) Consider the consent of the victim irrelevant
D) Dismiss minor injuries
  • 11. Anti-Hazing investigations analyze:
A) Economic status of members
B) Location aesthetics
C) Public opinion
D) Group dynamics and initiation processes
  • 12. The “Safe Spaces Act” primarily guides investigators in:
A) Analyzing sexual harassment incidents in public spaces
B) Conducting environmental crime inspections
C) Investigating traffic violations
D) Investigating burglary
  • 13. In investigating sexual harassment under R.A. 7877, evidence gathering should include:
A) Social media posts unrelated to the incident
B) Previous employment history of the victim
C) Financial records of the accused
D) Victim statements and corroborating witnesses
  • 14. When analyzing a case of parricide, which factor is least relevant?
A) Familial relationships and tensions
B) Financial disputes within family
C) Victim’s clothing choice
D) Offender's prior criminal record
  • 15. Which of the following is an essential investigative approach in rape cases?
A) Reviewing bank statements of suspect
B) Checking prior vacations of victim
C) Investigating neighbors’ opinions
D) DNA and forensic evidence collection
  • 16. In murder investigation, establishing timeline helps in
A) All of the above
B) Reconstructing crime sequence
C) Determining motive
D) Identifying potential witnesses
  • 17. During infanticide investigation, which of the following is a key applying approach?
A) Searching public records for health
B) Identification of caretaker or mothe
C) Investigating local schools
D) Profiling neighbors
  • 18. Physical injuries can be classified as:
A) Both A and B
B) Neither A nor B
C) Temporary or permanent
D) Simple or grave
  • 19. R.A. 11053 amendment strengthens anti-hazing investigations by:
A) Reducing police involvement
B) Limiting prosecution to minor injuries
C) Allowing hazing in private clubs
D) Making consent of victim irrelevant
  • 20. Analysis of modus operandi in homicide is important for:
A) Linking multiple cases to a single offender
B) Scheduling court dates
C) Evaluating crime location aesthetics
D) Determining victim’s wealth
  • 21. When analyzing rape cases, forensic evidence should include:
A) Weapon traces
B) Clothing fibers
C) Biological samples
D) All of the above
  • 22. In abortion investigations, suspect interrogation should follow:
A) Social media monitoring
B) Assumptions about intent
C) Legal procedures respecting victim rights
D) Dismissal of medical records
  • 23. In murder investigation, an analyzing approach is:
A) Evaluating weather at time of death
B) Recording victim’s financial status
C) Linking physical evidence to suspect
D) Profiling neighbors’ opinions
  • 24. Under R.A. 11313, investigators apply analytical skills by:
A) Evaluating environment to prevent harassment
B) Avoiding workplace inspections
C) Checking only criminal history
D) Ignoring victim testimony
  • 25. Which method is most effective in determining premeditation in homicide?
A) Inspecting clothing of victim
B) Social media monitoring
C) Assessing traffic conditions
D) Psychological profiling and motive analysis
  • 26. In parricide investigation, the most critical evidence is:
A) Confession or admission of suspect
B) Daily routines of victim
C) Financial transactions
D) Neighborhood survey
  • 27. Investigative approach for sexual harassment includes:
A) Corroborating statements with digital evidence
B) Ignoring complaints filed online
C) Limiting evidence collection to physical harassment
D) Interviewing only witnesses favorable to accused
  • 28. The investigative phase of evidence collection applies:
A) Proper documentation and preservation techniques
B) Skipping minor evidence
C) Relying only on witness recollection
D) Publicizing case details immediately
  • 29. During a physical injury investigation, determining intent involves:
A) Neighborhood demographics
B) Victim’s social media activity
C) Circumstances of attack and prior conflicts
D) Weather at the time of incident
  • 30. Infanticide case analysis relies heavily on:
A) Economic background of the victim
B) Employment status of the parents
C) Maternal history and forensic evidence
D) School attendance records
  • 31. Anti-Hazing Law (R.A. 8049) applying approach includes:
A) Ignoring minor injuries
B) Verifying location aesthetics
C) Checking social media posts only
D) Examining initiation procedures for life-threatening practices
  • 32. In rape investigation, analyzing inconsistencies in statements helps to:
A) Corroborate facts and detect deception
B) Avoid further investigation
C) Dismiss victim credibility
D) Determine suspect wealth
  • 33. In murder, applying analytical skills include:
A) Recording victim’s hobbies
B) Reconstructing events and sequence of attack
C) Evaluating neighborhood trends
D) Tracking public transport usage
  • 34. Investigating homicide requires linking:
A) Neighbors’ opinions only
B) Evidence, witness accounts, and suspect behavior
C) Weather conditions exclusively
D) Victim’s financial records only
  • 35. In abortion-related crimes, investigators must analyze:
A) Social gatherings of victim
B) Political affiliations
C) Medical records, witness accounts, and suspect actions
D) Housing aesthetics
  • 36. Sexual harassment investigation under R.A. 7877 focuses on:
A) Location of residence
B) Personal relationships of witness
C) Pattern of harassment and corroboration
D) Financial status of complainant
  • 37. Physical injury investigation applies forensic analysis to:
A) Assess neighborhood ratings
B) Evaluate victim’s social media activity
C) Establish cause, weapon used, and severity
D) Track economic background
  • 38. Parricide investigation may involve analyzing:
A) Public transportation habits
B) Workplace records
C) Domestic disputes, motive, and family tensions
D) Vacation plans
  • 39. Infanticide investigation requires analyzing:
A) Social media presence
B) Neighborhood watch logs
C) Timing, caretaker involvement, and forensic findings
D) School enrollment history
  • 40. Investigators applying R.A. 11313 principles should:
A) Focus only on financial evidence
B) Ignore physical threats
C) Ensure victim safety and gather evidence in safe environments
D) Limit evidence collection to digital communication
  • 41. In murder cases, crime scene reconstruction applies:
A) Financial audit of victim
B) Physical evidence mapping and sequence of events
C) Weather monitoring
D) Neighborhood survey
  • 42. Forensic analysis in rape cases helps:
A) Track public opinion
B) Evaluate victim’s wardrobe choices
C) Link suspect to the crime through biological evidence
D) Determine neighborhood ratings
  • 43. In homicide, analyzing motive requires:
A) Neighbor’s socioeconomic status
B) Personal conflicts, prior threats, and opportunities
C) Location aesthetics
D) Witness social media activity
  • 44. Application of Anti-Hazing Law involves:
A) Investigating acts causing physical or psychological harm
B) Restricting evidence to video only
C) Ignoring minor offenses
D) Focusing on financial disputes
  • 45. Physical injuries analysis may include:
A) Assessing neighborhood ratings
B) Distinguishing accidental from intentional injuries
C) Tracking employment records
D) Evaluating social media posts
  • 46. Investigators applying Safe Spaces Act focus on:
A) Assessing victim’s wardrobe
B) Restricting investigation to verbal harassment only
C) Ignoring anonymous reports
D) Creating safe reporting channels and evaluating patterns of harassment
  • 47. Analysis of abortion-related crime involves:
A) Investigating unrelated family disputes
B) Evaluating victim’s social media history
C) Cross-checking medical and witness evidence for criminal intent
D) Monitoring neighbors
  • 48. In rape investigations, applying analytical skills includes:
A) Evaluating victim’s neighborhood
B) Focusing on witness’s financial status
C) Correlating victim statements, forensic evidence, and suspect behavior
D) Monitoring public opinion
  • 49. Infanticide investigation applies:
A) Forensic pathology to determine cause and time of death
B) Tracking school enrollment
C) Evaluating neighborhood social status
D) Monitoring online activity
  • 50. Applying principles of R.A. 7877 involves:
A) Evaluating recurring harassment patterns and organizational response
B) Limiting investigation to verbal complaints
C) Tracking social media popularity
D) Reviewing personal wardrobe choices
  • 51. Which of the following best describes somatic death?
A) Temporary loss of consciousness
B) Permanent cessation of all brain activity
C) Death of the entire body
D) Death of individual organs
  • 52. Clinical death is characterized by:
A) Death of the brain only
B) Complete decomposition of the body
C) Temporary absence of heartbeats and breathing that may be reversible
D) Irreversible cessation of circulation and respiration
  • 53. The term cellular death refers to:
A) Death caused by trauma
B) Death of individual cells after cessation of oxygen supply
C) Death of the organism as a whole
D) Legal declaration of death
  • 54. Somatic death occurs after:
A) Cellular death
B) Brain death
C) Clinical death
D) Post-mortem changes
  • 55. Which is an example of sudden death?
A) Chronic kidney failure
B) Senility
C) Gradual cancer progression
D) Myocardial infarction leading to immediate collapse
  • 56. Pathological death is best defined as
A) Death from natural aging
B) Death occurring in hospitals only
C) Death resulting from disease or injury
D) Death due to natural causes
  • 57. A natural death occurs:
A) As a consequence of disease or aging
B) By sudden trauma
C) By suicide
D) Due to homicide or accident
  • 58. Accidental death refers to:
A) Death that occurs in hospitals
B) Death by deliberate act
C) Death caused unintentionally by external factors
D) Death due to natural illness
  • 59. Homicidal death can be identified by:
A) Cellular autolysis
B) Absence of trauma
C) Natural disease
D) External injuries indicating intentional harm
  • 60. Sudden natural death is commonly caused by:
A) Cancer
B) Aging
C) Heart attack, cerebral hemorrhage, or pulmonary embolism
D) Chronic infection
  • 61. Death due to poisoning is classified as:
A) Pathological only
B) Natural
C) Homicidal or suicidal depending on context
D) Accidental
  • 62. Primary death refers to:
A) Clinical death
B) Death due to secondary complications
C) Cellular breakdown post-mortem
D) Death due to immediate cause
  • 63. Secondary death occurs as a result of:
A) None of the above
B) Complications following the primary cause
C) Secondary death occurs as a result of:
D) Legal declaration of death
  • 64. Biological death is marked by:
A) Irreversible cessation of vital functions
B) Legal documentation
C) Temporary absence of heartbeat
D) Heart-lung resuscitation
  • 65. Asphyxial death occurs due to:
A) Bacterial infection
B) Poison ingestion
C) Heart failure
D) Lack of oxygen supply to tissues
  • 66. Rigor mortis is:
A) Stiffening of muscles due to chemical changes
B) Decomposition of soft tissues
C) Cooling of the body after death
D) Blood pooling in dependent parts
  • 67. Algor mortis refers to:
A) Stiffening of muscles
B) Discoloration of the skin
C) Cooling of the body to match ambient temperature
D) Decomposition of internal organs
  • 68. Livor mortis is best described as:
A) Cooling of the body
B) Settling of blood in dependent body parts causing discoloration
C) Decomposition
D) Post-mortem stiffening of muscles
  • 69. Putrefaction begins with:
A) Rigor mortis
B) Livor mortis
C) Algor mortis
D) Bacterial activity in the gastrointestinal tract
  • 70. Early post-mortem changes include:
A) Mummification
B) Skeletonization
C) LAdvanced decomposition
D) Algor, rigor, and livor mortis
  • 71. Which factor accelerates rigor mortis?
A) Hypothermia
B) Starvation
C) Strenuous activity before death
D) Cold environment
  • 72. Delayed rigor mortis can be caused by:
A) Cold temperature
B) Sepsis
C) Physical exertion before death
D) Hyperthermia
  • 73. Hypostasis is another term for:
A) Algor mortis
B) Rigor mortis
C) Putrefaction
D) Livor mortis
  • 74. Cadaveric spasm differs from rigor mortis because:
A) It affects the entire body uniformly
B) It is sudden and affects specific muscles at the moment of death
C) It occurs gradually
D) It is reversible
  • 75. Marbling during decomposition refers to:
A) Blood pooling
B) Skin cooling
C) Greenish discoloration of veins due to bacterial activity
D) Muscle stiffening
  • 76. Mummification is a post-mortem change that occurs:
A) In humid and warm climates
B) In dry and arid conditions
C) Only in cold environments
D) Immediately after death
  • 77. Skeletonization is characterized by:
A) Blood settling in dependent parts
B) Complete decomposition of soft tissues leaving bones
C) Discoloration of skin
D) Cooling of the body
  • 78. Adipocere formation is:
A) Transformation of body fat into waxy substance under moist conditions
B) Cooling of the body
C) Stiffening of muscles
D) Discoloration of the skin
  • 79. Factors affecting post-mortem changes include:
A) Only cause of death
B) None of the above
C) Only environmental temperature
D) Temperature, environment, cause of death, and body condition
  • 80. Post-mortem interval estimation relies on:
A) Circumstantial evidence only
B) Cause of death only
C) Rigor, livor, and algor mortis
D) Only cadaveric spasm
  • 81. A laceration is best described as:
A) Wound caused by chemical burns
B) Tear in tissue caused by blunt trauma
C) Smooth-edged wound caused by a sharp instrument
D) Wound caused by heat
  • 82. An incised wound is:
A) Result of gunshot
B) Tearing of tissue due to crushing
C) Produced by a sharp-edged instrument with clean margins
D) Caused by blunt trauma
  • 83. Stab wounds are characterized by:
A) Length greater than depth
B) Produced by blunt objects
C) Always fatal
D) Depth greater than length
  • 84. Puncture wounds usually result from:
A) Chemical agents
B) Small, pointed instruments penetrating tissue
C) Sharp-edged instruments slicing tissue
D) Blunt trauma
  • 85. Contusion is defined as:
A) Deep stab wound
B) Wound with irregular margins
C) Tear in skin with smooth edges
D) Bruise caused by blunt trauma without breaking the skin
  • 86. Abrasion refers to:
A) Superficial scraping or removal of skin layers
B) Bruise under intact skin
C) Deep penetrating wound
D) Tear in muscle
  • 87. A defensive wound is most commonly found on:
A) Palms or forearms
B) Abdomen
C) Back
D) Legs
  • 88. Characteristics of incised wounds include:
A) Clean-cut edges, minimal tissue damage
B) Wide and irregular edges
C) Always fatal
D) Only produced by blunt objects
  • 89. Characteristics of lacerations include:
A) Superficial only
B) Sharp edges
C) Only in muscles
D) Contused margins, irregular shape, tissue bridging
  • 90. Avulsion involves:
A) Complete removal of tissue
B) Only bruises
C) Partial tearing of tissue away from normal attachment
D) Only superficial scraping
  • 91. Gunshot entrance wounds typically:
A) Show no tissue damage
B) Are smooth and clean
C) Have irregular margins and burn marks
D) Cannot be analyzed
  • 92. Characteristics of defensive wounds suggest:
A) Victim was unaware
B) Victim attempted to protect self
C) Perpetrator acted accidentally
D) Wound is post-mortem
  • 93. Wound age estimation relies on:
A) Only presence of blood
B) Size of wound
C) Color changes, inflammation, and healing patterns
D) Only shape of the wound
  • 94. Contused laceration is caused by:
A) Blunt force with tearing
B) Electrical injury
C) Chemical burns
D) Sharp instrument
  • 95. Incised wound healing is faster due to:
A) Irregular margins
B) Extensive tissue bridging
C) Minimal tissue loss and clean edges
D) Infection
  • 96. Compound fractures differ from simple fractures because:
A) Bone pierces the skin
B) Only cartilage is involved
C) No bleeding occurs
D) Skin is intact
  • 97. Thermal burns can be classified according to:
A) Depth: first, second, and third-degree
B) Age of victim
C) Cause only
D) Shape only
  • 98. Chemical wounds are characterized by:
A) Limited to hands
B) Only superficial injuries
C) Usually sharp, clean edges
D) Tissue corrosion due to caustic substances
  • 99. Difference between stab and incised wounds is:
A) Incised wound depth > length, stab length > depth
B) Stab wound depth > length, incised wound length > depth
C) Incised wounds always fatal
D) Both are identical
  • 100. Signs of antemortem wounds include:
A) Bleeding, inflammation, bruising
B) Only post-mortem staining
C) Only discoloration
D) No bleeding
Created with That Quiz — where test making and test taking are made easy for math and other subject areas.