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CDI-2 SCIMED
Contributed by: Three
  • 1. In the investigation of murder, which of the following is a primary consideration for distinguishing it from homicide?
A) The type of weapon used
B) The offender's intent to kill
C) The presence of mitigating circumstances
D) The location of the crime scene
  • 2. During homicide investigation, what approach helps determine if the act was premeditated?
A) Collection of fingerprints only
B) Conducting polygraph tests
C) Recording witness names
D) Analysis of motive, opportunity, and means
  • 3. Parricide investigation requires a unique focus on:
A) Time of day of the crime
B) Relationship between victim and suspect
C) Victim’s previous criminal history
D) Type of weapon used
  • 4. Infanticide under the Revised Penal Code is differentiated from murder primarily by:
A) Location of the crime
B) Method of killing
C) Age of the victim
D) Age of the offender
  • 5. In cases of abortion, which investigative approach is most critical?
A) Assessment of social status of victim
B) Witness statements about pregnancy
C) Identification of the medical practitioner involved
D) Determining motive for concealment
  • 6. For physical injuries, investigators primarily analyze:
A) Family background of the victim
B) Victim's income
C) Nature, location, and extent of injuries
D) Time of day the injury occurred
  • 7. Rape investigations should prioritize:
A) Social media profiling
B) Assessing economic status of suspect
C) Checking family history
D) Securing forensic evidence and victim’s statement
  • 8. Which principle is central in analyzing the scene of a murder?
A) Both A and B
B) None of the above
C) Motive and opportunity
D) Physical evidence collection
  • 9. In homicide cases, interviewing witnesses requires:
A) Leading questions to confirm assumptions
B) Immediate confrontation with the suspec
C) Ignoring inconsistencies in statements
D) Open-ended questions to elicit detailed accounts
  • 10. Under R.A. 8049 as amended, investigators in hazing-related deaths must
A) Dismiss minor injuries
B) Conduct online investigations exclusively
C) Focus only on the organizers
D) Consider the consent of the victim irrelevant
  • 11. Anti-Hazing investigations analyze:
A) Economic status of members
B) Group dynamics and initiation processes
C) Location aesthetics
D) Public opinion
  • 12. The “Safe Spaces Act” primarily guides investigators in:
A) Analyzing sexual harassment incidents in public spaces
B) Investigating burglary
C) Investigating traffic violations
D) Conducting environmental crime inspections
  • 13. In investigating sexual harassment under R.A. 7877, evidence gathering should include:
A) Victim statements and corroborating witnesses
B) Previous employment history of the victim
C) Financial records of the accused
D) Social media posts unrelated to the incident
  • 14. When analyzing a case of parricide, which factor is least relevant?
A) Financial disputes within family
B) Offender's prior criminal record
C) Familial relationships and tensions
D) Victim’s clothing choice
  • 15. Which of the following is an essential investigative approach in rape cases?
A) Reviewing bank statements of suspect
B) Investigating neighbors’ opinions
C) DNA and forensic evidence collection
D) Checking prior vacations of victim
  • 16. In murder investigation, establishing timeline helps in
A) All of the above
B) Identifying potential witnesses
C) Reconstructing crime sequence
D) Determining motive
  • 17. During infanticide investigation, which of the following is a key applying approach?
A) Identification of caretaker or mothe
B) Searching public records for health
C) Investigating local schools
D) Profiling neighbors
  • 18. Physical injuries can be classified as:
A) Neither A nor B
B) Temporary or permanent
C) Simple or grave
D) Both A and B
  • 19. R.A. 11053 amendment strengthens anti-hazing investigations by:
A) Making consent of victim irrelevant
B) Allowing hazing in private clubs
C) Limiting prosecution to minor injuries
D) Reducing police involvement
  • 20. Analysis of modus operandi in homicide is important for:
A) Evaluating crime location aesthetics
B) Linking multiple cases to a single offender
C) Determining victim’s wealth
D) Scheduling court dates
  • 21. When analyzing rape cases, forensic evidence should include:
A) All of the above
B) Clothing fibers
C) Weapon traces
D) Biological samples
  • 22. In abortion investigations, suspect interrogation should follow:
A) Assumptions about intent
B) Legal procedures respecting victim rights
C) Dismissal of medical records
D) Social media monitoring
  • 23. In murder investigation, an analyzing approach is:
A) Evaluating weather at time of death
B) Recording victim’s financial status
C) Profiling neighbors’ opinions
D) Linking physical evidence to suspect
  • 24. Under R.A. 11313, investigators apply analytical skills by:
A) Checking only criminal history
B) Evaluating environment to prevent harassment
C) Ignoring victim testimony
D) Avoiding workplace inspections
  • 25. Which method is most effective in determining premeditation in homicide?
A) Psychological profiling and motive analysis
B) Inspecting clothing of victim
C) Social media monitoring
D) Assessing traffic conditions
  • 26. In parricide investigation, the most critical evidence is:
A) Daily routines of victim
B) Financial transactions
C) Neighborhood survey
D) Confession or admission of suspect
  • 27. Investigative approach for sexual harassment includes:
A) Ignoring complaints filed online
B) Corroborating statements with digital evidence
C) Interviewing only witnesses favorable to accused
D) Limiting evidence collection to physical harassment
  • 28. The investigative phase of evidence collection applies:
A) Skipping minor evidence
B) Relying only on witness recollection
C) Publicizing case details immediately
D) Proper documentation and preservation techniques
  • 29. During a physical injury investigation, determining intent involves:
A) Victim’s social media activity
B) Neighborhood demographics
C) Weather at the time of incident
D) Circumstances of attack and prior conflicts
  • 30. Infanticide case analysis relies heavily on:
A) Maternal history and forensic evidence
B) School attendance records
C) Employment status of the parents
D) Economic background of the victim
  • 31. Anti-Hazing Law (R.A. 8049) applying approach includes:
A) Verifying location aesthetics
B) Checking social media posts only
C) Examining initiation procedures for life-threatening practices
D) Ignoring minor injuries
  • 32. In rape investigation, analyzing inconsistencies in statements helps to:
A) Dismiss victim credibility
B) Determine suspect wealth
C) Corroborate facts and detect deception
D) Avoid further investigation
  • 33. In murder, applying analytical skills include:
A) Reconstructing events and sequence of attack
B) Tracking public transport usage
C) Evaluating neighborhood trends
D) Recording victim’s hobbies
  • 34. Investigating homicide requires linking:
A) Evidence, witness accounts, and suspect behavior
B) Weather conditions exclusively
C) Neighbors’ opinions only
D) Victim’s financial records only
  • 35. In abortion-related crimes, investigators must analyze:
A) Political affiliations
B) Social gatherings of victim
C) Medical records, witness accounts, and suspect actions
D) Housing aesthetics
  • 36. Sexual harassment investigation under R.A. 7877 focuses on:
A) Financial status of complainant
B) Personal relationships of witness
C) Location of residence
D) Pattern of harassment and corroboration
  • 37. Physical injury investigation applies forensic analysis to:
A) Establish cause, weapon used, and severity
B) Assess neighborhood ratings
C) Evaluate victim’s social media activity
D) Track economic background
  • 38. Parricide investigation may involve analyzing:
A) Public transportation habits
B) Workplace records
C) Domestic disputes, motive, and family tensions
D) Vacation plans
  • 39. Infanticide investigation requires analyzing:
A) Timing, caretaker involvement, and forensic findings
B) Social media presence
C) School enrollment history
D) Neighborhood watch logs
  • 40. Investigators applying R.A. 11313 principles should:
A) Limit evidence collection to digital communication
B) Ensure victim safety and gather evidence in safe environments
C) Ignore physical threats
D) Focus only on financial evidence
  • 41. In murder cases, crime scene reconstruction applies:
A) Weather monitoring
B) Financial audit of victim
C) Physical evidence mapping and sequence of events
D) Neighborhood survey
  • 42. Forensic analysis in rape cases helps:
A) Link suspect to the crime through biological evidence
B) Track public opinion
C) Determine neighborhood ratings
D) Evaluate victim’s wardrobe choices
  • 43. In homicide, analyzing motive requires:
A) Neighbor’s socioeconomic status
B) Personal conflicts, prior threats, and opportunities
C) Location aesthetics
D) Witness social media activity
  • 44. Application of Anti-Hazing Law involves:
A) Restricting evidence to video only
B) Ignoring minor offenses
C) Focusing on financial disputes
D) Investigating acts causing physical or psychological harm
  • 45. Physical injuries analysis may include:
A) Distinguishing accidental from intentional injuries
B) Assessing neighborhood ratings
C) Evaluating social media posts
D) Tracking employment records
  • 46. Investigators applying Safe Spaces Act focus on:
A) Creating safe reporting channels and evaluating patterns of harassment
B) Assessing victim’s wardrobe
C) Ignoring anonymous reports
D) Restricting investigation to verbal harassment only
  • 47. Analysis of abortion-related crime involves:
A) Cross-checking medical and witness evidence for criminal intent
B) Monitoring neighbors
C) Evaluating victim’s social media history
D) Investigating unrelated family disputes
  • 48. In rape investigations, applying analytical skills includes:
A) Focusing on witness’s financial status
B) Correlating victim statements, forensic evidence, and suspect behavior
C) Monitoring public opinion
D) Evaluating victim’s neighborhood
  • 49. Infanticide investigation applies:
A) Tracking school enrollment
B) Forensic pathology to determine cause and time of death
C) Monitoring online activity
D) Evaluating neighborhood social status
  • 50. Applying principles of R.A. 7877 involves:
A) Evaluating recurring harassment patterns and organizational response
B) Reviewing personal wardrobe choices
C) Limiting investigation to verbal complaints
D) Tracking social media popularity
  • 51. Which of the following best describes somatic death?
A) Death of the entire body
B) Permanent cessation of all brain activity
C) Temporary loss of consciousness
D) Death of individual organs
  • 52. Clinical death is characterized by:
A) Irreversible cessation of circulation and respiration
B) Complete decomposition of the body
C) Death of the brain only
D) Temporary absence of heartbeats and breathing that may be reversible
  • 53. The term cellular death refers to:
A) Death caused by trauma
B) Death of individual cells after cessation of oxygen supply
C) Legal declaration of death
D) Death of the organism as a whole
  • 54. Somatic death occurs after:
A) Clinical death
B) Post-mortem changes
C) Brain death
D) Cellular death
  • 55. Which is an example of sudden death?
A) Senility
B) Myocardial infarction leading to immediate collapse
C) Chronic kidney failure
D) Gradual cancer progression
  • 56. Pathological death is best defined as
A) Death occurring in hospitals only
B) Death due to natural causes
C) Death from natural aging
D) Death resulting from disease or injury
  • 57. A natural death occurs:
A) Due to homicide or accident
B) By suicide
C) As a consequence of disease or aging
D) By sudden trauma
  • 58. Accidental death refers to:
A) Death caused unintentionally by external factors
B) Death by deliberate act
C) Death that occurs in hospitals
D) Death due to natural illness
  • 59. Homicidal death can be identified by:
A) Natural disease
B) External injuries indicating intentional harm
C) Absence of trauma
D) Cellular autolysis
  • 60. Sudden natural death is commonly caused by:
A) Chronic infection
B) Heart attack, cerebral hemorrhage, or pulmonary embolism
C) Aging
D) Cancer
  • 61. Death due to poisoning is classified as:
A) Natural
B) Pathological only
C) Homicidal or suicidal depending on context
D) Accidental
  • 62. Primary death refers to:
A) Death due to secondary complications
B) Cellular breakdown post-mortem
C) Death due to immediate cause
D) Clinical death
  • 63. Secondary death occurs as a result of:
A) Legal declaration of death
B) None of the above
C) Complications following the primary cause
D) Secondary death occurs as a result of:
  • 64. Biological death is marked by:
A) Legal documentation
B) Heart-lung resuscitation
C) Temporary absence of heartbeat
D) Irreversible cessation of vital functions
  • 65. Asphyxial death occurs due to:
A) Poison ingestion
B) Bacterial infection
C) Lack of oxygen supply to tissues
D) Heart failure
  • 66. Rigor mortis is:
A) Blood pooling in dependent parts
B) Decomposition of soft tissues
C) Stiffening of muscles due to chemical changes
D) Cooling of the body after death
  • 67. Algor mortis refers to:
A) Cooling of the body to match ambient temperature
B) Decomposition of internal organs
C) Stiffening of muscles
D) Discoloration of the skin
  • 68. Livor mortis is best described as:
A) Cooling of the body
B) Decomposition
C) Post-mortem stiffening of muscles
D) Settling of blood in dependent body parts causing discoloration
  • 69. Putrefaction begins with:
A) Livor mortis
B) Rigor mortis
C) Algor mortis
D) Bacterial activity in the gastrointestinal tract
  • 70. Early post-mortem changes include:
A) Algor, rigor, and livor mortis
B) Skeletonization
C) LAdvanced decomposition
D) Mummification
  • 71. Which factor accelerates rigor mortis?
A) Starvation
B) Strenuous activity before death
C) Cold environment
D) Hypothermia
  • 72. Delayed rigor mortis can be caused by:
A) Sepsis
B) Hyperthermia
C) Physical exertion before death
D) Cold temperature
  • 73. Hypostasis is another term for:
A) Putrefaction
B) Livor mortis
C) Rigor mortis
D) Algor mortis
  • 74. Cadaveric spasm differs from rigor mortis because:
A) It occurs gradually
B) It is sudden and affects specific muscles at the moment of death
C) It is reversible
D) It affects the entire body uniformly
  • 75. Marbling during decomposition refers to:
A) Blood pooling
B) Skin cooling
C) Greenish discoloration of veins due to bacterial activity
D) Muscle stiffening
  • 76. Mummification is a post-mortem change that occurs:
A) Only in cold environments
B) Immediately after death
C) In dry and arid conditions
D) In humid and warm climates
  • 77. Skeletonization is characterized by:
A) Blood settling in dependent parts
B) Cooling of the body
C) Discoloration of skin
D) Complete decomposition of soft tissues leaving bones
  • 78. Adipocere formation is:
A) Transformation of body fat into waxy substance under moist conditions
B) Cooling of the body
C) Discoloration of the skin
D) Stiffening of muscles
  • 79. Factors affecting post-mortem changes include:
A) Only environmental temperature
B) Only cause of death
C) None of the above
D) Temperature, environment, cause of death, and body condition
  • 80. Post-mortem interval estimation relies on:
A) Only cadaveric spasm
B) Rigor, livor, and algor mortis
C) Circumstantial evidence only
D) Cause of death only
  • 81. A laceration is best described as:
A) Smooth-edged wound caused by a sharp instrument
B) Tear in tissue caused by blunt trauma
C) Wound caused by chemical burns
D) Wound caused by heat
  • 82. An incised wound is:
A) Result of gunshot
B) Caused by blunt trauma
C) Tearing of tissue due to crushing
D) Produced by a sharp-edged instrument with clean margins
  • 83. Stab wounds are characterized by:
A) Always fatal
B) Depth greater than length
C) Length greater than depth
D) Produced by blunt objects
  • 84. Puncture wounds usually result from:
A) Chemical agents
B) Sharp-edged instruments slicing tissue
C) Small, pointed instruments penetrating tissue
D) Blunt trauma
  • 85. Contusion is defined as:
A) Wound with irregular margins
B) Bruise caused by blunt trauma without breaking the skin
C) Deep stab wound
D) Tear in skin with smooth edges
  • 86. Abrasion refers to:
A) Bruise under intact skin
B) Superficial scraping or removal of skin layers
C) Deep penetrating wound
D) Tear in muscle
  • 87. A defensive wound is most commonly found on:
A) Back
B) Abdomen
C) Palms or forearms
D) Legs
  • 88. Characteristics of incised wounds include:
A) Always fatal
B) Only produced by blunt objects
C) Clean-cut edges, minimal tissue damage
D) Wide and irregular edges
  • 89. Characteristics of lacerations include:
A) Superficial only
B) Sharp edges
C) Contused margins, irregular shape, tissue bridging
D) Only in muscles
  • 90. Avulsion involves:
A) Partial tearing of tissue away from normal attachment
B) Only bruises
C) Only superficial scraping
D) Complete removal of tissue
  • 91. Gunshot entrance wounds typically:
A) Are smooth and clean
B) Show no tissue damage
C) Have irregular margins and burn marks
D) Cannot be analyzed
  • 92. Characteristics of defensive wounds suggest:
A) Perpetrator acted accidentally
B) Victim attempted to protect self
C) Victim was unaware
D) Wound is post-mortem
  • 93. Wound age estimation relies on:
A) Size of wound
B) Color changes, inflammation, and healing patterns
C) Only shape of the wound
D) Only presence of blood
  • 94. Contused laceration is caused by:
A) Blunt force with tearing
B) Chemical burns
C) Electrical injury
D) Sharp instrument
  • 95. Incised wound healing is faster due to:
A) Irregular margins
B) Minimal tissue loss and clean edges
C) Extensive tissue bridging
D) Infection
  • 96. Compound fractures differ from simple fractures because:
A) Bone pierces the skin
B) Skin is intact
C) No bleeding occurs
D) Only cartilage is involved
  • 97. Thermal burns can be classified according to:
A) Age of victim
B) Shape only
C) Depth: first, second, and third-degree
D) Cause only
  • 98. Chemical wounds are characterized by:
A) Limited to hands
B) Usually sharp, clean edges
C) Only superficial injuries
D) Tissue corrosion due to caustic substances
  • 99. Difference between stab and incised wounds is:
A) Stab wound depth > length, incised wound length > depth
B) Both are identical
C) Incised wound depth > length, stab length > depth
D) Incised wounds always fatal
  • 100. Signs of antemortem wounds include:
A) Only post-mortem staining
B) No bleeding
C) Bleeding, inflammation, bruising
D) Only discoloration
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