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CDI-2 SCIMED
Contributed by: Three
  • 1. In the investigation of murder, which of the following is a primary consideration for distinguishing it from homicide?
A) The presence of mitigating circumstances
B) The offender's intent to kill
C) The location of the crime scene
D) The type of weapon used
  • 2. During homicide investigation, what approach helps determine if the act was premeditated?
A) Collection of fingerprints only
B) Recording witness names
C) Conducting polygraph tests
D) Analysis of motive, opportunity, and means
  • 3. Parricide investigation requires a unique focus on:
A) Time of day of the crime
B) Relationship between victim and suspect
C) Type of weapon used
D) Victim’s previous criminal history
  • 4. Infanticide under the Revised Penal Code is differentiated from murder primarily by:
A) Age of the offender
B) Age of the victim
C) Location of the crime
D) Method of killing
  • 5. In cases of abortion, which investigative approach is most critical?
A) Witness statements about pregnancy
B) Identification of the medical practitioner involved
C) Assessment of social status of victim
D) Determining motive for concealment
  • 6. For physical injuries, investigators primarily analyze:
A) Family background of the victim
B) Nature, location, and extent of injuries
C) Time of day the injury occurred
D) Victim's income
  • 7. Rape investigations should prioritize:
A) Social media profiling
B) Assessing economic status of suspect
C) Securing forensic evidence and victim’s statement
D) Checking family history
  • 8. Which principle is central in analyzing the scene of a murder?
A) None of the above
B) Motive and opportunity
C) Physical evidence collection
D) Both A and B
  • 9. In homicide cases, interviewing witnesses requires:
A) Immediate confrontation with the suspec
B) Ignoring inconsistencies in statements
C) Open-ended questions to elicit detailed accounts
D) Leading questions to confirm assumptions
  • 10. Under R.A. 8049 as amended, investigators in hazing-related deaths must
A) Dismiss minor injuries
B) Focus only on the organizers
C) Conduct online investigations exclusively
D) Consider the consent of the victim irrelevant
  • 11. Anti-Hazing investigations analyze:
A) Public opinion
B) Economic status of members
C) Group dynamics and initiation processes
D) Location aesthetics
  • 12. The “Safe Spaces Act” primarily guides investigators in:
A) Investigating traffic violations
B) Conducting environmental crime inspections
C) Analyzing sexual harassment incidents in public spaces
D) Investigating burglary
  • 13. In investigating sexual harassment under R.A. 7877, evidence gathering should include:
A) Previous employment history of the victim
B) Victim statements and corroborating witnesses
C) Social media posts unrelated to the incident
D) Financial records of the accused
  • 14. When analyzing a case of parricide, which factor is least relevant?
A) Offender's prior criminal record
B) Familial relationships and tensions
C) Victim’s clothing choice
D) Financial disputes within family
  • 15. Which of the following is an essential investigative approach in rape cases?
A) DNA and forensic evidence collection
B) Checking prior vacations of victim
C) Investigating neighbors’ opinions
D) Reviewing bank statements of suspect
  • 16. In murder investigation, establishing timeline helps in
A) Reconstructing crime sequence
B) All of the above
C) Determining motive
D) Identifying potential witnesses
  • 17. During infanticide investigation, which of the following is a key applying approach?
A) Identification of caretaker or mothe
B) Investigating local schools
C) Searching public records for health
D) Profiling neighbors
  • 18. Physical injuries can be classified as:
A) Temporary or permanent
B) Simple or grave
C) Both A and B
D) Neither A nor B
  • 19. R.A. 11053 amendment strengthens anti-hazing investigations by:
A) Allowing hazing in private clubs
B) Reducing police involvement
C) Limiting prosecution to minor injuries
D) Making consent of victim irrelevant
  • 20. Analysis of modus operandi in homicide is important for:
A) Scheduling court dates
B) Determining victim’s wealth
C) Linking multiple cases to a single offender
D) Evaluating crime location aesthetics
  • 21. When analyzing rape cases, forensic evidence should include:
A) Weapon traces
B) Clothing fibers
C) Biological samples
D) All of the above
  • 22. In abortion investigations, suspect interrogation should follow:
A) Social media monitoring
B) Legal procedures respecting victim rights
C) Assumptions about intent
D) Dismissal of medical records
  • 23. In murder investigation, an analyzing approach is:
A) Evaluating weather at time of death
B) Linking physical evidence to suspect
C) Profiling neighbors’ opinions
D) Recording victim’s financial status
  • 24. Under R.A. 11313, investigators apply analytical skills by:
A) Evaluating environment to prevent harassment
B) Avoiding workplace inspections
C) Checking only criminal history
D) Ignoring victim testimony
  • 25. Which method is most effective in determining premeditation in homicide?
A) Social media monitoring
B) Psychological profiling and motive analysis
C) Inspecting clothing of victim
D) Assessing traffic conditions
  • 26. In parricide investigation, the most critical evidence is:
A) Neighborhood survey
B) Confession or admission of suspect
C) Financial transactions
D) Daily routines of victim
  • 27. Investigative approach for sexual harassment includes:
A) Interviewing only witnesses favorable to accused
B) Ignoring complaints filed online
C) Limiting evidence collection to physical harassment
D) Corroborating statements with digital evidence
  • 28. The investigative phase of evidence collection applies:
A) Skipping minor evidence
B) Proper documentation and preservation techniques
C) Publicizing case details immediately
D) Relying only on witness recollection
  • 29. During a physical injury investigation, determining intent involves:
A) Neighborhood demographics
B) Circumstances of attack and prior conflicts
C) Weather at the time of incident
D) Victim’s social media activity
  • 30. Infanticide case analysis relies heavily on:
A) Employment status of the parents
B) Economic background of the victim
C) School attendance records
D) Maternal history and forensic evidence
  • 31. Anti-Hazing Law (R.A. 8049) applying approach includes:
A) Ignoring minor injuries
B) Verifying location aesthetics
C) Checking social media posts only
D) Examining initiation procedures for life-threatening practices
  • 32. In rape investigation, analyzing inconsistencies in statements helps to:
A) Corroborate facts and detect deception
B) Determine suspect wealth
C) Avoid further investigation
D) Dismiss victim credibility
  • 33. In murder, applying analytical skills include:
A) Recording victim’s hobbies
B) Reconstructing events and sequence of attack
C) Evaluating neighborhood trends
D) Tracking public transport usage
  • 34. Investigating homicide requires linking:
A) Victim’s financial records only
B) Neighbors’ opinions only
C) Evidence, witness accounts, and suspect behavior
D) Weather conditions exclusively
  • 35. In abortion-related crimes, investigators must analyze:
A) Medical records, witness accounts, and suspect actions
B) Social gatherings of victim
C) Housing aesthetics
D) Political affiliations
  • 36. Sexual harassment investigation under R.A. 7877 focuses on:
A) Location of residence
B) Personal relationships of witness
C) Pattern of harassment and corroboration
D) Financial status of complainant
  • 37. Physical injury investigation applies forensic analysis to:
A) Assess neighborhood ratings
B) Evaluate victim’s social media activity
C) Establish cause, weapon used, and severity
D) Track economic background
  • 38. Parricide investigation may involve analyzing:
A) Workplace records
B) Domestic disputes, motive, and family tensions
C) Public transportation habits
D) Vacation plans
  • 39. Infanticide investigation requires analyzing:
A) School enrollment history
B) Timing, caretaker involvement, and forensic findings
C) Social media presence
D) Neighborhood watch logs
  • 40. Investigators applying R.A. 11313 principles should:
A) Ignore physical threats
B) Focus only on financial evidence
C) Limit evidence collection to digital communication
D) Ensure victim safety and gather evidence in safe environments
  • 41. In murder cases, crime scene reconstruction applies:
A) Financial audit of victim
B) Physical evidence mapping and sequence of events
C) Weather monitoring
D) Neighborhood survey
  • 42. Forensic analysis in rape cases helps:
A) Track public opinion
B) Link suspect to the crime through biological evidence
C) Determine neighborhood ratings
D) Evaluate victim’s wardrobe choices
  • 43. In homicide, analyzing motive requires:
A) Personal conflicts, prior threats, and opportunities
B) Witness social media activity
C) Location aesthetics
D) Neighbor’s socioeconomic status
  • 44. Application of Anti-Hazing Law involves:
A) Restricting evidence to video only
B) Ignoring minor offenses
C) Focusing on financial disputes
D) Investigating acts causing physical or psychological harm
  • 45. Physical injuries analysis may include:
A) Tracking employment records
B) Assessing neighborhood ratings
C) Distinguishing accidental from intentional injuries
D) Evaluating social media posts
  • 46. Investigators applying Safe Spaces Act focus on:
A) Assessing victim’s wardrobe
B) Ignoring anonymous reports
C) Restricting investigation to verbal harassment only
D) Creating safe reporting channels and evaluating patterns of harassment
  • 47. Analysis of abortion-related crime involves:
A) Monitoring neighbors
B) Investigating unrelated family disputes
C) Cross-checking medical and witness evidence for criminal intent
D) Evaluating victim’s social media history
  • 48. In rape investigations, applying analytical skills includes:
A) Focusing on witness’s financial status
B) Monitoring public opinion
C) Correlating victim statements, forensic evidence, and suspect behavior
D) Evaluating victim’s neighborhood
  • 49. Infanticide investigation applies:
A) Evaluating neighborhood social status
B) Monitoring online activity
C) Tracking school enrollment
D) Forensic pathology to determine cause and time of death
  • 50. Applying principles of R.A. 7877 involves:
A) Reviewing personal wardrobe choices
B) Evaluating recurring harassment patterns and organizational response
C) Limiting investigation to verbal complaints
D) Tracking social media popularity
  • 51. Which of the following best describes somatic death?
A) Temporary loss of consciousness
B) Death of the entire body
C) Death of individual organs
D) Permanent cessation of all brain activity
  • 52. Clinical death is characterized by:
A) Death of the brain only
B) Complete decomposition of the body
C) Temporary absence of heartbeats and breathing that may be reversible
D) Irreversible cessation of circulation and respiration
  • 53. The term cellular death refers to:
A) Legal declaration of death
B) Death caused by trauma
C) Death of individual cells after cessation of oxygen supply
D) Death of the organism as a whole
  • 54. Somatic death occurs after:
A) Clinical death
B) Cellular death
C) Brain death
D) Post-mortem changes
  • 55. Which is an example of sudden death?
A) Myocardial infarction leading to immediate collapse
B) Gradual cancer progression
C) Senility
D) Chronic kidney failure
  • 56. Pathological death is best defined as
A) Death from natural aging
B) Death due to natural causes
C) Death resulting from disease or injury
D) Death occurring in hospitals only
  • 57. A natural death occurs:
A) As a consequence of disease or aging
B) By sudden trauma
C) By suicide
D) Due to homicide or accident
  • 58. Accidental death refers to:
A) Death that occurs in hospitals
B) Death caused unintentionally by external factors
C) Death due to natural illness
D) Death by deliberate act
  • 59. Homicidal death can be identified by:
A) Absence of trauma
B) External injuries indicating intentional harm
C) Cellular autolysis
D) Natural disease
  • 60. Sudden natural death is commonly caused by:
A) Heart attack, cerebral hemorrhage, or pulmonary embolism
B) Chronic infection
C) Aging
D) Cancer
  • 61. Death due to poisoning is classified as:
A) Accidental
B) Natural
C) Pathological only
D) Homicidal or suicidal depending on context
  • 62. Primary death refers to:
A) Clinical death
B) Cellular breakdown post-mortem
C) Death due to secondary complications
D) Death due to immediate cause
  • 63. Secondary death occurs as a result of:
A) None of the above
B) Legal declaration of death
C) Secondary death occurs as a result of:
D) Complications following the primary cause
  • 64. Biological death is marked by:
A) Irreversible cessation of vital functions
B) Temporary absence of heartbeat
C) Legal documentation
D) Heart-lung resuscitation
  • 65. Asphyxial death occurs due to:
A) Lack of oxygen supply to tissues
B) Poison ingestion
C) Bacterial infection
D) Heart failure
  • 66. Rigor mortis is:
A) Blood pooling in dependent parts
B) Stiffening of muscles due to chemical changes
C) Decomposition of soft tissues
D) Cooling of the body after death
  • 67. Algor mortis refers to:
A) Discoloration of the skin
B) Cooling of the body to match ambient temperature
C) Stiffening of muscles
D) Decomposition of internal organs
  • 68. Livor mortis is best described as:
A) Settling of blood in dependent body parts causing discoloration
B) Post-mortem stiffening of muscles
C) Cooling of the body
D) Decomposition
  • 69. Putrefaction begins with:
A) Algor mortis
B) Bacterial activity in the gastrointestinal tract
C) Rigor mortis
D) Livor mortis
  • 70. Early post-mortem changes include:
A) LAdvanced decomposition
B) Algor, rigor, and livor mortis
C) Mummification
D) Skeletonization
  • 71. Which factor accelerates rigor mortis?
A) Starvation
B) Hypothermia
C) Strenuous activity before death
D) Cold environment
  • 72. Delayed rigor mortis can be caused by:
A) Cold temperature
B) Hyperthermia
C) Sepsis
D) Physical exertion before death
  • 73. Hypostasis is another term for:
A) Livor mortis
B) Rigor mortis
C) Putrefaction
D) Algor mortis
  • 74. Cadaveric spasm differs from rigor mortis because:
A) It is sudden and affects specific muscles at the moment of death
B) It affects the entire body uniformly
C) It occurs gradually
D) It is reversible
  • 75. Marbling during decomposition refers to:
A) Skin cooling
B) Muscle stiffening
C) Blood pooling
D) Greenish discoloration of veins due to bacterial activity
  • 76. Mummification is a post-mortem change that occurs:
A) Only in cold environments
B) Immediately after death
C) In humid and warm climates
D) In dry and arid conditions
  • 77. Skeletonization is characterized by:
A) Complete decomposition of soft tissues leaving bones
B) Cooling of the body
C) Discoloration of skin
D) Blood settling in dependent parts
  • 78. Adipocere formation is:
A) Cooling of the body
B) Discoloration of the skin
C) Transformation of body fat into waxy substance under moist conditions
D) Stiffening of muscles
  • 79. Factors affecting post-mortem changes include:
A) Only cause of death
B) Temperature, environment, cause of death, and body condition
C) None of the above
D) Only environmental temperature
  • 80. Post-mortem interval estimation relies on:
A) Only cadaveric spasm
B) Cause of death only
C) Circumstantial evidence only
D) Rigor, livor, and algor mortis
  • 81. A laceration is best described as:
A) Tear in tissue caused by blunt trauma
B) Wound caused by chemical burns
C) Wound caused by heat
D) Smooth-edged wound caused by a sharp instrument
  • 82. An incised wound is:
A) Caused by blunt trauma
B) Produced by a sharp-edged instrument with clean margins
C) Tearing of tissue due to crushing
D) Result of gunshot
  • 83. Stab wounds are characterized by:
A) Depth greater than length
B) Produced by blunt objects
C) Always fatal
D) Length greater than depth
  • 84. Puncture wounds usually result from:
A) Small, pointed instruments penetrating tissue
B) Chemical agents
C) Blunt trauma
D) Sharp-edged instruments slicing tissue
  • 85. Contusion is defined as:
A) Deep stab wound
B) Bruise caused by blunt trauma without breaking the skin
C) Wound with irregular margins
D) Tear in skin with smooth edges
  • 86. Abrasion refers to:
A) Deep penetrating wound
B) Tear in muscle
C) Superficial scraping or removal of skin layers
D) Bruise under intact skin
  • 87. A defensive wound is most commonly found on:
A) Back
B) Legs
C) Abdomen
D) Palms or forearms
  • 88. Characteristics of incised wounds include:
A) Wide and irregular edges
B) Only produced by blunt objects
C) Always fatal
D) Clean-cut edges, minimal tissue damage
  • 89. Characteristics of lacerations include:
A) Superficial only
B) Contused margins, irregular shape, tissue bridging
C) Sharp edges
D) Only in muscles
  • 90. Avulsion involves:
A) Only superficial scraping
B) Only bruises
C) Complete removal of tissue
D) Partial tearing of tissue away from normal attachment
  • 91. Gunshot entrance wounds typically:
A) Cannot be analyzed
B) Show no tissue damage
C) Have irregular margins and burn marks
D) Are smooth and clean
  • 92. Characteristics of defensive wounds suggest:
A) Wound is post-mortem
B) Victim was unaware
C) Perpetrator acted accidentally
D) Victim attempted to protect self
  • 93. Wound age estimation relies on:
A) Color changes, inflammation, and healing patterns
B) Size of wound
C) Only shape of the wound
D) Only presence of blood
  • 94. Contused laceration is caused by:
A) Sharp instrument
B) Chemical burns
C) Electrical injury
D) Blunt force with tearing
  • 95. Incised wound healing is faster due to:
A) Irregular margins
B) Infection
C) Minimal tissue loss and clean edges
D) Extensive tissue bridging
  • 96. Compound fractures differ from simple fractures because:
A) Only cartilage is involved
B) No bleeding occurs
C) Skin is intact
D) Bone pierces the skin
  • 97. Thermal burns can be classified according to:
A) Age of victim
B) Shape only
C) Depth: first, second, and third-degree
D) Cause only
  • 98. Chemical wounds are characterized by:
A) Limited to hands
B) Usually sharp, clean edges
C) Only superficial injuries
D) Tissue corrosion due to caustic substances
  • 99. Difference between stab and incised wounds is:
A) Both are identical
B) Stab wound depth > length, incised wound length > depth
C) Incised wounds always fatal
D) Incised wound depth > length, stab length > depth
  • 100. Signs of antemortem wounds include:
A) Bleeding, inflammation, bruising
B) Only post-mortem staining
C) No bleeding
D) Only discoloration
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