ThatQuiz Test Library Take this test now
CDI-2 SCIMED
Contributed by: Three
  • 1. In the investigation of murder, which of the following is a primary consideration for distinguishing it from homicide?
A) The location of the crime scene
B) The type of weapon used
C) The presence of mitigating circumstances
D) The offender's intent to kill
  • 2. During homicide investigation, what approach helps determine if the act was premeditated?
A) Analysis of motive, opportunity, and means
B) Recording witness names
C) Conducting polygraph tests
D) Collection of fingerprints only
  • 3. Parricide investigation requires a unique focus on:
A) Type of weapon used
B) Relationship between victim and suspect
C) Victim’s previous criminal history
D) Time of day of the crime
  • 4. Infanticide under the Revised Penal Code is differentiated from murder primarily by:
A) Age of the victim
B) Method of killing
C) Location of the crime
D) Age of the offender
  • 5. In cases of abortion, which investigative approach is most critical?
A) Witness statements about pregnancy
B) Identification of the medical practitioner involved
C) Assessment of social status of victim
D) Determining motive for concealment
  • 6. For physical injuries, investigators primarily analyze:
A) Time of day the injury occurred
B) Victim's income
C) Nature, location, and extent of injuries
D) Family background of the victim
  • 7. Rape investigations should prioritize:
A) Social media profiling
B) Securing forensic evidence and victim’s statement
C) Assessing economic status of suspect
D) Checking family history
  • 8. Which principle is central in analyzing the scene of a murder?
A) None of the above
B) Motive and opportunity
C) Physical evidence collection
D) Both A and B
  • 9. In homicide cases, interviewing witnesses requires:
A) Immediate confrontation with the suspec
B) Open-ended questions to elicit detailed accounts
C) Ignoring inconsistencies in statements
D) Leading questions to confirm assumptions
  • 10. Under R.A. 8049 as amended, investigators in hazing-related deaths must
A) Consider the consent of the victim irrelevant
B) Focus only on the organizers
C) Dismiss minor injuries
D) Conduct online investigations exclusively
  • 11. Anti-Hazing investigations analyze:
A) Public opinion
B) Economic status of members
C) Location aesthetics
D) Group dynamics and initiation processes
  • 12. The “Safe Spaces Act” primarily guides investigators in:
A) Investigating burglary
B) Conducting environmental crime inspections
C) Analyzing sexual harassment incidents in public spaces
D) Investigating traffic violations
  • 13. In investigating sexual harassment under R.A. 7877, evidence gathering should include:
A) Financial records of the accused
B) Victim statements and corroborating witnesses
C) Social media posts unrelated to the incident
D) Previous employment history of the victim
  • 14. When analyzing a case of parricide, which factor is least relevant?
A) Familial relationships and tensions
B) Offender's prior criminal record
C) Victim’s clothing choice
D) Financial disputes within family
  • 15. Which of the following is an essential investigative approach in rape cases?
A) Checking prior vacations of victim
B) Investigating neighbors’ opinions
C) Reviewing bank statements of suspect
D) DNA and forensic evidence collection
  • 16. In murder investigation, establishing timeline helps in
A) Determining motive
B) Reconstructing crime sequence
C) Identifying potential witnesses
D) All of the above
  • 17. During infanticide investigation, which of the following is a key applying approach?
A) Identification of caretaker or mothe
B) Searching public records for health
C) Investigating local schools
D) Profiling neighbors
  • 18. Physical injuries can be classified as:
A) Simple or grave
B) Neither A nor B
C) Both A and B
D) Temporary or permanent
  • 19. R.A. 11053 amendment strengthens anti-hazing investigations by:
A) Limiting prosecution to minor injuries
B) Making consent of victim irrelevant
C) Reducing police involvement
D) Allowing hazing in private clubs
  • 20. Analysis of modus operandi in homicide is important for:
A) Linking multiple cases to a single offender
B) Scheduling court dates
C) Evaluating crime location aesthetics
D) Determining victim’s wealth
  • 21. When analyzing rape cases, forensic evidence should include:
A) Biological samples
B) Weapon traces
C) All of the above
D) Clothing fibers
  • 22. In abortion investigations, suspect interrogation should follow:
A) Legal procedures respecting victim rights
B) Social media monitoring
C) Dismissal of medical records
D) Assumptions about intent
  • 23. In murder investigation, an analyzing approach is:
A) Evaluating weather at time of death
B) Profiling neighbors’ opinions
C) Recording victim’s financial status
D) Linking physical evidence to suspect
  • 24. Under R.A. 11313, investigators apply analytical skills by:
A) Evaluating environment to prevent harassment
B) Ignoring victim testimony
C) Avoiding workplace inspections
D) Checking only criminal history
  • 25. Which method is most effective in determining premeditation in homicide?
A) Psychological profiling and motive analysis
B) Social media monitoring
C) Inspecting clothing of victim
D) Assessing traffic conditions
  • 26. In parricide investigation, the most critical evidence is:
A) Daily routines of victim
B) Confession or admission of suspect
C) Financial transactions
D) Neighborhood survey
  • 27. Investigative approach for sexual harassment includes:
A) Limiting evidence collection to physical harassment
B) Corroborating statements with digital evidence
C) Ignoring complaints filed online
D) Interviewing only witnesses favorable to accused
  • 28. The investigative phase of evidence collection applies:
A) Relying only on witness recollection
B) Publicizing case details immediately
C) Proper documentation and preservation techniques
D) Skipping minor evidence
  • 29. During a physical injury investigation, determining intent involves:
A) Weather at the time of incident
B) Victim’s social media activity
C) Neighborhood demographics
D) Circumstances of attack and prior conflicts
  • 30. Infanticide case analysis relies heavily on:
A) Economic background of the victim
B) Employment status of the parents
C) Maternal history and forensic evidence
D) School attendance records
  • 31. Anti-Hazing Law (R.A. 8049) applying approach includes:
A) Checking social media posts only
B) Ignoring minor injuries
C) Verifying location aesthetics
D) Examining initiation procedures for life-threatening practices
  • 32. In rape investigation, analyzing inconsistencies in statements helps to:
A) Corroborate facts and detect deception
B) Determine suspect wealth
C) Dismiss victim credibility
D) Avoid further investigation
  • 33. In murder, applying analytical skills include:
A) Recording victim’s hobbies
B) Reconstructing events and sequence of attack
C) Tracking public transport usage
D) Evaluating neighborhood trends
  • 34. Investigating homicide requires linking:
A) Weather conditions exclusively
B) Evidence, witness accounts, and suspect behavior
C) Neighbors’ opinions only
D) Victim’s financial records only
  • 35. In abortion-related crimes, investigators must analyze:
A) Political affiliations
B) Medical records, witness accounts, and suspect actions
C) Social gatherings of victim
D) Housing aesthetics
  • 36. Sexual harassment investigation under R.A. 7877 focuses on:
A) Financial status of complainant
B) Pattern of harassment and corroboration
C) Personal relationships of witness
D) Location of residence
  • 37. Physical injury investigation applies forensic analysis to:
A) Evaluate victim’s social media activity
B) Track economic background
C) Assess neighborhood ratings
D) Establish cause, weapon used, and severity
  • 38. Parricide investigation may involve analyzing:
A) Domestic disputes, motive, and family tensions
B) Workplace records
C) Vacation plans
D) Public transportation habits
  • 39. Infanticide investigation requires analyzing:
A) Neighborhood watch logs
B) Timing, caretaker involvement, and forensic findings
C) School enrollment history
D) Social media presence
  • 40. Investigators applying R.A. 11313 principles should:
A) Limit evidence collection to digital communication
B) Focus only on financial evidence
C) Ignore physical threats
D) Ensure victim safety and gather evidence in safe environments
  • 41. In murder cases, crime scene reconstruction applies:
A) Physical evidence mapping and sequence of events
B) Neighborhood survey
C) Financial audit of victim
D) Weather monitoring
  • 42. Forensic analysis in rape cases helps:
A) Link suspect to the crime through biological evidence
B) Determine neighborhood ratings
C) Evaluate victim’s wardrobe choices
D) Track public opinion
  • 43. In homicide, analyzing motive requires:
A) Neighbor’s socioeconomic status
B) Witness social media activity
C) Location aesthetics
D) Personal conflicts, prior threats, and opportunities
  • 44. Application of Anti-Hazing Law involves:
A) Ignoring minor offenses
B) Focusing on financial disputes
C) Restricting evidence to video only
D) Investigating acts causing physical or psychological harm
  • 45. Physical injuries analysis may include:
A) Assessing neighborhood ratings
B) Distinguishing accidental from intentional injuries
C) Tracking employment records
D) Evaluating social media posts
  • 46. Investigators applying Safe Spaces Act focus on:
A) Assessing victim’s wardrobe
B) Ignoring anonymous reports
C) Restricting investigation to verbal harassment only
D) Creating safe reporting channels and evaluating patterns of harassment
  • 47. Analysis of abortion-related crime involves:
A) Evaluating victim’s social media history
B) Cross-checking medical and witness evidence for criminal intent
C) Monitoring neighbors
D) Investigating unrelated family disputes
  • 48. In rape investigations, applying analytical skills includes:
A) Monitoring public opinion
B) Evaluating victim’s neighborhood
C) Correlating victim statements, forensic evidence, and suspect behavior
D) Focusing on witness’s financial status
  • 49. Infanticide investigation applies:
A) Forensic pathology to determine cause and time of death
B) Monitoring online activity
C) Evaluating neighborhood social status
D) Tracking school enrollment
  • 50. Applying principles of R.A. 7877 involves:
A) Reviewing personal wardrobe choices
B) Evaluating recurring harassment patterns and organizational response
C) Limiting investigation to verbal complaints
D) Tracking social media popularity
  • 51. Which of the following best describes somatic death?
A) Permanent cessation of all brain activity
B) Death of individual organs
C) Death of the entire body
D) Temporary loss of consciousness
  • 52. Clinical death is characterized by:
A) Complete decomposition of the body
B) Death of the brain only
C) Temporary absence of heartbeats and breathing that may be reversible
D) Irreversible cessation of circulation and respiration
  • 53. The term cellular death refers to:
A) Death of individual cells after cessation of oxygen supply
B) Death caused by trauma
C) Legal declaration of death
D) Death of the organism as a whole
  • 54. Somatic death occurs after:
A) Post-mortem changes
B) Cellular death
C) Brain death
D) Clinical death
  • 55. Which is an example of sudden death?
A) Chronic kidney failure
B) Gradual cancer progression
C) Myocardial infarction leading to immediate collapse
D) Senility
  • 56. Pathological death is best defined as
A) Death from natural aging
B) Death occurring in hospitals only
C) Death due to natural causes
D) Death resulting from disease or injury
  • 57. A natural death occurs:
A) Due to homicide or accident
B) By suicide
C) As a consequence of disease or aging
D) By sudden trauma
  • 58. Accidental death refers to:
A) Death that occurs in hospitals
B) Death by deliberate act
C) Death due to natural illness
D) Death caused unintentionally by external factors
  • 59. Homicidal death can be identified by:
A) Absence of trauma
B) Natural disease
C) Cellular autolysis
D) External injuries indicating intentional harm
  • 60. Sudden natural death is commonly caused by:
A) Chronic infection
B) Heart attack, cerebral hemorrhage, or pulmonary embolism
C) Aging
D) Cancer
  • 61. Death due to poisoning is classified as:
A) Pathological only
B) Natural
C) Homicidal or suicidal depending on context
D) Accidental
  • 62. Primary death refers to:
A) Clinical death
B) Cellular breakdown post-mortem
C) Death due to immediate cause
D) Death due to secondary complications
  • 63. Secondary death occurs as a result of:
A) Legal declaration of death
B) None of the above
C) Complications following the primary cause
D) Secondary death occurs as a result of:
  • 64. Biological death is marked by:
A) Temporary absence of heartbeat
B) Legal documentation
C) Irreversible cessation of vital functions
D) Heart-lung resuscitation
  • 65. Asphyxial death occurs due to:
A) Poison ingestion
B) Heart failure
C) Lack of oxygen supply to tissues
D) Bacterial infection
  • 66. Rigor mortis is:
A) Blood pooling in dependent parts
B) Decomposition of soft tissues
C) Cooling of the body after death
D) Stiffening of muscles due to chemical changes
  • 67. Algor mortis refers to:
A) Stiffening of muscles
B) Decomposition of internal organs
C) Cooling of the body to match ambient temperature
D) Discoloration of the skin
  • 68. Livor mortis is best described as:
A) Post-mortem stiffening of muscles
B) Settling of blood in dependent body parts causing discoloration
C) Decomposition
D) Cooling of the body
  • 69. Putrefaction begins with:
A) Bacterial activity in the gastrointestinal tract
B) Algor mortis
C) Livor mortis
D) Rigor mortis
  • 70. Early post-mortem changes include:
A) Skeletonization
B) Mummification
C) LAdvanced decomposition
D) Algor, rigor, and livor mortis
  • 71. Which factor accelerates rigor mortis?
A) Starvation
B) Cold environment
C) Strenuous activity before death
D) Hypothermia
  • 72. Delayed rigor mortis can be caused by:
A) Sepsis
B) Cold temperature
C) Hyperthermia
D) Physical exertion before death
  • 73. Hypostasis is another term for:
A) Putrefaction
B) Algor mortis
C) Rigor mortis
D) Livor mortis
  • 74. Cadaveric spasm differs from rigor mortis because:
A) It affects the entire body uniformly
B) It is reversible
C) It occurs gradually
D) It is sudden and affects specific muscles at the moment of death
  • 75. Marbling during decomposition refers to:
A) Blood pooling
B) Muscle stiffening
C) Greenish discoloration of veins due to bacterial activity
D) Skin cooling
  • 76. Mummification is a post-mortem change that occurs:
A) In dry and arid conditions
B) Only in cold environments
C) In humid and warm climates
D) Immediately after death
  • 77. Skeletonization is characterized by:
A) Cooling of the body
B) Complete decomposition of soft tissues leaving bones
C) Blood settling in dependent parts
D) Discoloration of skin
  • 78. Adipocere formation is:
A) Cooling of the body
B) Discoloration of the skin
C) Transformation of body fat into waxy substance under moist conditions
D) Stiffening of muscles
  • 79. Factors affecting post-mortem changes include:
A) None of the above
B) Temperature, environment, cause of death, and body condition
C) Only environmental temperature
D) Only cause of death
  • 80. Post-mortem interval estimation relies on:
A) Only cadaveric spasm
B) Rigor, livor, and algor mortis
C) Circumstantial evidence only
D) Cause of death only
  • 81. A laceration is best described as:
A) Smooth-edged wound caused by a sharp instrument
B) Wound caused by chemical burns
C) Wound caused by heat
D) Tear in tissue caused by blunt trauma
  • 82. An incised wound is:
A) Caused by blunt trauma
B) Tearing of tissue due to crushing
C) Produced by a sharp-edged instrument with clean margins
D) Result of gunshot
  • 83. Stab wounds are characterized by:
A) Produced by blunt objects
B) Depth greater than length
C) Length greater than depth
D) Always fatal
  • 84. Puncture wounds usually result from:
A) Blunt trauma
B) Sharp-edged instruments slicing tissue
C) Chemical agents
D) Small, pointed instruments penetrating tissue
  • 85. Contusion is defined as:
A) Wound with irregular margins
B) Bruise caused by blunt trauma without breaking the skin
C) Deep stab wound
D) Tear in skin with smooth edges
  • 86. Abrasion refers to:
A) Tear in muscle
B) Deep penetrating wound
C) Bruise under intact skin
D) Superficial scraping or removal of skin layers
  • 87. A defensive wound is most commonly found on:
A) Legs
B) Back
C) Abdomen
D) Palms or forearms
  • 88. Characteristics of incised wounds include:
A) Only produced by blunt objects
B) Wide and irregular edges
C) Clean-cut edges, minimal tissue damage
D) Always fatal
  • 89. Characteristics of lacerations include:
A) Sharp edges
B) Superficial only
C) Contused margins, irregular shape, tissue bridging
D) Only in muscles
  • 90. Avulsion involves:
A) Partial tearing of tissue away from normal attachment
B) Only superficial scraping
C) Complete removal of tissue
D) Only bruises
  • 91. Gunshot entrance wounds typically:
A) Have irregular margins and burn marks
B) Show no tissue damage
C) Are smooth and clean
D) Cannot be analyzed
  • 92. Characteristics of defensive wounds suggest:
A) Victim was unaware
B) Wound is post-mortem
C) Perpetrator acted accidentally
D) Victim attempted to protect self
  • 93. Wound age estimation relies on:
A) Only presence of blood
B) Only shape of the wound
C) Size of wound
D) Color changes, inflammation, and healing patterns
  • 94. Contused laceration is caused by:
A) Electrical injury
B) Sharp instrument
C) Chemical burns
D) Blunt force with tearing
  • 95. Incised wound healing is faster due to:
A) Irregular margins
B) Extensive tissue bridging
C) Infection
D) Minimal tissue loss and clean edges
  • 96. Compound fractures differ from simple fractures because:
A) Bone pierces the skin
B) No bleeding occurs
C) Only cartilage is involved
D) Skin is intact
  • 97. Thermal burns can be classified according to:
A) Age of victim
B) Depth: first, second, and third-degree
C) Cause only
D) Shape only
  • 98. Chemical wounds are characterized by:
A) Usually sharp, clean edges
B) Only superficial injuries
C) Tissue corrosion due to caustic substances
D) Limited to hands
  • 99. Difference between stab and incised wounds is:
A) Incised wound depth > length, stab length > depth
B) Incised wounds always fatal
C) Both are identical
D) Stab wound depth > length, incised wound length > depth
  • 100. Signs of antemortem wounds include:
A) Bleeding, inflammation, bruising
B) No bleeding
C) Only post-mortem staining
D) Only discoloration
Created with That Quiz — where test making and test taking are made easy for math and other subject areas.