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CDI-2 SCIMED
Contributed by: Three
  • 1. In the investigation of murder, which of the following is a primary consideration for distinguishing it from homicide?
A) The location of the crime scene
B) The presence of mitigating circumstances
C) The type of weapon used
D) The offender's intent to kill
  • 2. During homicide investigation, what approach helps determine if the act was premeditated?
A) Collection of fingerprints only
B) Recording witness names
C) Analysis of motive, opportunity, and means
D) Conducting polygraph tests
  • 3. Parricide investigation requires a unique focus on:
A) Time of day of the crime
B) Victim’s previous criminal history
C) Relationship between victim and suspect
D) Type of weapon used
  • 4. Infanticide under the Revised Penal Code is differentiated from murder primarily by:
A) Location of the crime
B) Age of the offender
C) Age of the victim
D) Method of killing
  • 5. In cases of abortion, which investigative approach is most critical?
A) Assessment of social status of victim
B) Witness statements about pregnancy
C) Identification of the medical practitioner involved
D) Determining motive for concealment
  • 6. For physical injuries, investigators primarily analyze:
A) Nature, location, and extent of injuries
B) Family background of the victim
C) Time of day the injury occurred
D) Victim's income
  • 7. Rape investigations should prioritize:
A) Social media profiling
B) Assessing economic status of suspect
C) Securing forensic evidence and victim’s statement
D) Checking family history
  • 8. Which principle is central in analyzing the scene of a murder?
A) Motive and opportunity
B) None of the above
C) Both A and B
D) Physical evidence collection
  • 9. In homicide cases, interviewing witnesses requires:
A) Open-ended questions to elicit detailed accounts
B) Ignoring inconsistencies in statements
C) Immediate confrontation with the suspec
D) Leading questions to confirm assumptions
  • 10. Under R.A. 8049 as amended, investigators in hazing-related deaths must
A) Conduct online investigations exclusively
B) Focus only on the organizers
C) Consider the consent of the victim irrelevant
D) Dismiss minor injuries
  • 11. Anti-Hazing investigations analyze:
A) Location aesthetics
B) Public opinion
C) Economic status of members
D) Group dynamics and initiation processes
  • 12. The “Safe Spaces Act” primarily guides investigators in:
A) Investigating burglary
B) Investigating traffic violations
C) Conducting environmental crime inspections
D) Analyzing sexual harassment incidents in public spaces
  • 13. In investigating sexual harassment under R.A. 7877, evidence gathering should include:
A) Victim statements and corroborating witnesses
B) Financial records of the accused
C) Social media posts unrelated to the incident
D) Previous employment history of the victim
  • 14. When analyzing a case of parricide, which factor is least relevant?
A) Victim’s clothing choice
B) Financial disputes within family
C) Familial relationships and tensions
D) Offender's prior criminal record
  • 15. Which of the following is an essential investigative approach in rape cases?
A) Reviewing bank statements of suspect
B) Investigating neighbors’ opinions
C) DNA and forensic evidence collection
D) Checking prior vacations of victim
  • 16. In murder investigation, establishing timeline helps in
A) Identifying potential witnesses
B) Determining motive
C) All of the above
D) Reconstructing crime sequence
  • 17. During infanticide investigation, which of the following is a key applying approach?
A) Identification of caretaker or mothe
B) Investigating local schools
C) Profiling neighbors
D) Searching public records for health
  • 18. Physical injuries can be classified as:
A) Temporary or permanent
B) Neither A nor B
C) Both A and B
D) Simple or grave
  • 19. R.A. 11053 amendment strengthens anti-hazing investigations by:
A) Allowing hazing in private clubs
B) Reducing police involvement
C) Making consent of victim irrelevant
D) Limiting prosecution to minor injuries
  • 20. Analysis of modus operandi in homicide is important for:
A) Evaluating crime location aesthetics
B) Linking multiple cases to a single offender
C) Scheduling court dates
D) Determining victim’s wealth
  • 21. When analyzing rape cases, forensic evidence should include:
A) All of the above
B) Biological samples
C) Clothing fibers
D) Weapon traces
  • 22. In abortion investigations, suspect interrogation should follow:
A) Dismissal of medical records
B) Legal procedures respecting victim rights
C) Assumptions about intent
D) Social media monitoring
  • 23. In murder investigation, an analyzing approach is:
A) Evaluating weather at time of death
B) Profiling neighbors’ opinions
C) Linking physical evidence to suspect
D) Recording victim’s financial status
  • 24. Under R.A. 11313, investigators apply analytical skills by:
A) Ignoring victim testimony
B) Checking only criminal history
C) Evaluating environment to prevent harassment
D) Avoiding workplace inspections
  • 25. Which method is most effective in determining premeditation in homicide?
A) Inspecting clothing of victim
B) Psychological profiling and motive analysis
C) Social media monitoring
D) Assessing traffic conditions
  • 26. In parricide investigation, the most critical evidence is:
A) Neighborhood survey
B) Financial transactions
C) Daily routines of victim
D) Confession or admission of suspect
  • 27. Investigative approach for sexual harassment includes:
A) Limiting evidence collection to physical harassment
B) Corroborating statements with digital evidence
C) Interviewing only witnesses favorable to accused
D) Ignoring complaints filed online
  • 28. The investigative phase of evidence collection applies:
A) Skipping minor evidence
B) Relying only on witness recollection
C) Publicizing case details immediately
D) Proper documentation and preservation techniques
  • 29. During a physical injury investigation, determining intent involves:
A) Victim’s social media activity
B) Neighborhood demographics
C) Weather at the time of incident
D) Circumstances of attack and prior conflicts
  • 30. Infanticide case analysis relies heavily on:
A) Maternal history and forensic evidence
B) School attendance records
C) Employment status of the parents
D) Economic background of the victim
  • 31. Anti-Hazing Law (R.A. 8049) applying approach includes:
A) Verifying location aesthetics
B) Checking social media posts only
C) Examining initiation procedures for life-threatening practices
D) Ignoring minor injuries
  • 32. In rape investigation, analyzing inconsistencies in statements helps to:
A) Determine suspect wealth
B) Avoid further investigation
C) Dismiss victim credibility
D) Corroborate facts and detect deception
  • 33. In murder, applying analytical skills include:
A) Evaluating neighborhood trends
B) Reconstructing events and sequence of attack
C) Tracking public transport usage
D) Recording victim’s hobbies
  • 34. Investigating homicide requires linking:
A) Neighbors’ opinions only
B) Victim’s financial records only
C) Weather conditions exclusively
D) Evidence, witness accounts, and suspect behavior
  • 35. In abortion-related crimes, investigators must analyze:
A) Medical records, witness accounts, and suspect actions
B) Social gatherings of victim
C) Political affiliations
D) Housing aesthetics
  • 36. Sexual harassment investigation under R.A. 7877 focuses on:
A) Location of residence
B) Pattern of harassment and corroboration
C) Financial status of complainant
D) Personal relationships of witness
  • 37. Physical injury investigation applies forensic analysis to:
A) Evaluate victim’s social media activity
B) Track economic background
C) Establish cause, weapon used, and severity
D) Assess neighborhood ratings
  • 38. Parricide investigation may involve analyzing:
A) Workplace records
B) Public transportation habits
C) Vacation plans
D) Domestic disputes, motive, and family tensions
  • 39. Infanticide investigation requires analyzing:
A) School enrollment history
B) Timing, caretaker involvement, and forensic findings
C) Neighborhood watch logs
D) Social media presence
  • 40. Investigators applying R.A. 11313 principles should:
A) Ignore physical threats
B) Focus only on financial evidence
C) Limit evidence collection to digital communication
D) Ensure victim safety and gather evidence in safe environments
  • 41. In murder cases, crime scene reconstruction applies:
A) Weather monitoring
B) Physical evidence mapping and sequence of events
C) Neighborhood survey
D) Financial audit of victim
  • 42. Forensic analysis in rape cases helps:
A) Track public opinion
B) Link suspect to the crime through biological evidence
C) Determine neighborhood ratings
D) Evaluate victim’s wardrobe choices
  • 43. In homicide, analyzing motive requires:
A) Personal conflicts, prior threats, and opportunities
B) Location aesthetics
C) Witness social media activity
D) Neighbor’s socioeconomic status
  • 44. Application of Anti-Hazing Law involves:
A) Restricting evidence to video only
B) Investigating acts causing physical or psychological harm
C) Focusing on financial disputes
D) Ignoring minor offenses
  • 45. Physical injuries analysis may include:
A) Distinguishing accidental from intentional injuries
B) Evaluating social media posts
C) Tracking employment records
D) Assessing neighborhood ratings
  • 46. Investigators applying Safe Spaces Act focus on:
A) Assessing victim’s wardrobe
B) Ignoring anonymous reports
C) Restricting investigation to verbal harassment only
D) Creating safe reporting channels and evaluating patterns of harassment
  • 47. Analysis of abortion-related crime involves:
A) Investigating unrelated family disputes
B) Cross-checking medical and witness evidence for criminal intent
C) Evaluating victim’s social media history
D) Monitoring neighbors
  • 48. In rape investigations, applying analytical skills includes:
A) Focusing on witness’s financial status
B) Evaluating victim’s neighborhood
C) Monitoring public opinion
D) Correlating victim statements, forensic evidence, and suspect behavior
  • 49. Infanticide investigation applies:
A) Tracking school enrollment
B) Evaluating neighborhood social status
C) Monitoring online activity
D) Forensic pathology to determine cause and time of death
  • 50. Applying principles of R.A. 7877 involves:
A) Limiting investigation to verbal complaints
B) Tracking social media popularity
C) Evaluating recurring harassment patterns and organizational response
D) Reviewing personal wardrobe choices
  • 51. Which of the following best describes somatic death?
A) Permanent cessation of all brain activity
B) Death of individual organs
C) Death of the entire body
D) Temporary loss of consciousness
  • 52. Clinical death is characterized by:
A) Death of the brain only
B) Complete decomposition of the body
C) Irreversible cessation of circulation and respiration
D) Temporary absence of heartbeats and breathing that may be reversible
  • 53. The term cellular death refers to:
A) Death of individual cells after cessation of oxygen supply
B) Death caused by trauma
C) Legal declaration of death
D) Death of the organism as a whole
  • 54. Somatic death occurs after:
A) Cellular death
B) Clinical death
C) Brain death
D) Post-mortem changes
  • 55. Which is an example of sudden death?
A) Chronic kidney failure
B) Myocardial infarction leading to immediate collapse
C) Senility
D) Gradual cancer progression
  • 56. Pathological death is best defined as
A) Death from natural aging
B) Death due to natural causes
C) Death occurring in hospitals only
D) Death resulting from disease or injury
  • 57. A natural death occurs:
A) By suicide
B) By sudden trauma
C) As a consequence of disease or aging
D) Due to homicide or accident
  • 58. Accidental death refers to:
A) Death that occurs in hospitals
B) Death caused unintentionally by external factors
C) Death due to natural illness
D) Death by deliberate act
  • 59. Homicidal death can be identified by:
A) External injuries indicating intentional harm
B) Natural disease
C) Cellular autolysis
D) Absence of trauma
  • 60. Sudden natural death is commonly caused by:
A) Chronic infection
B) Heart attack, cerebral hemorrhage, or pulmonary embolism
C) Aging
D) Cancer
  • 61. Death due to poisoning is classified as:
A) Pathological only
B) Homicidal or suicidal depending on context
C) Natural
D) Accidental
  • 62. Primary death refers to:
A) Death due to secondary complications
B) Cellular breakdown post-mortem
C) Death due to immediate cause
D) Clinical death
  • 63. Secondary death occurs as a result of:
A) Legal declaration of death
B) Complications following the primary cause
C) Secondary death occurs as a result of:
D) None of the above
  • 64. Biological death is marked by:
A) Heart-lung resuscitation
B) Temporary absence of heartbeat
C) Legal documentation
D) Irreversible cessation of vital functions
  • 65. Asphyxial death occurs due to:
A) Bacterial infection
B) Lack of oxygen supply to tissues
C) Heart failure
D) Poison ingestion
  • 66. Rigor mortis is:
A) Stiffening of muscles due to chemical changes
B) Blood pooling in dependent parts
C) Cooling of the body after death
D) Decomposition of soft tissues
  • 67. Algor mortis refers to:
A) Cooling of the body to match ambient temperature
B) Stiffening of muscles
C) Discoloration of the skin
D) Decomposition of internal organs
  • 68. Livor mortis is best described as:
A) Cooling of the body
B) Decomposition
C) Settling of blood in dependent body parts causing discoloration
D) Post-mortem stiffening of muscles
  • 69. Putrefaction begins with:
A) Livor mortis
B) Algor mortis
C) Rigor mortis
D) Bacterial activity in the gastrointestinal tract
  • 70. Early post-mortem changes include:
A) Algor, rigor, and livor mortis
B) Skeletonization
C) LAdvanced decomposition
D) Mummification
  • 71. Which factor accelerates rigor mortis?
A) Starvation
B) Hypothermia
C) Cold environment
D) Strenuous activity before death
  • 72. Delayed rigor mortis can be caused by:
A) Cold temperature
B) Sepsis
C) Physical exertion before death
D) Hyperthermia
  • 73. Hypostasis is another term for:
A) Putrefaction
B) Rigor mortis
C) Algor mortis
D) Livor mortis
  • 74. Cadaveric spasm differs from rigor mortis because:
A) It affects the entire body uniformly
B) It occurs gradually
C) It is sudden and affects specific muscles at the moment of death
D) It is reversible
  • 75. Marbling during decomposition refers to:
A) Muscle stiffening
B) Blood pooling
C) Skin cooling
D) Greenish discoloration of veins due to bacterial activity
  • 76. Mummification is a post-mortem change that occurs:
A) Only in cold environments
B) In humid and warm climates
C) In dry and arid conditions
D) Immediately after death
  • 77. Skeletonization is characterized by:
A) Cooling of the body
B) Discoloration of skin
C) Blood settling in dependent parts
D) Complete decomposition of soft tissues leaving bones
  • 78. Adipocere formation is:
A) Cooling of the body
B) Discoloration of the skin
C) Stiffening of muscles
D) Transformation of body fat into waxy substance under moist conditions
  • 79. Factors affecting post-mortem changes include:
A) Only cause of death
B) None of the above
C) Only environmental temperature
D) Temperature, environment, cause of death, and body condition
  • 80. Post-mortem interval estimation relies on:
A) Circumstantial evidence only
B) Only cadaveric spasm
C) Rigor, livor, and algor mortis
D) Cause of death only
  • 81. A laceration is best described as:
A) Wound caused by chemical burns
B) Wound caused by heat
C) Tear in tissue caused by blunt trauma
D) Smooth-edged wound caused by a sharp instrument
  • 82. An incised wound is:
A) Produced by a sharp-edged instrument with clean margins
B) Caused by blunt trauma
C) Tearing of tissue due to crushing
D) Result of gunshot
  • 83. Stab wounds are characterized by:
A) Always fatal
B) Depth greater than length
C) Produced by blunt objects
D) Length greater than depth
  • 84. Puncture wounds usually result from:
A) Blunt trauma
B) Chemical agents
C) Sharp-edged instruments slicing tissue
D) Small, pointed instruments penetrating tissue
  • 85. Contusion is defined as:
A) Deep stab wound
B) Bruise caused by blunt trauma without breaking the skin
C) Tear in skin with smooth edges
D) Wound with irregular margins
  • 86. Abrasion refers to:
A) Bruise under intact skin
B) Superficial scraping or removal of skin layers
C) Tear in muscle
D) Deep penetrating wound
  • 87. A defensive wound is most commonly found on:
A) Legs
B) Abdomen
C) Palms or forearms
D) Back
  • 88. Characteristics of incised wounds include:
A) Always fatal
B) Wide and irregular edges
C) Only produced by blunt objects
D) Clean-cut edges, minimal tissue damage
  • 89. Characteristics of lacerations include:
A) Only in muscles
B) Sharp edges
C) Superficial only
D) Contused margins, irregular shape, tissue bridging
  • 90. Avulsion involves:
A) Complete removal of tissue
B) Only superficial scraping
C) Partial tearing of tissue away from normal attachment
D) Only bruises
  • 91. Gunshot entrance wounds typically:
A) Have irregular margins and burn marks
B) Cannot be analyzed
C) Show no tissue damage
D) Are smooth and clean
  • 92. Characteristics of defensive wounds suggest:
A) Victim attempted to protect self
B) Victim was unaware
C) Wound is post-mortem
D) Perpetrator acted accidentally
  • 93. Wound age estimation relies on:
A) Size of wound
B) Color changes, inflammation, and healing patterns
C) Only presence of blood
D) Only shape of the wound
  • 94. Contused laceration is caused by:
A) Blunt force with tearing
B) Chemical burns
C) Sharp instrument
D) Electrical injury
  • 95. Incised wound healing is faster due to:
A) Irregular margins
B) Infection
C) Extensive tissue bridging
D) Minimal tissue loss and clean edges
  • 96. Compound fractures differ from simple fractures because:
A) Only cartilage is involved
B) Bone pierces the skin
C) Skin is intact
D) No bleeding occurs
  • 97. Thermal burns can be classified according to:
A) Shape only
B) Age of victim
C) Depth: first, second, and third-degree
D) Cause only
  • 98. Chemical wounds are characterized by:
A) Only superficial injuries
B) Limited to hands
C) Usually sharp, clean edges
D) Tissue corrosion due to caustic substances
  • 99. Difference between stab and incised wounds is:
A) Incised wound depth > length, stab length > depth
B) Both are identical
C) Stab wound depth > length, incised wound length > depth
D) Incised wounds always fatal
  • 100. Signs of antemortem wounds include:
A) No bleeding
B) Only discoloration
C) Bleeding, inflammation, bruising
D) Only post-mortem staining
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