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CDI-2 SCIMED
Contributed by: Three
  • 1. In the investigation of murder, which of the following is a primary consideration for distinguishing it from homicide?
A) The type of weapon used
B) The location of the crime scene
C) The offender's intent to kill
D) The presence of mitigating circumstances
  • 2. During homicide investigation, what approach helps determine if the act was premeditated?
A) Recording witness names
B) Analysis of motive, opportunity, and means
C) Conducting polygraph tests
D) Collection of fingerprints only
  • 3. Parricide investigation requires a unique focus on:
A) Time of day of the crime
B) Type of weapon used
C) Relationship between victim and suspect
D) Victim’s previous criminal history
  • 4. Infanticide under the Revised Penal Code is differentiated from murder primarily by:
A) Location of the crime
B) Method of killing
C) Age of the victim
D) Age of the offender
  • 5. In cases of abortion, which investigative approach is most critical?
A) Identification of the medical practitioner involved
B) Witness statements about pregnancy
C) Assessment of social status of victim
D) Determining motive for concealment
  • 6. For physical injuries, investigators primarily analyze:
A) Victim's income
B) Family background of the victim
C) Time of day the injury occurred
D) Nature, location, and extent of injuries
  • 7. Rape investigations should prioritize:
A) Assessing economic status of suspect
B) Securing forensic evidence and victim’s statement
C) Checking family history
D) Social media profiling
  • 8. Which principle is central in analyzing the scene of a murder?
A) Both A and B
B) None of the above
C) Physical evidence collection
D) Motive and opportunity
  • 9. In homicide cases, interviewing witnesses requires:
A) Immediate confrontation with the suspec
B) Leading questions to confirm assumptions
C) Ignoring inconsistencies in statements
D) Open-ended questions to elicit detailed accounts
  • 10. Under R.A. 8049 as amended, investigators in hazing-related deaths must
A) Dismiss minor injuries
B) Focus only on the organizers
C) Consider the consent of the victim irrelevant
D) Conduct online investigations exclusively
  • 11. Anti-Hazing investigations analyze:
A) Economic status of members
B) Public opinion
C) Group dynamics and initiation processes
D) Location aesthetics
  • 12. The “Safe Spaces Act” primarily guides investigators in:
A) Conducting environmental crime inspections
B) Investigating traffic violations
C) Analyzing sexual harassment incidents in public spaces
D) Investigating burglary
  • 13. In investigating sexual harassment under R.A. 7877, evidence gathering should include:
A) Victim statements and corroborating witnesses
B) Social media posts unrelated to the incident
C) Previous employment history of the victim
D) Financial records of the accused
  • 14. When analyzing a case of parricide, which factor is least relevant?
A) Victim’s clothing choice
B) Offender's prior criminal record
C) Financial disputes within family
D) Familial relationships and tensions
  • 15. Which of the following is an essential investigative approach in rape cases?
A) Reviewing bank statements of suspect
B) Investigating neighbors’ opinions
C) DNA and forensic evidence collection
D) Checking prior vacations of victim
  • 16. In murder investigation, establishing timeline helps in
A) Reconstructing crime sequence
B) Determining motive
C) Identifying potential witnesses
D) All of the above
  • 17. During infanticide investigation, which of the following is a key applying approach?
A) Profiling neighbors
B) Investigating local schools
C) Searching public records for health
D) Identification of caretaker or mothe
  • 18. Physical injuries can be classified as:
A) Both A and B
B) Simple or grave
C) Temporary or permanent
D) Neither A nor B
  • 19. R.A. 11053 amendment strengthens anti-hazing investigations by:
A) Limiting prosecution to minor injuries
B) Allowing hazing in private clubs
C) Reducing police involvement
D) Making consent of victim irrelevant
  • 20. Analysis of modus operandi in homicide is important for:
A) Scheduling court dates
B) Evaluating crime location aesthetics
C) Linking multiple cases to a single offender
D) Determining victim’s wealth
  • 21. When analyzing rape cases, forensic evidence should include:
A) All of the above
B) Weapon traces
C) Biological samples
D) Clothing fibers
  • 22. In abortion investigations, suspect interrogation should follow:
A) Dismissal of medical records
B) Assumptions about intent
C) Social media monitoring
D) Legal procedures respecting victim rights
  • 23. In murder investigation, an analyzing approach is:
A) Linking physical evidence to suspect
B) Evaluating weather at time of death
C) Recording victim’s financial status
D) Profiling neighbors’ opinions
  • 24. Under R.A. 11313, investigators apply analytical skills by:
A) Checking only criminal history
B) Ignoring victim testimony
C) Evaluating environment to prevent harassment
D) Avoiding workplace inspections
  • 25. Which method is most effective in determining premeditation in homicide?
A) Assessing traffic conditions
B) Psychological profiling and motive analysis
C) Social media monitoring
D) Inspecting clothing of victim
  • 26. In parricide investigation, the most critical evidence is:
A) Neighborhood survey
B) Daily routines of victim
C) Confession or admission of suspect
D) Financial transactions
  • 27. Investigative approach for sexual harassment includes:
A) Corroborating statements with digital evidence
B) Limiting evidence collection to physical harassment
C) Ignoring complaints filed online
D) Interviewing only witnesses favorable to accused
  • 28. The investigative phase of evidence collection applies:
A) Skipping minor evidence
B) Publicizing case details immediately
C) Proper documentation and preservation techniques
D) Relying only on witness recollection
  • 29. During a physical injury investigation, determining intent involves:
A) Victim’s social media activity
B) Weather at the time of incident
C) Neighborhood demographics
D) Circumstances of attack and prior conflicts
  • 30. Infanticide case analysis relies heavily on:
A) Employment status of the parents
B) School attendance records
C) Maternal history and forensic evidence
D) Economic background of the victim
  • 31. Anti-Hazing Law (R.A. 8049) applying approach includes:
A) Examining initiation procedures for life-threatening practices
B) Verifying location aesthetics
C) Ignoring minor injuries
D) Checking social media posts only
  • 32. In rape investigation, analyzing inconsistencies in statements helps to:
A) Dismiss victim credibility
B) Determine suspect wealth
C) Avoid further investigation
D) Corroborate facts and detect deception
  • 33. In murder, applying analytical skills include:
A) Recording victim’s hobbies
B) Evaluating neighborhood trends
C) Reconstructing events and sequence of attack
D) Tracking public transport usage
  • 34. Investigating homicide requires linking:
A) Neighbors’ opinions only
B) Evidence, witness accounts, and suspect behavior
C) Victim’s financial records only
D) Weather conditions exclusively
  • 35. In abortion-related crimes, investigators must analyze:
A) Social gatherings of victim
B) Housing aesthetics
C) Medical records, witness accounts, and suspect actions
D) Political affiliations
  • 36. Sexual harassment investigation under R.A. 7877 focuses on:
A) Financial status of complainant
B) Location of residence
C) Personal relationships of witness
D) Pattern of harassment and corroboration
  • 37. Physical injury investigation applies forensic analysis to:
A) Evaluate victim’s social media activity
B) Assess neighborhood ratings
C) Establish cause, weapon used, and severity
D) Track economic background
  • 38. Parricide investigation may involve analyzing:
A) Public transportation habits
B) Vacation plans
C) Domestic disputes, motive, and family tensions
D) Workplace records
  • 39. Infanticide investigation requires analyzing:
A) Neighborhood watch logs
B) Social media presence
C) School enrollment history
D) Timing, caretaker involvement, and forensic findings
  • 40. Investigators applying R.A. 11313 principles should:
A) Ignore physical threats
B) Limit evidence collection to digital communication
C) Focus only on financial evidence
D) Ensure victim safety and gather evidence in safe environments
  • 41. In murder cases, crime scene reconstruction applies:
A) Neighborhood survey
B) Physical evidence mapping and sequence of events
C) Financial audit of victim
D) Weather monitoring
  • 42. Forensic analysis in rape cases helps:
A) Determine neighborhood ratings
B) Track public opinion
C) Link suspect to the crime through biological evidence
D) Evaluate victim’s wardrobe choices
  • 43. In homicide, analyzing motive requires:
A) Location aesthetics
B) Neighbor’s socioeconomic status
C) Personal conflicts, prior threats, and opportunities
D) Witness social media activity
  • 44. Application of Anti-Hazing Law involves:
A) Focusing on financial disputes
B) Restricting evidence to video only
C) Ignoring minor offenses
D) Investigating acts causing physical or psychological harm
  • 45. Physical injuries analysis may include:
A) Tracking employment records
B) Distinguishing accidental from intentional injuries
C) Evaluating social media posts
D) Assessing neighborhood ratings
  • 46. Investigators applying Safe Spaces Act focus on:
A) Restricting investigation to verbal harassment only
B) Ignoring anonymous reports
C) Assessing victim’s wardrobe
D) Creating safe reporting channels and evaluating patterns of harassment
  • 47. Analysis of abortion-related crime involves:
A) Monitoring neighbors
B) Investigating unrelated family disputes
C) Evaluating victim’s social media history
D) Cross-checking medical and witness evidence for criminal intent
  • 48. In rape investigations, applying analytical skills includes:
A) Focusing on witness’s financial status
B) Monitoring public opinion
C) Evaluating victim’s neighborhood
D) Correlating victim statements, forensic evidence, and suspect behavior
  • 49. Infanticide investigation applies:
A) Tracking school enrollment
B) Evaluating neighborhood social status
C) Forensic pathology to determine cause and time of death
D) Monitoring online activity
  • 50. Applying principles of R.A. 7877 involves:
A) Reviewing personal wardrobe choices
B) Tracking social media popularity
C) Limiting investigation to verbal complaints
D) Evaluating recurring harassment patterns and organizational response
  • 51. Which of the following best describes somatic death?
A) Temporary loss of consciousness
B) Death of the entire body
C) Permanent cessation of all brain activity
D) Death of individual organs
  • 52. Clinical death is characterized by:
A) Complete decomposition of the body
B) Irreversible cessation of circulation and respiration
C) Death of the brain only
D) Temporary absence of heartbeats and breathing that may be reversible
  • 53. The term cellular death refers to:
A) Death of the organism as a whole
B) Death caused by trauma
C) Legal declaration of death
D) Death of individual cells after cessation of oxygen supply
  • 54. Somatic death occurs after:
A) Post-mortem changes
B) Clinical death
C) Brain death
D) Cellular death
  • 55. Which is an example of sudden death?
A) Chronic kidney failure
B) Myocardial infarction leading to immediate collapse
C) Senility
D) Gradual cancer progression
  • 56. Pathological death is best defined as
A) Death resulting from disease or injury
B) Death from natural aging
C) Death occurring in hospitals only
D) Death due to natural causes
  • 57. A natural death occurs:
A) As a consequence of disease or aging
B) Due to homicide or accident
C) By suicide
D) By sudden trauma
  • 58. Accidental death refers to:
A) Death that occurs in hospitals
B) Death due to natural illness
C) Death caused unintentionally by external factors
D) Death by deliberate act
  • 59. Homicidal death can be identified by:
A) External injuries indicating intentional harm
B) Cellular autolysis
C) Natural disease
D) Absence of trauma
  • 60. Sudden natural death is commonly caused by:
A) Heart attack, cerebral hemorrhage, or pulmonary embolism
B) Cancer
C) Chronic infection
D) Aging
  • 61. Death due to poisoning is classified as:
A) Homicidal or suicidal depending on context
B) Pathological only
C) Natural
D) Accidental
  • 62. Primary death refers to:
A) Death due to immediate cause
B) Clinical death
C) Death due to secondary complications
D) Cellular breakdown post-mortem
  • 63. Secondary death occurs as a result of:
A) Secondary death occurs as a result of:
B) None of the above
C) Legal declaration of death
D) Complications following the primary cause
  • 64. Biological death is marked by:
A) Legal documentation
B) Heart-lung resuscitation
C) Irreversible cessation of vital functions
D) Temporary absence of heartbeat
  • 65. Asphyxial death occurs due to:
A) Lack of oxygen supply to tissues
B) Bacterial infection
C) Poison ingestion
D) Heart failure
  • 66. Rigor mortis is:
A) Decomposition of soft tissues
B) Cooling of the body after death
C) Stiffening of muscles due to chemical changes
D) Blood pooling in dependent parts
  • 67. Algor mortis refers to:
A) Cooling of the body to match ambient temperature
B) Discoloration of the skin
C) Decomposition of internal organs
D) Stiffening of muscles
  • 68. Livor mortis is best described as:
A) Settling of blood in dependent body parts causing discoloration
B) Decomposition
C) Cooling of the body
D) Post-mortem stiffening of muscles
  • 69. Putrefaction begins with:
A) Algor mortis
B) Rigor mortis
C) Bacterial activity in the gastrointestinal tract
D) Livor mortis
  • 70. Early post-mortem changes include:
A) Algor, rigor, and livor mortis
B) Skeletonization
C) Mummification
D) LAdvanced decomposition
  • 71. Which factor accelerates rigor mortis?
A) Starvation
B) Cold environment
C) Hypothermia
D) Strenuous activity before death
  • 72. Delayed rigor mortis can be caused by:
A) Physical exertion before death
B) Cold temperature
C) Hyperthermia
D) Sepsis
  • 73. Hypostasis is another term for:
A) Putrefaction
B) Rigor mortis
C) Livor mortis
D) Algor mortis
  • 74. Cadaveric spasm differs from rigor mortis because:
A) It occurs gradually
B) It is reversible
C) It affects the entire body uniformly
D) It is sudden and affects specific muscles at the moment of death
  • 75. Marbling during decomposition refers to:
A) Greenish discoloration of veins due to bacterial activity
B) Skin cooling
C) Blood pooling
D) Muscle stiffening
  • 76. Mummification is a post-mortem change that occurs:
A) In dry and arid conditions
B) Only in cold environments
C) Immediately after death
D) In humid and warm climates
  • 77. Skeletonization is characterized by:
A) Discoloration of skin
B) Complete decomposition of soft tissues leaving bones
C) Cooling of the body
D) Blood settling in dependent parts
  • 78. Adipocere formation is:
A) Discoloration of the skin
B) Transformation of body fat into waxy substance under moist conditions
C) Cooling of the body
D) Stiffening of muscles
  • 79. Factors affecting post-mortem changes include:
A) None of the above
B) Only environmental temperature
C) Temperature, environment, cause of death, and body condition
D) Only cause of death
  • 80. Post-mortem interval estimation relies on:
A) Rigor, livor, and algor mortis
B) Circumstantial evidence only
C) Only cadaveric spasm
D) Cause of death only
  • 81. A laceration is best described as:
A) Tear in tissue caused by blunt trauma
B) Smooth-edged wound caused by a sharp instrument
C) Wound caused by heat
D) Wound caused by chemical burns
  • 82. An incised wound is:
A) Tearing of tissue due to crushing
B) Caused by blunt trauma
C) Produced by a sharp-edged instrument with clean margins
D) Result of gunshot
  • 83. Stab wounds are characterized by:
A) Length greater than depth
B) Depth greater than length
C) Always fatal
D) Produced by blunt objects
  • 84. Puncture wounds usually result from:
A) Blunt trauma
B) Sharp-edged instruments slicing tissue
C) Small, pointed instruments penetrating tissue
D) Chemical agents
  • 85. Contusion is defined as:
A) Wound with irregular margins
B) Tear in skin with smooth edges
C) Bruise caused by blunt trauma without breaking the skin
D) Deep stab wound
  • 86. Abrasion refers to:
A) Deep penetrating wound
B) Bruise under intact skin
C) Superficial scraping or removal of skin layers
D) Tear in muscle
  • 87. A defensive wound is most commonly found on:
A) Palms or forearms
B) Back
C) Abdomen
D) Legs
  • 88. Characteristics of incised wounds include:
A) Only produced by blunt objects
B) Always fatal
C) Clean-cut edges, minimal tissue damage
D) Wide and irregular edges
  • 89. Characteristics of lacerations include:
A) Contused margins, irregular shape, tissue bridging
B) Superficial only
C) Sharp edges
D) Only in muscles
  • 90. Avulsion involves:
A) Only superficial scraping
B) Partial tearing of tissue away from normal attachment
C) Complete removal of tissue
D) Only bruises
  • 91. Gunshot entrance wounds typically:
A) Show no tissue damage
B) Have irregular margins and burn marks
C) Cannot be analyzed
D) Are smooth and clean
  • 92. Characteristics of defensive wounds suggest:
A) Perpetrator acted accidentally
B) Victim attempted to protect self
C) Wound is post-mortem
D) Victim was unaware
  • 93. Wound age estimation relies on:
A) Only presence of blood
B) Size of wound
C) Only shape of the wound
D) Color changes, inflammation, and healing patterns
  • 94. Contused laceration is caused by:
A) Sharp instrument
B) Chemical burns
C) Blunt force with tearing
D) Electrical injury
  • 95. Incised wound healing is faster due to:
A) Infection
B) Extensive tissue bridging
C) Minimal tissue loss and clean edges
D) Irregular margins
  • 96. Compound fractures differ from simple fractures because:
A) Skin is intact
B) No bleeding occurs
C) Bone pierces the skin
D) Only cartilage is involved
  • 97. Thermal burns can be classified according to:
A) Depth: first, second, and third-degree
B) Cause only
C) Age of victim
D) Shape only
  • 98. Chemical wounds are characterized by:
A) Limited to hands
B) Only superficial injuries
C) Usually sharp, clean edges
D) Tissue corrosion due to caustic substances
  • 99. Difference between stab and incised wounds is:
A) Incised wounds always fatal
B) Stab wound depth > length, incised wound length > depth
C) Incised wound depth > length, stab length > depth
D) Both are identical
  • 100. Signs of antemortem wounds include:
A) No bleeding
B) Only post-mortem staining
C) Only discoloration
D) Bleeding, inflammation, bruising
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