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CDI-2 SCIMED - Quiz
Contributed by: Three
  • 1. In the investigation of murder, which of the following is a primary consideration for distinguishing it from homicide?
A) The type of weapon used
B) The presence of mitigating circumstances
C) The offender's intent to kill
D) The location of the crime scene
  • 2. During homicide investigation, what approach helps determine if the act was premeditated?
A) Collection of fingerprints only
B) Recording witness names
C) Analysis of motive, opportunity, and means
D) Conducting polygraph tests
  • 3. Parricide investigation requires a unique focus on:
A) Time of day of the crime
B) Victim’s previous criminal history
C) Type of weapon used
D) Relationship between victim and suspect
  • 4. Infanticide under the Revised Penal Code is differentiated from murder primarily by:
A) Method of killing
B) Age of the victim
C) Age of the offender
D) Location of the crime
  • 5. In cases of abortion, which investigative approach is most critical?
A) Determining motive for concealment
B) Assessment of social status of victim
C) Witness statements about pregnancy
D) Identification of the medical practitioner involved
  • 6. For physical injuries, investigators primarily analyze:
A) Nature, location, and extent of injuries
B) Victim's income
C) Family background of the victim
D) Time of day the injury occurred
  • 7. Rape investigations should prioritize:
A) Checking family history
B) Securing forensic evidence and victim’s statement
C) Assessing economic status of suspect
D) Social media profiling
  • 8. Which principle is central in analyzing the scene of a murder?
A) Both A and B
B) Motive and opportunity
C) None of the above
D) Physical evidence collection
  • 9. In homicide cases, interviewing witnesses requires:
A) Immediate confrontation with the suspec
B) Open-ended questions to elicit detailed accounts
C) Ignoring inconsistencies in statements
D) Leading questions to confirm assumptions
  • 10. Under R.A. 8049 as amended, investigators in hazing-related deaths must
A) Dismiss minor injuries
B) Conduct online investigations exclusively
C) Consider the consent of the victim irrelevant
D) Focus only on the organizers
  • 11. Anti-Hazing investigations analyze:
A) Location aesthetics
B) Public opinion
C) Group dynamics and initiation processes
D) Economic status of members
  • 12. The “Safe Spaces Act” primarily guides investigators in:
A) Investigating traffic violations
B) Conducting environmental crime inspections
C) Investigating burglary
D) Analyzing sexual harassment incidents in public spaces
  • 13. In investigating sexual harassment under R.A. 7877, evidence gathering should include:
A) Victim statements and corroborating witnesses
B) Financial records of the accused
C) Social media posts unrelated to the incident
D) Previous employment history of the victim
  • 14. When analyzing a case of parricide, which factor is least relevant?
A) Victim’s clothing choice
B) Financial disputes within family
C) Offender's prior criminal record
D) Familial relationships and tensions
  • 15. Which of the following is an essential investigative approach in rape cases?
A) DNA and forensic evidence collection
B) Investigating neighbors’ opinions
C) Reviewing bank statements of suspect
D) Checking prior vacations of victim
  • 16. In murder investigation, establishing timeline helps in
A) Identifying potential witnesses
B) Determining motive
C) All of the above
D) Reconstructing crime sequence
  • 17. During infanticide investigation, which of the following is a key applying approach?
A) Searching public records for health
B) Identification of caretaker or mothe
C) Investigating local schools
D) Profiling neighbors
  • 18. Physical injuries can be classified as:
A) Both A and B
B) Neither A nor B
C) Simple or grave
D) Temporary or permanent
  • 19. R.A. 11053 amendment strengthens anti-hazing investigations by:
A) Limiting prosecution to minor injuries
B) Making consent of victim irrelevant
C) Reducing police involvement
D) Allowing hazing in private clubs
  • 20. Analysis of modus operandi in homicide is important for:
A) Linking multiple cases to a single offender
B) Scheduling court dates
C) Determining victim’s wealth
D) Evaluating crime location aesthetics
  • 21. When analyzing rape cases, forensic evidence should include:
A) Clothing fibers
B) Weapon traces
C) Biological samples
D) All of the above
  • 22. In abortion investigations, suspect interrogation should follow:
A) Legal procedures respecting victim rights
B) Social media monitoring
C) Assumptions about intent
D) Dismissal of medical records
  • 23. In murder investigation, an analyzing approach is:
A) Evaluating weather at time of death
B) Linking physical evidence to suspect
C) Profiling neighbors’ opinions
D) Recording victim’s financial status
  • 24. Under R.A. 11313, investigators apply analytical skills by:
A) Evaluating environment to prevent harassment
B) Ignoring victim testimony
C) Avoiding workplace inspections
D) Checking only criminal history
  • 25. Which method is most effective in determining premeditation in homicide?
A) Inspecting clothing of victim
B) Social media monitoring
C) Assessing traffic conditions
D) Psychological profiling and motive analysis
  • 26. In parricide investigation, the most critical evidence is:
A) Daily routines of victim
B) Financial transactions
C) Neighborhood survey
D) Confession or admission of suspect
  • 27. Investigative approach for sexual harassment includes:
A) Limiting evidence collection to physical harassment
B) Interviewing only witnesses favorable to accused
C) Ignoring complaints filed online
D) Corroborating statements with digital evidence
  • 28. The investigative phase of evidence collection applies:
A) Proper documentation and preservation techniques
B) Skipping minor evidence
C) Publicizing case details immediately
D) Relying only on witness recollection
  • 29. During a physical injury investigation, determining intent involves:
A) Victim’s social media activity
B) Neighborhood demographics
C) Weather at the time of incident
D) Circumstances of attack and prior conflicts
  • 30. Infanticide case analysis relies heavily on:
A) Economic background of the victim
B) School attendance records
C) Employment status of the parents
D) Maternal history and forensic evidence
  • 31. Anti-Hazing Law (R.A. 8049) applying approach includes:
A) Examining initiation procedures for life-threatening practices
B) Ignoring minor injuries
C) Checking social media posts only
D) Verifying location aesthetics
  • 32. In rape investigation, analyzing inconsistencies in statements helps to:
A) Corroborate facts and detect deception
B) Determine suspect wealth
C) Dismiss victim credibility
D) Avoid further investigation
  • 33. In murder, applying analytical skills include:
A) Tracking public transport usage
B) Recording victim’s hobbies
C) Reconstructing events and sequence of attack
D) Evaluating neighborhood trends
  • 34. Investigating homicide requires linking:
A) Victim’s financial records only
B) Neighbors’ opinions only
C) Weather conditions exclusively
D) Evidence, witness accounts, and suspect behavior
  • 35. In abortion-related crimes, investigators must analyze:
A) Political affiliations
B) Social gatherings of victim
C) Housing aesthetics
D) Medical records, witness accounts, and suspect actions
  • 36. Sexual harassment investigation under R.A. 7877 focuses on:
A) Location of residence
B) Pattern of harassment and corroboration
C) Personal relationships of witness
D) Financial status of complainant
  • 37. Physical injury investigation applies forensic analysis to:
A) Establish cause, weapon used, and severity
B) Evaluate victim’s social media activity
C) Assess neighborhood ratings
D) Track economic background
  • 38. Parricide investigation may involve analyzing:
A) Domestic disputes, motive, and family tensions
B) Public transportation habits
C) Vacation plans
D) Workplace records
  • 39. Infanticide investigation requires analyzing:
A) Neighborhood watch logs
B) Timing, caretaker involvement, and forensic findings
C) Social media presence
D) School enrollment history
  • 40. Investigators applying R.A. 11313 principles should:
A) Focus only on financial evidence
B) Limit evidence collection to digital communication
C) Ensure victim safety and gather evidence in safe environments
D) Ignore physical threats
  • 41. In murder cases, crime scene reconstruction applies:
A) Neighborhood survey
B) Physical evidence mapping and sequence of events
C) Financial audit of victim
D) Weather monitoring
  • 42. Forensic analysis in rape cases helps:
A) Track public opinion
B) Link suspect to the crime through biological evidence
C) Evaluate victim’s wardrobe choices
D) Determine neighborhood ratings
  • 43. In homicide, analyzing motive requires:
A) Personal conflicts, prior threats, and opportunities
B) Neighbor’s socioeconomic status
C) Witness social media activity
D) Location aesthetics
  • 44. Application of Anti-Hazing Law involves:
A) Restricting evidence to video only
B) Ignoring minor offenses
C) Investigating acts causing physical or psychological harm
D) Focusing on financial disputes
  • 45. Physical injuries analysis may include:
A) Assessing neighborhood ratings
B) Distinguishing accidental from intentional injuries
C) Tracking employment records
D) Evaluating social media posts
  • 46. Investigators applying Safe Spaces Act focus on:
A) Ignoring anonymous reports
B) Assessing victim’s wardrobe
C) Creating safe reporting channels and evaluating patterns of harassment
D) Restricting investigation to verbal harassment only
  • 47. Analysis of abortion-related crime involves:
A) Investigating unrelated family disputes
B) Cross-checking medical and witness evidence for criminal intent
C) Evaluating victim’s social media history
D) Monitoring neighbors
  • 48. In rape investigations, applying analytical skills includes:
A) Focusing on witness’s financial status
B) Monitoring public opinion
C) Correlating victim statements, forensic evidence, and suspect behavior
D) Evaluating victim’s neighborhood
  • 49. Infanticide investigation applies:
A) Evaluating neighborhood social status
B) Monitoring online activity
C) Forensic pathology to determine cause and time of death
D) Tracking school enrollment
  • 50. Applying principles of R.A. 7877 involves:
A) Evaluating recurring harassment patterns and organizational response
B) Tracking social media popularity
C) Limiting investigation to verbal complaints
D) Reviewing personal wardrobe choices
  • 51. Which of the following best describes somatic death?
A) Temporary loss of consciousness
B) Death of the entire body
C) Death of individual organs
D) Permanent cessation of all brain activity
  • 52. Clinical death is characterized by:
A) Complete decomposition of the body
B) Irreversible cessation of circulation and respiration
C) Temporary absence of heartbeats and breathing that may be reversible
D) Death of the brain only
  • 53. The term cellular death refers to:
A) Legal declaration of death
B) Death of individual cells after cessation of oxygen supply
C) Death caused by trauma
D) Death of the organism as a whole
  • 54. Somatic death occurs after:
A) Clinical death
B) Brain death
C) Post-mortem changes
D) Cellular death
  • 55. Which is an example of sudden death?
A) Gradual cancer progression
B) Senility
C) Myocardial infarction leading to immediate collapse
D) Chronic kidney failure
  • 56. Pathological death is best defined as
A) Death from natural aging
B) Death resulting from disease or injury
C) Death due to natural causes
D) Death occurring in hospitals only
  • 57. A natural death occurs:
A) As a consequence of disease or aging
B) By suicide
C) By sudden trauma
D) Due to homicide or accident
  • 58. Accidental death refers to:
A) Death due to natural illness
B) Death by deliberate act
C) Death that occurs in hospitals
D) Death caused unintentionally by external factors
  • 59. Homicidal death can be identified by:
A) Absence of trauma
B) Natural disease
C) External injuries indicating intentional harm
D) Cellular autolysis
  • 60. Sudden natural death is commonly caused by:
A) Chronic infection
B) Aging
C) Heart attack, cerebral hemorrhage, or pulmonary embolism
D) Cancer
  • 61. Death due to poisoning is classified as:
A) Homicidal or suicidal depending on context
B) Accidental
C) Pathological only
D) Natural
  • 62. Primary death refers to:
A) Clinical death
B) Death due to immediate cause
C) Death due to secondary complications
D) Cellular breakdown post-mortem
  • 63. Secondary death occurs as a result of:
A) None of the above
B) Complications following the primary cause
C) Legal declaration of death
D) Secondary death occurs as a result of:
  • 64. Biological death is marked by:
A) Irreversible cessation of vital functions
B) Heart-lung resuscitation
C) Legal documentation
D) Temporary absence of heartbeat
  • 65. Asphyxial death occurs due to:
A) Lack of oxygen supply to tissues
B) Heart failure
C) Poison ingestion
D) Bacterial infection
  • 66. Rigor mortis is:
A) Cooling of the body after death
B) Blood pooling in dependent parts
C) Decomposition of soft tissues
D) Stiffening of muscles due to chemical changes
  • 67. Algor mortis refers to:
A) Cooling of the body to match ambient temperature
B) Stiffening of muscles
C) Decomposition of internal organs
D) Discoloration of the skin
  • 68. Livor mortis is best described as:
A) Post-mortem stiffening of muscles
B) Decomposition
C) Cooling of the body
D) Settling of blood in dependent body parts causing discoloration
  • 69. Putrefaction begins with:
A) Rigor mortis
B) Livor mortis
C) Bacterial activity in the gastrointestinal tract
D) Algor mortis
  • 70. Early post-mortem changes include:
A) Mummification
B) Skeletonization
C) LAdvanced decomposition
D) Algor, rigor, and livor mortis
  • 71. Which factor accelerates rigor mortis?
A) Strenuous activity before death
B) Cold environment
C) Starvation
D) Hypothermia
  • 72. Delayed rigor mortis can be caused by:
A) Cold temperature
B) Hyperthermia
C) Sepsis
D) Physical exertion before death
  • 73. Hypostasis is another term for:
A) Livor mortis
B) Putrefaction
C) Rigor mortis
D) Algor mortis
  • 74. Cadaveric spasm differs from rigor mortis because:
A) It is sudden and affects specific muscles at the moment of death
B) It occurs gradually
C) It affects the entire body uniformly
D) It is reversible
  • 75. Marbling during decomposition refers to:
A) Blood pooling
B) Skin cooling
C) Greenish discoloration of veins due to bacterial activity
D) Muscle stiffening
  • 76. Mummification is a post-mortem change that occurs:
A) Only in cold environments
B) In dry and arid conditions
C) In humid and warm climates
D) Immediately after death
  • 77. Skeletonization is characterized by:
A) Cooling of the body
B) Discoloration of skin
C) Complete decomposition of soft tissues leaving bones
D) Blood settling in dependent parts
  • 78. Adipocere formation is:
A) Discoloration of the skin
B) Cooling of the body
C) Transformation of body fat into waxy substance under moist conditions
D) Stiffening of muscles
  • 79. Factors affecting post-mortem changes include:
A) Only environmental temperature
B) Only cause of death
C) None of the above
D) Temperature, environment, cause of death, and body condition
  • 80. Post-mortem interval estimation relies on:
A) Cause of death only
B) Circumstantial evidence only
C) Only cadaveric spasm
D) Rigor, livor, and algor mortis
  • 81. A laceration is best described as:
A) Wound caused by heat
B) Smooth-edged wound caused by a sharp instrument
C) Wound caused by chemical burns
D) Tear in tissue caused by blunt trauma
  • 82. An incised wound is:
A) Produced by a sharp-edged instrument with clean margins
B) Result of gunshot
C) Caused by blunt trauma
D) Tearing of tissue due to crushing
  • 83. Stab wounds are characterized by:
A) Produced by blunt objects
B) Length greater than depth
C) Depth greater than length
D) Always fatal
  • 84. Puncture wounds usually result from:
A) Blunt trauma
B) Chemical agents
C) Small, pointed instruments penetrating tissue
D) Sharp-edged instruments slicing tissue
  • 85. Contusion is defined as:
A) Tear in skin with smooth edges
B) Wound with irregular margins
C) Deep stab wound
D) Bruise caused by blunt trauma without breaking the skin
  • 86. Abrasion refers to:
A) Deep penetrating wound
B) Superficial scraping or removal of skin layers
C) Bruise under intact skin
D) Tear in muscle
  • 87. A defensive wound is most commonly found on:
A) Back
B) Abdomen
C) Legs
D) Palms or forearms
  • 88. Characteristics of incised wounds include:
A) Clean-cut edges, minimal tissue damage
B) Wide and irregular edges
C) Only produced by blunt objects
D) Always fatal
  • 89. Characteristics of lacerations include:
A) Contused margins, irregular shape, tissue bridging
B) Superficial only
C) Sharp edges
D) Only in muscles
  • 90. Avulsion involves:
A) Complete removal of tissue
B) Only superficial scraping
C) Only bruises
D) Partial tearing of tissue away from normal attachment
  • 91. Gunshot entrance wounds typically:
A) Cannot be analyzed
B) Are smooth and clean
C) Have irregular margins and burn marks
D) Show no tissue damage
  • 92. Characteristics of defensive wounds suggest:
A) Victim was unaware
B) Victim attempted to protect self
C) Perpetrator acted accidentally
D) Wound is post-mortem
  • 93. Wound age estimation relies on:
A) Size of wound
B) Only presence of blood
C) Only shape of the wound
D) Color changes, inflammation, and healing patterns
  • 94. Contused laceration is caused by:
A) Sharp instrument
B) Blunt force with tearing
C) Chemical burns
D) Electrical injury
  • 95. Incised wound healing is faster due to:
A) Irregular margins
B) Infection
C) Minimal tissue loss and clean edges
D) Extensive tissue bridging
  • 96. Compound fractures differ from simple fractures because:
A) No bleeding occurs
B) Bone pierces the skin
C) Skin is intact
D) Only cartilage is involved
  • 97. Thermal burns can be classified according to:
A) Depth: first, second, and third-degree
B) Cause only
C) Age of victim
D) Shape only
  • 98. Chemical wounds are characterized by:
A) Only superficial injuries
B) Tissue corrosion due to caustic substances
C) Limited to hands
D) Usually sharp, clean edges
  • 99. Difference between stab and incised wounds is:
A) Incised wound depth > length, stab length > depth
B) Stab wound depth > length, incised wound length > depth
C) Both are identical
D) Incised wounds always fatal
  • 100. Signs of antemortem wounds include:
A) Only post-mortem staining
B) Bleeding, inflammation, bruising
C) Only discoloration
D) No bleeding
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