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CDI-2 SCIMED
Contributed by: Three
  • 1. In the investigation of murder, which of the following is a primary consideration for distinguishing it from homicide?
A) The offender's intent to kill
B) The type of weapon used
C) The location of the crime scene
D) The presence of mitigating circumstances
  • 2. During homicide investigation, what approach helps determine if the act was premeditated?
A) Recording witness names
B) Analysis of motive, opportunity, and means
C) Conducting polygraph tests
D) Collection of fingerprints only
  • 3. Parricide investigation requires a unique focus on:
A) Time of day of the crime
B) Relationship between victim and suspect
C) Victim’s previous criminal history
D) Type of weapon used
  • 4. Infanticide under the Revised Penal Code is differentiated from murder primarily by:
A) Location of the crime
B) Age of the offender
C) Method of killing
D) Age of the victim
  • 5. In cases of abortion, which investigative approach is most critical?
A) Witness statements about pregnancy
B) Identification of the medical practitioner involved
C) Determining motive for concealment
D) Assessment of social status of victim
  • 6. For physical injuries, investigators primarily analyze:
A) Nature, location, and extent of injuries
B) Family background of the victim
C) Time of day the injury occurred
D) Victim's income
  • 7. Rape investigations should prioritize:
A) Social media profiling
B) Assessing economic status of suspect
C) Securing forensic evidence and victim’s statement
D) Checking family history
  • 8. Which principle is central in analyzing the scene of a murder?
A) None of the above
B) Motive and opportunity
C) Both A and B
D) Physical evidence collection
  • 9. In homicide cases, interviewing witnesses requires:
A) Ignoring inconsistencies in statements
B) Leading questions to confirm assumptions
C) Open-ended questions to elicit detailed accounts
D) Immediate confrontation with the suspec
  • 10. Under R.A. 8049 as amended, investigators in hazing-related deaths must
A) Focus only on the organizers
B) Conduct online investigations exclusively
C) Consider the consent of the victim irrelevant
D) Dismiss minor injuries
  • 11. Anti-Hazing investigations analyze:
A) Economic status of members
B) Group dynamics and initiation processes
C) Location aesthetics
D) Public opinion
  • 12. The “Safe Spaces Act” primarily guides investigators in:
A) Conducting environmental crime inspections
B) Analyzing sexual harassment incidents in public spaces
C) Investigating burglary
D) Investigating traffic violations
  • 13. In investigating sexual harassment under R.A. 7877, evidence gathering should include:
A) Previous employment history of the victim
B) Financial records of the accused
C) Social media posts unrelated to the incident
D) Victim statements and corroborating witnesses
  • 14. When analyzing a case of parricide, which factor is least relevant?
A) Familial relationships and tensions
B) Offender's prior criminal record
C) Financial disputes within family
D) Victim’s clothing choice
  • 15. Which of the following is an essential investigative approach in rape cases?
A) Checking prior vacations of victim
B) Investigating neighbors’ opinions
C) DNA and forensic evidence collection
D) Reviewing bank statements of suspect
  • 16. In murder investigation, establishing timeline helps in
A) Determining motive
B) Identifying potential witnesses
C) All of the above
D) Reconstructing crime sequence
  • 17. During infanticide investigation, which of the following is a key applying approach?
A) Investigating local schools
B) Identification of caretaker or mothe
C) Profiling neighbors
D) Searching public records for health
  • 18. Physical injuries can be classified as:
A) Both A and B
B) Temporary or permanent
C) Neither A nor B
D) Simple or grave
  • 19. R.A. 11053 amendment strengthens anti-hazing investigations by:
A) Making consent of victim irrelevant
B) Reducing police involvement
C) Allowing hazing in private clubs
D) Limiting prosecution to minor injuries
  • 20. Analysis of modus operandi in homicide is important for:
A) Linking multiple cases to a single offender
B) Determining victim’s wealth
C) Scheduling court dates
D) Evaluating crime location aesthetics
  • 21. When analyzing rape cases, forensic evidence should include:
A) Clothing fibers
B) Biological samples
C) All of the above
D) Weapon traces
  • 22. In abortion investigations, suspect interrogation should follow:
A) Legal procedures respecting victim rights
B) Dismissal of medical records
C) Social media monitoring
D) Assumptions about intent
  • 23. In murder investigation, an analyzing approach is:
A) Recording victim’s financial status
B) Profiling neighbors’ opinions
C) Linking physical evidence to suspect
D) Evaluating weather at time of death
  • 24. Under R.A. 11313, investigators apply analytical skills by:
A) Evaluating environment to prevent harassment
B) Checking only criminal history
C) Avoiding workplace inspections
D) Ignoring victim testimony
  • 25. Which method is most effective in determining premeditation in homicide?
A) Social media monitoring
B) Assessing traffic conditions
C) Inspecting clothing of victim
D) Psychological profiling and motive analysis
  • 26. In parricide investigation, the most critical evidence is:
A) Neighborhood survey
B) Financial transactions
C) Daily routines of victim
D) Confession or admission of suspect
  • 27. Investigative approach for sexual harassment includes:
A) Limiting evidence collection to physical harassment
B) Corroborating statements with digital evidence
C) Interviewing only witnesses favorable to accused
D) Ignoring complaints filed online
  • 28. The investigative phase of evidence collection applies:
A) Proper documentation and preservation techniques
B) Publicizing case details immediately
C) Skipping minor evidence
D) Relying only on witness recollection
  • 29. During a physical injury investigation, determining intent involves:
A) Neighborhood demographics
B) Victim’s social media activity
C) Weather at the time of incident
D) Circumstances of attack and prior conflicts
  • 30. Infanticide case analysis relies heavily on:
A) Employment status of the parents
B) Maternal history and forensic evidence
C) Economic background of the victim
D) School attendance records
  • 31. Anti-Hazing Law (R.A. 8049) applying approach includes:
A) Examining initiation procedures for life-threatening practices
B) Checking social media posts only
C) Verifying location aesthetics
D) Ignoring minor injuries
  • 32. In rape investigation, analyzing inconsistencies in statements helps to:
A) Avoid further investigation
B) Dismiss victim credibility
C) Corroborate facts and detect deception
D) Determine suspect wealth
  • 33. In murder, applying analytical skills include:
A) Evaluating neighborhood trends
B) Tracking public transport usage
C) Recording victim’s hobbies
D) Reconstructing events and sequence of attack
  • 34. Investigating homicide requires linking:
A) Victim’s financial records only
B) Weather conditions exclusively
C) Neighbors’ opinions only
D) Evidence, witness accounts, and suspect behavior
  • 35. In abortion-related crimes, investigators must analyze:
A) Medical records, witness accounts, and suspect actions
B) Housing aesthetics
C) Social gatherings of victim
D) Political affiliations
  • 36. Sexual harassment investigation under R.A. 7877 focuses on:
A) Personal relationships of witness
B) Financial status of complainant
C) Pattern of harassment and corroboration
D) Location of residence
  • 37. Physical injury investigation applies forensic analysis to:
A) Establish cause, weapon used, and severity
B) Track economic background
C) Evaluate victim’s social media activity
D) Assess neighborhood ratings
  • 38. Parricide investigation may involve analyzing:
A) Domestic disputes, motive, and family tensions
B) Vacation plans
C) Workplace records
D) Public transportation habits
  • 39. Infanticide investigation requires analyzing:
A) School enrollment history
B) Neighborhood watch logs
C) Social media presence
D) Timing, caretaker involvement, and forensic findings
  • 40. Investigators applying R.A. 11313 principles should:
A) Ignore physical threats
B) Focus only on financial evidence
C) Limit evidence collection to digital communication
D) Ensure victim safety and gather evidence in safe environments
  • 41. In murder cases, crime scene reconstruction applies:
A) Physical evidence mapping and sequence of events
B) Financial audit of victim
C) Weather monitoring
D) Neighborhood survey
  • 42. Forensic analysis in rape cases helps:
A) Track public opinion
B) Evaluate victim’s wardrobe choices
C) Determine neighborhood ratings
D) Link suspect to the crime through biological evidence
  • 43. In homicide, analyzing motive requires:
A) Neighbor’s socioeconomic status
B) Location aesthetics
C) Personal conflicts, prior threats, and opportunities
D) Witness social media activity
  • 44. Application of Anti-Hazing Law involves:
A) Focusing on financial disputes
B) Investigating acts causing physical or psychological harm
C) Restricting evidence to video only
D) Ignoring minor offenses
  • 45. Physical injuries analysis may include:
A) Assessing neighborhood ratings
B) Tracking employment records
C) Distinguishing accidental from intentional injuries
D) Evaluating social media posts
  • 46. Investigators applying Safe Spaces Act focus on:
A) Ignoring anonymous reports
B) Creating safe reporting channels and evaluating patterns of harassment
C) Restricting investigation to verbal harassment only
D) Assessing victim’s wardrobe
  • 47. Analysis of abortion-related crime involves:
A) Investigating unrelated family disputes
B) Evaluating victim’s social media history
C) Cross-checking medical and witness evidence for criminal intent
D) Monitoring neighbors
  • 48. In rape investigations, applying analytical skills includes:
A) Correlating victim statements, forensic evidence, and suspect behavior
B) Evaluating victim’s neighborhood
C) Monitoring public opinion
D) Focusing on witness’s financial status
  • 49. Infanticide investigation applies:
A) Evaluating neighborhood social status
B) Forensic pathology to determine cause and time of death
C) Tracking school enrollment
D) Monitoring online activity
  • 50. Applying principles of R.A. 7877 involves:
A) Evaluating recurring harassment patterns and organizational response
B) Reviewing personal wardrobe choices
C) Tracking social media popularity
D) Limiting investigation to verbal complaints
  • 51. Which of the following best describes somatic death?
A) Death of the entire body
B) Death of individual organs
C) Temporary loss of consciousness
D) Permanent cessation of all brain activity
  • 52. Clinical death is characterized by:
A) Complete decomposition of the body
B) Irreversible cessation of circulation and respiration
C) Death of the brain only
D) Temporary absence of heartbeats and breathing that may be reversible
  • 53. The term cellular death refers to:
A) Death of individual cells after cessation of oxygen supply
B) Legal declaration of death
C) Death of the organism as a whole
D) Death caused by trauma
  • 54. Somatic death occurs after:
A) Cellular death
B) Post-mortem changes
C) Clinical death
D) Brain death
  • 55. Which is an example of sudden death?
A) Senility
B) Chronic kidney failure
C) Myocardial infarction leading to immediate collapse
D) Gradual cancer progression
  • 56. Pathological death is best defined as
A) Death resulting from disease or injury
B) Death occurring in hospitals only
C) Death due to natural causes
D) Death from natural aging
  • 57. A natural death occurs:
A) By sudden trauma
B) By suicide
C) Due to homicide or accident
D) As a consequence of disease or aging
  • 58. Accidental death refers to:
A) Death that occurs in hospitals
B) Death by deliberate act
C) Death caused unintentionally by external factors
D) Death due to natural illness
  • 59. Homicidal death can be identified by:
A) Natural disease
B) Absence of trauma
C) Cellular autolysis
D) External injuries indicating intentional harm
  • 60. Sudden natural death is commonly caused by:
A) Chronic infection
B) Cancer
C) Heart attack, cerebral hemorrhage, or pulmonary embolism
D) Aging
  • 61. Death due to poisoning is classified as:
A) Pathological only
B) Homicidal or suicidal depending on context
C) Accidental
D) Natural
  • 62. Primary death refers to:
A) Death due to secondary complications
B) Cellular breakdown post-mortem
C) Death due to immediate cause
D) Clinical death
  • 63. Secondary death occurs as a result of:
A) None of the above
B) Secondary death occurs as a result of:
C) Legal declaration of death
D) Complications following the primary cause
  • 64. Biological death is marked by:
A) Temporary absence of heartbeat
B) Heart-lung resuscitation
C) Irreversible cessation of vital functions
D) Legal documentation
  • 65. Asphyxial death occurs due to:
A) Poison ingestion
B) Bacterial infection
C) Heart failure
D) Lack of oxygen supply to tissues
  • 66. Rigor mortis is:
A) Decomposition of soft tissues
B) Stiffening of muscles due to chemical changes
C) Blood pooling in dependent parts
D) Cooling of the body after death
  • 67. Algor mortis refers to:
A) Decomposition of internal organs
B) Discoloration of the skin
C) Stiffening of muscles
D) Cooling of the body to match ambient temperature
  • 68. Livor mortis is best described as:
A) Post-mortem stiffening of muscles
B) Cooling of the body
C) Decomposition
D) Settling of blood in dependent body parts causing discoloration
  • 69. Putrefaction begins with:
A) Rigor mortis
B) Bacterial activity in the gastrointestinal tract
C) Algor mortis
D) Livor mortis
  • 70. Early post-mortem changes include:
A) LAdvanced decomposition
B) Skeletonization
C) Mummification
D) Algor, rigor, and livor mortis
  • 71. Which factor accelerates rigor mortis?
A) Starvation
B) Hypothermia
C) Strenuous activity before death
D) Cold environment
  • 72. Delayed rigor mortis can be caused by:
A) Sepsis
B) Hyperthermia
C) Physical exertion before death
D) Cold temperature
  • 73. Hypostasis is another term for:
A) Algor mortis
B) Rigor mortis
C) Livor mortis
D) Putrefaction
  • 74. Cadaveric spasm differs from rigor mortis because:
A) It affects the entire body uniformly
B) It occurs gradually
C) It is sudden and affects specific muscles at the moment of death
D) It is reversible
  • 75. Marbling during decomposition refers to:
A) Muscle stiffening
B) Greenish discoloration of veins due to bacterial activity
C) Blood pooling
D) Skin cooling
  • 76. Mummification is a post-mortem change that occurs:
A) Only in cold environments
B) Immediately after death
C) In dry and arid conditions
D) In humid and warm climates
  • 77. Skeletonization is characterized by:
A) Complete decomposition of soft tissues leaving bones
B) Blood settling in dependent parts
C) Discoloration of skin
D) Cooling of the body
  • 78. Adipocere formation is:
A) Stiffening of muscles
B) Discoloration of the skin
C) Cooling of the body
D) Transformation of body fat into waxy substance under moist conditions
  • 79. Factors affecting post-mortem changes include:
A) None of the above
B) Only environmental temperature
C) Temperature, environment, cause of death, and body condition
D) Only cause of death
  • 80. Post-mortem interval estimation relies on:
A) Circumstantial evidence only
B) Rigor, livor, and algor mortis
C) Only cadaveric spasm
D) Cause of death only
  • 81. A laceration is best described as:
A) Wound caused by chemical burns
B) Tear in tissue caused by blunt trauma
C) Wound caused by heat
D) Smooth-edged wound caused by a sharp instrument
  • 82. An incised wound is:
A) Tearing of tissue due to crushing
B) Caused by blunt trauma
C) Produced by a sharp-edged instrument with clean margins
D) Result of gunshot
  • 83. Stab wounds are characterized by:
A) Depth greater than length
B) Length greater than depth
C) Always fatal
D) Produced by blunt objects
  • 84. Puncture wounds usually result from:
A) Chemical agents
B) Blunt trauma
C) Small, pointed instruments penetrating tissue
D) Sharp-edged instruments slicing tissue
  • 85. Contusion is defined as:
A) Deep stab wound
B) Wound with irregular margins
C) Tear in skin with smooth edges
D) Bruise caused by blunt trauma without breaking the skin
  • 86. Abrasion refers to:
A) Deep penetrating wound
B) Bruise under intact skin
C) Superficial scraping or removal of skin layers
D) Tear in muscle
  • 87. A defensive wound is most commonly found on:
A) Abdomen
B) Back
C) Palms or forearms
D) Legs
  • 88. Characteristics of incised wounds include:
A) Always fatal
B) Clean-cut edges, minimal tissue damage
C) Only produced by blunt objects
D) Wide and irregular edges
  • 89. Characteristics of lacerations include:
A) Contused margins, irregular shape, tissue bridging
B) Superficial only
C) Only in muscles
D) Sharp edges
  • 90. Avulsion involves:
A) Partial tearing of tissue away from normal attachment
B) Complete removal of tissue
C) Only bruises
D) Only superficial scraping
  • 91. Gunshot entrance wounds typically:
A) Cannot be analyzed
B) Show no tissue damage
C) Have irregular margins and burn marks
D) Are smooth and clean
  • 92. Characteristics of defensive wounds suggest:
A) Victim attempted to protect self
B) Victim was unaware
C) Wound is post-mortem
D) Perpetrator acted accidentally
  • 93. Wound age estimation relies on:
A) Only shape of the wound
B) Size of wound
C) Only presence of blood
D) Color changes, inflammation, and healing patterns
  • 94. Contused laceration is caused by:
A) Sharp instrument
B) Chemical burns
C) Blunt force with tearing
D) Electrical injury
  • 95. Incised wound healing is faster due to:
A) Minimal tissue loss and clean edges
B) Infection
C) Irregular margins
D) Extensive tissue bridging
  • 96. Compound fractures differ from simple fractures because:
A) Bone pierces the skin
B) No bleeding occurs
C) Skin is intact
D) Only cartilage is involved
  • 97. Thermal burns can be classified according to:
A) Age of victim
B) Depth: first, second, and third-degree
C) Shape only
D) Cause only
  • 98. Chemical wounds are characterized by:
A) Tissue corrosion due to caustic substances
B) Only superficial injuries
C) Usually sharp, clean edges
D) Limited to hands
  • 99. Difference between stab and incised wounds is:
A) Incised wound depth > length, stab length > depth
B) Incised wounds always fatal
C) Stab wound depth > length, incised wound length > depth
D) Both are identical
  • 100. Signs of antemortem wounds include:
A) No bleeding
B) Only post-mortem staining
C) Bleeding, inflammation, bruising
D) Only discoloration
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