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Microsoft SQL Server - Quiz
Contributed by: Burrows
  • 1. What are the two modes of concurrency control provided by SQL Server?
A) Exclusive and shared locking
B) Table-level and row-level locking
C) Pessimistic and optimistic concurrency
D) Latch and spinlock control
  • 2. What does an exclusive lock grant to the user?
A) Exclusive access to the data
B) Priority queue access to tables
C) Shared access with other users
D) Read-only access to the data
  • 3. What is true about shared locks?
A) Multiple users can read data simultaneously
B) They are only applied to index leaves
C) They allow exclusive locks to be acquired
D) They prevent all other reads
  • 4. Who defines the granularity level for locking in SQL Server?
A) The SQL Server optimizer
B) The end-user client
C) The database administrator
D) The Lock Manager
  • 5. What is a disadvantage of fine-grained locking?
A) It blocks all other users
B) It automatically reduces performance
C) It cannot be used on indexes
D) It requires more resources
  • 6. What are the two lightweight mutual exclusion solutions mentioned?
A) Transactions and rollbacks
B) Shared locks and exclusive locks
C) Latches and spinlocks
D) Version IDs and metadata
  • 7. What happens when SQL Server detects a deadlock?
A) It restarts the entire database instance
B) It forces all threads to use optimistic concurrency
C) It kills one of the threads and rolls back the transaction
D) It pauses all threads until the deadlock clears
  • 8. What component maintains an in-memory table of database locks?
A) The Worker Thread Monitor
B) The Lock Manager
C) The Tempdb system
D) The Latch Controller
  • 9. Where are old versions of rows moved in optimistic concurrency?
A) Tempdb
B) The index leaf nodes
C) The main data table
D) The transaction log
  • 10. In optimistic concurrency, how is a row version identified?
A) By the user who initiated the update
B) By the system timestamp only
C) By the row's physical memory address
D) By the ID of the transaction that created the version
  • 11. What happens to other requests when a row is being updated under optimistic concurrency?
A) They are moved to a waiting queue until the transaction ends
B) They are executed on the older version of the row
C) They are immediately blocked
D) They are rejected with an error
  • 12. Which of the following is true about locks and latches?
A) Locks are used for DMVs while latches are used for tables
B) Latches are less resource intensive than locks
C) Locks are more lightweight than latches
D) Latches are more robust than locks
  • 13. Can multiple clients access the same database concurrently in SQL Server?
A) Only if they are using optimistic concurrency
B) No, only one client at a time
C) Yes
D) Only if the database is read-only
  • 14. What level of granularity can locks be applied to for indexes?
A) Rows only
B) Pages only
C) Entire index or index leaves
D) Database level only
  • 15. Which SQL Server version is Microsoft Data Engine 1.0 based on?
A) SQL Server 2000
B) SQL Server 7.0
C) SQL Server 2005
D) SQL Server 6.5
  • 16. Which version is Microsoft SQL Server Data Engine based on?
A) SQL Server 2000
B) SQL Server 2008
C) SQL Server 7.0
D) SQL Server 2005
  • 17. What was the eventual replacement for Microsoft SQL Server Data Engine?
A) SQL Server 2005 Express Edition
B) SQL Server 2000 Personal Edition
C) SQL Server 2008 R2 Datacenter
D) SQL Server Compact Edition
  • 18. What is another name for Microsoft SQL Server Data Engine?
A) Standard Proxy
B) Web Server Edition
C) Mobile Edition
D) Desktop Engine
  • 19. Which of the following did Microsoft SQL Server Data Engine NOT include?
A) Database engine capabilities
B) A GUI
C) Web admin tool
D) Microsoft Access compatibility
  • 20. Which edition was intended for use as a mobile/disconnected proxy in SQL Server 2000?
A) Datacenter Edition
B) Windows CE Edition
C) Personal Edition
D) Desktop Engine
  • 21. What is a characteristic of Personal Edition's database size?
A) 1 GB limit
B) 4 GB limit
C) 10 GB limit
D) No size limit
  • 22. Which feature did not work in Windows 98 for SQL Server 2000 Personal Edition?
A) Standard management tools
B) Full-Text Search
C) Transactional replication
D) SQL connectivity
  • 23. How many logical processors does SQL Server 2008 R2 Datacenter support?
A) 256
B) 128
C) 512
D) 64
  • 24. What replaced the Windows CE Edition?
A) SQL Server 2005 Mobile Edition
B) SQL Server 2000 Personal Edition
C) SQL Server Compact 3.5
D) SQL Server 2005 Express Edition
  • 25. What replaced SQL Server 2005 Mobile Edition?
A) Windows CE Edition
B) SQL Server 2005 Compact Edition
C) SQL Server 2008 R2
D) SQL Server Compact 3.5
  • 26. Who originally designed and developed TDS in 1984?
A) Sybase Inc.
B) Oracle
C) Microsoft
D) IBM
  • 27. Which of the following transport protocols can TDS be encased in?
A) FTP
B) SMTP
C) TCP/IP
D) UDP only
  • 28. Which tool is used for Stress Testing and Performance Analysis in SQL Server 2000?
A) PSSDIAG
B) Best Practices Analyzer
C) Read80Trace
D) SQLXML
  • 29. Up to which service pack was Reporting Services included as a supplemental package for SQL Server 2000?
A) Service Pack 2
B) Service Pack 1
C) Service Pack 4
D) Service Pack 3
  • 30. In what year was the first version of Microsoft SQL Server released?
A) 1985
B) 1989
C) 1993
D) 1995
  • 31. What feature was introduced in SQL Server 2012?
A) OS/2 support
B) Big Data Clusters
C) Linux support
D) Columnar in-memory storage (xVelocity)
  • 32. What was the codename for SQL Server 2000?
A) xVelocity
B) NT-OS
C) Big Data
D) Shiloh
  • 33. Which processor architecture is required for SQL Server 2016 and beyond?
A) ARM
B) x64
C) PowerPC
D) x86
  • 34. What is the release date of Microsoft SQL Server 2025?
A) January 1, 2025
B) December 25, 2025
C) November 30, 2024
D) November 18, 2025
  • 35. What is the maximum database size supported by SQL Server Enterprise Edition?
A) 12 terabytes
B) 640 petabytes
C) 524 petabytes
D) 100 terabytes
  • 36. How much memory can SQL Server Enterprise Edition address?
A) 1 terabyte
B) 524 gigabytes
C) 12 terabytes
D) 640 terabytes
  • 37. How many logical processors does SQL Server Enterprise Edition support?
A) 640
B) 1024
C) 12
D) 524
  • 38. Which feature is absent in SQL Server Standard edition but present in Enterprise?
A) Core database engine
B) Hot-add memory
C) SQL cluster management
D) Stand-alone services
  • 39. Which tool is included in the Business Intelligence edition?
A) SQL Server Management Studio Basic
B) Hot-add memory
C) Parallel indexes
D) Power Pivot
  • 40. What is the current database file size limit for SQL Server Express?
A) 10 GB
B) 1 TB
C) 50 GB
D) 4 GB
  • 41. What is the database file limit for SQL Server Express prior to 2025?
A) 10 GB
B) 1 GB
C) 4 GB
D) 50 GB
  • 42. Which architecture does Azure SQL Data Warehouse use for analytics workloads?
A) Single-threaded processing
B) Embedded architecture
C) Client-server architecture
D) Massively parallel processing (MPP)
  • 43. When did Microsoft make the Developer Edition free of charge to the public?
A) Early 2016
B) 2005
C) 2020
D) 2012
  • 44. What is the time limit for the SQL Server Evaluation Edition?
A) 180 days
B) 365 days
C) 30 days
D) 90 days
  • 45. Which edition is designed for enterprise-scale data warehousing and runs on optimized reference-architecture hardware?
A) Fast Track
B) SSEE
C) LocalDB
D) Compact Edition
  • 46. Who is LocalDB primarily designed for?
A) Cloud architects
B) Mobile device users
C) Application developers
D) Database administrators
  • 47. What is the primary unit of I/O for SQL Server operations?
A) Extent
B) Page
C) Allocation unit
D) Partition
  • 48. What is the size of a single SQL Server page?
A) 2 KB
B) 16 KB
C) 8 KB
D) 4 KB
  • 49. What is the file extension for primary data files?
A) .ldf
B) .ndf
C) .db
D) .mdf
  • 50. What is the file extension for log files?
A) .log
B) .ldf
C) .ndf
D) .mdf
  • 51. How many pages are contained in one extent?
A) 32
B) 8
C) 16
D) 4
  • 52. What is the term for server statistics available as virtual tables?
A) Virtual Data Objects
B) System Statistics Tables
C) Dynamic Management Views
D) Performance Monitors
  • 53. Which structure stores rows in an unordered manner?
A) B-tree
B) Partition
C) Clustered index
D) Heap
  • 54. What is the size of the header that marks a page?
A) 96 bytes
B) 8 bytes
C) 128 bytes
D) 64 bytes
  • 55. Which data type is used for unstructured blobs of data?
A) Varchar
B) binary
C) Float
D) Integer
  • 56. What is the name for the set of all pages currently buffered in memory?
A) Disk storage
B) Buffer cache
C) Transaction heap
D) System log
  • 57. How are I/O operations handled when writing pages back to disk?
A) Networked I/O
B) Synchronous I/O
C) Sequential I/O
D) Asynchronous I/O
  • 58. What is written along with a page when it is saved to disk?
A) A time stamp
B) An encryption key
C) A user ID
D) A checksum
  • 59. What is the name of the variant of SQL used by Microsoft SQL Server?
A) T-SQL
B) MySQL
C) PL/SQL
D) PostgreSQL
  • 60. What is the sequence of actions necessary to execute a query called?
A) Query plan
B) Data retrieval
C) Stored procedure
D) SQL dialect
  • 61. Which component is responsible for choosing the most efficient query plan?
A) Client application
B) Network interface
C) Database administrator
D) Query processor
  • 62. What is the process of choosing the query plan expected to yield the fastest results called?
A) Schema mapping
B) Data serialization
C) Query optimization
D) Index restructuring
  • 63. What is the primary reason for SQL Server sharing a dialect with Sybase SQL Server?
A) Industry standard compliance
B) Cloud compatibility
C) Performance benchmarks
D) Legacy
  • 64. What factor might lead the optimizer to avoid using an index?
A) Low selectivity
B) High system load
C) Large table size
D) Complex joins
  • 65. What is the full name of the procedural language extension for Microsoft SQL Server?
A) Transact-SQL
B) Template-SQL
C) Table-SQL
D) Transfer-SQL
  • 66. Which component is responsible for managing memory, threading, and resources for .NET in SQL Server?
A) CLR Host
B) Windows OS
C) SQLOS
D) ADO.NET
  • 67. How are management operations typically performed in T-SQL?
A) Via system-defined stored procedures
B) Via direct memory manipulation
C) Via GUI configuration files
D) Via external PowerShell scripts
  • 68. In SQL CLR, what language can be used to write stored procedures?
A) Native C++ only
B) T-SQL exclusively
C) Assembly code only
D) Any managed .NET language
  • 69. What is used to define custom types that can persist in a SQL Server database?
A) SQLOS assemblies
B) External XML schemas
C) Managed code (UDTs)
D) System stored procedures
  • 70. Which of the following is an example of an ADO.NET enhancement in SQL Server?
A) Direct hardware communication
B) Automatic memory garbage collection
C) Context connections
D) GUI development tools
  • 71. Which of the following is a typical system task performed by SQL Server Agent?
A) Modifying Windows registry keys
B) Writing SQL code documentation
C) Scheduling maintenance plans
D) Installing third-party software
  • 72. Which of these is a log shipping sub-task performed by SQL Server Agent?
A) Backup, copy, restore & check
B) Graphics rendering
C) User password recovery
D) Table deletion and indexing
  • 73. Which of the following is a proprietary package included with SQL Server Machine Learning services?
A) revoscalepy
B) numpy
C) scikit-learn
D) pandas
  • 74. What defines the data format of a message in Service Broker?
A) Message type
B) Contract
C) Queue
D) Route
  • 75. What entity defines which messages are used in a conversation and who can access the queue?
A) Route
B) Service program
C) Message type
D) Contract
  • 76. How are Service Broker queues implemented internally by SQL Server?
A) As virtual memory buffers
B) As flat text files
C) As encrypted objects
D) As tables
  • 77. Which operation is NOT supported on Service Broker queues?
A) Receiving
B) Insert
C) Processing
D) Storage
  • 78. What represent the network addresses where a service broker is located?
A) Contracts
B) Message types
C) Routes
D) Queues
  • 79. Which security feature is supported by Service Broker?
A) Physical firewall control
B) Biometric authentication
C) Message encryption
D) Password recovery
  • 80. Which model does SQL Server Replication Services follow?
A) Publisher/subscriber model
B) Client/server model
C) Peer-to-peer model
D) Master/slave model
  • 81. Which type of replication synchronizes databases in near real time?
A) Distributed replication
B) Merge replication
C) Transactional replication
D) Snapshot replication
  • 82. What is required on a column if merge replication is configured?
A) Foreign key
B) Primary key
C) Index
D) Rowguid
  • 83. Which replication type replicates a copy of the database and does not track further changes?
A) Bi-directional replication
B) Snapshot replication
C) Merge replication
D) Transactional replication
  • 84. What type of synchronization does Merge replication provide?
A) Real-time only
B) Manual only
C) Bi-directional
D) Unidirectional
  • 85. What is the underlying communication protocol for Analysis Services?
A) REST
B) XML for Analysis
C) SOAP
D) SQL/RPC
  • 86. Which query language is used for data mining functionality in SSAS?
A) LINQ
B) MDX
C) T-SQL
D) DMX
  • 87. Which of these is a supported data mining algorithm in Analysis Services?
A) Hash join
B) B-Tree indexing
C) Merge sort
D) Naive Bayes
  • 88. Which of these algorithms is included for data mining in Analysis Services?
A) Dijkstra's algorithm
B) QuickSort
C) Neural networks
D) A* search
  • 89. What is the primary function of SSRS?
A) Database administration
B) Data warehousing
C) Full-text indexing
D) Report generation
  • 90. In what format are SSRS reports created?
A) XML files
B) SQL files
C) PDF files
D) RDL files
  • 91. Which tool can be used to design SSRS reports?
A) Filter Daemon
B) SQL Server Management Studio
C) Report Builder
D) Data Transformation Services
  • 92. Which of these is NOT a supported rendering format for SSRS reports?
A) PDF
B) DOCX
C) JPEG
D) CSV
  • 93. Which is NOT a method used by Notification Services to send messages?
A) SMTP
B) HTTP POST
C) Writing to a filesystem file
D) SOAP
  • 94. When was Notification Services discontinued by Microsoft?
A) August 2008
B) January 2005
C) December 2000
D) March 2010
  • 95. What is the main purpose of SSIS?
A) Notification management
B) ETL capabilities
C) Full-text searching
D) Web report interface
  • 96. What is the maximum rank value in Full Text Search?
A) 1000
B) 500
C) 100
D) 255
  • 97. What is the name of the Filter Daemon process?
A) sqlservr.exe
B) ssis.exe
C) msftefd.exe
D) msftesql.exe
  • 98. What is the name of the Search process?
A) msftesql.exe
B) msftefd.exe
C) sqlindexer.exe
D) gatherer.exe
  • 99. What component monitors changes to tables and invokes the indexer?
A) Filter Daemon
B) Gatherer
C) Query Processor
D) Thesaurus
  • 100. What are commonly occurring, non-useful words filtered out by the indexer called?
A) Excluded tokens
B) Noise words
C) Stop tags
D) Empty fragments
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