- 1. What organelles do merozoites use to invade erythrocytes?
A) Flagella, cilia, and pseudopods
B) Cell wall, capsule, and pili
C) Nucleus, mitochondria, and ribosomes
D) Apical complex, pellicle, and surface coat
- 2. What is the first step in the merozoite's interaction with the erythrocyte?
A) Digestion of the erythrocyte membrane
B) Random binding to the erythrocyte
C) Formation of knobs on the surface
D) Immediate fusion with the membrane
- 3. What structure does the parasite form to facilitate development inside the erythrocyte?
A) Parasitophorous vacuole
B) Pellicle
C) Apical complex
D) Haemozoin crystal
- 4. What human factor influences the synchronous development of the parasites?
A) Blood pressure
B) Circadian rhythm
C) Insulin levels
D) Body temperature
- 5. What is the primary food source for the parasite during the blood stage?
A) Haemoglobin
B) Cell surface proteins
C) Plasma glucose
D) White blood cells
- 6. Which of these is a clinical symptom of malaria occurring during the blood stage?
A) Enhanced immune response
B) Increased clotting
C) Anemia
D) Hyperglycemia
- 7. What structural change occurs on the erythrocyte membrane due to the parasite?
A) Development of flagella
B) Formation of a thick capsule
C) Formation of knobs
D) Increased elasticity
- 8. Where are infected erythrocytes often sequestered?
A) Eyes, ears, and throat
B) Lungs, kidneys, and skin
C) Heart, liver, and brain
D) Stomach, intestines, and bone marrow
- 9. What causes the sequestration of infected erythrocytes?
A) Parasite-derived cell surface proteins
B) Increased hemoglobin density
C) Human antibodies
D) The size of the erythrocyte
- 10. What is the clinical term for malaria sequestered in the brain?
A) Cardiac malaria
B) Hepatic malaria
C) Cerebral malaria
D) Systemic malaria
- 11. What happens to the apical complex and surface coat after the parasite invades the erythrocyte?
A) They are lost
B) They multiply rapidly
C) They become part of the nucleus
D) They turn into haemozoin
- 12. What is the round form of the parasite found within the parasitophorous vacuole called?
A) Trophozoite
B) β-hematin
C) Merozoite
D) Pellicle
- 13. What is the chemical byproduct of hemoglobin digestion by the trophozoite?
A) Amino acids
B) Haemozoin
C) Oxygen
D) Glucose
- 14. What is the process used to convert heme into insoluble crystals?
A) Biocrystallization
B) Oxidation
C) Fermentation
D) Photosynthesis
- 15. Why is the young trophozoite often called the 'ring' stage?
A) Because of its morphology on stained blood films
B) Because it consumes circular proteins
C) Because it circles the nucleus of the cell
D) Because it resides in a ring-shaped vacuole
- 16. In what year was the Malaria Genome Project established?
A) 1996
B) 1998
C) 1995
D) 2002
- 17. When was the entire P. falciparum genome reported?
A) 3 October 2002
B) 1 October 1995
C) 3 October 1999
D) 5 October 2005
- 18. Approximately what percentage of the P. falciparum genome is AT-rich?
A) 24%
B) 80%
C) 90%
D) 50%
- 19. How many chromosomes make up the P. falciparum genome?
A) 14
B) 149
C) 59
D) 24
- 20. How many genes were described in the P. falciparum genome?
A) Just over 5,300
B) Approximately 1,000
C) Roughly 24,000
D) Exactly 10,000
- 21. Where are many genes involved in antigenic variation located?
A) The mitochondria
B) Central chromosomal regions
C) The apicoplast
D) Subtelomeric regions
- 22. Which of the following is an antigenic variation gene family in P. falciparum?
A) myosin
B) schizont
C) actin
D) var
- 23. How many var genes exist in the P. falciparum genome?
A) 5,300
B) 149
C) 59
D) 28
- 24. How many rif genes are found in the P. falciparum genome?
A) 28
B) 530
C) 149
D) 59
- 25. What percentage of nuclear-encoded proteins are estimated to be targeted to the apicoplast?
A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 4.7%
D) 80%
- 26. What percentage of the P. falciparum proteome is targeted to the mitochondria?
A) 1.5%
B) 24%
C) 4.7%
D) 10%
- 27. What is the definitive host of P. falciparum?
A) Humans
B) Male anopheline mosquitoes
C) Female anopheline mosquitoes
D) Birds
- 28. How many Anopheles mosquito species transmit falciparum malaria?
A) More than 70
B) Fewer than 10
C) Exactly 460
D) About 20
- 29. What is the infective stage of P. falciparum released from the mosquito?
A) Trophozoite
B) Schizont
C) Merozoite
D) Sporozoite
- 30. Approximately how many sporozoites are contained in an infected mosquito bite?
A) 20–200
B) 1–10
C) 1,000–5,000
D) 90,000
- 31. Into which human cells do sporozoites invade?
A) White blood cells
B) Red blood cells
C) Hepatocytes
D) Muscle cells
- 32. What is the syncytial cell produced during liver stage schizogony called?
A) Merosome
B) Trophozoite
C) Schizont
D) Sporozoite
- 33. How many rounds of mitosis occur during the liver stage?
A) 1–2
B) 13–14
C) 5–6
D) 20–30
- 34. What is the maximum number of merozoites the liver stage can produce?
A) 149
B) 5,300
C) 200
D) 90,000
- 35. What are the parasite-filled vesicles that release merozoites into the bloodstream called?
A) Merosomes
B) Apicoplasts
C) Schizonts
D) Trophozoites
- 36. P. falciparum is believed to have evolved from species within which subgenus?
A) Haemosporidia
B) Laverania
C) Plasmodiidae
D) Apicomplexa
- 37. Which animal is the primary host of P. praefalciparum?
A) Mosquitoes
B) Gorillas
C) Chimpanzees
D) Birds
- 38. Which parasite was previously thought to be the closest relative of P. falciparum?
A) P. reichenowi
B) P. vivax
C) P. ovale
D) P. malariae
- 39. What historical development is associated with the expansion of P. falciparum?
A) The rise of maritime trade
B) The domestication of cats
C) The industrial revolution
D) The agricultural revolution
- 40. What is the shape of a P. falciparum sporozoite?
A) Spindle-shaped
B) Ovoid
C) Ring-shaped
D) Crescent-shaped
- 41. What is the characteristic shape of P. falciparum gametocytes?
A) Crescent-shaped
B) Rod-shaped
C) Spiral
D) Spherical
- 42. Which structures are found on the erythrocyte surface as comma-shaped red dots?
A) Apicoplasts
B) Rhoptries
C) Maurer's clefts
D) Micronemes
- 43. What type of organism is Plasmodium falciparum?
A) Viral pathogen
B) Multicellular bacterium
C) Unicellular protozoan parasite
D) Fungal infection
- 44. Plasmodium falciparum is classified as which type of carcinogen?
A) Group 2A (probable) carcinogen
B) Non-carcinogenic
C) Group 1 (confirmed) carcinogen
D) Group 3 (not classifiable) carcinogen
- 45. Who was the first person to identify the malaria parasite in 1880?
A) William H. Welch
B) Giovanni Battista Grassi
C) Alphonse Laveran
D) Ronald Ross
- 46. What was the original scientific name given to the parasite by Alphonse Laveran?
A) Plasmodium falciparum
B) Bacillus malariae
C) Oscillaria malariae
D) Haemamoeba vivax
- 47. Who discovered the transmission of malaria by mosquitoes in 1897?
A) Camillo Golgi
B) Patrick Manson
C) William H. Welch
D) Ronald Ross
- 48. What is the human-infective stage of the parasite found in mosquito salivary glands?
A) Merozoites
B) Trophozoites
C) Ookinete
D) Sporozoites
- 49. Which cells do merozoites invade to form trophozoites and schizonts?
A) Erythrocytes
B) Liver cells
C) Platelets
D) Leukocytes
- 50. Which region accounts for approximately 95% of malaria cases and deaths?
A) The Americas
B) Western Pacific Region
C) Southeast Asia Region
D) WHO African Region
- 51. What percentage of malaria deaths in the WHO African Region occur in children under five?
A) Approximately 25%
B) Approximately 50%
C) Approximately 75%
D) Approximately 95%
- 52. What does the Latin word 'falx', used in the naming of P. falciparum, mean?
A) Sickle
B) Form
C) Fever
D) Blood
- 53. Who created the name 'Plasmodium falciparum' in 1897?
A) Giovanni Battista Grassi
B) William H. Welch
C) Ronald Ross
D) Alphonse Laveran
- 54. Which scientist confirmed Laveran's discovery of the parasite using improved microscopy?
A) Camillo Golgi
B) Theodor Albrecht Edwin Klebs
C) Ettore Marchiafava
D) Angelo Celli
- 55. In what year was the binomial 'Plasmodium falciparum' formally adopted by the ICZN?
A) 1880
B) 1954
C) 1897
D) 1907
- 56. What was the name of the bacterium that leading physicians mistakenly claimed caused malaria?
A) Plasmodium relictum
B) Oscillaria malariae
C) Bacillus malariae
D) Anopheles claviger
- 57. How many merozoites are typically formed by each P. falciparum schizont?
A) 8-10
B) 2-4
C) 30-40
D) 16-18
- 58. What is the duration of one complete erythrocytic schizogony cycle?
A) 12 hours
B) 24 hours
C) 48 hours
D) 72 hours
- 59. How long does a free merozoite typically exist in the bloodstream before entering an erythrocyte?
A) 60 seconds
B) 30 seconds
C) 10 minutes
D) 5 minutes
- 60. What is the process of gamete formation called?
A) Exflagellation
B) Gametocytogenesis
C) Schizogony
D) Sporozoite formation
- 61. Where do P. falciparum gametocytes sequester until reaching maturity?
A) Liver
B) Salivary glands
C) Spleen
D) Bone marrow
- 62. What is the average incubation period for P. falciparum?
A) 5 days
B) 11 days
C) 40 days
D) 20 days
- 63. When can parasites first be detected in blood samples after infection?
A) 2nd day
B) 10th day
C) 30th day
D) 15th day
- 64. How many microgametes are produced during the process of exflagellation?
A) Twelve
B) Four
C) Two
D) Eight
- 65. What is the motile cell that traverses the mosquito midgut epithelium called?
A) Ookinete
B) Schizont
C) Sporozoite
D) Zygote
- 66. What compound is mentioned as a plant secondary metabolite that affects malaria transmission?
A) Caffeine
B) Ricinine
C) Nicotine
D) Quinine
- 67. What structure is formed after the ookinete settles in the basal lamina of the mosquito?
A) Sporoblast
B) Oocyst
C) Zygote
D) Merozoite
- 68. What is the primary source of energy and nutrients for mosquitoes?
A) Water
B) Blood meal
C) Tissue fluid
D) Plant nectar
- 69. What is the ploidy of Plasmodium falciparum during its reproductive stages in human blood and liver?
A) Tetraploid
B) Haploid
C) Triploid
D) Diploid
- 70. What is the only diploid stage in the life cycle of Plasmodium falciparum?
A) Zygote
B) Ookinete
C) Sporozoite
D) Merozoite
- 71. How many meiotic divisions do ookinetes undergo to release haploid sporozoites?
A) Three
B) Four
C) One
D) Two
- 72. Where do sporozoites migrate after being formed in the mosquito?
A) Ovaries
B) Heart
C) Midgut
D) Salivary glands
- 73. Which cells in the human skin are activated by sporozoites within the lymphatic system?
A) Platelets
B) Dendritic cells
C) Erythrocytes
D) Hepatocytes
- 74. Which immune cells are primarily responsible for the destruction of sporozoites in the lymph nodes?
A) B cells
B) CD8+ T cells
C) Natural killer cells
D) Basophils
- 75. What molecule do sporozoites use to specifically activate mast cells?
A) Lipid
B) Glycoprotein
C) DNA
D) Haemozoin
- 76. What protein on the sporozoite allows CD8+ T cells to bind to it in the liver?
A) Circumsporozoite protein (CSP)
B) Apical membrane antigen 1
C) Merozoite surface protein 1
D) Myosin A tail domain interacting protein
- 77. Which protein aids sporozoites in binding to and entering hepatocytes?
A) MSP1
B) MCP1
C) AMA1
D) TRAP
- 78. What is the most important protein displayed on the erythrocyte membrane that acts as both an antigen and an adhesion molecule?
A) MCP1
B) TRAP
C) AMA1
D) PfEMP1
- 79. What is the technical term for the fever cycle in malaria?
A) Sequestration
B) Malaise
C) Paroxysm
D) Recrudescence
- 80. What process involves clustering of infected RBCs to blood vessel walls?
A) Phagocytosis
B) Recrudescence
C) Sequestration
D) Sporogony
- 81. What is the term for the reappearance of falciparum symptoms after successful medication?
A) Sequestration
B) Recrudescence
C) Paroxysm
D) Relapse
- 82. How many countries is P. falciparum endemic in?
A) 84
B) 102
C) 70
D) 95
- 83. In what year did the WHO declare Italy free of malaria?
A) 1980
B) 1965
C) 1947
D) 1970
- 84. What percentage of malaria deaths occur in Africa?
A) 27%
B) 67%
C) 80%
D) 95%
- 85. What percentage of malaria deaths occur in children under five years of age?
A) 67%
B) 50%
C) 95%
D) 80%
- 86. Which country has the highest global incidence of malaria?
A) Nigeria
B) India
C) Peru
D) Italy
- 87. Which country has the highest incidence of malaria outside of Africa?
A) China
B) Ecuador
C) Vietnam
D) India
- 88. Who first employed a tincture of cinchona bark for treating malaria in 1640?
A) R.B. Woodward
B) Morton
C) Huan del Vego
D) John Metford
- 89. In what year did Woodward and Doering achieve the total synthesis of quinine?
A) 1933
B) 1944
C) 1965
D) 1820
- 90. Which drug was developed in 1933 and used widely in World War II?
A) Artemisinin
B) Atabrine
C) Quinine
D) Chloroquine
- 91. Who discovered artemisinin from sweet wormwood in the 1970s?
A) Pelletier
B) Tu Youyou
C) Caventou
D) Woodward
- 92. Which chemical was used in an anti-mosquito campaign by the US government starting in 1947?
A) DDT
B) Artemisinin
C) Chloroquine
D) Quinine
- 93. What award did Tu Youyou receive in 2015?
A) World Health Award
B) Medicinal Discovery Prize
C) Nobel Prize in Chemistry
D) Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine
- 94. According to 2010 WHO guidelines, what is the first-line treatment for uncomplicated P. falciparum malaria?
A) Tetracycline monotherapy
B) Artemisinin-based combination therapies (ACTs)
C) Chloroquine monotherapy
D) Quinine monotherapy
- 95. Which combination is recommended for uncomplicated P. falciparum malaria?
A) Artemisinin monotherapy
B) Artemether/lumefantrine
C) Quinine/chloroquine
D) Doxycycline/clindamycin
- 96. Which drug is used in combination with quinine for second-line treatment?
A) Doxycycline
B) Primaquine
C) Artemisinin
D) Chloroquine
- 97. What is the first-line treatment for pregnant women in the first trimester?
A) Artesunate/mefloquine
B) Artemether/lumefantrine
C) Quinine plus clindamycin
D) Atovaquone/proguanil
- 98. What is indicated if first-line treatment fails in pregnant women?
A) Artesunate plus clindamycin
B) Doxycycline monotherapy
C) Artemether/lumefantrine
D) Quinine monotherapy
- 99. Which combination is recommended for travellers returning to nonendemic countries?
A) Clindamycin/artemether
B) Atovaquone/proguanil
C) Artesunate/sulfadoxine
D) Quinine/mefloquine
- 100. Which of the following is a recommended second-line treatment?
A) Artemether monotherapy
B) Artesunate plus tetracycline
C) Sulfadoxine monotherapy
D) Lumefantrine monotherapy
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